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  • Project with multiple binaries in Eclipse CDT

    - by Robert Schneider
    I think it is quite normal to have more than one binary in a project. However, with Eclipse CDT I don't know how to set up the IDE to get things done. I know I can create several projects - one per binary. And I know I can set the dependencies per project. However, I cannot regard them as one project in Eclipse. If I'd like to share the code with a version control system (like svn), each developer has to import the projects separately. What I miss is something like the Solution (sln file) in Visual Studio. Should I create a single project and create the make files by myself? I haven't tried it out yet, but there is this 'project set' which can be ex- and imported. Is this the solution? Can this be put into version control? My goal it to put everything under version control, not only subprojects. I cannot imagine that CDT makes only sense for single-binary applications. How can I work properly?

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  • Weblogic 10.3.0 : Loosing a stateless session bean in the bean pool

    - by KlasE
    Hi, We have a strange situation where we loose a Stateless SessionBean in a Bean Pool in Weblogic 10.3.0 Since we only have one bean in the pool, this effectively hangs all incoming calls. We do not want more than one instance in the pool because of application restrictions. In the Weblogic admin console, we can see that there are 1 instance in the bean pool, 0 beans in use and 1 waiting incoming request. The question is, what can have caused the system to not send the request to the one obviously free bean instance? This happens after several hours and over 100000 incoming requests, and the same scenario worked fine in the old weblogic 8 environment. We get the following stacktrace: "[ACTIVE] ExecuteThread: '5' for queue: 'weblogic.kernel.Default (self-tuning)'" waiting for lock java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer$ConditionObject@b0d484 TIMED_WAITING sun.misc.Unsafe.park(Native Method) java.util.concurrent.locks.LockSupport.parkNanos(LockSupport.java:198) java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer$ConditionObject.await(AbstractQueuedSynchronizer.java:2054) weblogic.ejb.container.pool.StatelessSessionPool.waitForBean(StatelessSessionPool.java:269) weblogic.ejb.container.pool.StatelessSessionPool.getBean(StatelessSessionPool.java:111) weblogic.ejb.container.manager.StatelessManager.preInvoke(StatelessManager.java:148) weblogic.ejb.container.internal.BaseRemoteObject.preInvoke(BaseRemoteObject.java:227) weblogic.ejb.container.internal.StatelessRemoteObject.preInvoke(StatelessRemoteObject.java:52) com.mycompany.beans.MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl.isMyStuffValid(MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl.java:261) com.mycompany.beans.MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl_WLSkel.invoke(Unknown Source) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.invoke(BasicServerRef.java:589) weblogic.rmi.cluster.ClusterableServerRef.invoke(ClusterableServerRef.java:230) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef$1.run(BasicServerRef.java:477) weblogic.security.acl.internal.AuthenticatedSubject.doAs(AuthenticatedSubject.java:363) weblogic.security.service.SecurityManager.runAs(Unknown Source) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.handleRequest(BasicServerRef.java:473) weblogic.rmi.internal.wls.WLSExecuteRequest.run(WLSExecuteRequest.java:118) weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.execute(ExecuteThread.java:201) weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.run(ExecuteThread.java:173) Any help would be very welcome. Regards Klas

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  • SSIS Lookup with Lookup Component Vs Script Component.

    - by Nev_Rahd
    Hello, I need to load Dimensions from EDW Tables (which does maintain historical records) and is of type Key-Value-Parameter. My scenario is ok if got a record in EDW as below Key1 Key2 Code Value EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 100 555 01 AAA 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y 100 555 02 BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y This need to be loaded into DM by pivoting it as key1 and key2 combinations makes Natural key for DM SK NK 01 02 EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 1 100-555 AAA BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y My ssis package does this all good pivoting... looking up the incoming NK in DIM.. if new will insert .. else with further lookup with effective date and determine if the incoming for same natural key got any new (change) in attribute.. if so updates the current record byy setting its end date and insert the new one with new attribute value and pulling the recent records values for other attributes. My problem is if the same natural key comes twice with same attribute in single extract my first lookup which on natural key .. will let both records pass and try to insert.. where its fails. If i get distinct records on NK the second is not picked and need to run package again. So my question how can i configure lookup or alernative way to handle this scenario when same NK comes twice in single extract, would be able to insert first record if not exists in Dim table and for second one should be able to updated with the changes with reference to one inserted above. Not sure this makes sense what am trying to explain. Will attached the screenshot once back to work desk (on monday). Thanks

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  • WinForms and ShowDialog problem.

    - by SchlaWiener
    I have a borderless WinForms app. The main window creates other forms (simple dialogs where I can click yes or no) with ShowDialog(). Every created dialog is not visible in the taskbar, my app has only one taskbar entry that focuses my app (and if a dialog is open that one is focused). If I use ALT+TAB to cycle to all open windows I only see one entry, too. However, If the dialog is created while my app doesn't have the focus (for example the user starts a long running task, starts to work on something else and while being in the background, my app shows a dialog "Task done...") and I want to go back to my app, things are getting strange. If I click on the taskbar to focus my app, the main window is focused (not the dialog). I can't use the main window (because there is still an open modal dialog). Windows 7 ALT-TAB preview shows the Dialog while taskbar mouseover preview shows the main window (In normal behavior both show the dialog in front of the main window). The only way to make my app usable again is to ALT-TAB to the entry and close the modal dialog. If I use ALT-TAB only the dialog is brought to the front and the main window is still in the background Is there a way to prevent that from happening? I know what to do, but most customers think the app crashed since the main window doesn't respond.

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  • USE case to Class Diagram - How do I?

    - by 01010011
    Hi, I would like your guidance on how to create classes and their relationships (generalization, association, aggregation and composition) accurately from my USE case diagram (please see below). I am trying to create this class diagram so I can use it to create a simple online PHP application that allows the user to register an account, login and logout, and store, search and retrieve data from a MySQL database. Are my classes correct? Or should I create more classes? And if so, what classes are missing? What relationships should I use when connecting the register, login, logout, search_database and add_to_database to the users? I'm new to design patterns and UML class diagrams but from my understanding, the association relationship relates one object with another object; the aggregation relationship is a special kind of association that allows "a part" to belong to more than one "whole" (e.g. a credit card and its PIN - the PIN class can also be used in a debit card class); and a composition relationship is a special form of aggregation that allows each part to belong to only one whole at a time. I feel like I have left out some classes or something because I just can't seem to find the relationships from my understanding of relationships. Any assistance will be really appreciated. Thanks in advance. USE CASE DIAGRAM CLASS DIAGRAM

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  • Java: volatile guarantees and out-of-order execution

    - by WizardOfOdds
    Note that this question is solely about the volatile keyword and the volatile guarantees: it is not about the synchronized keyword (so please don't answer "you must use synchronize" for I don't have any issue to solve: I simply want to understand the volatile guarantees (or lack of guarantees) regarding out-of-order execution). Say we have an object containing two volatile String references that are initialized to null by the constructor and that we have only one way to modify the two String: by calling setBoth(...) and that we can only set their references afterwards to non-null reference (only the constructor is allowed to set them to null). For example (it's just an example, there's no question yet): public class SO { private volatile String a; private volatile String b; public SO() { a = null; b = null; } public void setBoth( @NotNull final String one, @NotNull final String two ) { a = one; b = two; } public String getA() { return a; } public String getB() { return b; } } In setBoth(...), the line assigning the non-null parameter "a" appears before the line assigning the non-null parameter "b". Then if I do this (once again, there's no question, the question is coming next): if ( so.getB() != null ) { System.out.println( so.getA().length ); } Am I correct in my understanding that due to out-of-order execution I can get a NullPointerException? In other words: there's no guarantee that because I read a non-null "b" I'll read a non-null "a"? Because due to out-of-order (multi)processor and the way volatile works "b" could be assigned before "a"? volatile guarantees that reads subsequent to a write shall always see the last written value, but here there's an out-of-order "issue" right? (once again, the "issue" is made on purpose to try to understand the semantics of the volatile keyword and the Java Memory Model, not to solve a problem).

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  • Using jQuery delay() with separate elements

    - by boomturn
    I want to fake a simple animation on page load by sequentially revealing several pngs, each appearing instantly but with unique, precisely timed delay before the next one. Using the latest version of jQuery (1.4.2 at writing), which provides a delay method. My first (braindead) impulse was: $('#image1').show('fast').delay(800); $('#image2').show('fast').delay(1200); $('#image3').show('fast'); Of course all come up simultaneously. jQuery doc examples refer to a single item being chained, not handling multiple items. OK... try again using nested callbacks from show(): $('#image1').show('fast', function() { $('#image2').show('fast', function() { $('#image3').show('fast', function() { }); }); }); Looks ugly (imagine doing 10, also wonder what processor hit would be) but hey, it works sequentially! Without delay though. So... chain delay() after show() using a callback function from it (not even sure if it supports one): $('#image1').show('fast').delay(800, function() { $('#image2').show('fast').delay(1200, function() { $('#image3').show('fast'); }); }); Hm. Opposite result of what I thought might happen: the callback works, but still no delay. So... should I be using some combination of queue and delay instead of nested callbacks? jQuery doc examples for queue again only use one element for example. Guessing this would involve using a custom queue, but am uncertain how to implement this. Or maybe I'm missing a simple way? (For a simple problem!)

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  • Append a dynamically changing watermark to a PDF in SharePoint

    - by ccomet
    This is primarily a question of possibilities more than instructions. I'm a programming consultant working on a WSS project site system for my client. We have a document library in which files are uploaded to go through a complex approval process. With multiple stages in this process, we have an extra field which dictates what the current status of the document is. Now, my client has become enamored with the idea of PDF watermarking. He wants the document (which is already a PDF) to be affixed with a watermark corresponding to the current status, such that with each stage of the approval process the watermark will change. One method, the traditional method for PDF watermarking, of accomplishing this is to have one "clean" copy of the document somewhere hidden on the site, and create a new PDF from it that has the watermark at each stage of the approval process. Since the filename will never change, this new PDF can be uploaded continually to a public library, always overwriting the old version and simulating a "dynamically changing watermark". However, in the various stages there will also be people uploading clean copies with corrections and suggestions, nevermind the complex nature of juggling around two libraries and the fact we double the number of files stored. My client and I agree that this is not a practical path to choose. What we would like to do is be able to "modify" the watermark in a PDF, so that we only have to keep one copy of the file. Unfortunately, from what I've seen, in most cases when you make something like a watermark, which in its nature is supposed to be "unmodifyable", you won't be able to edit it later. So, is it possible to have a part of a PDF which cannot be changed by anyone who downloads the file, but can be changed as part of a workflow or other object model process? Thanks in advance!

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  • WPF DataTemplate - Overlay

    - by David Ward
    I have a class that I need to provide the datatemplate for. Currently I have two datatemplates, one for when Enabled == true and one for when Enabled == false. The datatemplate for the class is actually the one below which changes the template used based on a trigger: <DataTemplate x:Key="ActionNodeTemplateSelector"> <ContentPresenter Content="{Binding}" Name="cp" /> <DataTemplate.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Enabled}" Value="True"> <Setter TargetName="cp" Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource ActionNodeTemplate}" /> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Enabled}" Value="False"> <Setter TargetName="cp" Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource ActionNodeDisabledTemplate}" /> </DataTrigger> </DataTemplate.Triggers> </DataTemplate> This all works well. However, now I want to also display an image overlay if the "Completed" property is true and a different image if it is incomplete. I could easily carry on using my approach to trigger on the Completed property as well but this would double the number of templates and feels wrong. Is there a way that I could have a trigger on my DataTemplate that will allow me to overlay the correct image over the existing template which is based on the Enabled property?

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  • Safe to update separate regions of a BufferedImage in separate threads?

    - by finnw
    I have a collection of BufferedImage instances, one main image and some subimages created by calling getSubImage on the main image. The subimages do not overlap. I am also making modifications to the subimage and I want to split this into multiple threads, one per subimage. From my understanding of how BufferedImage, Raster and DataBuffer work, this should be safe because: Each instance of BufferedImage (and its respective WritableRaster) is accessed from only one thread. The shared ColorModel is immutable The DataBuffer has no fields that can be modified (the only thing that can change is elements of the backing array.) Modifying disjoint segments of an array in separate threads is safe. However I cannot find anything in the documentation that says that it is definitely safe to do this. Can I assume it is safe? I know that it is possible to work on copies of the child Rasters but I would prefer to avoid this because of memory constraints. Otherwise, is it possible to make the operation thread-safe without copying regions of the parent image?

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  • Frame Showing Problem

    - by Nitz
    Hey Guys I have made one project which is showing the inventory of the stock of one store. In that inventory the software should store data of the products with their images. There is one problem... Bcz of the lots of stock, the screen on which is image is loading taking a lot of time. So, i thought i should give the frame in which there will be on label which will show the "Loading Software". But now when i am setting visible = true for that frame, but bcz of that images screen class loading problem my frame is not showing correctly. I have put screen shot, now my code. JFrame f; try{ f = new JFrame("This is a test"); f.setSize(300, 300); Container content = f.getContentPane(); content.setBackground(Color.white); content.setLayout(new FlowLayout()); JLabel jl = new JLabel(); jl.setText("Loading Please Wait...."); content.add(jl); f.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); f.setVisible(true); }catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } initComponents(); try { addInverntory = new AddInventoryScreen(); showstock = new showStock(); // this class will take big time. mf = new mainForm(); f.setVisible(false); }catch (Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } How Can show some message that, other class is loading or "Loading Software" kind of thing in this situation. Just For the know....this class is not screen on which the image will load.

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  • Setting article properties for a publication using RMO in C# .NET

    - by Pavan Kumar
    I am using transaction replication with push subscription. I am developing a UI for replication using RMO in C#.NET between different instances of the same database within same machine holding similar schema and structure. I am using Single subscriber and multiple publisher topology. During creation of publication i want to set a few article properties such as Keep the existing object unchanged ,allow schema changes at subscriber to false a,copy foriegn key constarint and copy check constraints to true. How do i set the article properties using RMO in C# .NET. I am using Visual Studio 2008 SP1.I also want to know as how we can select all the objects including Tables,Views,Stored Procedures for publishing at one stretch. I could do it for one table but i want to select all the tables at one stretch. This is the code snippet i used for selecting single table for publishing. TransArticle ta = new TransArticle(); ta.Name = "Article_1"; ta.PublicationName = "TransReplication_DB2"; ta.DatabaseName = "DB2"; ta.SourceObjectName = "person"; ta.SourceObjectOwner = "dbo"; ta.ConnectionContext = conn; ta.Create();

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  • HttpModule.Init - safely add HttpApplication.BeginRequest handler in IIS7 integrated mode

    - by Paul Smith
    My question is similar but not identical to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1123741/why-cant-my-host-softsyshosting-com-support-beginrequest-and-endrequest-event (I've also read the mvolo blog referenced therein) The goal is to successfully hook HttpApplication.BeginRequest in the IHttpModule.Init event (or anywhere internal to the module), using a normal HttpModule integrated via the system.webServer config, i.e. one that doesn't: invade Global.asax or override the HttpApplication (the module is intended to be self-contained & reusable, so e.g. I have a config like this): <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false"/> <modules> <remove name="TheHttpModule" /> <add name="TheHttpModule" type="Company.HttpModules.TheHttpModule" preCondition="managedHandler" /> So far, any strategy I've tried to attach a listener to HttpApplication.BeginRequest results in one of two things, symptom 1 is that BeginRequest never fires, or symptom 2 is that the following exception gets thrown on all managed requests, and I cannot catch & handle it from user code: Stack Trace: [NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] System.Web.PipelineModuleStepContainer.GetEventCount(RequestNotification notification, Boolean isPostEvent) +30 System.Web.PipelineStepManager.ResumeSteps(Exception error) +1112 System.Web.HttpApplication.BeginProcessRequestNotification(HttpContext context, AsyncCallback cb) +113 System.Web.HttpRuntime.ProcessRequestNotificationPrivate(IIS7WorkerRequest wr, HttpContext context) +616 Commenting out app.BeginRequest += new EventHandler(this.OnBeginRequest) in Init stops the exception of course. Init does not reference the Context or Request objects at all. I have tried: Removed all references to HttpContext.Current anywhere in the project (still symptom 1) Tested removing all code from the body of my OnBeginRequest method, to ensure the problem wasn't internal to the method (= exception) Sniffing the stack trace and only calling app.BeginRequest+=... when if the stack isn't started by InitializeApplication (= BeginRequest not firing) Only calling app.BeginRequest+= on the second pass through Init (= BeginRequest not firing) Anyone know of a good approach? Is there some indirect strategy for hooking Application_Start within the module (seems unlikely)? Another event which a) one can hook from a module's constructor or Init method, and b) which is subsequently a safe place to attach BeginRequest event handlers? Thanks much

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  • How can I coordinate code review tool and RCS (specifically git)

    - by Chris Nelson
    We're committed to git for code management. We're trying to find a tool that will help us systematize code reviews. We're considering Gerrit and Code Collaborator but would welcome other suggestions. We're having a problem answering the question, "How do we know every commit was reviewed?" (Or "What commits have yet to be reviewed?") One answer would be to submit every commit or every push for review and track incomplete reviews in the review tool. I'm not entirely happy with relying on a another tool -- especially if it's not open source -- to tell us this. What seems to be a better answer is to rely on sign offs in git (e.g., "Signed-off-by: Chris Nelson") and use a hook in the review tool to sign off commits on behalf of the reviewer. And advantage of this is if we use some other review mechanism for some commits, we have just one place to look for results. One problem with this is that we can't require review before push because the review tool is unlikely to have access to the developer's private repository clone to add the sign-off. Any ideas on integrating code review with code management to achieve ease of use and high visibility of unreviewed changes?

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  • How to use a viewstate'd object as a datasource for controls on a user control

    - by user557325
    I've got a listview on a control. Each row comprises a checkbox and another listview. The outer listview is bound to a property on the control (via a method call, can't set a property as a SelectMethod on an ObjectDataSource it would appear) which is lazy loaded suchly: Public ReadOnly Property ProductLineChargeDetails() As List(Of WebServiceProductLineChargeDetail) Get If ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails") Is Nothing Then ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails") = GetWebServiceProductLineChargeDetails() End If Return DirectCast(ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails"), Global.System.Collections.Generic.List(Of Global.MI.Open.WebServiceProductLineChargeDetail)) End Get End Property The shape of the object referenced by the data source is something like this: (psuedocode) Product { bool Licenced; List<Charge> charges; } Charge { int property1; string property2; bool property3 . . . } The reason for the use of viewstate is this: When an one of the checkboxes on one of the outer list view rows is checked or unchecked I want to modify the object that the ODS represents (for example I'll add a couple of Charge objects to the relevant Product object) and then rebind. The problem I'm getting is that after every postback (specifically after checking or unchecking one of the rows' checkbox) my viewstate is empty. Thiss means that any changes I make to my viewstate'd object is lost. Now, I've worked out (after much googling and reading, amongst many others, Scott Mitchel's excellent bit on ViewState) that during initial databinding IsTrackingViewState is set to false. That means, I think, that assigning the return from GetWebServiceProductLineChargeDetails() to the ViewState item in my Property Get during the initial databind won't work. Mind you, even when the IsTrackingViewState is true and I call the Property Get, come the next postback, the viewstate is empty. So do you chaps have any ideas on how I keep the object referenced by the ObjectDataSource in ViewState between postbacks and update it and get those changes to stay in ViewState? This has been going on for a couple of days now and I'm getting fed up! Cheers in advance Steve

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  • Stock management of assemblies and its sub parts

    - by The Disintegrator
    I have to track the stock of individual parts and kits (assemblies) and can't find a satisfactory way of doing this. Sample bogus and hyper simplified database: Table prod: prodID 1 prodName Flux capacitor prodCost 900 prodPrice 1350 (900*1.5) prodStock 3 - prodID 2 prodName Mr Fusion prodCost 300 prodPrice 600 (300*2) prodStock 2 - prodID 3 prodName Time travel kit prodCost 1650 (1350+300) prodPrice 2145 (1650*1.3) prodStock 2 Table rels relID 1 relSrc 1 (Flux capacitor) relType 4 (is a subpart of) relDst 3 (Time travel kit) - relID 2 relSrc 2 (Mr Fusion) relType 4 (is a subpart of) relDst 3 (Time travel kit) prodPrice: it's calculated based on the cost but not in a linear way. In this example for costs of 500 or less, the markup is a 200%. For costs of 500-1000 the markup is 150%. For costs of 1000+ the markup is 130% That's why the time travel kit is much cheaper than the individual parts prodStock: here is my problem. I can sell kits or the individual parts, So the stock of the kits is virtual. The problem when I buy: Some providers sell me the Time Travel kit as a whole (with one barcode) and some sells me the individual parts (with a different barcode) So when I load the stock I don't know how to impute it. The problem when I sell: If I only sell kits, calculate the stock would be easy: "I have 3 Flux capacitors and 2 Mr Fusions, so I have 2 Time travel kits and a Flux Capacitor" But I can sell Kits or individual parts. So, I have to track the stock of the individual parts and the possible kits at the same time (and I have to compensate for the sell price) Probably this is really simple, but I can't see a simple solution. Resuming: I have to find a way of tracking the stock and the database/program is the one who has to do it (I cant ask the clerk to correct the stock) I'm using php+MySql. But this is more a logical problem than a programing one

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  • VMWare steals IP addresses [closed]

    - by Ishan Amin
    I'm having a peculiar problem, that I think I have narrowed down to VMware. For the past one year, every once in a while we lose internet connection and not all users (about 10 users) go down at the same time, its usually one-by-one. First someone will call me and say "Internet is down" and then we would go reset the router and modem and switch and it would be working again for a while, then go down again without any pattern or replicatable sequence. We'd go repeat the steps again to get everyone in the office running again. We called our Internet Service Provider and they constantly say, We see your modem and we see your router and from thier end everything is OK. we replaced our router and switch and modem, twice! Last friday, it dawned upon me, that everytime we turn on a VMware machine, this sequence of taking everyone down starts, which also explains the message that my users get for "IP Conflict Found" So we do alot of VMware testing and lo and behold, it takes my Internet down. My Yahoo and Gtalk would continue working but www is down when the VMware machines are started. I do use bridged networking to all the VMware machines, but I dont know what else to set it at. now, sorry for this long rambling but anyone have any clue on how to stop this? thanks IA

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  • Linq to SQL with INSTEAD OF Trigger and an Identity Column

    - by Bob Horn
    I need to use the clock on my SQL Server to write a time to one of my tables, so I thought I'd just use GETDATE(). The problem is that I'm getting an error because of my INSTEAD OF trigger. Is there a way to set one column to GETDATE() when another column is an identity column? This is the Linq-to-SQL: internal void LogProcessPoint(WorkflowCreated workflowCreated, int processCode) { ProcessLoggingRecord processLoggingRecord = new ProcessLoggingRecord() { ProcessCode = processCode, SubId = workflowCreated.SubId, EventTime = DateTime.Now // I don't care what this is. SQL Server will use GETDATE() instead. }; this.Database.Add<ProcessLoggingRecord>(processLoggingRecord); } This is the table. EventTime is what I want to have as GETDATE(). I don't want the column to be null. And here is the trigger: ALTER TRIGGER [Master].[ProcessLoggingEventTimeTrigger] ON [Master].[ProcessLogging] INSTEAD OF INSERT AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; SET IDENTITY_INSERT [Master].[ProcessLogging] ON; INSERT INTO ProcessLogging (ProcessLoggingId, ProcessCode, SubId, EventTime, LastModifiedUser) SELECT ProcessLoggingId, ProcessCode, SubId, GETDATE(), LastModifiedUser FROM inserted SET IDENTITY_INSERT [Master].[ProcessLogging] OFF; END Without getting into all of the variations I've tried, this last attempt produces this error: InvalidOperationException Member AutoSync failure. For members to be AutoSynced after insert, the type must either have an auto-generated identity, or a key that is not modified by the database after insert. I could remove EventTime from my entity, but I don't want to do that. If it was gone though, then it would be NULL during the INSERT and GETDATE() would be used. Is there a way that I can simply use GETDATE() on the EventTime column for INSERTs? Note: I do not want to use C#'s DateTime.Now for two reasons: 1. One of these inserts is generated by SQL Server itself (from another stored procedure) 2. Times can be different on different machines, and I'd like to know exactly how fast my processes are happening.

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  • Running multiple instances of tomcat in eclipse WTP

    - by lisak
    Hey, SCENARIO: 10 CATALINA_BASEs with own configuration (always the same port numbers 8080, but 10 different IP/hostnames on one host via virtual IPs). created a server in WTP and pick "Use the custom location" option in the server configuration in eclipse. New configuration files are created in workspace/Server/server-name-config/ Set up the server path and deploy path for my catalina base (not the internal .metadata one) After I started it, the new configuration files overwrote the original catalina-base/conf files I had there - I was glad, it should be like this but after I made changes in the eclipse config files workspace/Server/server-name-config/ and restarted the server, the changes didn't appeared in the original files in CATALINA_BASE/conf What the hell is that ? So I set the CATALINA_BASE/conf/server.xml to fault configuration and restarted tomcat from eclipse and it worked ! it took the configuration from /Server/server-name-config/server.xml Then I deleted CATALINA_BASE/conf/server.xml and it said that there is no server.xml in catalina base ! How is it possible ? I don't understand why eclipse WTP developers made so tight integration. There should by just symbolic links in /Server/server-name-config/ pointing to CATALINA_BASE/conf/ ... now there is a weird system which is totally unpredictable. The changes in /Server/server-name-config/ are not reflected in CATALINA_BASE/conf ... from where the standard bootstrap.jar or other catalina classloaders and classes build server, engine and other objects with particular setting. Moreover the CATALINA_BASEs could be used outside eclipse then. The second problem, I'm setting up various things in CATALINA_BASE/bin/startup.sh and setenv.sh which is easy cause I can use bash for it. Is then modifying VM parameters in the "Open launch configuration" settings the only way how to do it in eclipse ? Sorry for such a huge pile of questions, but I'm annoyed by the fact that it is much better to not use eclipse WTP for this because it is very poorly designed and it's a shame because this would spare me a lot of time. And using the internal .metadata/ instances it's even more terrifying way that the one I described.

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  • GAE modeling relationship options

    - by Sway
    Hi there, I need to model the following situation and I can't seem to find a consistent example on how to do it "correctly" for the google app engine. Suppose I've got a simple situation like the following: [Company] 1 ----- M [Stare] A company has one to many stores. Each store has an address made up of a address line 1, city, state, country, postcode etc. Ok. Lets say we need to create say an "Audit". An Audit is for a company and can be across one to many stares. So something like: [Audit] 1 ------ 1 [Company] 1 ------ M [Store] Now we need to query all of the "audits" based on the Store "addresses" in order to send the "Auditors" to the right locations. There seem to be numerous articles like this one: http://code.google.com/appengine/articles/modeling.html Which give examples of creating a "ContactCompany" model class. However they also say that you should use this kind of relationship only when you "really need to" and with "care" for performance. I've also read - frequently - that you should denormalize as much as possible thereby moving all of the "query-able" data into the Audit class. So what would you suggest as the best way to solve this? I've seen that there is an Expando class but I'm not sure if that is the "best" option for this. Any help or thoughts on this would be totally appreciated. Thanks in advance, Matt

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  • Using singleton instead of a global static instance

    - by Farstucker
    I ran into a problem today and a friend recommended I use a global static instance or more elegantly a singleton pattern. I spent a few hours reading about singletons but a few things still escape me. Background: What Im trying to accomplish is creating an instance of an API and use this one instance in all my classes (as opposed to making a new connection, etc). There seems to be about 100 ways of creating a singleton but with some help from yoda I found some thread safe examples. ..so given the following code: public sealed class Singleton { public static Singleton Instance { get; private set; } private Singleton() { APIClass api = new APIClass(); //Can this be done? } static Singleton() { Instance = new Singleton(); } } How/Where would you instantiate the this new class and how should it be called from a separate class? EDIT: I realize the Singleton class can be called with something like Singleton obj1 = Singleton.Instance(); but would I be able to access the methods within the APIs Class (ie. obj1.Start)? (not that I need to, just asking) EDIT #2: I might have been a bit premature in checking the answer but I do have one small thing that is still causing me problems. The API is launching just fine, unfortunately Im able to launch two instances? New Code public sealed class SingletonAPI { public static SingletonAPI Instance { get; private set; } private SingletonAPI() {} static SingletonAPI() { Instance = new SingletonAPI(); } // API method: public void Start() { API myAPI = new API();} } but if I try to do something like this... SingletonAPI api = SingletonAPI.Instance; api.Start(); SingletonAPI api2 = SingletonAPI.Instance; // This was just for testing. api2.Start(); I get an error saying that I cannot start more than one instance.

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  • Android Layout: Display as much ImageViews as possible without scrolling

    - by Toni4780
    I am working on an app which should display several same size images on the screen. But it should only display only so much images as possible without offering scrolling. E.g. On a "big" tablet it could display 10x10 Imageviews (screen is large, so there is much space for pictures) On a "big" phone there might be enough space to display 6x6 ImageViews, so it should only display a 6x6 array of images. On a small phone there is propably only space for 4x4 ImageViews, so it should only display this. How can I make this in Android? I know about "layout-large", ... but if i make a special fixed xml-layout for a "large" device, it would not fit all devices correct. E.g. a Galaxy Nexus is a "normal" device and so is a Nexus One, but there would be at least be space for one or two more imageview rows on a Galaxy Nexus than on a Nexus One. So do I have to measure in code somehow how big the resolution is and display some TableRows accordingly? Or is there a special way how I can manage this?

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  • Comparing developer productivity tools

    - by Jacob
    I am getting ready to test developer productivity tools for our team (Coderush, Resharper, JustCode, etc). We're planning to roll the tool out the same time as we deploy Visual Studio 2010 and TFS. I've seen several posts discussing the merits of one tool versus another. However, I haven't been able to find any discussion of a methodology self evaluating. One approach I've seen is to use each tool for a month or so and decide which one you like best. This seems completely reasonable if I were evaluating it for myself, but since I'm evaluating for others as well, I'd like to do something more rigorous. I'm hoping to collect some ideas on how to do that. As a starting point, my thinking was to come up a list of 10-20 crucial features to compare, then prepare a matrix where I can compare the relative strengths of each product. Once the matrix is complete, we can make a well informed decision about which product aligns with out needs. Since I'm not a user of any product now, it's been difficult to figure out which features are critical and which are less so. Thank you!

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  • MSN Messenger API

    - by MarceloRamires
    back when I was not working with programming (using skills from courses and school) I started developing a simple program that is supposed to get the Artwork of the album to which the song you're currently listening in iTunes to and set it as you Display Picture in MSN Messenger (everything had to be open at the same time). I was so excited about it, made it as nicely as I could back then (now I consider it a design and usability complete fail), and it surprisingly worked. Now, a couple of versions ahead (MSN from 8.5 to 9.0, iTunes from 8 to 9, and windows from Vista to 7) I am getting some incompatibility issues. Where I work, I use Windows 7, Windows Live Messenger 2009 and iTunes 9 - it works just just like before, but at home I have the same exact setup, but something weird happens: When I open the program (having my itunes AND msn open) it doesn't use the active MSN instance, instead it opens a new one, and doesn't work even on this opened one. I've tried it with a couple of libraries: Interop.Messenger.dll - workis like described above Interop.MessengerAPI.dll - works like described above Interop.MessengerPrivate.dll - never worked MSNMessenger.dll - the one I used before - doesn't work anymore at all What could I do ? Info: Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, C#, WinForms application. I'll watch this question and add any information if requested

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  • Add new language to existing Xcode project localization

    - by leolobato
    Hey guys, I'm working on an existing Xcode 3.2.2 Universal iPhone OS project which is already localized for 4 languages (EN, IT, DE and FR). We are now adding a new language (JA) into this project. Each existing .lproj folder (en.lproj, it.lproj, de.lproj and fr.lproj) has almost 60 files - including PNGs, HTMLs and the Localizable.strings file. Each one of those files appear as localized groups inside Groups & Files in Xcode. They're spread all over the tree. If I right-click one of those groups (say, Localizable.strings) inside Xcode, Get Info, click on "Add Localization" and type "ja" - as the Xcode docs suggest, nothing happens. From what I read in this newgroup, it's possibly because of the way those folders are named. If they were named like English.lproj and Italian.lproj, this was supposed to work. So, for me to actually import a new language localized file into the existing group, I have to: Right-click the localized group file. Choose "Add Existing File". Select the corresponding file inside the ja.lproj folder. I'm about to get a new ja.lproj folder with those 60 localized files and would love to import them in the project in a way that doesn't involve searching for every single file in Groups & Trees and performing those steps... for every one of those 60 files. Is that possible? Is there a right (or better) way to import a new language into this Xcode project?

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