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  • asp.net mvc ajax helper/post additional data w/o jquery.

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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  • Alternative way of implementation of a code

    - by vikramjb
    The title is not exactly meaningful, but I am not share what else to name it. I wrote a TOC Generation code sometime later. Based on this I was writing code to check for duplicates also. The code is as follows curNumber = getTOCReference(selItem.SNo, IsParent); CheckForDuplicates(curNumber, IsParent,out realTOCRef); curNumber = realTOCRef; And the code for CheckForDuplicates is ListViewItem curItem = this.tlvItems.FindItemWithText(curNumber); if (curItem != null) { curNumber = this.getTOCReference(curNumber, !IsParent); CheckForDuplicates(curNumber, IsParent,out realTOCRef); } else { realTOCRef= curNumber; } What this code does, it gets a TOC and tries it find if it already exists in the ObjectListView and gets a new TOC if there is a existing TOC. Once it determines that the generated TOC is not there in the list it stores it in realTOCRef and sends it back to the main calling code. I have used "out" to return the last generated TOC, which is something I did not want to do. The reason why I did it was after the non duplicate TOC was generated the return was not going back to the calling code instead it looped through the previous instances then it returned back. When the looping back happened the TOC that was to be returned also got reset. I would appreciate any help on this.

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  • Internet zone is opened when broswer is opened from installer created by .Net 3.5sp1

    - by priya
    Hi All, I have project created in VS2005 and .Net 2.0. The installation is a web-based installation. After installing the proe-requisites the installer opens up the browser to continue with web-based install. On this, it opens up in intranet zone and works perfectly. I recently migrated the project to VS2008 Sp1 and .Net 3.5sp1. No change in my code and the test environment. Here the browser gets opened up in the Internet zone which prevents it from moving forward, until unless I open up a new browser manually and copy paste the url. The internet security options on the both the case are - Internet --- High. For the case2, if i have the security internet option to be 'Medium', it works well. I am not sure why this issue comes up when I change the VS and .Net version. More over the browser gets opened with system priveleges rather than administrator privileges. Please let me know any solution on this. Thanks, Priya.R

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  • Managing inverse relationships without CoreData

    - by Nathaniel Martin
    This is a question for Objective-J/Cappuccino, but I added the cocoa tag since the frameworks are so similar. One of the downsides of Cappuccino is that CoreData hasn't been ported over yet, so you have to make all your model objects manually. In CoreData, your inverse relationships get managed automatically for you... if you add an object to a to-many relationship in another object, you can traverse the graph in both directions. Without CoreData, is there any clean way to setup those inverse relationships automatically? For a more concrete example, let's take the typical Department and Employees example. To use rails terminology, a Department object has-many Employees, and an Employee belongs-to a Department. So our Department model has an NSMutableSet (or CPMutableSet ) "employees" that contains a set of Employees, and our Employee model has a variable "department" that points back to the Department model that owns it. Is there an easy way to make it so that, when I add a new Employee model into the set, the inverse relationship (employee.department) automatically gets set? Or the reverse: If I set the department model of an employee, then it automatically gets added to that department's employee set? Right know I'm making an object, "ValidatedModel" that all my models subclass, which adds a few methods that setup the inverse relationships, using KVO. But I'm afraid that I'm doing a lot of pointless work, and that there's already an easier way to do this. Can someone put my concerns to rest?

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  • What scenarios are possible where the VS C# compiler would not compile a reference of a reference?

    - by SuperKing
    Hello, I'm probably asking this question wrong (and that may be why Google isn't helping), but here goes: In Visual Studio I am compiling a C# project (let's call it Project A, the startup project) which has a reference to Project B. Project B has a reference to a Project C, so when A gets built, the dlls for B gets placed in the bin directory of A, as does the dll for C (because B requires C, and A requires B). However, I have apparently made some change recently so that the dll for Project C does not go into the bin directory of Project A when rebuilding the solution. I have no idea what I've done to make this happen. I have not modified the setup of the solution itself, and I have only added additional references to the project files. Code wise, I have commented out most of the actual code in Project B that references classes in Project C, but did not remove the reference from the project itself (I don't think this matters). I was told that perhaps the C# compiler was optimizing somehow so that it was not building Project C, but really I'm out of ideas. I would think someone has run into something similar before Any thoughts? Thanks!

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  • process semaphores linux - wait

    - by coubeatczech
    Hi, I try to code a simple program that starts and waits on the system semaphore until it gets terminated by signal. union semun { int val; struct semid_ds *buf; unsigned short int *array; struct seminfo *__buf; }; int main(){ int semaphores = semget(IPC_PRIVATE,1,IPC_CREAT | 0666); union semun arg; arg.val = 0; semctl(semaphores,0,SETVAL,arg); struct sembuf operations[1]; operations[0].sem_num = 0; operations[0].sem_op = -1; operations[0].sem_flg = 0; semop(semaphores,operations,1); fprintf(stderr,"Why?\n"); return 0; } I expect, that everytime this program gets executed, nothing actually happens and it waits on the semaphore, but everytime it goes through the semaphore and writes Why?. Why?

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  • Iphone SDK quesiton: How to make a Drawing method in a View class work using CGContextRef?

    - by SimpleCode
    I have these 2 methods in the View class. the drawRect method always gets called when the view is initalized. But i can't get the drawLine method to work. It doesn't do anything when it gets called. Am i supposed to deal with cgimagecontext or something like that? please help!! (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { // Drawing code // Drawing code CGContextRef contextRef = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); //CGContextSetRGBFillColor(contextRef, 0, 0, 255, 1); CGContextSetRGBStrokeColor(contextRef, 0, 0, 0, 1); CGContextSetLineWidth(contextRef, 5.0); CGContextBeginPath(contextRef); CGContextMoveToPoint(contextRef, 0, 0); CGContextAddLineToPoint(contextRef, 320, 480); CGContextStrokePath(contextRef); } -(void)drawLine:(CGPoint)from to:(CGPoint) to { // Drawing code CGContextRef contextRef = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); //CGContextSetRGBFillColor(contextRef, 0, 0, 255, 1); CGContextSetRGBStrokeColor(contextRef, 0, 128, 0, 1); CGContextSetLineWidth(contextRef, 5.0); CGContextBeginPath(contextRef); CGContextMoveToPoint(contextRef, 0, 0); CGContextAddLineToPoint(contextRef, 320, 50); CGContextStrokePath(contextRef); }

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  • atol(), atof(), atoi() function behaviours, is there a stable way to convert from/to string/integer

    - by Berkay
    In these days i'm playing with the C functions of atol(), atof() and atoi(), from a blog post i find a tutorial and applied: here are my results: void main() char a[10],b[10]; puts("Enter the value of a"); gets(a); puts("Enter the value of b"); gets(b); printf("%s+%s=%ld and %s-%s=%ld",a,b,(atol(a)+atol(b)),a,b,(atol(a)-atol(b))); getch(); } there is atof() which returns the float value of the string and atoi() which returns integer value. now to see the difference between the 3 i checked this code: main() { char a[]={"2545.965"}; printf("atol=%ld\t atof=%f\t atoi=%d\t\n",atol(a),atof(a),atoi(a)); } the output will be atol=2545 atof=2545.965000 atoi=2545 char a[]={“heyyou”}; now when you run the program the following will be the output (why?, is there any solution to convert pure strings to integer?) atol=0 atof=0 atoi=0 the string should contain numeric value now modify this program as char a[]={“007hey”}; the output in this case(tested in Red hat) will be atol=7 atof=7.000000 atoi=7 so the functions has taken 007 only not the remaining part (why?) Now consider this char a[]={“hey007?}; the output of the program will be atol=0 atof=0.000000 atoi=0 So i just want to convert my strings to number and then again to same text, i played with these functions and as you see i'm getting really interesting results? why is that? any other functions to convert from/to string/integer and vice versa?

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  • Running mysql query using node blocks the whole process and then timesout

    - by lobengula3rd
    I have a node javascript that uses mysql npm (Felix). I have a procedure stored in my DB which I call when the user selects an option to kind of create its own instance of the program. The user chooses for how long he wants that data to be initialized for him. This is suppsoed to be between 1 and 2 years. So if he choose 1 year this query will insert around 20,000 rows into 1 table. If I run this query and a local DB this takes around 30 seconds (I suppose it is reasonable because its a big query which should be done only once in 1 or 2 years so its ok). For some reason my node script freezes as if it can't handle any more calls from other users. The even worse problem is that after like 2 minutes my client ui gets like an error from the server. At this point not all the data that was supposed to enter the DB is entered. After waiting like another minute all the data finally gets to the DB and only then it will accept new requests. This is my connection: this.connection = mysql.createConnection({ host : '********rds.amazonaws.com', user : 'admin', password : '******', database : '*****' }); and this is my query function: this.createCourts = function (req, res, next){ connection.query('CALL filldates("' + req.body['startDate'] + '","' + req.body['endDate'] + '","' + req.body['numOfCourts'] + '","' + req.body['duration'] + '","' + req.body['sundayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['mondayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['tuesdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['wednesdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['thursdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['fridayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['saturdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['sundayClose'] + '","' + req.body['mondayClose'] + '","' + req.body['tuesdayClose'] + '","' + req.body['wednesdayClose'] + '","' + req.body['thursdayClose'] + '","' + req.body['fridayClose'] + '","' + req.body['saturdayClose'] + '");', function(err){ if (err){ console.log(err); } else return res.send(200); }); }; what am i missing here? as i understand connection.query should by async so why is it actually blocking my node script? thanks.

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  • Ruby on Rails Associations

    - by Eef
    Hey all, I am starting to create my sites in Ruby on Rails these days instead of PHP. I have picked up the language easily but still not 100% confident with associations :) I have this situation: User Model has_and_belongs_to_many :roles Roles Model has_and_belongs_to_many :users Journal Model has_and_belongs_to_many :roles So I have a roles_users table and a journals_roles table I can access the user roles like so: user = User.find(1) User.roles This gives me the roles assigned to the user, I can then access the journal model like so: journals = user.roles.first.journals This gets me the journals associated with the user based on the roles. I want to be able to access the journals like so user.journals In my user model I have tried this: def journals self.roles.collect { |role| role.journals }.flatten end This gets me the journals in a flatten array but unfortunately I am unable to access anything associated with journals in this case, e.g in the journals model it has: has_many :items When I try to access user.journals.items it does not work as it is a flatten array which I am trying to access the has_many association. Is it possible to get the user.journals another way other than the way I have shown above with the collect method? Hope you guys understand what I mean, if not let me know and ill try to explain it better. Cheers Eef

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  • Change an Image while using JCrop

    - by Bathan
    Hi guys! Im working on a new feature in my site and I got stucked really bad. Im using JCrop obviously to crop an Image on my website. The new feature that I've been asked to Implement is to allow the user to change the colors of the Image being cropped. I have now 3 images , Color, GrayScale and Sepia. I can change the source of the image tag using javascript so the image gets changed without reload but I cannot do this once the JCrop has been enabled because it replaces the original Image for a new one. I thought I could disable JCrop, Replace the Image and then Re-Enable, but i couldnt do such thing. The example I found where the JCrop gets destroyed (example5 in Demo zip) uses an object : jcrop_api = $.Jcrop('#cropbox'); But Im enabling JCrop in a different manner,more like Example 3 : jQuery('#cropbox').Jcrop({ onChange: showPreview, onSelect: showPreview, aspectRatio: 1 }); How can I destroy JCrop so I can replace te Image? Is there another way to do this? Please help! I Could easily reload the page each time the user changes de color of the image but we all know that's not cool. Any comments will be apreciated. Thanks

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  • c# multi inheritance

    - by user326839
    So ive got a base class which requires a Socket: class Sock { public Socket s; public Sock(Socket s) { this.s = s; } public virtual void Process(byte[] data) { } ... } then ive got another class. if a new socket gets accepted a new instance of this class will be created: class Game : Sock { public Random Random = new Random(); public Timerr Timers; public Test Test; public Game(Socket s) : base(s) { } public static void ReceiveNewSocket(object s) { Game Client = new Game((Socket)s); Client.Start(); } public override void Process(byte[] buf) { Timers = new Timerr(s); Test = new Test(s); Test.T(); } } in the Sock class ive got a virtual function that gets overwritten by the Game class.(Process function) in this function im calling a function from the Test Class(Test+ Timerr Class: class Test : Game { public Test(Socket s) : base(s) { } public void T() { Console.WriteLine(Random.Next(0, 10)); Timers.Start(); } } class Timerr : Game { public Timerr(Socket s) : base(s) { } public void Start() { Console.WriteLine("test"); } } ) So in the Process function im calling a function in Test. And in this function(T) i need to call a function from the Timerr Class.But the problem is its always NULL , although the constructor is called in Process. And e.g. the Random Class can be called, i guess its because its defined with the constructor.: public Random Random = new Random(); and thats why the other classes(without a constructor): public Timerr Timers; public Test Test; are always null in the inherited class Test.But its essentiel that i call other Methods of other classes in this function.How could i solve that?

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  • How can I use a single-table inheritance and single controller to make this more DRY?

    - by Angela
    I have three models, Calls, Emails, and Letters and those are basically templates of what gets sent to individuals, modeled as Contacts. When a Call is made, a row in model in ContactCalls gets created. If an Email is sent, an entry in ContactEmails is made. Each has its own controller: contact_calls_controller.rb and contact_emails_controller.rb. I would like to create a single table inheritance called ContactEvents which has types Calls, Emails, and Letters. But I'm not clear how I pass the type information or how to consolidate the controllers. Here's the two controllers I have, as you can see, there's alot of duplication, but some differences that needs to be preserved. In the case of letter and postcards (another Model), it's even more so. class ContactEmailsController < ApplicationController def new @contact_email = ContactEmail.new @contact_email.contact_id = params[:contact] @contact_email.email_id = params[:email] @contact = Contact.find(params[:contact]) @company = Company.find(@contact.company_id) contacts = @company.contacts.collect(&:full_name) contacts.each do |contact| @colleagues = contacts.reject{ |c| [email protected]_name } end @email = Email.find(@contact_email.email_id) @contact_email.subject = @email.subject @contact_email.body = @email.message @email.message.gsub!("{FirstName}", @contact.first_name) @email.message.gsub!("{Company}", @contact.company_name) @email.message.gsub!("{Colleagues}", @colleagues.to_sentence) @email.message.gsub!("{NextWeek}", (Date.today + 7.days).strftime("%A, %B %d")) @contact_email.status = "sent" end def create @contact_email = ContactEmail.new(params[:contact_email]) @contact = Contact.find_by_id(@contact_email.contact_id) @email = Email.find_by_id(@contact_email.email_id) if @contact_email.save flash[:notice] = "Successfully created contact email." # send email using class in outbound_mailer.rb OutboundMailer.deliver_campaign_email(@contact,@contact_email) redirect_to todo_url else render :action => 'new' end end AND: class ContactCallsController < ApplicationController def new @contact_call = ContactCall.new @contact_call.contact_id = params[:contact] @contact_call.call_id = params[:call] @contact_call.status = params[:status] @contact = Contact.find(params[:contact]) @company = Company.find(@contact.company_id) @contact = Contact.find(@contact_call.contact_id) @call = Call.find(@contact_call.call_id) @contact_call.title = @call.title contacts = @company.contacts.collect(&:full_name) contacts.each do |contact| @colleagues = contacts.reject{ |c| [email protected]_name } end @contact_call.script = @call.script @call.script.gsub!("{FirstName}", @contact.first_name) @call.script.gsub!("{Company}", @contact.company_name ) @call.script.gsub!("{Colleagues}", @colleagues.to_sentence) end def create @contact_call = ContactCall.new(params[:contact_call]) if @contact_call.save flash[:notice] = "Successfully created contact call." redirect_to contact_path(@contact_call.contact_id) else render :action => 'new' end end

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  • SQL Server 2008 spatial index and CPU utilization with MapGuide Open Source 2.1

    - by Antonio de la Peña
    I have a SQL Server table with hundreds of thousands of geometry type parcels. I have made indexes on them trying different combinations of density and objects per cell settings. So far I'm settiling for LOW, LOW, MEDIUM, MEDIUM and 16 objects per cell and I made a SP that sets the bounding box according to the extents of the entities in the table. There is an incredible performance boost from queries taking almost minutes without index to less than seconds, it gets faster when the zoom is closer thus less objects are displayed. Yet the CPU utilization gets to 100% when querying for features, even when the queries themselves are fast. I'm worrying this will not fly in a production environment. I am using MapGuide Open Source 2.1 for this project, but I am positive the CPU load is caused by SQL Server. I wonder if my indexes are set properly. I haven't found any clear documentation on how to properly set them up. Every article I've read basically says "it depends..." but nothing specific. Do you have any recommendations for me, including books, articles? Thank you.

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  • NSTableView selection & highlights

    - by Christian
    I have a NSTableView as a very central part of my Application and want it to integrate more with the rest of it. It has only one column (it's a list) and I draw all Cells (normal NSTextFieldCells) myself. The first problem is the highlighting. I draw the highlight myself and want to get rid of the blue background. I now fill the whole cell with the original background color to hide the blue background, but this looks bad when dragging the cell around. I tried overriding highlight:withFrame:inView: and highlightColorWithFrame:inView: of NSCell but nothing happened. How can I disable automatic highlighting? I also want all rows/cells to be deselected when I click somewhere outside my NSTableView. Since the background / highlight of the selected cell turns gray there must be an event for this, but I can't find it. I let my cells expand on a double click and may need to undo this. So getting rid of the gray highlight is not enough. EDIT: I add a subview to the NSTableView when a cell gets double clicked and then resignFirstResponder of the NSTableView gets called. I tried this: - (BOOL)resignFirstResponder { if (![[self subviews] containsObject:[[self window] firstResponder]]) { [self deselectAll:self]; ... } return YES; } Besides that it's not working I would need to implement this method for all objects in the view hierarchy. Is there an other solution to find out when the first responder leaves a certain view hierarchy?

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  • regular expression for emails NOT ending with replace script

    - by corroded
    I'm currently modifying my regex for this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2782031/extracting-email-addresses-in-an-html-block-in-ruby-rails basically, im making another obfuscator that uses ROT13 by parsing a block of text for all links that contain a mailto referrer(using hpricot). One use case this doesn't catch is that if the user just typed in an email address(without turning it into a link via tinymce) So here's the basic flow of my method: 1. parse a block of text for all tags with href="mailto:..." 2. replace each tag with a javascript function that changes this into ROT13 (using this script: http://unixmonkey.net/?p=20) 3. once all links are obfuscated, pass the resulting block of text into another function that parses for all emails(this one has an email regex that reverses the email address and then adds a span to that email - to reverse it back) step 3 is supposed to clean the block of text for remaining emails that AREN'T in a href tags(meaning it wasn't parsed by hpricot). Problem with this is that the emails that were converted to ROT13 are still found by my regex. What i want to catch are just emails that WEREN'T CONVERTED to ROT13. How do i do this? well all emails the WERE CONVERTED have a trailing "'.replace" in them. meaning, i need to get all emails WITHOUT that string. so far i have this regex: /\b([A-Z0-9._%+-]+@[A-Z0-9.-]+.[A-Z]{2,4}('.replace))\b/i but this gets all the emails with the trailing '.replace i want to get the opposite and I'm currently stumped with this. any help from regex gurus out there? MORE INFO: Here's the regex + the block of text im parsing: http://www.rubular.com/r/NqXIHrNqjI as you can see, the first two 'email addresses' are already obfuscated using ROT13. I need a regex that gets the emails [email protected] and [email protected]

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  • How to seek to a specific time in a RTP stream?

    - by Cipi
    I am streaming a prerecorded H264 video that has the following structure: [I] [x] [x] [x] [I] [x] [x] [x] [I]... In between the IDR (I-s in my structure) I have 32 (only 3 presented here) other frames (all other stuff that is not IDR like SEI, SPS, PPS... X-es) Now, let assume that the timing of my frames is such: TIME: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 FRAME: [I] [x] [x] [x] [I] [x] [x] [x] [I]... Now i want to seek to the time 4. If I seek to that frame, and send it, the picture gets messed up because the decoder needs a IDR to decode it properly, so I resorted to finding the appropriate IDR (in this case one with the time 1) and sending it as the frame with the time 4. So now the picture is decoded properly, all is well... but... If my GOV is 32, and I need to send the non IDR frame that has the index 31, and if the time span between it and the corresponding IDR is 3 seconds, I actually get 3 seconds earlier then the time I want. Now, this is not precise, because I cannot seek to the half of the GOV time span. Also, I cant set smaller GOV, so I want other ideas... My other idea was to send the last known IDR, and then send all other non IDR frames that come before the one I want, only I would set for all of them RTP-TIME to be the same as the corresponding IDR. In this case the picture gets decoded perfectly, but now in the above case, 3 seconds that follow non IDR frame with the wanted time get fast paced in the decoder/player (there is no instantaneous seek)... Any ideas? Or I can only seek to IDR-s and not the frames in between?

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  • should i advocate migrating from access to (my)sql

    - by HotOil
    Hi: We have a windows MFC app that is written against an access database on a company server. The db is not that big: 19 MB. There are at most 2-3 users accessing it at any one time. It is used in a factory environment where access speed (or lack thereof) over the intranet becomes noticeable as it is part of the manufacturing time for our widgets. The scenario is this: as each widget is completed, it gets a record in the db.. by the end of the year, the db is larger and searching for a record takes longer and longer. The solution so far has been to manually move older records to an archival table about once a year. We are reworking other portions of this app right now, and it would be a good time to move to another db if we are going to do it. It is my understanding that if we were using sql, the search time would not go up as the table gets bigger because the entire .mdb does not have to be sent over the network each time. Is this correct? Does anyone have any insight about whether it could be worth it to go to the trouble (time and money) of migrating to a new db, or should I just add more functionality to the application we have now, and maybe automatically purge the older records from time to time, and add additional facilities to the app to get at the older records when needed? Thanks for any wisdom you can share..

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  • onDestroy() won't get called after this.finish()

    - by steff
    Hi everyone, I'm wondering why the Motorola Milestone with 2.1-update1 behaves differently from the Emulator or e.g. the Nexus One. I am trying to exit my app with: @Override protected void onPause() { if(mayDestroyActivity) this.finish(); super.onPause(); } This works well on either Emulator or Nexus One. onDestroy() gets called immediatly after onPause() and onStop. But not for the Milestone. Instead, onDestroy() gets called when another Activity is started. Its section in the Manifest looks like this: <activity android:name=".MyActivity" android:configChanges="orientation|keyboardHidden" android:label="@string/questionnaire_item" android:launchMode="singleInstance" android:theme="@android:style/Theme.NoTitleBar.Fullscreen" android:windowSoftInputMode="adjustPan"> <intent-filter> <category android:name="android.intent.category.OPENABLE" /> </intent-filter> </activity> Does anyone have a hint on this? My app depends on exiting properly since I save all progress in onDestroy() Thanks, Steff

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  • deleting entire xml node with datagrid

    - by DuranL
    Hello, I have the following xml structure: <systemtest> <test id="0"> <name>Test One</name> </test> <test id="1"> <name>Test Two</name> </test> </systemtest> The name gets displayed in the 1ste colum of the datagrid, where in the 2nd colum there is a buttoncolumn with delete button. How exactly can i use xpath and navigate to the current node lets say with test id="0" and delete it (including name)? Its unclear how i can say to this method what row he has to delete exactly. XmlDocument XMLDoc = new XmlDocument(); XMLDoc.Load(XMLFile); XPathNavigator nav = XMLDoc.CreateNavigator(); nav.SelectSingleNode("...."); //?? nav.DeleteSelf(); //will this do the trick? Also the id gets generated in a seperate class where the above method should be. Thanks in advance.

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  • Generate and download a text file in javascript

    - by Mark B
    All my research so far suggests this can't be done, but I'm hoping someone here has some cunning ideas. I have a form on a website which allows users to bulk upload lots of URLs to add to a list on the server. There's quite a lot of server-side processing to do on each URL, so to avoid timeouts and to display progress, I've implemented the upload using jQuery to submit the URLs one at a time using ajax. This is all working nicely. However, part of the processing on each URL is deduplicating it against the complete list. The ajax call returns a status indicating either a successful upload or a rejection due to duplication. As the upload progresses, I tell the user how many URLs have been rejected as duplicates (along with overall progress and ETA). The problem now is how to give the user a complete list of the failed duplicate URLs. I've kept them in an array in my jQuery, and would like the user to be able to click on a link on the form to download a text file containing those URLs. Is this possible just using client-side processing? The server-side processing basically handles a single keyword at a time. I'd rather not have to store the duplicates in a database table with some kind of session key which gets sent with every ajax call, and is then used at the end to generate the text file server-side (and then gets cleaned up some time later). I can see how to do this, but it seems very clunky and a bit 20th century.

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  • How can I stop a movie (from current frame) playing when I click on next frame - FLASH CS4?

    - by ladygeekgeek
    I have four movie clips (.f4v) in 4 frames in a movie with watch buttons.. This movie has them been imported into a main movie container that has next and previous buttons. However if i play a movie then hit next frame, the movie continues to play in the background. How can I shop this? The code below shows one of the actionscripts for a movie clip and then the main actionscript in the main movie. I am a flash newbie, so all help appreciated. Many thanks. stop(); watch1_btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, playMovie1); function playMovie1(event:MouseEvent):void { movie1_mc.play(); } // Button Listeners next_btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, nextSection); prev_btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, prevSection); function nextSection(event:MouseEvent):void { var thisLabel:String = pages_mc.currentLabel; // gets current frame label as string var thisLabelNum:String = thisLabel.replace("sct", ""); // cuts the leading letters off of the number var curNumber:Number = Number(thisLabelNum); // converts that string number to a real number if (curNumber < 5) { var nextNum:Number = curNumber + 1; // adds 1 to the number so we can go to next frame label pages_mc.gotoAndStop("sct" + nextNum); // This allows us to go to the next frame label } } /////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// function prevSection(event:MouseEvent):void { var thisLabel:String = pages_mc.currentLabel; // gets current frame label as string var thisLabelNum:String = thisLabel.replace("sct", ""); // cuts the leading letters off of the number var curNumber:Number = Number(thisLabelNum); // converts that string number to a real number var prevNum:Number = curNumber - 1; // subtracts 1 from the number so we can go to next frame label pages_mc.gotoAndStop("sct" + prevNum); // This allows us to go to the previous frame label }

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  • Spring security - same page to deliver different content based on user role

    - by Ramesh
    Hello, i tried to search for any previous post related to my issue but couldnt find any. I have a scenario where in page handles 3 different scenarios and one of them not working. This page returns different content depending on if the user is authenticated or anonymous. localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=authenticatedContent - used for Scenario 1 & 2 localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=anonymousContent - used for Scenario 3 Scenario: 1) Authenticated user accesing the page url - the user gets displayed correct information. Works fine 2) Anonymous user accesing page URL with parameters that requires authentication - If anonymous, there is second level of check on the content they are accessing. for example, based on the GET parameters, there is custom logic to determine if the user has to be authenticated. In which case the page gets redirected to login page (WORKS fine). 3) Anonymous user accessing page URL with parameters that doesnt need authentication - in this case i get the SAvedRequest and redirect to the URL which is taking me to an infinite loop. Am i missing something very obvious or is there a way in AuthenticationProcessFilterEntryPoint to say "DON'T redirect to LOGIN page but process it" ? thanks.

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  • Object equality in context of hibernate / webapp

    - by bert
    How do you handle object equality for java objects managed by hibernate? In the 'hibernate in action' book they say that one should favor business keys over surrogate keys. Most of the time, i do not have a business key. Think of addresses mapped to a person. The addresses are keeped in a Set and displayed in a Wicket RefreshingView (with a ReuseIfEquals strategy). I could either use the surrogate id or use all fields in the equals() and hashCode() functions. The problem is that those fields change during the lifetime ob the object. Either because the user entered some data or the id changes due to JPA merge() being called inside the OSIV (Open Session in View) filter. My understanding of the equals() and hashCode() contract is that those should not change during the lifetime of an object. What i have tried so far: equals() based on hashCode() which uses the database id (or super.hashCode() if id is null). Problem: new addresses start with an null id but get an id when attached to a person and this person gets merged() (re-attached) in the osiv-filter. lazy compute the hashcode when hashCode() is first called and make that hashcode @Transitional. Does not work, as merge() returns a new object and the hashcode does not get copied over. What i would need is an ID that gets assigned during object creation I think. What would be my options here? I don't want to introduce some additional persistent property. Is there a way to explicitly tell JPA to assign an ID to an object? Regards

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  • URLLoader.load() issue when using the same URLRequest

    - by Rudy
    Hello, I have an issue with my eventListeners with the URLLoader, but this issue happens in IE, not in FF. public function getUploadURL():void { var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest(); request.url = getPath(); request.method = URLRequestMethod.GET; _loader = new URLLoader(); _loader.dataFormat = URLLoaderDataFormat.TEXT; _loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); _loader.load(request); } private function getBaseURL(event:Event):void { _loader.removeEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); } The issue is that my getBaseURL gets executed automatically after I have executed the code at least once, but that is the case only in IE. What happens is I call my getUploadURL, I make sure the server sends an event that will result in an Event.COMPLETE, so the getBaseURL gets executed, and the listener is removed. If I call the getUploadURL method and put the wrong path, I do not get an Event.COMPLETE but some other event, and getBaseURL should not be executed. That is the correct behavior in FireFox. In IE, it looks like the load() method does not actually call the server, it jumps directly to the getBaseURL() for the Event.COMPLETE. I checked the willTrigger() and hasEventListener() on _loader before assigning the new URLLoader, and it turns out the event has been well removed. I hope I make sense, I simplified my code. To sum up quickly: in FireFox it works well, but in IE, the first call will work but the second call won't really call the .load() method; it seems it uses the previously stored result from the first call. I hope someone can please help me, Thank you, Rudy

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