Search Results

Search found 30279 results on 1212 pages for 'database drift'.

Page 651/1212 | < Previous Page | 647 648 649 650 651 652 653 654 655 656 657 658  | Next Page >

  • Putting a C++ Vector as a Member in a Class that Uses a Memory Pool

    - by Deep-B
    Hey, I've been writing a multi-threaded DLL for database access using ADO/ODBC for use with a legacy application. I need to keep multiple database connections for each thread, so I've put the ADO objects for each connection in an object and thinking of keeping an array of them inside a custom threadInfo object. Obviously a vector would serve better here - I need to delete/rearrange objects on the go and a vector would simplify that. Problem is, I'm allocating a heap for each thread to avoid heap contention and stuff and allocating all my memory from there. So my question is: how do I make the vector allocate from the thread-specific heap? (Or would it know internally to allocate memory from the same heap as its wrapper class - sounds unlikely, but I'm not a C++ guy) I've googled a bit and it looks like I might need to write an allocator or something - which looks like so much of work I don't want. Is there any other way? I've heard vector uses placement-new for all its stuff inside, so can overloading operator new be worked into it? My scant knowledge of the insides of C++ doesn't help, seeing as I'm mainly a C programmer (even that - relatively). It's very possible I'm missing something elementary somewhere. If nothing easier comes up - I might just go and do the array thing, but hopefully it won't come to that. I'm using MS-VC++ 6.0 (hey, it's rude to laugh! :-P ). Any/all help will be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • SSIS - How do I use a resultset as input in a SQL task and get data types right?

    - by thursdaysgeek
    I am trying to merge records from an Oracle database table to my local SQL table. I have a variable for the package that is an Object, called OWell. I have a data flow task that gets the Oracle data as a SQL statment (select well_id, well_name from OWell order by Well_ID), and then a conversion task to convert well_id from a DT_STR of length 15 to a DT_WSTR; and convert well_name from a DT_STR of length 15 to DT_WSTR of length 50. That is then stored in the recordset OWell. The reason for the conversions is the table that I want to add records to has an identity field: SSIS shows well_id as a DT_WSTR of length 15, well_name a DT_WSTR of length 50. I then have a SQL task that connects to the local database and attempts to add records that are not there yet. I've tried various things: using the OWell as a result set and referring to it in my SQL statement. Currently, I have the ResultSet set to None, and the following SQL statment: Insert into WELL (WELL_ID, WELL_NAME) Select OWELL_ID, OWELL_NAME from OWell where OWELL_ID not in (select WELL.WELL_ID from WELL) For Parameter Mapping, I have Paramater 0, called OWell_ID, from my variable User::OWell. Parameter 1, called OWell_Name is from the same variable. Both are set to VARCHAR, although I've also tried NVARCHAR. I do not have a Result set. I am getting the following error: Error: 0xC002F210 at Insert records to FLEDG, Execute SQL Task: Executing the query "Insert into WELL (WELL_ID, WELL_NAME) Select OWELL..." failed with the following error: "An error occurred while extracting the result into a variable of type (DBTYPE_STR)". Possible failure reasons: Problems with the query, "ResultSet" property not set correctly, parameters not set correctly, or connection not established correctly. I don't think it's a data type issue, but rather that I somehow am not using the resultset properly. How, exactly, am I supposed to refer to that recordset in my SQL task, so that I can use the two recordset fields and add records that are missing?

    Read the article

  • Bidirectional replication update record problem

    - by Mirek
    Hi, I would like to present you my problem related to SQL Server 2005 bidirectional replication. What do I need? My teamleader wants to solve one of our problems using bidirectional replication between two databases, each used by different application. One application creates records in table A, changes should replicate to second database into a copy of table A. When data on second server are changed, then those changes have to be propagated back to the first server. I am trying to achieve bidirectional transactional replication between two databases on one server, which is running SQL Server 2005. I have manage to set this up using scripts, established 2 publications and 2 read only subscriptions with loopback detection. Distributtion database is created, publishment on both databases is enabled. Distributor and publisher are up. We are using some rules to control, which records will be replicated, so we need to call our custom stored procedures during replication. So, articles are set to use update, insert and delete custom stored procedures. So far so good, but? Everything works fine, changes are replicating, until updates are done on both tables simultaneously or before changes are replicated (and that takes about 3-6 seconds). Both records then end up with different values. UPDATE db1.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 4 WHERE ID = 1 UPDATE db2.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 5 WHERE ID = 1 results to: db1.dbo.TestTable COL = 5 db2.dbo.TestTable COL = 4 But we want to have last change winning replication. Please, is there a way to solve my problem? How can I ensure same values in both records? Or is there easier solution than this kind of replication? I can provide sample replication script which I am using. I am looking forward for you ideas, Mirek

    Read the article

  • does sfWidgetFormSelect provide a string or an int of the selected item?

    - by han
    Hey guys, I'm having an annoying problem. I'm trying to find out what fields of a form were changed, and then insert that into a table. I managed to var_dump in doUpdateObjectas shown in the following public function doUpdateObject($values) { parent::doUpdateObject($values); var_dump($this->getObject()->getModified(false)); var_dump($this->getObject()->getModified(true)); } And it seems like $this-getObject()-getModified seems to work in giving me both before and after values by setting it to either true or false. The problem that I'm facing right now is that, some how, sfWidgetFormSelect seems to be saving one of my fields as a string. before saving, that exact same field was an int. (I got this idea by var_dump both before and after). Here is what the results on both var dumps showed: array(1) {["annoying_field"]=> int(3)} array(1) {["annoying_field"]=>string(1)"3"} This seems to cause doctrine to think that this is a modification and thus gives a false positive. In my base form, I have under $this->getWidgets() 'annoying_field' => new sfWidgetFormInputText(), under $this->setValidators 'annoying_field' => new sfValidatorInteger(array('required' => false)), and lastly in my configured Form.class.php I have reconfigured the file as such: $this->widgetSchema['annoying_field'] = new sfWidgetFormSelect(array('choices' => $statuses)); statuses is an array containing values like {""a", "b", "c", "d"} and I just want the index of the status to be stored in the database. And also how can I insert the changes into another database table? let's say my Log table? Any ideas and advice as to why this is happen is appreciated, I've been trying to figure it out and browsing google for various keywords with no avail. Thanks! Edit: ok so I created another field, integer in my schema just for testing. I created an entry, saved it, and edited it. this time the same thing happened!

    Read the article

  • Undefined method `add' on a cucumber step that usually works.

    - by Josiah Kiehl
    I have a path defined: when /the admin home\s?page/ "/admin/" I have scenario that is passing: Scenario: Let admins see the admin homepage Given "pojo" is logged in And "pojo" is an "admin" And I am on the admin home page Then I should see "Hi there." And I have a scenario that is failing: Scenario: Review flagged photo Given "pojo" is logged in And "pojo" is an "admin" ...bunch of steps that create stuff in the database... And I am on the admin home page Then ... the rest of the steps The step that fails in the second one is "And I am on the admin home page" which passes just fine in the first scenario. Here's the error I get: And I am on the admin home page # features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:18 undefined method `add' for {}:Hash (NoMethodError) ./app/controllers/admin_controller.rb:13:in `index' ./app/controllers/admin_controller.rb:11:in `each' ./app/controllers/admin_controller.rb:11:in `index' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/benchmark.rb:308:in `realtime' ./features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:19:in `/^(?:|I )am on (.+)$/' features/admin.feature:52:in `And I am on the admin home page' This is very odd... why would it be fine in the first case, and not in the second where the only difference are a bunch of steps that create records in the db? [edit] Here's the add stuff to database step: Given /^there is a "([^\"]*)" with the following:$/ do |model, table| model.constantize.create!(table.rows_hash) end

    Read the article

  • MsSql Server high Resource Waits and Head Blocker

    - by MartinHN
    Hi I have a MS SQL Server 2008 Standard installation running a database for a webshop. The current size of the database is 2.5 GB. Running on Windows 2008 Standard. Dual Intel Xeon X5355 @ 2.00 GHz. 4 GB RAM. When I open the Activity Monitor, I see that I have a Wait Time (ms/sec) of 5000 in the "Other" category. In the Processes list, all connections from the webshop, the Head Blocker value is 1. I see every day that when I try to access the website, it can take 20-30 secs before it even starts to "work". I know that it is not network latency. (I have a 301 redirect from the same server that is executed instantly). When the first request has been served, it seems as if it's not a sleep anymore and every subsequent request is served instantly with the speed of light. The problem was worse two weeks ago, until I changed every query to include WITH (NOLOCK). But I still experience the problem, and the Wait times in the Activity Monitor is about the same. The largest table (Images) has 32764 rows (448576 KB). Some tables exceed 300000 rows, thought they're much smaller in size than the Images table. I have the default clustered index for every primary key column, only. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • What do these C# auto-generated table adapter commands do? e.g. UPDATE/INSERT followed by a SELECT

    - by RickL
    I'm working with a legacy application which I'm trying to change so that it can work with SQL CE, whilst it was originally written against SQL Server. The problem I am getting now is that when I try to do dataAdapter.Update, SQL CE complains that it is not expecting the SELECT keyword in the command text. I believe this is because SQL CE does not support batch SELECT statements. The auto-generated table adapter command looks like this... this._adapter.InsertCommand.CommandText = @"INSERT INTO [Table] ([Field1], [Field2]) VALUES (@Value1, @Value2); SELECT Field1, Field2 FROM Table WHERE (Field1 = @Value1)"; What is it doing? It looks like it is inserting new records from the datatable into the database, and then reading that record back from the database into the datatable? What's the point of that? Can I just go through the code and remove all these SELECT statements? Or is there an easier way to solve my problem of wanting to use these data adapters with SQL CE? I cannot regenerate these table adapters, as the people who knew how to have long since left.

    Read the article

  • How to cache pages using background jobs ?

    - by Alexandre
    Definitions: resource = collection of database records, regeneration = processing these records and outputting the corresponding html Current flow: Receive client request Check for resource in cache If not in cache or cache expired, regenerate Return result The problem is that the regeneration step can tie up a single server process for 10-15 seconds. If a couple of users request the same resource, that could result in a couple of processes regenerating the exact same resource simultaneously, each taking up 10-15 seconds. Wouldn't it be preferrable to have the frontend signal some background process saying "Hey, regenerate this resource for me". But then what would it display to the user? "Rebuilding" is not acceptable. All resources would have to be in cache ahead of time. This could be a problem as the database would almost be duplicated on the filesystem (too big to fit in memory). Is there a way to avoid this? Not ideal, but it seems like the only way out. But then there's one more problem. How to keep the same two processes from requesting the regeneration of a resource at the same time? The background process could be regenerating the resource when a frontend asks for the regeneration of the same resource. I'm using PHP and the Zend Framework just in case someone wants to offer a platform-specific solution. Not that it matters though - I think this problem applies to any language/framework. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Convert UCS-2 characters to UTF-8 Using C#

    - by quanticle
    I'm pulling some internationalized text from a MS SQL Server 2005 database. As per the defaults for that DB, the characters are stored as UCS-2. However, I need to output the data in UTF-8 format, as I'm sending it out over the web. Currently, I have the following code to convert: SqlString dbString = resultReader.GetSqlString(0); byte[] dbBytes = dbString.GetUnicodeBytes(); byte[] utf8Bytes = System.Text.Encoding.Convert(System.Text.Encoding.Unicode, System.Text.Encoding.UTF8, dbBytes); System.Text.UTF8Encoding encoder = new System.Text.UTF8Encoding(); string outputString = encoder.GetString(utf8Bytes); However, when I examine the output in the browser, it appears to be garbage, no matter what I set the encoding to. What am I missing? EDIT: In response to the answers below, the reason I thought I had to perform a conversion is because I can output literal multibyte strings just fine. For example: OutputControl.Text = "????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????"; works. Here, OutputControl is an ASP.Net Literal. However, OutputControl.Text = outputString; //Output from above snippet results in mangled output as described above. My hypothesis was that the database's output was somehow getting mangled by ASP.Net. If that's not the case, then what are some other possibilities?

    Read the article

  • First site going live real soon. Last minute questions

    - by user156814
    I am really close to finishing up on a project that I've been working on. I have done websites before, but never on my own and never a site that involved user generated data. I have been reading up on things that should be considered before you go live and I have some questions. 1) Staging... (Deploying updates without affecting users). I'm not really sure what this would entail, since I'm sure that any type of update would affect users in some way. Does this mean some type of temporary downtime for every update? can somebody please explain this and a solution to this as well. 2) Limits... I'm using the Kohana framework and I'm using the Auth module for logging users in. I was wondering if this already has some type of limit (on login attempts) built in, and if not, what would be the best way to implement this. (save attempts in database, cookie, etc.). If this is not whats meant by limits, can somebody elaborate. 3) Caching... Like I said, this is my first site built around user content. Considering that, should I cache it? 4) Back Ups... How often should I backup my (MySQL) database, and how should I back it up (MySQL export?). The site is currently up, yet not finished, if anybody wants to look at it and see if something pops out to you that should be looked at/fixed. Clashing Thoughts. If there is anything else I overlooked, thats not already in the list linked to above, please let me know. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Core Data, Bindings, value transformers : crash when saving

    - by Gael
    Hi, I am trying to store a PNG image in a core data store backed by an sqlite database. Since I intend to use this database on an iPhone I can't store NSImage objects directly. I wanted to use bindings and an NSValueTransformer subclass to handle the transcoding from the NSImage (obtained by an Image well on my GUI) to an NSData containing the PNG binary representation of the image. I wrote the following code for the ValueTransformer : + (Class)transformedValueClass { return [NSImage class]; } + (BOOL)allowsReverseTransformation { return YES; } - (id)transformedValue:(id)value { if (value == nil) return nil; return [[[NSImage alloc] initWithData:value] autorelease]; } - (id)reverseTransformedValue:(id)value { if (value == nil) return nil; if(![value isKindOfClass:[NSImage class]]) { NSLog(@"Type mismatch. Expecting NSImage"); } NSBitmapImageRep *bits = [[value representations] objectAtIndex: 0]; NSData *data = [bits representationUsingType:NSPNGFileType properties:nil]; return data; } The model has a transformable property configured with this NSValueTransformer. In Interface Builder a table column and an image well are both bound to this property and both have the proper value transformer name (an image dropped in the image well shows up in the table column). The transformer is registered and called every time an image is added or a row is reloaded (checked with NSLog() calls). The problem arises when I am trying to save the managed objects. The console output shows the error message : [NSImage length]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x1004933a0 It seems like core data is using the value transformer to obtain the NSImage back from the NSData and then tries to save the NSImage instead of the NSData. There are probably workarounds such as the one presented in this post but I would really like to understand why my approach is flawn. Thanks in advance for your ideas and explanations.

    Read the article

  • DB2 Driver Connection Hanging in Glassfish Connection Pool

    - by Ant
    We have an intermittent issue around the DB2 used from a Glassfish connection pool. What happens is this: Under situations where the database (DB2 on ZOS) is under stress, our application (which is a multi-threaded application using connections to DB2 via a Glassfish connection pool) stops doing anything. The following are observed: 1) Looking at the server using JConsole, we can see a thread waiting indefinitely in the DB2 driver's getConnection() method. We can also see that it has gained a lock on a Vector within the driver. Several other threads are also calling the getConnection() method in the driver, and are hanging waiting for the lock on the Vector to be released. 2) Looking at the database itself, we can see that there are connections from the Glassfish server open and waiting to be used. It seems that there is some sort of mismatch between the connection pool on Glassfish and the connections actually open to DB2. Has anyone come across this issue before? Or something similar? If you need any more information that I haven't provided, then please let me know!

    Read the article

  • Ruby array, javascript and json issue

    - by JohnMerlino
    Hey all, I am unable to get a highcharts plugin to render a chart in a rails application: http://github.com/loudpixel/highcharts-rails I believe it has something to do with the sql queries to the database placed in a ruby array, which the javascript is unable to intepret. This is what I have: def panels pass = Student.find_by_sql('SELECT COUNT(*) FROM students WHERE student_state = 1') fail = Student.find_by_sql('SELECT COUNT(*) FROM students WHERE student_state = 2') student_data = [ {:name => 'Pass', :y => pass}, {:name => 'Fail', :y => fail} ] pie_label_formatter = ' function() { if (this.y > 15) return this.point.name; }' pie_tooltip_formatter = ' function() { return "<strong>" + this.point.name + "</strong>: " + this.y + " %"; }' @pie_chart = Highchart.pie({ :chart => { :renderTo => "pie-chart-container", :margin => [50, 30, 0, 30] }, :plotOptions => { :pie => { :dataLabels => { :formatter => pie_label_formatter, :style => { :textShadow => '#000000 1px 1px 2px' } } } }, :series => [ { :type => 'pie', :data => student_data } ], :subtitle => { :text => 'April 2010' }, :title => { :text => 'Student Status Chart' }, :tooltip => { :formatter => pie_tooltip_formatter }, }) Note if I put this: :data = student_data.to_json It actually returns a json string of my query as text in the browser. Also, if I hard code values (e.g. :y = 1), it will render the chart properly. However, any database query will not render the chart properly. So I'm not sure exactly what the issue is. Any suggestions? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Rails running multiple delayed_job - lock tables

    - by pepernik
    Hey. I use delayed_job for background processing. I have 8 CPU server, MySQL and I start 7 delayed_job processes RAILS_ENV=production script/delayed_job -n 7 start Q1: I'm wondering is it possible that 2 or more delayed_job processes start processing the same process (the same record-row in the database delayed_jobs). I checked the code of the delayed_job plugin but can not find the lock directive in a way it should be. I think each process should lock the database table before executing an UPDATE on lock_by column. They lock the record simply by updating the locked_by field (UPDATE delayed_jobs SET locked_by...). Is that really enough? No locking needed? Why? I know that UPDATE has higher priority than SELECT but I think this does not have the effect in this case. My understanding of the multy-threaded situation is: Process1: Get waiting job X. [OK] Process2: Get waiting jobs X. [OK] Process1: Update locked_by field. [OK] Process2: Update locked_by field. [OK] Process1: Get waiting job X. [Already processed] Process2: Get waiting jobs X. [Already processed] I think in some cases more jobs can get the same information and can start processing the same process. Q2: Is 7 delayed_jobs a good number for 8CPU server? Why yes/not. Thx 10x!

    Read the article

  • How to reuse results with a schema for end of day stock-data

    - by Vishalrix
    I am creating a database schema to be used for technical analysis like top-volume gainers, top-price gainers etc.I have checked answers to questions here, like the design question. Having taken the hint from boe100 's answer there I have a schema modeled pretty much on it, thusly: Symbol - char 6 //primary Date - date //primary Open - decimal 18, 4 High - decimal 18, 4 Low - decimal 18, 4 Close - decimal 18, 4 Volume - int Right now this table containing End Of Day( EOD) data will be about 3 million rows for 3 years. Later when I get/need more data it could be 20 million rows. The front end will be asking requests like "give me the top price gainers on date X over Y days". That request is one of the simpler ones, and as such is not too costly, time wise, I assume. But a request like " give me top volume gainers for the last 10 days, with the previous 100 days acting as baseline", could prove 10-100 times costlier. The result of such a request would be a float which signifies how many times the volume as grown etc. One option I have is adding a column for each such result. And if the user asks for volume gain in 10 days over 20 days, that would require another table. The total such tables could easily cross 100, specially if I start using other results as tables, like MACD-10, MACD-100. each of which will require its own column. Is this a feasible solution? Another option being that I keep the result in cached html files and present them to the user. I dont have much experience in web-development, so to me it looks messy; but I could be wrong ( ofc!) . Is that a option too? Let me add that I am/will be using mod_perl to present the response to the user. With much of the work on mysql database being done using perl. I would like to have a response time of 1-2 seconds.

    Read the article

  • Can I add a condition to CakePHP's update statement?

    - by Don Kirkby
    Since there doesn't seem to be any support for optimistic locking in CakePHP, I'm taking a stab at building a behaviour that implements it. After a little research into behaviours, I think I could run a query in the beforeSave event to check that the version field hasn't changed. However, I'd rather implement the check by changing the update statement's WHERE clause from WHERE id = ? to WHERE id = ? and version = ? This way I don't have to worry about other requests changing the database record between the time I read the version and the time I execute the update. It also means I can do one database call instead of two. I can see that the DboSource.update() method supports conditions, but Model.save() never passes any conditions to it. It seems like I have a couple of options: Do the check in beforeSave() and live with the fact that it's not bulletproof. Hack my local copy of CakePHP to check for a conditions key in the options array of Model.save() and pass it along to the DboSource.update() method. Right now, I'm leaning in favour of the second option, but that means I can't share my behaviour with other users unless they apply my hack to their framework. Have I missed an easier option?

    Read the article

  • SQLAlchemy: select over multiple tables

    - by ahojnnes
    Hi, I wanted to optimize my database query: link_list = select( columns=[link_table.c.rating, link_table.c.url, link_table.c.donations_in], whereclause=and_( not_(link_table.c.id.in_( select( columns=[request_table.c.recipient], whereclause=request_table.c.donator==donator.id ).as_scalar() )), link_table.c.id!=donator.id, ), limit=20, ).execute().fetchall() and tried to merge those two selects in one query: link_list = select( columns=[link_table.c.rating, link_table.c.url, link_table.c.donations_in], whereclause=and_( link_table.c.active==True, link_table.c.id!=donator.id, request_table.c.donator==donator.id, link_table.c.id!=request_table.c.recipient, ), limit=20, order_by=[link_table.c.rating.desc()] ).execute().fetchall() the database-schema looks like: link_table = Table('links', metadata, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True, autoincrement=True), Column('url', Unicode(250), index=True, unique=True), Column('registration_date', DateTime), Column('donations_in', Integer), Column('active', Boolean), ) request_table = Table('requests', metadata, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True, autoincrement=True), Column('recipient', Integer, ForeignKey('links.id')), Column('donator', Integer, ForeignKey('links.id')), Column('date', DateTime), ) There are several links (donator) in request_table pointing to one link in the link_table. I want to have links from link_table, which are not yet "requested". But this does not work. Is it actually possible, what I'm trying to do? If so, how would you do that? Thank you very much in advance!

    Read the article

  • Ditching Django's models for Ajax/Web Services

    - by Igor Ganapolsky
    Recently I came across a problem at work that made me rethink Django's models. The app I am developing resides on a Linux server. Its a simple model/view/controller app that involves user interaction and updating data in the database. The problem is that this data resides in a MS SQL database on a Windows machine. So in order to use Django's models, I would have to leverage an ODBC driver on linux, and the use a python add-on like pyodbc. Well, let me tell you, setting up a reliable and functional ODBC connection on linux is no easy feat! So much so, that I spent several hours maneuvering this on my CentOS with no luck, and was left with frustration and lots of dumb system errors. In the meantime I have a deadline to meet, and suddenly the very agile and rapid Django application is a roadblock rather than a pleasure to work with. Someone on my team suggested writing this app in .NET. But there are a few problems with that: it won't be deployable on a linux machine, and I won't be able to work on it since I don't know ASP.net. Then a much better suggestion was made: keep the app in django, but instead of using models, do straight up ajax/web services calls in the template. And then it dawned on me - what a great idea. Django's models seem like a nuissance and hindrance in this case, and I can just have someone else write .Net services on their side, that I can call from my template. As a result my app will be leaner and more compact. So, I was wondering if you guys ever came across a similar dillema and what you decided to do about it.

    Read the article

  • how to changed editext values from first to last in customise listview in android

    - by prakash
    i am getting menunames from database then append to the custom listview edittext . now i am changing some values in edittext . i want all values with changed values of edittext into array Example :x,y,z menunames comes from database i append editext(Custom listview) now i am changed y to b now i want x,b,z in arraylist i try this code(Base adapter class) public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { final ViewHolder holder; if (convertView == null) { holder = new ViewHolder(); convertView = inflater.inflate(R.layout.editmainmenulist, null); holder.caption = (EditText) convertView .findViewById(R.id.editmaimenu); holder.caption1=(ImageView) convertView.findViewById(R.id.menuimage); convertView.setTag(holder); } else { holder = (ViewHolder) convertView.getTag(); } //Fill EditText with the value you have in data source holder.caption.setText(itemnames[position]); holder.caption.setId(position); holder.caption1.setImageBitmap(bmps[position]); arr.add(holder.caption.getText().toString());//here i get menunames data only not changed edittext values return convertView; } } class ViewHolder { EditText caption; ImageView caption1; } class ListItem { String caption; } please help me

    Read the article

  • Exec problem in SQL Server 2005

    - by IordanTanev
    Hi, I have the situation where i have two databases with same structure. The first have some data in its data tables. I need to create a script that will transfer the data from the first database to the second. I have created this script. DECLARE @table_name nvarchar(MAX), @query nvarchar(MAX) DECLARE @table_cursor CURSOR SET @table_cursor = CURSOR FAST_FORWARD FOR SELECT TABLE_NAME FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES OPEN @table_cursor FETCH NEXT FROM @table_cursor INTO @table_name WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 BEGIN SET @query = 'INSERT INTO ' + @table_name + ' SELECT * FROM MyDataBase.dbo.' + @table_name print @query exec @query FETCH NEXT FROM @table_cursor INTO @table_name END CLOSE @table_cursor DEALLOCATE @table_cursor The problem is that when I run the script the "print @query" statement prints statement like this INSERT INTO table SELECT * FROM MyDataBase.dbo.table When I copy this and run it from Management studio it works fine. But when the script tries to run it with exec I get this error Msg 911, Level 16, State 1, Line 21 Could not locate entry in sysdatabases for database 'INSERT INTO table SELECT * FROM MPDEV090314'. No entry found with that name. Make sure that the name is entered correctly. Hope someone can tell me whot is wront with this. Best Regards, Iordan Tanev

    Read the article

  • Doctrine Default Primary Key Problem (Again)

    - by 01010011
    Hi, Should I change all of my uniquely-named MySQL database primary keys to 'id' to avoid getting errors related to Doctrine's default primary key set in the plugin 'doctrine_pi.php'? To further elaborate, I am getting the following reoccurring error, this time after trying to login to my login page: SQLSTATE[42S22]: Column not found: 1054 Unknown column 'u.book_id' in 'field list'' in... I suspect the problem resides at a MySQL table used for my login, of which has a primary key called id Marc B originally solved an identical problem for me in this post http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2702229/doctrine-codeigniter-mysql-crud-errors when I had the same problem with a different table within the same database. Following his suggestion, I changed the default primary key located at system/application/plugins/doctrine_pi.php from 'id' to 'book_id': <?php // system/application/plugins/doctrine_pi.php ... // set the default primary key to be named 'id', integer, 4 bytes Doctrine_Manager::getInstance()->setAttribute( Doctrine::ATTR_DEFAULT_IDENTIFIER_OPTIONS, array('name' => 'book_id', 'type' => 'integer', 'length' => 4)); and that solved my previous problem. However, my login page stopped working. So what is the safe thing to do? Change all of my primary keys to 'id' (will that solve the problem without causing some other problem I am not aware of). Or should I add some lines of code in doctrine_pi.php?

    Read the article

  • Extensionless URLs in IIS 6

    - by Jason Marsell
    My client has asked me to build a personalized URL system so that they can send out really short URLs in postcards to customers like this: www.client.com/JasonSmith03 www.client.com/TonyAdams With these URLs, I need IIS 6 to trap the incoming request and pass that “JasonSmith03” token to my database to determine which landing page to redirect them to. I’d love to use an HttpHandler or HttpModule but they both look like they require an file extension (.aspx) in the URL. Wildcard mapping will chew up every incoming request and that’s ridiculous. ISAPI filters are just text routing files, so I can’t employ logic to call the database. According to Scott Guthrie, this would be cake if I had IIS 7, but I don’t. Can this be done using MVC? I’ve been working with MVP for the last few years, so I haven’t done any MVC and routing. I thought I remembered that MVC has the ability to use REST-style extensionless URLs. I’d be more than happy to have these personalized URLs land on a site that’s built in MVC, if it will work. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • How much does Website Development cost nowadays?

    - by Andreas Grech
    I am thinking of setting up my own freelance business but coming from a workplace that offers a particular service to huge clients, I do not know what are the current charges for websites are nowadays. I know that as technology just keeps changing and changing (most of the time, for the better...), the amount you charge for a single website is constantly differing. Like for example, I don't think static websites (with just static html pages) are that expensive today, no? (as i said, I might be mistaken since I haven't really touched on this freelance industry yet) So, freelance web-developers out there, can you give me estimates on how much you charge for your clients? Some examples of websites that I want to know an approx charge: ~10 static html pages ~10 dhtml pages (with maybe a flasy menu on the top/side) Database driven websites with a standard CMS (be it the one you developed, or an existing one) Database driven but with a custom-built cms for the particular client Using an existing template for a design Starting the design from scratch etc... I know that the normally clients don't really care about the technologies used to construct their websites, but do you charge differently according to which technology you use to build the website with?; as in, is the technology a factor when setting the price? ...being ASP.Net, PHP, Ruby On Rails etc... Also, how do you go on about charging your clients for your services? What are the major factors that you consider when setting a price tag for a website to a client ? And better yet, how do you even find prospective clients? <= [or should I leave this question for a different post?] Btw, in your post, also mention some numbers (in cash values, be it in USD, GBP, EUR or anything) because I want to be able to take calculate some averages from this post when some answers stack up

    Read the article

  • Monotouch threads, GC, WCF

    - by cvista
    Hi This is a question about best practices i guess but it applies directly to my current MT project. I'm using WCF services to communicate with the server. To do this i do the following: services.MethodToCall(params); and the asynch: services.OnMethodToCallCompleted += delegate{ //do stuff and ting }; This can lead to issues if you're not careful in that variables defined within the scope of the asynch callback can sometimes be cleaned up by the gc and this can cause crashes. So - I am making it a practice to declare these outside of the scope of the callback unless I am 100% sure they are not needed. Now - when doing stuff and ting implies changing the ui - i wrap it all in an InvokeOnMainThread call. I guess wrapping everything in this would slow the main thread down and rubbish the point of having multi threads. Even though I'm being careful about all this i am still getting crashes and I have no idea why! I am certain it has something to do with threads, scope and all that. Now - the only thing I can think of outside of updating the UI that may need to happen inside of InvokeOnMainThread is that I have a singleton 'Database' class. This is based on the version 5 code from this thread http://www.yoda.arachsys.com/csharp/singleton.html So now if the service method returns data that needs to be added/updated to the Database class -I also wrap this inside an InvokeOnMainThread call. Still getting random crashes. So... My question is this: I am new to thick client dev - I'm coming from a web dev perspective where we don't need to worry about threads so much :) Aside from what I have mentioned -are there any other things I should be aware of? Is the above stuff correct? Or am i miss-understanding something? Cheers w://

    Read the article

  • Dataflow Pipeline holding on to memory

    - by Jesse Carter
    I've created a Dataflow pipeline consisting of 4 blocks (which includes one optional block) which is responsible for receiving a query object from my application across HTTP and retrieving information from a database, doing an optional transform on that data, and then writing the information back in the HTTP response. In some testing I've done I've been pulling down a significant amount of data from the database (570 thousand rows) which are stored in a List object and passed between the different blocks and it seems like even after the final block has been completed the memory isn't being released. Ram usage in Task Manager will spike up to over 2 GB and I can observe several large spikes as the List hits each block. The signatures for my blocks look like this: private TransformBlock<HttpListenerContext, Tuple<HttpListenerContext, QueryObject>> m_ParseHttpRequest; private TransformBlock<Tuple<HttpListenerContext, QueryObject>, Tuple<HttpListenerContext, QueryObject, List<string>>> m_RetrieveDatabaseResults; private TransformBlock<Tuple<HttpListenerContext, QueryObject, List<string>>, Tuple<HttpListenerContext, QueryObject, List<string>>> m_ConvertResults; private ActionBlock<Tuple<HttpListenerContext, QueryObject, List<string>>> m_ReturnHttpResponse; They are linked as follows: m_ParseHttpRequest.LinkTo(m_RetrieveDatabaseResults); m_RetrieveDatabaseResults.LinkTo(m_ConvertResults, tuple => tuple.Item2 is QueryObjectA); m_RetrieveDatabaseResults.LinkTo(m_ReturnHttpResponse, tuple => tuple.Item2 is QueryObjectB); m_ConvertResults.LinkTo(m_ReturnHttpResponse); Is it possible that I can set up the pipeline such that once each block is done with the list they no longer need to hold on to it as well as once the entire pipeline is completed that the memory is released?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 647 648 649 650 651 652 653 654 655 656 657 658  | Next Page >