Search Results

Search found 11954 results on 479 pages for 'gets'.

Page 61/479 | < Previous Page | 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68  | Next Page >

  • Amazon ELB CNAME record not working

    - by BarthQuay
    Hi there, I have set up my EC2 infrastructure behind an ELB instance and by using the ELBs DNS name everything works as expected. Now i wanted to forward a subdomain of my main project domain to the ELBs DNS Name with a CNAME entry. I did this about 12 hours ago and it doesnt seem to work, and i dont know why. The subdomain just cant be resolved. This is the DNS entry which was processed from my DNS provider without errors yesterday: @ IN A 111.111.111.111 localhost IN A 127.0.0.1 mail IN A 111.111.111.111 www IN A 111.111.111.111 ftp IN CNAME www beta IN CNAME myelbnamehere.eu-west-1.elb.amazonaws.com imap IN CNAME www loopback IN CNAME localhost pop IN CNAME www relay IN CNAME www smtp IN CNAME www @ IN MX 10 mail Using nslookup, all the subdomains and main domain gets looked up correctly, but beta.domain.com doesnt. I get "** server can't find beta.domain.com: NXDOMAIN" What am i doing wrong ? Do i need to wait longer ? When i use the ELB DNS name directly everything works as expected. When i do an NSlookup on my providers DNS Server, the CNAME gets resolved, but it looks like any other DNS server cant find the subdomain thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Playing online video on iphone web, the iphone seems to cache the reference movie

    - by Mad Oxyn
    We are working on an online mobile video app, and are trying to play a reference movie on an iphone from the iphone browser. The problem is, the movie plays the first time, but when we try to play a different movie the second time, it doesnt. Quicktime gives a general error message sayin "Cannot Play Movie". More precisely this is what we are trying to do: Connect with an iPhone to a webserver that serves a reference movie (generated with quicktime pro). The ref movie automatically gets downloaded to the iphone by quicktime. Quicktime then chooses one of the 3 references in the reference movie, based on the connection speed, and tries to download the designated movie via a relative path. A servlet gets called and forwards the relative path to the right movie. This all works the first time. However the second time when we want download different movies, we get the quicktime error. Test case: Open reference movie 1 Movie plays in Quicktime Open reference movie 2 ERROR: Quicktime gives an error - Cannot Play Movie Shut down Iphone Turn Iphone on again Open reference movie 2 Iphone plays movie Open movie ERROR: Quicktime gives an error - Cannot Play Movie Did anyone encounter similar issues with quicktime and the use of reference movies and is there something we can do to work around that?

    Read the article

  • Checking if a RoutedEvent has any handlers

    - by AK
    I've got a custom Button class, that always performs the same action when it gets clicked (opening a specific window). I'm adding a Click event that can be assigned in the button's XAML, like a regular button. When it gets clicked, I want to execute the Click event handler if one has been assigned, otherwise I want to execute the default action. The problem is that there's apparently no way to check if any handlers have been added to an event. I thought a null check on the event would do it: if (Click == null) { DefaultClickAction(); } else { RaiseEvent(new RoutedEventArgs(ClickEvent, this));; } ...but that doesn't compile. The compiler tells me that I can't do anything other than += or -= to an event outside of the defining class, event though I'm trying to do this check INSIDE the defining class. I've implemented the correct behavior myself, but it's ugly and verbose and I can't believe there isn't a built-in way to do this. I must be missing something. Here's the relevant code: public class MyButtonClass : Control { //... public static readonly RoutedEvent ClickEvent = EventManager.RegisterRoutedEvent("Click", RoutingStrategy.Bubble, typeof(RoutedEventHandler), typeof(MyButtonClass)); public event RoutedEventHandler Click { add { ClickHandlerCount++; AddHandler(ClickEvent, value); } remove { ClickHandlerCount--; RemoveHandler(ClickEvent, value); } } private int ClickHandlerCount = 0; private Boolean ClickHandlerExists { get { return ClickHandlerCount > 0; } } //... }

    Read the article

  • C++ JSON parser

    - by pollux
    Dear reader, I'm working on a twitter client which uses the twitter streaming json api. Twitter advices JSON as XML version is deprecated. I'm looking for a good JSON parser which can parse the json data below. I'm receiving this JSON which I want to be able to read/parse using a JSON parser. { "in_reply_to_status_id": null, "text": "Home-plate umpire Crawford gets stung http://tinyurl.com/27ujc86", "favorited": false, "coordinates": null, "in_reply_to_user_id": null, "source": "<a href=\"http://apiwiki.twitter.com/\" rel=\"nofollow\">API</a>", "geo": null, "created_at": "Fri Jun 18 15:12:06 +0000 2010", "place": null, "user": { "profile_text_color": "333333", "screen_name": "HostingViral", "time_zone": "Pacific Time (US & Canada)", "url": "http://bit.ly/1Way7P", "profile_link_color": "228235", "profile_background_image_url": "http://s.twimg.com/a/1276654401/images/themes/theme14/bg.gif", "description": "Full time Internet Marketer - Helping other reach their Goals\r\nhttp://wavemarker.com", "statuses_count": 1944, "profile_sidebar_fill_color": "c7b7c7", "profile_background_tile": true, "contributors_enabled": false, "lang": "en", "notifications": null, "created_at": "Wed Dec 30 07:50:52 +0000 2009", "profile_sidebar_border_color": "120412", "following": null, "geo_enabled": false, "followers_count": 2485, "protected": false, "friends_count": 2495, "location": "Working at Home", "name": "Johnathan Thomas", "verified": false, "profile_background_color": "131516", "profile_image_url": "http://a1.twimg.com/profile_images/600114776/nessykalvo421_normal.jpg", "id": 100439873, "utc_offset": -28800, "favourites_count": 0 }, "in_reply_to_screen_name": null, "id": 16477056501, "contributors": null, "truncated": false } *This is the raw string (above it beautified) * {"in_reply_to_status_id":null,"text":"Home-plate umpire Crawford gets stung http://tinyurl.com/27ujc86","favorited":false,"coordinates":null,"in_reply_to_user_id":null,"source":"<a href=\"http://apiwiki.twitter.com/\" rel=\"nofollow\">API</a>","geo":null,"created_at":"Fri Jun 18 15:12:06 +0000 2010","place":null,"user":{"profile_text_color":"333333","screen_name":"HostingViral","time_zone":"Pacific Time (US & Canada)","url":"http://bit.ly/1Way7P","profile_link_color":"228235","profile_background_image_url":"http://s.twimg.com/a/1276654401/images/themes/theme14/bg.gif","description":"Full time Internet Marketer - Helping other reach their Goals\r\nhttp://wavemarker.com","statuses_count":1944,"profile_sidebar_fill_color":"c7b7c7","profile_background_tile":true,"contributors_enabled":false,"lang":"en","notifications":null,"created_at":"Wed Dec 30 07:50:52 +0000 2009","profile_sidebar_border_color":"120412","following":null,"geo_enabled":false,"followers_count":2485,"protected":false,"friends_count":2495,"location":"Working at Home","name":"Johnathan Thomas","verified":false,"profile_background_color":"131516","profile_image_url":"http://a1.twimg.com/profile_images/600114776/nessykalvo421_normal.jpg","id":100439873,"utc_offset":-28800,"favourites_count":0},"in_reply_to_screen_name":null,"id":16477056501,"contributors":null,"truncated":false} I've tried multiple JSON parsers from json.org though I've tried 4 now and can't find one which can parse above json. Kind regards, Pollux

    Read the article

  • WPF: Animation Only Runs Once

    - by Phil Sandler
    Very basic (I think) animation question. My animation only runs the first time "MyProp" gets set to false. If it gets set a second time, the animation doesn't run. I know my data trigger is getting hit, as the sound DOES play. The effect I want is for the animation to run, then reset the target property back to what it was before the animation occurred (thus the FillBehavior=Stop). Do I need to reset the animation after it plays? <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding MyProp}" Value="False"> <DataTrigger.EnterActions> <SoundPlayerAction Source="/Resources/Sounds/Ding.wav"/> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard BeginTime="00:00:00" Duration="0:0:2" Storyboard.TargetProperty="(Background).(SolidColorBrush.Color)"> <ColorAnimation FillBehavior="Stop" From="Black" To="Red" Duration="0:0:0.5" AutoReverse="True"/> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </DataTrigger.EnterActions> </DataTrigger>

    Read the article

  • Programmatic skins in Flex

    - by Flexer
    Hi, I am having 2 problems creating programmatic skin for Canvas. First problem: I would like to have background with rounded corners and I am using GraphicsUtil.drawRoundRectComplex in order to have round corners for only the upper two corners. The problem is that drawRoundRectComplex takes for each corner one single parameter - the corner radius. However my scaleX and scaleY factors are different and in fact the corners are not properly rounded because I either can set the radius using scaleX or scaleY. Graphics.drawRoundRect is better because it takes two parameters for the corners - elipse width and height and then you could apply both scale factors but it doesn't allow me to specify different radius for different corners. I am looking for an idea how to use GraphicsUtil.drawRoundRectComplex when scaleX and scaleY are different. Second problem: Even though I set my programmatic skin through style - < the skin's updateDisplayList gets executed only once and after that somehow "backgroundImage" style gets "undefined" and my programmatic skin is not associated anymore to the Canvas instance. As a workaround I am setting on each resize event "backgroundImage" style again but this is ugly. What could cause such "silent" resetting of the "backgroundImage" style to undefined? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Trying to grab just absolute links from a webpage using BeautifulSoup

    - by Kevin
    I am reading the contents of a webpage using BeautifulSoup. What I want is to just grab the <a href> that start with http://. I know in beautifulsoup you can search by the attributes. I guess I am just having a syntax issue. I would imagine it would go something like. page = urllib2.urlopen("http://www.linkpages.com") soup = BeautifulSoup(page) for link in soup.findAll('a'): if link['href'].startswith('http://'): print links But that returns: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 2, in <module> File "C:\Python26\lib\BeautifulSoup.py", line 598, in __getitem__ return self._getAttrMap()[key] KeyError: 'href' Any ideas? Thanks in advance. EDIT This isn't for any site in particular. The script gets the url from the user. So internal link targets would be an issue, that's also why I only want the <'a'> from the pages. If I turn it towards www.reddit.com, it parses the beginning links and it gets to this: <a href="http://www.reddit.com/top/">top</a> <a href="http://www.reddit.com/saved/">saved</a> Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 2, in <module> File "C:\Python26\lib\BeautifulSoup.py", line 598, in __getitem__ return self._getAttrMap()[key] KeyError: 'href'

    Read the article

  • - (void)keyboardWasShown not called when switching to another UITextField

    - by Shawn
    I'm having a strange problem that I don't understand. I have a UIScrollView with several UITextField objects. When I switch to the view, I set the first UITextField as firstresponder, and the keyboardWasShown method gets called due to the UIKeyboardDidShowNotification that the view is registered for. The weird thing is, when I touch the next UITextField, the keyboardWasShown method is not called. I don't understand this, since Apple's documentation says "If your interface has multiple text fields, the user can tap between them to edit the values in each one. When that happens, however, the keyboard does not disappear but the system does still generate UIKeyboardDidShowNotification notifications each time editing begins in a new text field." My code I've copied directly from Apple's documentation as well, and it works properly, but it only gets called the first time. What am I missing? - (void)registerForKeyboardNotifications { [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(keyboardWasShown:) name:UIKeyboardDidShowNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(keyboardWasHidden:) name:UIKeyboardDidHideNotification object:nil]; } - (void)keyboardWasShown:(NSNotification *)aNotification { //if (keyboardShown) return; NSDictionary* info = [aNotification userInfo]; CGSize kbSize = [[info objectForKey:UIKeyboardBoundsUserInfoKey] CGRectValue].size; CGRect bkgndRect = activeField.superview.frame; bkgndRect.size.height += kbSize.height; [activeField.superview setFrame:bkgndRect]; [scrollView setContentOffset:CGPointMake(0.0, activeField.frame.origin.y) animated:YES]; keyboardShown = YES; UIBarButtonItem *doneButton = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemDone target:self action:@selector(done)]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = doneButton; [doneButton release]; }

    Read the article

  • Status of Data in Rollback of Large Transaction in SQL Server

    - by Lloyd Banks
    I have a data warehousing procedure that downloads and replaces dozens of tables from a linked server to a local database. Every once in a while, the code will get stuck on one of the tables on the linked server because the table on the linked server is in a state of transition. I am under the assumption that since the entire procedure is considered one transaction commit, when the procedure gets stuck, none of the changes made by the procudure so far would have committed. But the opposite seems to be true, tables that were "downloaded" before the procedure got stuck would have been updated with today's versions on the local server. Shouldn't SQL Server wait for the entire procedure to finish before the changes are durable? CREATE PROCEDURE MYIMPORT AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM INFORMATION.SCHEMA.TABLES WHERE TABLE_NAME = 'TABLE1') DROP TABLE TABLE1 SELECT COLUMN1, COLUMN2, COLUMN3 INTO TABLE1 FROM OPENQUERY(MYLINK, 'SELECT COLUMN1, COLUMN2, COLUMN3 FROM TABLE1') IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM INFORMATION.SCHEMA.TABLES WHERE TABLE_NAME = 'TABLE2') DROP TABLE TABLE2 SELECT COLUMN1, COLUMN2, COLUMN3 INTO TABLE2 FROM OPENQUERY(MYLINK, 'SELECT COLUMN1, COLUMN2, COLUMN3 FROM TABLE2') --IF THE PROCEDURE GETS STUCK HERE, THEN CHANGES TO TABLE1 WOULD HAVE BEEN MADE ON THE LOCAL SERVER WHILE NO CHANGES WOULD HAVE BEEN MADE TO TABLE3 ON THE LOCAL SERVER IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM INFORMATION.SCHEMA.TABLES WHERE TABLE_NAME = 'TABLE3') DROP TABLE TABLE3 SELECT COLUMN1, COLUMN2, COLUMN3 INTO TABLE3 FROM OPENQUERY(MYLINK, 'SELECT COLUMN1, COLUMN2, COLUMN3 FROM TABLE3') END

    Read the article

  • Charset and POST request

    - by jriff
    Hi All! I have a Rails 2.3.5 application that is working fine with UTF-8 and international characters. Now I have made some integration to a payment gateway where I POST some data, wait a while and get a POST back. The problem is that when I get that post back the international characters are broken. Instead of "sørensen" I get: "sørensen". If I do an iconv -fISO-8859-1 -tUTF8 it gets correctly converted to the former (I do that from a OS X command prompt). I have examined the POST request with logger.info(request.headers.inspect) in my controller and I can see that no charset parameter is given. As far as I can see the POST from the gateway must be UTF8 since one character (ø) gets translated to two (ø). So why does Rails think that the POST is ISO-8859-1? I know that one solution is to simply convert the params-hash with Iconv in the controller but I would like to know what is happening. Thanks in advance. Regards, Jacob

    Read the article

  • How to bind form collection back to custom model object that uses 2 custom objects in asp.net mvc?

    - by baijajusav
    What I'm trying to do is rather basic, but I might have my facts mixed up. I have a details page that has a custom class as it's Model. The custom class uses 2 custom objects with yet another custom object a property of one of the 2. The details page outputs a fair amount of information, but allows the user to post a comment. When the user clicks the post button, the page gets posted to a Details action that looks something like this: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Details(VideoDetailModel vidAndComment) { ....} The only fields on the form that is posted are CommentText and VideoId. Here is what the VideoDetailModel looks like. public class VideoDetailModel { public VideoDetailModel() { Video = new VideoDTO(); Comment = new CommentDTO(); } public VideoDetailModel(VideoDTO vid) { Video = vid; Comment = new CommentDTO(); } public VideoDTO Video { get; set; } public CommentDTO Comment { get; set; } } VideoDTO has a few properties, but the ones I need are VideoId. CommentDTO's pertinent properties include CommentText (which is posting correctly) and a UserDTO object that contains a userId property. Everything other than the CommentText value is not being posted. I also have the following line on the ascx page, but the model value never gets posted to the controller. Html.Hidden("Model.Video.VideoId", Model.Video.VideoId); I'm really not sure what I'm missing here. I suppose if I added more form fields for the properties I need, they would get posted, but I only need 1 form entry field for the CommentText. If I could get the same Model objects value that were sent to the page to post with the page, that would help. I'll be happy to make any clarifications needed here. I'm just at loss as to what's going on.

    Read the article

  • Application hangs after changing language From “En-Us” to any global language in control panel

    - by user1764824
    I created a WinForms application using C#. When I try to change the culture info, my application gets hanged. Microsoft.Win32.SystemEvents.UserPreferenceChanged += new Microsoft.Win32.UserPreferenceChangedEventHandler(SystemEvents_UserPreferenceChanged); void SystemEvents_UserPreferenceChanged(object sender, Microsoft.Win32.UserPreferenceChangedEventArgs e) { if (!PreviousInstance()) { CultureInfo ObjCulture = new CultureInfo(CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.IetfLanguageTag, false); Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture = ObjCulture; Application.CurrentCulture = ObjCulture; } } public void INIT() { CultureInfo objCultureInfo = null; try { objCultureInfo = new CultureInfo("en-US", false); objCultureInfo.NumberFormat.NumberDecimalSeparator = "."; objCultureInfo.NumberFormat.NegativeSign = "-"; objCultureInfo.NumberFormat.NumberNegativePattern = 1; //1 stands for -100. Application.CurrentCulture = objCultureInfo; } } After Changing Language ... My Application gets Hanged and i cant Debug anything When i Try to Evaluate things This Event Called only once.. But if try in a small application it comes every time when Language is changed... ... Nothing shown in Eventviewer either. How can I solve this problem? ..

    Read the article

  • xp_smtp_sendmail blank space added to html randomly

    - by Igor Timofeyev
    I have a proc where I generate small html doc with a link and send it out via xp_smtp_sendmail proc. Link is generated based on query results and is long. This works in most cases. However, sometimes the link gets broken due to spaces being inserted into querystring variable names, i.e. &Na me=John. This might vary between email clients(same link works in Gmail, but might not work in comcast due to spaces. The space seems to be randomly inserted, so in each broken email link space might break other querystring variables. When I do PRINT from proc the link is clean, no spaces. Here's my sample of the mail proc being executed within main proc(that gets query results and generates html for @Message). The space seems to be inserted regardless of whether I encode the url or not. Thank you in advance for your help. I can send a cleaner version of the code if it's not displayed properly here. ....query results above SET @Message = NULL SET @Message = @Message + + '<br/>Dear ' + @FirstName + ' ' + @LastName + ',' + '<br/><br/>Recently you took "' + @Title + '". ' + 'In response to the question "What is it?" ' + 'you responded "' + @Response + '".' + '<br/><br/>Following up on previous mailing' + '<br/><br/>Please click on the link below' + '<br/><br/><a href="' + @Link + '">Please click here</a>' + '<br/><br/>plain text' + '<br/><br/>plain text,' + '<br/><br/>plain text<br/> plain text<br/> plain text<br/> plain text<br/> plain text<br/> plain text EXEC @rc = master.dbo.xp_smtp_sendmail @FROM = '[email protected]', @FROM_NAME = 'Any User', @TO = @Email, @priority = N'NORMAL', @subject = N'My email', @message = @Message, @messagefile = N'', @type = N'text/html', @attachment = N'', @attachments = N'', @codepage = 0, @server = 'smtp.server.any'

    Read the article

  • IBasic Accumulator

    - by Tara
    I am trying to do an accumulator in IBasic for a college assignment and I have the general stuff down but I cannot get it to accumulate. The code is below. My question is how do I get it to accumulate and pass to the different module. I'm trying to calculate how many right answers the user gets. Also, i need to calculate the percentage of right answers. so if the user gets 9 out of 10 right theyed answer 90% right. 'October 15, 2009 ' 'Lab 7.5 Programming Challenge 1 - Average Test Scores ' 'This is a dice game ' declare main() declare inputName(name:string) declare getAnswer(num1:int, num2:int) declare getResult(num1:int, num2:int, answer:int) declare avgRight(getRight:int) declare printInfo(name:string, getRight:int, averege:float) openconsole main() do:until inkey$<>"" closeconsole end sub main() def name:string def num1, num2, answer, total, getRight:int def averege:float inputName (name) getRight = 0 For counter = 1 to 10 getRight = getAnswer(num1, num2) getRight = getRight + 1 next counter average = avgRight (getRight) printInfo(Name, getRight, average) end sub inputName (name) Input "Please enter your name: " ,name return sub getAnswer(num1, num2) def answer, getRight:int num1 = rnd (10) + 1 num2 = rnd (10) + 1 Print num1, "+ " ,num2 Input "What is the answer to the equation? " ,answer getRight = getResult(num1, num2, answer) return getRight sub getResult(num1, num2, answer) def getRight:int if answer = num1 + num2 getRight = 1 else getRight = 0 endif return getRight sub avgRight(getRight) def average:float average = getRight / 10 return average sub printInfo(name, getRight, averege) Print "The students name is: " ,name Print "The number right is: " ,getRight Print Using ("&##.#&", "The average right is " ,averege * 100, "%") return

    Read the article

  • How can I get WWW-Mechanize to login to Wells Fargo's website?

    - by J Miller
    I am trying to use Perl's WWW::Mechanize to login to my bank and pull transaction information. After logging in through a browser to my bank (Wells Fargo), it briefly displays a temporary web page saying something along the lines of "please wait while we verify your identity". After a few seconds it proceeds to the bank's webpage where I can get my bank data. The only difference is that the URL contains several more "GET" parameters appended to the URL of the temporary page, which only had a sessionID parameter. I was able to successfully get WWW::Mechanize to login from the login page, but it gets stuck on the temporary page. There is a <meta http-equiv="Refresh"... tag in the header, so I tried $mech->follow_meta_redirect but it didn't get me past that temporary page either. Any help to get past this would be appreciated. Thanks in advance. Here is the barebones code that gets me stuck at the temporary page: #!/usr/bin/perl -w use strict; use WWW::Mechanize; my $mech = WWW::Mechanize->new(); $mech->agent_alias( 'Linux Mozilla' ); $mech->get( "https://www.wellsfargo.com" ); $mech->submit_form( form_number => 2, fields => { userid => "$userid", password => "$password" }, button => "btnSignon" );

    Read the article

  • WWW::Mechanize trouble with meta refresh from bank login

    - by J Miller
    I am trying to use perl's WWW::Mechanize to login to my bank and pull transaction information. After logging in through a browser to my bank (Wells Fargo), it briefly displays a temporary web page saying something along the lines of "please wait while we verify your identity". After a few seconds it proceeds to the bank's webpage where I can get my bank data. The only difference is that the URL contains several more "GET" parameters appended to the URL of the temporary page, which only had a sessionID parameter. I was able to successfully get WWW::Mechanize to login from the login page, but it gets stuck on the temporary page. There is a <meta http-equiv="Refresh"... tag in the header, so I tried $mech->follow_meta_redirect but it didn't get me past that temporary page either. Any help to get past this would be appreciated. Thanks in advance. Here is the barebones code that gets me stuck at the temporary page: #!/usr/bin/perl -w use strict; use WWW::Mechanize; my $mech = WWW::Mechanize->new(); $mech->agent_alias( 'Linux Mozilla' ); $mech->get( "https://www.wellsfargo.com" ); $mech->submit_form( form_number => 2, fields => { userid => "$userid", password => "$password" }, button => "btnSignon" );

    Read the article

  • C++ design question on traversing binary trees

    - by user231536
    I have a binary tree T which I would like to copy to another tree. Suppose I have a visit method that gets evaluated at every node: struct visit { virtual void operator() (node* n)=0; }; and I have a visitor algorithm void visitor(node* t, visit& v) { //do a preorder traversal using stack or recursion if (!t) return; v(t); visitor(t->left, v); visitor(t->right, v); } I have 2 questions: I settled on using the functor based approach because I see that boost graph does this (vertex visitors). Also I tend to repeat the same code to traverse the tree and do different things at each node. Is this a good design to get rid of duplicated code? What other alternative designs are there? How do I use this to create a new binary tree from an existing one? I can keep a stack on the visit functor if I want, but it gets tied to the algorithm in visitor. How would I incorporate postorder traversals here ? Another functor class?

    Read the article

  • Where should 'CreateMap' statements go?

    - by jonathanconway
    I frequently use AutoMapper to map Model (Domain) objects to ViewModel objects, which are then consumed by my Views, in a Model/View/View-Model pattern. This involves many 'Mapper.CreateMap' statements, which all must be executed, but must only be executed once in the lifecycle of the application. Technically, then, I should keep them all in a static method somewhere, which gets called from my Application_Start() method (this is an ASP.NET MVC application). However, it seems wrong to group a lot of different mapping concerns together in one central location. Especially when mapping code gets complex and involves formatting and other logic. Is there a better way to organize the mapping code so that it's kept close to the ViewModel that it concerns? (I came up with one idea - having a 'CreateMappings' method on each ViewModel, and in the BaseViewModel, calling this method on instantiation. However, since the method should only be called once in the application lifecycle, it needs some additional logic to cache a list of ViewModel types for which the CreateMappings method has been called, and then only call it when necessary, for ViewModels that aren't in that list.)

    Read the article

  • Passing object(s) to a Controller Action

    - by Nicholas H
    I'm attempting to use jQuery to do a $.post() to an MVC controller action. Here's the jQuery calls: var _authTicket = { username: 'testingu', password: 'testingp' }; function DoPost() { var inputObj = { authTicket: _authTicket, dateRange: 'ThisWeek' }; $.post('/MyController/MyAction', inputObj, PostResult); } function PostResult(data) { alert(JSON.stringify(data)); } Here's the controller action: <HttpPost()> _ Function MyAction(ByVal authTicket As AuthTicket, ByVal dateRange As String) As ActionResult Dim u = ValidateUser(authTicket) If u Is Nothing Then Throw New Exception("User not valid") ' etc.. End Function The problem is, MyAction's "authTicket" parameter is all empty. The second "dateRange" parameter gets populated just fine. I'm pretty sure that the issue stems from jQuery turning the data into key/value pairs to POST to the action. MVC must not understand the format, at least when it's an object with it's own properties. The name/value pair format that jQuery is converting to is like: authTicket[username] = "testingu" authTicket[password] = "testingp" Which in turn gets made into x-www-form-urlencoded'd data: authTicket%5Busername%5D=testingu &authTicket%5Bpassword%5D=testingp I guess I could always have "username" and "password" properties in my actions, but that seems wrong to me. Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • BITS client fails to specify HTTP Range header

    - by user256890
    Our system is designed to deploy to regions with unreliable and/or insufficient network connections. We build our own fault tolerating data replication services that uses BITS. Due to some security and maintenance requirements, we implemented our own ASP.NET file download service on the server side, instead of just letting IIS serving up the files. When BITS client makes an HTTP download request with the specified range of the file, our ASP.NET page pulls the demanded file segment into memory and serve that up as the HTTP response. That is the theory. ;) This theory fails in artificial lab scenarios but I would not let the system deploy in real life scenarios unless we can overcome that. Lab scenario: I have BITS client and the IIS on the same developer machine, so practically I have enormous network "bandwidth" and BITS is intelligent enough to detect that. As BITS client discovers the unlimited bandwidth, it gets more and more "greedy". At each HTTP request, BITS wants to grasp greater and greater file ranges (we are talking about downloading CD iso files, videos), demanding 20-40MB inside a single HTTP request, a size that I am not comfortable to pull into memory on the server side as one go. I can overcome that simply by giving less than demanded. It is OK. However, BITS gets really "confident" and "arrogant" demanding files WITHOUT specifying the download range, i.e., it wants the entire file in a single request, and this is where things go wrong. I do not know how to answer that response in the case of a 600MB file. If I just provide the starting 1MB range of the file, BITS client keeps sending HTTP requests for the same file without download range to continue, it hammers its point that it wants the entire file in one go. Since I am reluctant to provide the entire file, BITS gives up after several trials and reports error. Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • iPhone UIView Animation Disables UIButton Subview

    - by bensnider
    So I've got a problem with buttons and animations. Basically, I'm animating a view using the UIView animations while also trying to listen for taps on the button inside the view. The view is just as large as the button, and the view is actually a subclass of UIImageView with an image below the button. The view is a subview of a container view placed in Interface Builder with user interaction enabled and clipping enabled. All the animation and button handling is done in this UIImageView subclass, while the startFloating message is sent from a separate class as needed. If I do no animation, the buttonTapped: message gets sent correctly, but during the animation it does not get sent. I've also tried implementing the touchesEnded method, and the same behavior occurs. UIImageView subclass init (I have the button filled with a color so I can see the frame gets set properly, which it does): - (id)initWithImage:(UIImage *)image { self = [super initWithImage:image]; if (self != nil) { // ...stuffs UIButton *tapBtn = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; tapBtn.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, self.frame.size.width, self.frame.size.height); [tapBtn addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonTapped:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; tapBtn.backgroundColor = [UIColor cyanColor]; [self addSubview:tapBtn]; self.userInteractionEnabled = YES; } return self; } Animation method that starts the animation (if I don't call this the button works correctly): - (void)startFloating { [UIView beginAnimations:@"floating" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveLinear]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:10.0f]; self.frame = CGRectMake(self.frame.origin.x, -self.frame.size.height, self.frame.size.width, self.frame.size.height); [UIView commitAnimations]; } So, to be clear: Using the UIView animation effectively disables the button. Disabling the animation causes the button to work. The button is correctly sized and positioned on screen, and moves along with the view correctly.

    Read the article

  • Ajax call to parent window after form submission

    - by David
    Hi all, Pardon the complicated title. Here's my situation: I'm working on a Grails app, and using jQuery for some of the more complex UI stuff. The way the system is set up, I have an item, which can have various files (user-supplied) associated with it. On my Item/show view, there is a link to add a file. This link pops up a jQuery modal dialog, which displays my file upload form (a remote .gsp). So, the user selects the file and enters a comment, and when the form is submitted, the dialog gets closed, and the list of files on the Item/show view is refreshed. I was initially accomplishing this by adding onclick="javascript:window.parent.$('#myDialog').dialog('close');" to my submit button. This worked fine, but when submitting some larger files, I end up with a race condition where the dialog closes and the file list is refreshed before the new file is saved, and so the list of files is out of date (the file still gets saved properly). So my question is, what is the best way to ensure that the dialog is not closed until after the form submit operation completes? I've tried using the <g:formRemote tag in Grails, and closing the dialog in the "after" attribute (according to the Grails docs, the script is called after form submission), but I receive an error (taken from FireBug) stating that window.parent.$('#myDialog').dialog is not a function Is this a simple JavaScript/Grails syntax issue that I'm missing here, or am I going about this entirely wrong? Thanks so much for your time and assistance!

    Read the article

  • SQL Query slow in .NET application but instantaneous in SQL Server Management Studio

    - by user203882
    Here is the SQL SELECT tal.TrustAccountValue FROM TrustAccountLog AS tal INNER JOIN TrustAccount ta ON ta.TrustAccountID = tal.TrustAccountID INNER JOIN Users usr ON usr.UserID = ta.UserID WHERE usr.UserID = 70402 AND ta.TrustAccountID = 117249 AND tal.trustaccountlogid = ( SELECT MAX (tal.trustaccountlogid) FROM TrustAccountLog AS tal INNER JOIN TrustAccount ta ON ta.TrustAccountID = tal.TrustAccountID INNER JOIN Users usr ON usr.UserID = ta.UserID WHERE usr.UserID = 70402 AND ta.TrustAccountID = 117249 AND tal.TrustAccountLogDate < '3/1/2010 12:00:00 AM' ) Basicaly there is a Users table a TrustAccount table and a TrustAccountLog table. Users: Contains users and their details TrustAccount: A User can have multiple TrustAccounts. TrustAccountLog: Contains an audit of all TrustAccount "movements". A TrustAccount is associated with multiple TrustAccountLog entries. Now this query executes in milliseconds inside SQL Server Management Studio, but for some strange reason it takes forever in my C# app and even timesout (120s) sometimes. Here is the code in a nutshell. It gets called multiple times in a loop and the statement gets prepared. cmd.CommandTimeout = Configuration.DBTimeout; cmd.CommandText = "SELECT tal.TrustAccountValue FROM TrustAccountLog AS tal INNER JOIN TrustAccount ta ON ta.TrustAccountID = tal.TrustAccountID INNER JOIN Users usr ON usr.UserID = ta.UserID WHERE usr.UserID = @UserID1 AND ta.TrustAccountID = @TrustAccountID1 AND tal.trustaccountlogid = (SELECT MAX (tal.trustaccountlogid) FROM TrustAccountLog AS tal INNER JOIN TrustAccount ta ON ta.TrustAccountID = tal.TrustAccountID INNER JOIN Users usr ON usr.UserID = ta.UserID WHERE usr.UserID = @UserID2 AND ta.TrustAccountID = @TrustAccountID2 AND tal.TrustAccountLogDate < @TrustAccountLogDate2 ))"; cmd.Parameters.Add("@TrustAccountID1", SqlDbType.Int).Value = trustAccountId; cmd.Parameters.Add("@UserID1", SqlDbType.Int).Value = userId; cmd.Parameters.Add("@TrustAccountID2", SqlDbType.Int).Value = trustAccountId; cmd.Parameters.Add("@UserID2", SqlDbType.Int).Value = userId; cmd.Parameters.Add("@TrustAccountLogDate2", SqlDbType.DateTime).Value =TrustAccountLogDate; // And then... reader = cmd.ExecuteReader(); if (reader.Read()) { double value = (double)reader.GetValue(0); if (System.Double.IsNaN(value)) return 0; else return value; } else return 0;

    Read the article

  • How should bug tracking and help tickets integrate?

    - by Max Schmeling
    I have a little experience with bug tracking systems such as FogBugz where help tickets are issues are (or can be) bugs, and I have some experience using a bug tracking system internally completely separate from a help center system. My question is, in a company with an existing (home-grown) help center system where replacing it is not an option, how should a bug tracking system (probably Mantis) be integrated into the process? Right now help tickets get put in for issues, questions, etc and they get assigned to the appropriate person (PC Tech, Help Desk staff, or if it's an application issue they can't solve in the help desk it gets assigned to a developer). A user can put a request for small modifications or fixes to an application in a help ticket and the developer it gets assigned to will make the change at some point, apply their time to that ticket, and then close the ticket when it goes to production. We don't currently have a bug tracking system, so I'm looking into the best way to integrate one. Should we just take the help tickets and put it into the bug tracking system if it's a bug (or issue or feature request) and then close the ticket if it's not an emergency fix? We probably don't want to expose the bug tracking system to anyone else as they wouldn't know what to put in the help center system and what to put in the bug tracker... right? Any thoughts? Suggestions? Tips? Advice? To-dos? Not to-dos? etc...

    Read the article

  • Data sharing amongst JPA Entities

    - by Nick
    Setup: I have a simple web app that has a handfull of forms, each on a separate page. These forms represent patient data. There is a one-to-one relationship between patient and all these forms/entities. Each form maps directly to a db table and a JPA entity, maybe not the best architecture but it works and is simple. Question: If form/entity A and form/entity B share a common chunk of data (one of more fields), what is the best way to handle that in JPA. I.E. - If the data gets inserted via form A, I need it to show up in form B as existing data and vice versa. In other words its logical for both entities to contain that data. I believe I will have to move the common data into its own entity and define the relationships that way, but I have tried many different ways and none gets me all the way, at least with basic JPA. Can this be done through pure JPA relationships or will I have to write a bunch of code to make this happen manually. Not looking for code specifically, just the correct way to model this data. Thanks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68  | Next Page >