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• How to connect a new query script with SSMS add-in?

  - by squillman

  I'm trying to create a SSMS add-in. One of the things I want to do is to create a new query window and programatically connect it to a server instance (in the context of a SQL Login). I can create the new query script window just fine but I can't find how to connect it without first manually connecting to something else (like the Object Explorer). So in other words, if I connect Obect Explorer to a SQL instance manually and then execute the method of my add-in that creates the query window I can connect it using this code: ServiceCache.ScriptFactory.CreateNewBlankScript( Editors.ScriptType.Sql, ServiceCache.ScriptFactory.CurrentlyActiveWndConnectionInfo.UIConnectionInfo, null); But I don't want to rely on CurrentlyActiveWndConnectionInfo.UIConnectionInfo for the connection. I want to set a SQL Login username and password programatically. Does anyone have any ideas? EDIT: I've managed to get the query window connected by setting the last parameter to an instance of System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection. However, the connection uses the context of the last login that was connected instead of what I'm trying to set programatically. That is, the user it connects as is the one selected in the Connection Dialog that you get when you click the New Query button and don't have an Object Explorer connected. EDIT2: I'm writing (or hoping to write) an add-in to automatically send a SQL statement and the execution results to our case-tracking system when run against our production servers. One thought I had was to remove write permissions and assign logins through this add-in which will also force the user to enter a case # canceling the statement if it's not there. Another thought I've just had is to inspect the server name in ServiceCache.ScriptFactory.CurrentlyActiveWndConnectionInfo.UIConnectionInfo and compare it to our list of production servers. If it matches and there's no case # then cancel the query.

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• Excel VBA Userform Combobox problem

  - by Marc

  I'm having difficulties with a Combobox in a userform in an Excel document. The combobox either doesn't appear in the userform, or the combobox remains blank, and when I enter any character in it, the list of items appears, but 2 or 3 times, instead of just once. When I select an item, the chosen item doesn't appear in the box. It seems as if Excel^picks one at random, and whichever item I choose from the list, it's always the same one that ends up being displayed in the box. Can anyone help me on this one? Thanks a lot!!! This is the code I used: Private Sub ComboBox1_Change() Select Case ComboBox1.Text Case "Een nieuwe start" Case "Alles heeft zijn tijd" Case "De wereld aan je voeten" Case "Een levend boek" Case "Drempels" Case "Kerstmis" Case "Confituur of choco" Case "Hoe groot is de hemel?" Case "Ongelovige Thomas" Case "Feesten" Case "Er is er één jarig!" Case "Eén van hart" Case "Ervoor gaan" Case "Groen gras" Case "RELatie" Case "Vele plaatjes" Case "Iedereen fan" Case "Schattenjacht" Case "Lichtbakens" Case "Rijke Luis" Case "Hemel op aarde" Case "Op bezoek" Case Else End Select End Sub Private Sub UserForm1_Initialize() ComboBox1.Clear ComboBox1.AddItem "Een nieuwe start" ComboBox1.AddItem "Alles heeft zijn tijd" ComboBox1.AddItem "De wereld aan je voeten" ComboBox1.AddItem "Een levend boek" ComboBox1.AddItem "Drempels" ComboBox1.AddItem "Kerstmis" ComboBox1.AddItem "Confituur of choco" ComboBox1.AddItem "Hoe groot is de hemel?" ComboBox1.AddItem "Ongelovige Thomas" ComboBox1.AddItem "Feesten" ComboBox1.AddItem "Er is er één jarig!" ComboBox1.AddItem "Eén van hart" ComboBox1.AddItem "Ervoor gaan" ComboBox1.AddItem "Groen gras" ComboBox1.AddItem "RELatie" ComboBox1.AddItem "Vele plaatjes" ComboBox1.AddItem "Iedereen fan" ComboBox1.AddItem "Schattenjacht" ComboBox1.AddItem "Lichtbakens" ComboBox1.AddItem "Rijke Luis" ComboBox1.AddItem "Hemel op aarde" ComboBox1.AddItem "Op bezoek" ComboBox1.Text = ComboBox1.List(0) End Sub

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• How to create minidump of a .NET process when a certain first chance exception occurs.

  - by mark

  Dear ladies and sirs. My application throws InvalidCastException in the QA environment, something I cannot reproduce in development. I wish to obtain the minidump at the exception moment. I know about adplus, but I am not sure how to use it so that it creates the minidump when InvalidCastException is thrown. Apparently, it does not distinguish one .NET exception from another. May be I am wrong and there is a way. Or, there is another tool to do it. Preferably free one. Anyway, can anyone advice how to handle this issue? Thanks. UPDATE The build is a Debug build in both QA and dev. However, QA runs complex scenarios made possible in the lab, which devs cannot reproduce. Hence I need an ability to make dump when running in QA. I can modify the code and create minidump from code. However, I wish for a more flexible solution, the one not requiring to modify the code every time an issue like this occurs.

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• Core-data: when accessing a relationship, the count method on NSSet fails

  - by lordsandwich

  I'm trying to access a relationship (one to many) programatically. My Data model contains an NSManagedEntity called language (with a two string attributes) with a relationship to an entity called WordCategory (one-to-many). I use an NSFetchRequest to get all the Language entities. that works fine. I get the valueForKey for the relationship and that works fine. I can work with its objects. However, when I try to send the message count to the NSSet that stores the WordCategory objects I get a In other words, this line works: NSLog(@"word category count %@",[[wordCategory anyObject] valueForKey:@"name"]); This one doesn't: NSLog(@"word category count %@",[wordCategory count] I get a the message: EXC_BAD_ACCESS in the debugger. Here's the rest of the code: NSManagedObjectContext *moc = [myAppDelegate managedObjectContext]; NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [request setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Language" inManagedObjectContext:moc]]; NSError *error = nil; NSArray *results = [moc executeFetchRequest:request error: &error]; if (error) { [NSApp presentError:error]; return; } NSManagedObject *obj = [results objectAtIndex:0]; NSSet *wordCategory = [obj valueForKey:@"category"]; NSLog(@"word category count %@",[wordCategory count]); I'll appreciate any light than anybody can shed in this mystery. Thanks for your help!

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• Looking for streaming xml pretty printer in C/C++ using expat or libxml2

  - by Mark Zeren

  I'm looking for a streaming xml pretty printer for C/C++ that's either self contained or that uses libxml2 or expat. I've searched a bit and not found one. It seems like something that would be generally useful. Am I missing an obvious tool that does this? Background: I have a library that outputs xml without whitespace all on one line. In some cases I'd like to pretty print that output. I'm looking for a BSD-ish licensed C/C++ library or sample code that will take a raw xml byte stream and pretty print it. Here's some pseudo code showing one way that I might use this functionality: void my_write(const char* buf, int len); PrettyPrinter pp(bind(&my_write)); while (...) { // ... get some more xml ... const char* buf = xmlSource.get_buf(); int len = xmlSource.get_buf_len(); int written = pp.write(buf, len); // calls my_write with pretty printed xml // ... error handling, maybe call write again, etc. ... } I'd like to avoid instantiating a DOM representation. I already have dependencies on the expat and libxml2 shared libraries, and I'd rather not add any more shared library dependencies.

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• How to get interpolated message in NHibernate.Validator

  - by SztupY

  Hi! I'm trying to integrate NHibernate.Validator with ASP.NET MVC client side validations, and the only problem I found is that I simply can't convert the non-interpolated message to a human-readable one. I thought this would be an easy task, but turned out to be the hardest part of the client-side validation. The main problem is that because it's not server-side, I actually only need the validation attributes that are being used, and I don't actually have an instance or anything else at hand. Here are some excerpts from what I've been already trying: // Get the the default Message Interpolator from the Engine IMessageInterpolator interp = _engine.Interpolator; if (interp == null) { // It is null?? Oh, try to create a new one interp = new NHibernate.Validator.Interpolator.DefaultMessageInterpolator(); } // We need an instance of the object that needs to be validated, se we have to create one object instance = Activator.CreateInstance(Metadata.ContainerType); // we enumerate all attributes of the property. For example we have found a PatternAttribute var a = attr as PatternAttribute; // it seems that the default message interpolator doesn't work, unless initialized if (interp is NHibernate.Validator.Interpolator.DefaultMessageInterpolator) { (interp as NHibernate.Validator.Interpolator.DefaultMessageInterpolator).Initialize(a); } // but even after it is initialized the following will throw a NullReferenceException, although all of the parameters are specified, and they are not null (except for the properties of the instance, which are all null, but this can't be changed) var message = interp.Interpolate(new InterpolationInfo(Metadata.ContainerType, instance, PropertyName, a, interp, a.Message)); I know that the above is a fairly complex code for a seemingly simple question, but I'm still stuck without solution. Is there any way to get the interpolated string out of NHValidator?

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• Django access data passed to form

  - by realshadow

  Hey, I have got a choiceField in my form, where I display filtered data. To filter the data I need two arguments. The first one is not a problem, because I can take it directly from an object, but the second one is dynamically generated. Here is some code: class GroupAdd(forms.Form): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): self.pid = kwargs.pop('parent_id', None) super(GroupAdd, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) parent_id = forms.IntegerField(widget=forms.HiddenInput) choices = forms.ChoiceField( choices = [ [group.node_id, group.name] for group in Objtree.objects.filter( type_id = ObjtreeTypes.objects.values_list('type_id').filter(name = 'group'), parent_id = 50 ).distinct()] + [[0, 'Add a new one'] ], widget = forms.Select( attrs = { 'id': 'group_select' } ) ) I would like to change the parent_id that is passed into the Objtree.objects.filter. As you can see I tried in the init function, as well with kwargs['initial']['parent_id'] and then calling it with self, but that doesnt work, since its out of scope... it was pretty much my last effort. I need to acccess it either trough the initial parameter or directly trough parent_id field, since it already holds its value (passed trough initial). Any help is appreciated, as I am running out of ideas.

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• Stock management of assemblies and its sub parts (relations)

  - by The Disintegrator

  I have to track the stock of individual parts and kits (assemblies) and can't find a satisfactory way of doing this. Sample bogus and hyper simplified database: Table prod: prodID 1 prodName Flux capacitor prodCost 900 prodPrice 1350 (900*1.5) prodStock 3 - prodID 2 prodName Mr Fusion prodCost 300 prodPrice 600 (300*2) prodStock 2 - prodID 3 prodName Time travel kit prodCost 1650 (1350+300) prodPrice 2145 (1650*1.3) prodStock 2 Table rels relID 1 relSrc 1 (Flux capacitor) relType 4 (is a subpart of) relDst 3 (Time travel kit) - relID 2 relSrc 2 (Mr Fusion) relType 4 (is a subpart of) relDst 3 (Time travel kit) prodPrice: it's calculated based on the cost but not in a linear way. In this example for costs of 500 or less, the markup is a 200%. For costs of 500-1000 the markup is 150%. For costs of 1000+ the markup is 130% That's why the time travel kit is much cheaper than the individual parts prodStock: here is my problem. I can sell kits or the individual parts, So the stock of the kits is virtual. The problem when I buy: Some providers sell me the Time Travel kit as a whole (with one barcode) and some sells me the individual parts (with a different barcode) So when I load the stock I don't know how to impute it. The problem when I sell: If I only sell kits, calculate the stock would be easy: "I have 3 Flux capacitors and 2 Mr Fusions, so I have 2 Time travel kits and a Flux Capacitor" But I can sell Kits or individual parts. So, I have to track the stock of the individual parts and the possible kits at the same time (and I have to compensate for the sell price) Probably this is really simple, but I can't see a simple solution. Resuming: I have to find a way of tracking the stock and the database/program is the one who has to do it (I cant ask the clerk to correct the stock) I'm using php+MySql. But this is more a logical problem than a programing one

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• SEO on a Database Driven Website

  - by Ryan Giglio

  I have a question about a site I'm developing. It is a database driven directory site where people can make a profile and list themselves in one or many area codes and in one or many fields of work. When someone is looking for a person to hire, they enter one or more area codes to look in (or select them with checkboxes) and when the form submits, it saves these as a cookie so the site remembers what location you were searching in. You then narrow down your search by category and field (which are links) and get a listing of all the profiles that match your search. What I am concerned about is this: because a search engine can't type in or select area codes to search in, how is it going to find and index any of the profile pages? It doesn't allow the user to search for people without first selecting an area code, because there's no practical purpose to do so. There would also be no practical purpose from a user experience/usability standpoint of simply having a list of each area code as a link to the categories page, but as far as I know, isn't that the only way for search engines to see every person? How does a site like Facebook accomplish this? There isn't some sort of master directory with a link to ever single Facebook user's profile page, and yet they're often the #1 search result for a person's name.

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• Converting VS2008 Solution to VS2010 Creates compile errors in ASP.NET 3.5 SP1

  - by Lukasz

  I am converting a large solution from Visual Studio 2008 to Visual Studio 2010. The conversion completes without errors. When I go to build the solution one particular section of the application throws error but it didn't when the solution was 2008. Error 1 Could not load file or assembly 'System.Web.DataVisualization, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. C:\MyProject\Results\Result.ascx 3 And C:\CMyProject\Results\Result.ascx(3): Build (web): Could not load file or assembly 'System.Web.DataVisualization, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. The dll is in the bin and it is not in the GAC. The .refresh file is pointing to the correct location. And all sections in the Web.Config are there, if you need to see them let me know. I have gone over the fixes I found online and nothing seems to help. I would really appreciate if someone could help me or point me in the right direction? Thank You.

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• Is it practical to program with your feet?

  - by bmm

  Has anyone tried using foot pedals in addition to the traditional keyboard and mouse combo to improve your effectiveness in the editor? Any actual experiences out there? Does it work, or is it just for carpal tunnel relief? I found one blog entry from a programmer who actually tried it: So now I can type using my feet for most of the modifier keys. I am using the pedals as I type this. I am still getting used to them, but the burning in my left wrist has definitely reduced. I think I can also type a little faster, but I am too lazy to do the speed tests with and without the pedals to verify this. On the negative side: Working out where to put your feet when you aren’t typing can be a little awkward. The pedals tend to move around the carpet, despite being metal and quite heavy. Some small spikes might have helped. Although the travel on the pedals is small, they are surprisingly stiff. Another programmer's experience: Anybody with hand pain must get foot pedals, since they can remove a tremendous load from your hands. I have two foot pedals, and use one for the SHIFT key, and the other for the CONTROL key. (I still type META by hand.) I have found that in the process of using the Emacs text editor to compose computer programs, I tend to use the SHIFT, CONTROL and META keys constantly, and it is easy to remove most of this load from one's hands. Some foot switch products: Savant Elite Triple Foot Switch FragPedal Bilbo Step On It!

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• text-overflow:ellipsis in Firefox 4?

  - by Spudley

  The text-overflow:ellipsis; CSS property must be one of the few things that Microsoft has done right for the web. All the other browsers now support it... except Firefox. The Firefox developers have been arguing over it since 2005 but despite the obvious demand for it, they can't seem to actually bring themselves to implement it (even an experimental -moz- implementation would be sufficient). A few years ago, someone worked out a way to hack Firefox 3 to make it support an ellipsis. The hack uses the -moz-binding feature to implement it using XUL. Quite a number of sites are now using this hack. The bad news? Firefox 4 is removing the -moz-binding feature, which means this hack won't work any more. So as soon as Firefox 4 is released (later this month, I hear), we're going to be back to the problem of having it not being able to support this feature. So my question is: Is there any other way around this? (I'm trying to avoid falling back to a Javascript solution if at all possible) [EDIT] Lots of up-votes, so I'm obviously not the only one who wants to know, but I've got one answer so far which basically says 'use javascript'. I'm still hoping for a solution that will either not need JS at all, or at worst only use it as a fall-back where the CSS feature doesn't work. So I'm going to post a bounty on the question, on the off chance that someone, somewhere has found an answer.

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• Tinymce Line break problem on Safari and Chrome

  - by knightrider

  Hello all, Does anyone know how to fix the problem about Tinymce Line break problem on Safari and Chrome. For example, Let's say, I have two line pure text. When I copy and paste through firefox or IE. It's under one p tag. So it's same formatting i saw in the text file which is two line. But if i copy and paste through Chrome or Firefox, it becomes two p tag. So at display there,s one space between that two line. I tried to add safari plugin, but nothing happens. And if i put the plugin called paste_auto_cleanup_on_paste : true, it's removing the space, but two line text became one line. Cany anyone help me out by providing solution ? I noticed that at wordpress which is using Tinymce Editor also, doesn't occur that problem, because seems like they are using span instead of p at editor. If that's the solution, how can i change to span instead of p. Thanks for your help and greatly appreciated.

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• how to queue function behind ajax request

  - by user1052335

  What I'm asking is conceptual rather than why my code doesn't work. I'm trying to make a web app that displays content fetched from a database in a sequence, one at a time, and then waits for a response from the user before continuing to the next one. I'm working with javascript on the client side with the JQuery library and php on the server side. In theory, there's time while waiting for the user's input to fetch information from the server using an AJAX request and have it ready for the use by the time he clicks the button, but there's also a chance that such an AJAX request hasn't completed when he clicks the button. So I need something like pseudocode: display current information fetch next data point from the server in the background onUserInput { if ( ajax request complete) { present the information fetched in this request } else if (ajax request not complete) { wait for ajax request complete present information to user } My question is this: how does one implement this " else if (ajax request not complete) { wait for ajax request complete " part. I'm currently using JQuery for my AJAX needs. I'm somewhat new to working with AJAX, and I did search around, but I didn't find anything that seemed on point. I don't know what tools I should use for this. Some kind of queue maybe? I don't need to be spoon fed. I just need to know how this is done, using what tools or if my desired outcome would be accomplished in some other way entirely. Thanks.

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• How does MSN filter spam?

  - by Marius

  I am trying to create a newsletter for our business. The last few days have been spent testing, and one of things I have noticed is that MSN seemingly randomly filters out some of my test messages. This is super-frustrating. I like the PEAR Mail MIME-package, and have been using that. I may send one email from one of our servers, resulting in the message getting through, and in the next minute, the same message sent from our other server ends up in the junk folder. Then if I add an attachment to the email, and the same message passes though the filter from the server that was previously blocked. I think. What the ####? Is this like throwing a dice, without me having any control over what is trash, and what isn't? I have sent email from several servers, all of which are shared. But I am unsure this is the problem. The problem is that it is seemingly random how MSN filters email. Some emails get through, and some other don't for seemingly irrational reasons. I am running out of ideas, but I am not giving up. Therefore I am writing to you for HARDCORE technical info on how MSN filters spam.

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• cfchart ignores my scalefrom value

  - by Monte Chan

  Hi all, I have the following codes in my page. The style variable holds the custom style. <cfchart chartheight="450" chartwidth="550" gridlines="9" yaxistitle="Score" scalefrom="20" scaleto="100" style="#style#" format="png" > <cfchartseries query="variables.chart_query" type="scatter" seriescolor="##000000" itemcolumn="MyItem" valuecolumn="MyScore"/> </cfchart> Before I begin, please go to http://www.monteandjanicechan.com/chart_good.jpg. This is how I want my report to come up. On the x-axis, there will always be three items as long as at least one of them has values. If an item does not have any values (i.e. 2010), there would not be a marker in the chart. The problem occurs only when only one item has value. Please see http://www.monteandjanicechan.com/chart_bad.jpg. As you can see, 2008 and 2010 do not have any values; y-axis is now scaled from 0 to 100. I have tried setting one of the items (ex. 2008) a value of 0 or something off the chart; it would scale according to this off-the-chart value and the 2009 value. In short, I have to have at least two items with values between 20 and 100 in order for cfchart to scale from 20 to 100. My question is, how can I correct the issue so that cfchart would ALWAYS scale from 20 to 100? I am running CF9. Thanks in advance, Monte

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• Disabling redraw in WinForms app

  - by Ryan

  I'm working on a C#.Net application which has a somewhat annoying bug in it. The main window has a number of tabs, each of which has a grid on it. When switching from one tab to another, or selecting a different row in a grid, it does some background processing, and during this the menu flickers as it's redrawn (File, Help, etc menu items as well as window icon and title). I tried disabling the redraw on the window while switching tabs/rows (WM_SETREDRAW message) at first. In one case, it works perfectly. In the other, it solves the immediate bug (title/menu flicker), but between disabling the redraw and enabling it again, the window is "transparent" to mouse clicks - there's a small window (<1 sec) in which I can click and it will, say, highlight an icon on my desktop, as if the app wasn't there at all. If I have something else running in the background (Firefox, say) it will actually get focus when clicked (and draw part of the browser, say the address bar.) Here's code I added. m = new Message(); m.HWnd = System.Windows.Forms.Application.OpenForms[0].Handle; //top level m.WParam = (IntPtr)0; //disable redraw m.LParam = (IntPtr)0; //unused m.Msg = 11; //wm_setredraw WndProc(ref m); <snip - Application ignores clicks while in this section (in one case) m = new Message(); m.HWnd = System.Windows.Forms.Application.OpenForms[0].Handle; //top level m.WParam = (IntPtr)1; //enable m.LParam = (IntPtr)0; //unused m.Msg = 11; //wm_setredraw WndProc(ref m); System.Windows.Forms.Application.OpenForms[0].Refresh(); Does anyone know if a) there's a way to fix the transparent-application problem here, or b) if I'm doing it wrong in the first place and this should be fixed some other way?

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• How to make comment reply query in MYSQL?

  - by Prashant

  I am having comment reply (only till one level) functionality. All comments can have as many as replies but no replies can have their further replies. So my database table structure is like below Id ParentId Comment 1 0 this is come sample comment text 2 0 this is come sample comment text 3 0 this is come sample comment text 4 1 this is come sample comment text 5 0 this is come sample comment text 6 3 this is come sample comment text 7 1 this is come sample comment text In the above structures, commentid, 1 (has 2 replies) and 3 (1 reply) has replies. So to fetch the comments and their replies, one simple method is first I fetch all the comments having ParentId as 0 and then by running a while loop fetch all the replies of that particular commentId. But that seems to be running hundreds of queries if I'll have around 200 comments on a particular record. So I want to make a query which will fetch Comments with their replies sequentially as following; Id ParentId Comment 1 0 this is come sample comment text 4 1 this is come sample comment text 7 1 this is come sample comment text 2 0 this is come sample comment text 3 0 this is come sample comment text 6 3 this is come sample comment text 5 0 this is come sample comment text I also have a comment date column in my comment table, if anyone wants to use this with comment query. So finally I want to fetch all the comments and their replies by using one single mysql query. Please tell me how I can do that? Thanks

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• Should this even be a has_many :through association?

  - by GoodGets

  A Post belongs_to a User, and a User has_many Posts. A Post also belongs_to a Topic, and a Topic has_many Posts. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Topic < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Post < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :topic end Well, that's pretty simple and very easy to set up, but when I display a Topic, I not only want all of the Posts for that Topic, but also the user_name and the user_photo of the User that made that Post. However, those attributes are stored in the User model and not tied to the Topic. So how would I go about setting that up? Maybe it can already be called since the Post model has two foreign keys, one for the User and one for the Topic? Or, maybe this is some sort of "one-way" has_many through assiociation. Like the Post would be the join model, and a Topic would has_many :users, :through = :posts. But the reverse of this is not true. Like a User does NOT has_many :topics. So would this even need to be has_many :though association? I guess I'm just a little confused on what the controller would look like to call both the Post and the User of that Post for a give Topic. Edit: Seriously, thank you to all that weighed in. I chose tal's answer because I used his code for my controller; however, I could have just as easily chosen either j.'s or tim's instead. Thank you both as well. This was so damn simple to implement, and I think today marks the day that I'm beginning to fall in love with rails.

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• Hibernate bit array to entity mapping

  - by teabot

  I am trying to map a normalized Java model to a legacy database schema using Hibernate 3.5. One particular table encodes a foreign keys in a one-to-many relationship as a bit array column. Consider tables 'person' and 'clubs' that describes people's affiliations to clubs: person .----.------. club: .----.---------.---------------------------. | id | name | | id | name | members | binary(members) | |----+------| |----+---------|---------+-----------------| | 1 | Bob | | 10 | Cricket | 0 | 000 | | 2 | Joe | | 11 | Tennis | 5 | 101 | | 3 | Sue | | 12 | Cooking | 7 | 111 | '----'------' | 13 | Golf | 3 | 100 | '----'---------'---------'-----------------' So hopefully it is clear that person.id is used as the bit index in the bit array club.members. In this example the members column tells us that: no one is a member of Cricket, Bob/Sue - Tennis, Bob/Sue/Joe - Cooking and Sue - Golf. In my Java domain I'd like to declare this with entities like so: class Person { private int id; private String name; ... } class Club { private Set<Person> members; private int id; private String name; ... } I am assuming that I must use a UserType implementation but have been unable to find any examples where the items described by the user type are references to entities - not literal field values - or composites thereof. Additionally I am aware that I'll have to consider how the person entities are fetched when a club instance is loaded. Can anyone tell me how I can tame this legacy schema with Hibernate?

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• iphone menu navigation with buttons help requested

  - by David

  Hi, I'm trying to program an iphone app that will have several different (sub)apps. Ideally, I want to know how to make the main menu for this app look and behave like the iphone's own app menu, but I can't figure it out. If any one knows a package or library that does this, please let me know. Plan B is to mock one using UIButtons, and here is where I'm having problems. Basically, when I press a button that should push a new view, it calls the push method, but I still see the top view. in the app delegate, I have something like: AppViewController *viewController; App1ViewController *app1ViewController; UINavigationController *navController; and in didFinishLaunching method, something like: viewController = [ [ AppViewController alloc ] initWithAppDelegate: self ]; app1ViewController = [ [App1ViewController alloc ] initWithAppDelegate: self ]; navController = [ [ UINavigationController alloc ] initWithRootViewController:viewController]; [window addSubview:viewController.view]; and 2 methods -(void)app1{[ navController pushViewController: app1ViewController animated:YES ];} -(void)back{[ navController popViewControllerAnimated:YES ];} then I have 2 viewcontrollers in AppViewController.h @interface AppViewController : UIViewController { UINavigationController *navController; UIButton *appbtn1, *appbtn2, *appbtn3, *appbtn4; } -(id)initWithAppDelegate:(id)appDelegate; @end @interface App1ViewController : UIViewController { UITextView *textView; UINavigationController *navController; } -(id)initWithAppDelegate:(id)appDelegate; @end and define a loadView for each viewcontroller. However, when I press the app1 button and the app1 method gets called, it says the view hasa been pushed, but my view remains the buttons view, i.e. the root view. If I press the button again, it tells me I can't repush the app1view, the one I can't see. Any ideas? I can post the full code if that helps. Thank you for your time.

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• Doctesting functions that receive and display user input - Python (tearing my hair out)

  - by GlenCrawford

  Howdy! I am currently writing a small application with Python (3.1), and like a good little boy, I am doctesting as I go. However, I've come across a method that I can't seem to doctest. It contains an input(), an because of that, I'm not entirely sure what to place in the "expecting" portion of the doctest. Example code to illustrate my problem follows: """ >>> getFiveNums() Howdy. Please enter five numbers, hit <enter> after each one Please type in a number: Please type in a number: Please type in a number: Please type in a number: Please type in a number: """ import doctest numbers = list() # stores 5 user-entered numbers (strings, for now) in a list def getFiveNums(): print("Howdy. Please enter five numbers, hit <enter> after each one") for i in range(5): newNum = input("Please type in a number:") numbers.append(newNum) print("Here are your numbers: ", numbers) if __name__ == "__main__": doctest.testmod(verbose=True) When running the doctests, the program stops executing immediately after printing the "Expecting" section, waits for me to enter five numbers one after another (without prompts), and then continues. As shown below: I don't know what, if anything, I can place in the Expecting section of my doctest to be able to test a method that receives and then displays user input. So my question (finally) is, is this function doctestable?

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• Relational database data explorer / visualization?

  - by Ian Boyd

  Is there a tool that can let one browse relational data as a graph of connected nodes? For example, i'm faced with trying to cleanse some anomolous data. i can start with two offending rows. In this particular example, the TransactionID should, by business rules, be unique to the table, but i find a transaction that violates that rule: SELECT * FROM LCTTrans WHERE TransactionID = 1075048 LCTID TransactionID ========= ============= 4358 1075048 4359 1075048 2 row(s) affected But really what i want to begin to hunt down all the related data, to try to see which is right. So this hypothetical software would start by showing me these two rows: Next, i want to see that transaction that is linked into this table: Now that transaction points to an MAL, so show me that: Now lets add those two LCTs, that the transaction is "on". A transaction can be on only one LCT, yet this one is pointing to two: Okay computer, both of those LCTs point to an MAL and the transaction that created them, show me those: Those last two transactions, they also point at an MAL, and they themselves point to an LCT, show me those: Okay, now are there any entries in LCTTrans that point to LCTs 4358 or 4359?... And so on, and so on. Now i did all this manually, running single selects, copying and pasting uniqueidentifier keys and converting them into friendly id numbers so i could easily see the relationships. Is there software that can do this?

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• Should I have different models and views for no user data than for some user data?

  - by Sam Holder

  I'm just starting to learn asp.net mvc and I'm not sure what the right thing to do is. I have a user and a user has a collection of (0 or more) reminders. I have a controller for the user which gets the reminders for the currently logged in user from a reminder service. It populates a model which holds some information about the user and the collection of reminders. My question is should I have 2 different views, one for when there are no reminders and one for when there are some reminders? Or should I have 1 view which checks the number of reminders and displays different things? Having one view seems wrong as then I end up with code in my view which says if (Model.Reminders.Count==0){//do something} else {do something else}, and having logic in the view feels wrong. But if I want to have 2 different views then I'd like to have some code like this in my controller: [Authorize] public ActionResult Index() { MembershipUser currentUser = m_membershipService.GetUser(); IList<Reminder> reminders = m_reminderRepository.GetReminders(currentUser); if (reminders.Count == 0) { var model = new EmptyReminderModel { Email = currentUser.Email, UserName = currentUser.UserName }; return View(model); } else { var model = new ReminderModel { Email = currentUser.Email, UserName = currentUser.UserName, Reminders = reminders }; return View(model); } but obviously this doesn't compile as the View can't take both different types. So if I'm going to do this should I return a specific named view from my controller, depending on the emptiness of the reminders, or should my Index() method redirect to other actions like so: [Authorize] public ActionResult Index() { MembershipUser currentUser = m_membershipService.GetUser(); IList<Reminder> reminders = m_reminderRepository.GetReminders(currentUser); if (reminders.Count == 0) { return RedirectToAction("ShowEmptyReminders"); } else { return RedirectToAction("ShowReminders"); } } which seems nicer but then I need to re-query the reminders for the current user in the ShowReminders action. Or should I be doing something else entirely?

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• Database design problem: intermediate table between 2 tables may end up with too many results.

  - by SK.

  I have to design a database to handle forms. Basically, a form needs to go through (exactly) 7 people, one by one. Each person can either agree or decline a form. If one declines, the chain stops and the following people don't even get notified that there is a form. Right now I have thought of those 3 tables: FORM, PERSON, and RESPONSE inbetween. However, my first solution sounds too heavy because each form could have up to 7 responses. Here we are with the table inbetween. That means that each successful form has 7 rows in the table RESPONSE. Here we have the responding information directly inside the form. It looks ugly but at least keeps everything as singular as possible. On the bad side I can't track the response dates, but I don't think it is crucial for that matter. What is your opinion on this? I feel like both of them are wrong and I don't know how to fix that. If that matters, I'll be using Oracle 9.

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