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• How to diagnose computer lockups and freezes?

  - by Scott Mitchell

  I built a desktop computer a couple years back with the following specs: CPU: Intel Core 2 Quad Q9300 Yorkfield 2.5GHz 6 MB L2 Cache LGA 775 95W Quad-Core Processor BX80580Q9300 Motherboard: EVGA 122-CK-NF68-T1 LGA 775 NVIDIA nForce 680i SLI ATX Intel Motherboard Video Card: Two EVGA 256-P2-N758-TR GeForce 8600GT SCC 256 MB 128-bit GDDR3 PCI Express x16 SLI Supported Video Card PSU: SeaSonic S12 Energy Plus SS-550HT 550W ATX12V V2.3 / EPS12V V2.91 SLI Certified CrossFire Ready 80 PLUS Certified Active PFC Power Supply Memory: Two G.SKILL 4 GB (2 x 2 GB) 240-Pin DDR2 SDRAM DDR2 800 (PC2 6400) Dual Channel Kit Desktop Memory Model F2-6400CL5D-4GBPQ Since its inception, the machine has periodically locked up, the regularity having varied over the years from once a day to once a month. Typically, lockups happen once every few days. By "lockup" I mean my computer just freezes. The screen locks up, I can't move the mouse. Hitting keys on my keyboard that normally turn LEDs on or off on the keyboard (such as Caps Lock) no longer turn the LEDs on or off. If there was music playing at the time of the lockup, noise keeps coming out of the speakers, but it's just the current frequency/note that plays indefinitely. There is no BSOD. When such a lockup occurs I have to do a hard reboot by either turning off the computer or hitting the reset button. I have the most recent version of the NVIDIA hardware drivers, and update them semi-regularly, but that hasn't seemed to help. I am currently using Windows 7 x64, but was previously using Windows Server 2003 x64 and having the same lockup issues. My guess is that it's somehow video driver or motherboard related, but I don't know how to go about diagnosing this problem to narrow down which of the two is the culprit. Additional information re: cooling Regarding cooling... I've not installed any after-market cooling systems aside from two regular fans I scavenged from an older computer. The fan atop the CPU is the one that shipped with it. One of the two scavenged fans I added it located at the bottom tower of the corner, in an attempt to create some airflow from front to back. The second fan is pointed directly at the two video cards. SpeedFan installation and readings Per studiohack's suggestion, I installed SpeedFan, which provided the following temperature readings: GPU: 63C GPU: 65C System: 76C CPU: 64C AUX: 36C Core 0: 78C Core 1: 76C Core 2: 79C Core 3: 79C Update #3: Another Lockup :-( Well, I had another lockup last night. :-( SpeedFan reported the CPU temp at 38 C when it happened, and there was no spike in temperature leading up to the freeze. One thing I notice is that the freeze seems more likely to happen if I am watching a video. In fact, of the last 5 freezes over the past month, 4 of them have been while watching a video on Flickr. Not necessarily the same video, but a video nevertheless. I don't know if this is just coincidence or if it means anything. (As an aside, each night before bedtime my 2 year old daughter sits on my lap and watches some home videos on Flickr and, in the last month, has learned the phrase, "Uh oh, computer broke.") Update #4: MemTest86 and 3DMark06 Test Results: Per suggestions in the comments, I ran the MemTest86 overnight and it cycled through the 8 GB of memory 5 times without error. I also ran the 3DMark06 test without a problem (see my scores at http://3dmark.com/3dm06/15163549). So... what now? :-) Any further suggestions on what to check? Is there some way to get a stack trace or something when the computer locks like that? Resolution I have never did figure out the particular problems, but based on the suggestions here and elsewhere, I'm presuming it was a motherboard issue. In any event, I recently upgraded my system, buying a new motherbeard, PSU, CPU, and RAM, and that new rig has been working splendidly the past several weeks. I am using the same graphic cards as in the old setup, so I think it's safe to reason that they weren't the cause of the problem.

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• Start a software company offshore

  - by Mascarpone

  Hello Everybody, I own a small, very young, EU based (Italy) company, and among other things, we sell IT solutions. I have a degree in applied mathematics, and I mainly deal with user interfaces, embedded systems, automation and web applications. You can say that I'm an enlightened entrepreneur because I work only with open source software (OS, IDE, I release under BSD , ... everything is free as in freedom), I give high importance to post sales services and customer satisfaction, plus I think I'm the best boss someone could desire (LOL), as I have google in mind when I think about IT workers rights. But the most beautiful thing is that, although everybody advised us not to use open source, is that we are quite profitable!!! (for the sixth trimester in a row). Now I offshore most of the work to an Indian company. I divide the work in modules and I outsource the longer or more trivial ones. I spend a lot of time defining the specifications and I leave the hard work to them. Using productivity bonuses, a lot of prototypes and third-party audits I think that my software has reached a very good quality level. I would like to start my own software development company, in order to improve control over process and cut costs. Obviously I can't afford the cost of labor in the EU, so I thought about opening a company in Asia. What I need Is: 1) Cheap labor - I can afford to give productivity bonuses and higher than average wages and stay profitable just because labor is cheap. 2) Many talents - I need a good level of tertiary education, and a good number of graduates, so I can hire junior developers and train and teach them according to my needs and philosophies (e.g.: open source mind) 3) Good infrastructure - buildings, transport, internet, .... everything that a company might need. I thought about 3 possible candidates: 1) India - I already work with indian people, I know that they are realiable and speak a good english. Big cities are too expensive, but maybe a small city like lucknow http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lucknow could suits my needs. 2) China - They say it's cheaper than India, but I everytime I worked with a chineese company the language was a big barrier. They work hard, are somewhat skilled and cheap but maybe it's a risky path. Plus I feel a little uncofortable with their lack of human rights. 3) Philippines - Same as china: cheaper than india, but maybe less educated. Where do you think it's the best place to start a software company? Any reading or book to advise? thank you very much

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• Rosewill RSV-S5 and it's transferespeeds

  - by DoomStone

  I have just bought a Rosewill RSV-S5, I have installed 5x1,5Tb Western Digital Green disks in it. After that have I created a Raid5 on them all with the software that followed with the hardware. Not the raid it self works fine, but it is SLOW, I can only obtain a maximum of 25 MB/s, and if SABnzbd+ is downloading with 5 MB/s is it having a hard time streaming a normal DIVX (700 mb) movie. Is this normal or is there something wrong? Edit: should be able to handle 3 Gbps = 384 megabytes / second Edit 2: As you can see am I only downloading with 3,76 MB/s and I'm trying to watch V s02e08 (720p), but it is completely unwatchable, as I can see 30 sec, and the it buffers for 20 sec. Edit: Other information there might be required I'm running Windows Server 2008 R2, optimized for program performance. Windows is installed on a 60GB SSD. I have a 50 Mb/s internet connection and a 1 Gb/s LAN, all connected with Cat6 Ethernet cables. The MCE is using a Gigabyte EP35C-DS3R motherboard with 2 GB DDR2 ram. Edit 3: I have used chunk sizes for 128 KB Edit 4: I found this on newegg Pros: Enclosure for 5x2TB hard drive is fine. This is basically a rebranded San Digital TR5M-B product. For support Rosewill tells you to contact San Digital. No direct support from Silicon Image for the computer raid card. Cons: Includes computer Silicon Image 3132 raid card, extremely slow raid 5 write (our tests ~10MB/s). Compare to regular internal local drive write 30-60MB/s. We basically dumped the Sil3132 card and replaced with High Point RocketRaid 622 card for extra $69.99. Note for RR622, turn off ECRC (end to end CRC check) for card to work on IBM xserver. What took 12hrs to copy now took 2-3hrs. San Digital realized the problem and has the newer model TR5M-BP TowerRaid Plus that comes with High Point RocketRaid 622 card. Rosewill should discontinue this product and go with TR5M-BP. Could not get Silicon Image raid management software to work with complicated 2008R2 server with 10 NICs, application doesn't know how to talk to localhost port with all those NICs. No updates from Silicon Image and support from San Digital ignored. Gave up on Sil3132 card. Save yourself from a lot of headaches, get the RR622 card too if you are going to buy this product. Other Thoughts: The newer model is TR5M-BP TowerRaid Plus, comes with High Point RocketRaid 622 raid card for the PC instead of Silicon Image Sil3132. According to San Digital, raid 5 performance for Sil3132 read 80MB/s write 19MB/s, and RR622 read 154MB/s write 149MB/s. Our RR622 tests gave (8TB raid 5) write ~80-110MB/s copying 40GB file took 8mins. So I have now ordered a HighPoint RocketRAID 622 2P ext SATA III and hopes that it will solve my problems.

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• IPv6: Should I have private addresses?

  - by AlReece45

  Right now, we have a rack of servers. Every server right now has at least 2 IP addresses, one for the public interface, another for the private. The servers that have SSL websites on them have more IP addresses. We also have virtual servers, that are configured similarly. Private Network The private range is currently just used for backups and monitoring. Its a gigabit port, the interface usage does not usually get very high. There are other technologies we're considering using that would use this port: iSCSI (implementations usually recommends dedicating an interface to it, which would be yet another IP network), VPN to get access to the private range (something I'd rather avoid) dedicated database servers LDAP centralized configuration (like puppet) centralized logging We don't have any private addresses in our DNS records (only public addresses). For our servers to utilize the correct IP address for the right interface (and not hard code the IP address) probably requires setting up a private DNS server (So now we add 2 different dns entries to 2 different systems). Public Network Our public range has a variety of services include web, email, and ftp. There is a hardware firewall between our network and the "public" network. We have (relatively secure) method to instruct the firewall to open and close administrative access (web interfaces, ssh, etc) for our current IP address. With either solution discussed, the host-based firewalls will be configured as well. The public network currently runs at a dedicated 20Mbps link. There are a couple of legacy servers with fast-ethernet ports, but they are scheduled for decommissioning. All of the other production boxes have at least 2 Gigabit Ethernet ports. The more traffic-heavy servers have 4-6 available (none is using more than the 2 Gigabit ports right now). IPv6 I want to get an IPv6 prefix from our ISP. So at least every "server" has at least one IPv6 interface. We'll still need to keep the IPv4 addressees up and available for legacy clients (web servers and email at the very least). We have two IP networks right now. Adding the public IPv6 address would make it three. Just use IPv6? I'm thinking about just dumping the private IPv4 range and using the IPv6 range as the primary means of all communications. If an interface starts reaching its capacity, utilize the newly free interfaces to create a trunk. It has the advantage that if either the public or private traffic needs to exceed 1Gbps. The traffic for each interface is already analyzed on a regular basis to predict future bandwidth use. In the rare instances where bandwidth unexpected peaks: utilize QoS to ensure traffic (like our limited SSH access) is prioritized correctly so the problem can be corrected (if possible, our WAN is the bottleneck right now). It also has the advantage of not needing to make an entry for every private address. We may have private DNS (or just LDAP), but it'll be much more limited in scope with less entries to duplicate. Summary I'm trying to make this network as "simple" as possible. At the same time, I want to make sure its reliable, upgradeable, scalable, and (eventually) redundant. Having one IPv6 network, and a legacy IPv4 network seems to be the best solution to me. Regarding using assigned IPv6 addresses for both networks, sharing the available bandwidth on one (more trunked if needed): Are there any technical disadvantages (limitations, buffers, scalability)? Are there any other security considerations (asides from firewalls mentioned above) to consider? Are there regulations or other security requirements (like PCI-DSS) that this doesn't meet? Is there typical software for setting up a Linux network that doesn't have IPv6 support yet? (logging, ldap, puppet) Some other thing I didn't consider?

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• Nginx Multiple Domains

  - by showFocus

  I am trying to add a second virtual host to nginx. When i go to the new domain it redirects to the old one. I have tried restarting Nginx, rebooting the server. Has anyone come across this before, care to share? File: nginx.conf ### user www-data www-data; worker_processes 4; events { worker_connections 1024; } http { include mime.types; default_type application/octet-stream; sendfile on; tcp_nopush on; tcp_nodelay off; keepalive_timeout 5; gzip on; gzip_comp_level 2; gzip_proxied any; gzip_types text/plain text/css application/x-javascript text/xml application/xml application/xml+rss text/javascript; include /usr/local/nginx/sites-enabled/*; } File: ../sites-enabled/domain1.co.uk server { listen 80; server_name www.domain1.co.uk; rewrite ^/(.*) http://domain1.co.uk/$1 permanent; } server { listen 80; server_name domain1.co.uk; access_log /home/me/public_html/domain1.co.uk/log/access.log; error_log /home/me/public_html/domain1.co.uk/log/error.log; location / { root /home/me/public_html/domain1.co.uk/public/; index index.php index.html; # WordPress supercache & permalinks. include /usr/local/nginx/conf/wordpress_params.super_cache; } # pass the PHP scripts to FastCGI server listening on 127.0.0.1:9000 location ~ \.php$ { fastcgi_pass 127.0.0.1:9000; fastcgi_index index.php; include /usr/local/nginx/conf/fastcgi_params; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME /home/me/public_html/domain1.co.uk/public/$fastcgi_script_name; } } File: ../sites-enabled/domain2.co.uk server { listen 80; server_name www.domain2.co.uk; rewrite ^/(.*) http://domain2.co.uk/$1 permanent; } server { listen 80; server_name domain2.co.uk; access_log /home/me/public_html/domain2.co.uk/log/access.log; error_log /home/me/public_html/domain2.co.uk/log/error.log; location / { root /home/me/public_html/domain2.co.uk/public/; index index.php index.html; # Basic version of WordPress parameters, supporting nice permalinks. # include /usr/local/nginx/conf/wordpress_params.regular; # Advanced version of WordPress parameters supporting nice permalinks and WP Super Cache plugin include /usr/local/nginx/conf/wordpress_params.super_cache; } # pass the PHP scripts to FastCGI server listening on 127.0.0.1:9000 # location ~ \.php$ { fastcgi_pass 127.0.0.1:9000; fastcgi_index index.php; include /usr/local/nginx/conf/fastcgi_params; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME /home/me/public_html/domain2/public/$fastcgi_script_name; } }

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• Google Chrome and Firefox Rendering

  - by user13503

  When attempting to visit sites running javascript, Google Chrome and Firefox often fail to render them properly. For example, when hitting google.com/codesearch results, I just get a blank page. http://img340.imageshack.us/img340/8527/200910071518.png This rendering problem happens in both browsers on a machine running Windows XP Professional x64. Internet explorer is able to render the page just fine. Also, controls on other pages sometimes fail to respond, for example in Google Docs. Has anyone encountered this issue before in Chrome/Firefox? Do they share a common installation of the V8 javascript engine? I'm baffled by this issue. Here's the source code for the image above that Chrome loads when attempting to retrieve the page: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"><html><head><script>function a(c){this.t={};this.tick=function(d,e,b){var f=b?b:(new Date).getTime();this.t[d]=[f,e]};this.tick("start",null,c)}var g=new a;window.jstiming={Timer:a,load:g};try{window.jstiming.pt=window.external.pageT}catch(h){}; </script><title></title><script language="javascript" src="/codesearch/js/CachedFile/F1A2CB189D0FCB1FF201C42BF6A5447C.cache.js"></script></head><body><iframe src="javascript:''" id="__gwt_historyFrame" style="width:0;height:0;border:0"></iframe><script>if(window.jstiming){window.jstiming.a={};window.jstiming.c=1;function k(a,d,f){var b=a.t[d];if(!b)return undefined;b=a.t[d][0];if(f!=undefined)var h=f;else h=a.t.start[0];return b-h}window.jstiming.report=function(a,d,f){var b="";if(window.jstiming.pt){b+="&srt="+window.jstiming.pt;delete window.jstiming.pt}try{if(window.external&&window.external.tran)b+="&tran="+window.external.tran}catch(h){}if(a.b)b+="&"+a.b;var e=a.t,p=e.start,l=[],i=[];for(var c in e)if(!(c=="start"))if(!(c.indexOf("_")==0)){var j= e[c][1];if(j)e[j]&&i.push(c+"."+k(a,c,e[j][0]));else p&&l.push(c+"."+k(a,c))}delete e.start;if(d)for(var m in d)b+="&"+m+"="+d[m];var n=[f?f:"http://csi.gstatic.com/csi","?v=3","&s="+(window.jstiming.sn?window.jstiming.sn:"codesearch")+"&action=",a.name,i.length?"&it="+i.join(",")+b:b,"&rt=",l.join(",")].join(""),g=new Image,o=window.jstiming.c++;window.jstiming.a[o]=g;g.onload=g.onerror=function(){delete window.jstiming.a[o]};g.src=n;g=null;return n}}; </script></body></html> Thanks, Steve

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• Fix single entry from mbr

  - by Sander

  I use EasyBCD to manage my tripleboot of (1) Windows Server 2008 R2, (2) Windows 7 Professional and (3) Ubuntu Linux. While trying to change the order of my boot menu I ended up losing the Windows Server entry. Luckily I had a boot menu backup (.bcd file) that allowed me to restore my boot menu using EasyBCD. However, when I now select the Windows Server option in my boot menu the Windows Server Recovery Environment starts up. So I have to select language/keyboard layout/etc. and then I have 3 options as shown in the image below. . My goal is to fix the one corrupted Windows Server entry from my boot menu without messing up or losing the two other ones. I'm guessing the Recovery Console (Command Prompt) is the next step and that I will be needing bootrec.exe. But when consulting this page: Use the Bootrec.exe tool in the Windows Recovery Environment to troubleshoot and repair startup issues in Windows (about half way down there's a link that shows the bootrec.exe options) I'm getting uncertain. The page lists 4 options for bootrec.exe : /FixMbr /FixBoot /ScanOs /RebuildBcd What option do I need to fix just the server entry of my boot menu? Thanks in advance, Sander P.S. All three OS's are on the same physical disk (3 different partitions). Disk layout: System reserved (primary partition, 100 MB) Windows 7 (primary parition, 150 GB) Windows Server 2008 (primary partition, 150 GB) Extended partition (linux partitions (/,/swap,/home), 150GB + data partition, 150 GB) P.P.S. This is what my boot menu looks like using EasyBCD (Detailed/Debug mode) on my Windows 7 installation. Windows Boot Manager -------------------- identifier {9dea862c-5cdd-4e70-acc1-f32b344d4795} device partition=\Device\HarddiskVolume1 description Windows Boot Manager locale en-US inherit {7ea2e1ac-2e61-4728-aaa3-896d9d0a9f0e} default {93f90e43-cae8-11df-b05a-c9177e705936} resumeobject {93f90e3e-cae8-11df-b05a-c9177e705936} displayorder {93f90e43-cae8-11df-b05a-c9177e705936} {93f90e3f-cae8-11df-b05a-c9177e705936} {93f90e46-cae8-11df-b05a-c9177e705936} toolsdisplayorder {b2721d73-1db4-4c62-bf78-c548a880142d} timeout 10 displaybootmenu Yes Windows Boot Loader ------------------- identifier {93f90e43-cae8-11df-b05a-c9177e705936} device partition=\Device\HarddiskVolume3 path \Windows\system32\winload.exe description Windows Server 2008 R2 - Standard locale en-US inherit {6efb52bf-1766-41db-a6b3-0ee5eff72bd7} recoverysequence {93f90e44-cae8-11df-b05a-c9177e705936} recoveryenabled Yes osdevice partition=\Device\HarddiskVolume3 systemroot \Windows resumeobject {93f90e42-cae8-11df-b05a-c9177e705936} nx OptOut Windows Boot Loader ------------------- identifier {93f90e3f-cae8-11df-b05a-c9177e705936} device partition=C: path \Windows\system32\winload.exe description Windows 7 - Professional locale nl-NL inherit {6efb52bf-1766-41db-a6b3-0ee5eff72bd7} recoverysequence {93f90e40-cae8-11df-b05a-c9177e705936} recoveryenabled Yes osdevice partition=C: systemroot \Windows resumeobject {93f90e3e-cae8-11df-b05a-c9177e705936} nx OptIn Real-mode Boot Sector --------------------- identifier {93f90e46-cae8-11df-b05a-c9177e705936} device partition=C: path \NST\AutoNeoGrub0.mbr description Ubuntu 10.04 - Lucid Lynx

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• Subdomains, folders, internationalization, and hosting solutions

  - by justinbach

  I'm a web developer and I recently landed a gig to develop the US / international version of a site for a company that's big in Europe but hasn't done much expansion into the US yet. They've got an existing site at company.com, which should remain visible to European customers after the new site goes up, and an existing (not great) site at company.us, which I'm going to be redeveloping (the .us site will be taken down when my version goes up--keep reading for details). My solution needs to take into account the fact that there are going to be new, localized versions of the site in the fairly near future, so the framework I'm writing needs to be able to handle localizations fairly easily (dynamically load language packs, etc). The tricky thing is the European branch of the company manages the .com site hosting (IIS-based) and the DNS, while I'll be managing the US hosting (and future localizations), which will likely be apache-based. I've never been a big fan of the ".us" TLD--I think most US users are accustomed to visiting the .com--so the thought is that the European branch will detect the IP of inbound traffic and redirect all US-based addresses to us.example.com (or whatever the appropriate localized subdomain might be), which would point to the IP address of my host. I'd then serve the appropriate locale-specific content by pulling the subdomain from the $_SERVER superglobal (assuming PHP). I couldn't find any examples of international organizations that take a subdomain-based approach for localization, but I'm not sure I have any other options as a result of the unique hosting structure here (in that there's not a unified hosting solution for the European and US sites). In my experience, the US version of an international site would live at domain.com/us, not at us.domain.com, and I'd imagine that this has to do with SEO (subdomains are treated as separate sites, so improved rankings for the US site wouldn't help the Canadian version if subdomains are used to differentiate between them). My question is: is there a better approach to solving this problem than the one I'm taking? Ideally, I'd like to use a folder-based approach (see adidas.com as an example of what I'm talking about), but I'm not sure that's a possibility given that the US site (and other localizations) will not be hosted on the same server as the rest of the .com. Can you, in IIS, map a folder (e.g. domain.com/us) to a different IP address? What would you recommend? Thanks for your consideration.

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• SQL Server Log File Won't Shrink due cause "log are pending replication" on non replicated DB?

  - by user796466

  I have a non Mission Critial DB 9am-5pm SQL Server database that I have set up to do nightly full backups and log backups every 30 minutes during business hours. The database is in full recovery and normally I have no reason to truncate/shrink logs unless I do some heavy maintenance. Log backups manage the size with no issue. However I have not been at this client for several weeks and upon inspection I noticed that the log had grown to about 10 times the size of the .mdf file. I poked around backups had been running and I had not gotten any severity error alerts (SQL mail). I attempted to put DB in simple recovery and shrink the log, this was no good. I precede to try a log backup and I got: The log was not truncated because records at the beginning of the log are pending replication or Change Data Capture. Ensure the Log Reader Agent or capture job is running or use sp_repldone to mark transactions as distributed or captured. Restart SQL Server rinse repeat same thing ... I said ??? Replication is not nor ever has been set up on this DB or database /server ??? So the log backups have not been flushing the .ldf. So I did a couple hours of research and I found: http://www.sqlmonster.com/Uwe/Forum.aspx/sql-server/5445/Log-file-is-not-truncated-inspite-of-regular-log-backup http://www.eggheadcafe.com/software/aspnet/30708322/the-log-was-not-truncated-because-records-at-the-beginning-of-the-log-are-pending-replication.aspx seems to be some kind of poorly documented bug ?? The solution seems to have been to run exec sp_repldone, more precisley EXEC sp_repldone @xactid = NULL, @xact_segno = NULL, @numtrans = 0, @time= 0, @reset = 1 This procedure can be used in emergency situations to allow truncation of the transaction log when transactions pending replication are present. Using this procedure prevents Microsoft SQL Server 2000 from replicating the database until the database is unpublished and republished. ~ MSDN When I do that I get the following Msg 18757, Level 16, State 1, Procedure sp_repldone, Line 1 Unable to execute procedure. The database is not published. Execute the procedure in a database that is published for replication. Which makes sense Because the DB has never been published for replication. I have several questions: A) First and foremost is, WTF is going on ? What is causeing this, I am interested in knowing the why here ? Is this genuinley a bug or is there some aspect of the backup that is not functioning properly that cause's the DB to mimick a replicated state ? Someone please edify me on this. B) Second ... Do I really have to publish / replicate this DB to exec this SP to fix this ??? Sounds crazy or is there some T-SQL that I can put it in a published state exec the proc and be on my way ... C) Third, if I do indeed have to publish this database to exec the SP to release this unneeded mis replicated/intended log , to get my .ldf file and backup back on track. How do I publish the database without an online host that it is asking for ??? I don't generally do this kind of database administration and need some guidance. Sorry if this is too verbose but just voicing the question helps me clarify it ... Thank you in advance for your help

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• Asterisk: Dropping calls with an "ast_yyerror"

  - by Nick

  I'm having an intermittent issue where asterisk will play our greeting to the caller, and then drop the call instead of making our phones ring. I'm unable to reproduce the problem with any phones I have here, and many callers get through just fine. Some callers though, run into the problem, and I can't find any pattern to it. The bit of information I could find said it was caused by an error in evaluating a dialplan expression. I'm thinking it's this line: exten = START,n,GotoIf($[${FORCE_CLOSED}=TRUE]?CLOSED,1) But I'm not sure what's wrong with it. I see the following error on the console: [Apr 4 16:29:49] WARNING[27038]: ast_expr2.fl:459 ast_yyerror: ast_yyerror(): syntax error: syntax error, unexpected '=', expecting $end; Input:=TRUE^ Surrounding Console output: -- Executing [START@AGInbound:1] Answer("IAX2/AtlantaTeliax-10086", "") in new stack -- Executing [START@AGInbound:2] BackGround("IAX2/AtlantaTeliax-10086", 0000_AG_THANK_YOU_FOR_CALLING_AG") in new stack -- Playing '0000_AG_THANK_YOU_FOR_CALLING_AG.slin' (language 'en') [Apr 4 16:29:49] WARNING[27038]: ast_expr2.fl:459 ast_yyerror: ast_yyerror(): syntax error: syntax error, unexpected '=', expecting $end; Input: =TRUE ^ [Apr 4 16:29:49] WARNING[27038]: ast_expr2.fl:463 ast_yyerror: If you have questions, please refer to doc/tex/channelvariables.tex in the asterisk source. -- Executing [START@AGInbound:3] GotoIf("IAX2/AtlantaTeliax-10086", "?CLOSED,1") in new stack -- Executing [START@AGInbound:4] GotoIfTime("IAX2/AtlantaTeliax-10086", "9:30-17:0|mon-fri|*|*?OPEN,1") in new stack -- Executing [START@AGInbound:5] GotoIfTime("IAX2/AtlantaTeliax-10086", "10:0-18:30|sat|*|*?OPEN,1") in new stack -- Executing [START@AGInbound:6] GotoIfTime("IAX2/AtlantaTeliax-10086", "12:0-17:0|sun|*|*?OPEN,1") in new stack Relevant lines from the dial plan: exten = START,1,Answer() exten = START,n,Background(0000_AG_THANK_YOU_FOR_CALLING_AG) ; See if we're open ; Force Closed if no one's going to be answering exten = START,n,GotoIf($[${FORCE_CLOSED}=TRUE]?CLOSED,1) exten = START,n,GotoIfTime(${AG_WEEKDAY_OPEN_HOUR}:${AG_WEEKDAY_OPEN_MIN}-${AG$ exten = START,n,GotoIfTime(${AG_SATURDAY_OPEN_HOUR}:${AG_SATURDAY_OPEN_MIN}-${$ exten = START,n,GotoIfTime(${AG_SUNDAY_OPEN_HOUR}:${AG_SUNDAY_OPEN_MIN}-${AG_S$ ; ...and we're not. But maybe the time of day has been overridden? exten = START,n,GotoIf($[${OVERRIDE_TIME_OF_DAY}=TRUE]?OPEN,1) ; No override... We're definatly closed. exten = START,n,Goto(CLOSED,1) Any idea what's wrong with the expression? We recently upgraded from 1.4 to 1.6.

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• Doing TDD Silverlight 4 RC using Visual Studio 2010 RC

  - by user133992

  First I am glad to see better TDD support in VS2010. Support for generating code stubs from my tests is ok - not as good as more mature TDD plug-ins but a good start. I am looking for some best Silverlight 4.0 TDD practices. First Question: Anyone have links, recommendations? I know the new Silverlight Unit Test capabilities are much better (Jeff Wilcox's Mix Presentation). What I am focusing on right now is using TDD to develop pure Silverlight 4.0 Class Library projects - projects without a Silverlight UI project. I've been able to get it to work but not as cleanly as it should be. I can create an Empty VS project. Add A Silverlight 4 Class Library Project. Add a TestProject (not a silverlight Unit Test Project but a plain Test Project). Add a simple test in the Test Project such as: namespace Calculator.Test { [TestClass] public class CalculatorTests { [TestMethod] public void CalulatorAddTest() { Calc c = new Calc(); int expected = 10; int actual = c.Add(6, 4); Assert.AreEqual<int>(expected, actual); } } } Using the new Generate Type and Method from Test feature it will generate the following code in the Silverlight Project: namespace Calculator { public class Calc { public int Add(int p, int p_2) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } } When I run the tests the first time it says the target assembly is Silverlight and not able to run test - Not exact text but the same general idea. When I change the implementation to: namespace Calculator { public class Calc { public int Add(int p, int p_2) { return p + p_2; } } } and re-run the test, it works fine and the test goes green. It also works for all other TDD code I generate after. I also get a warning Mark in the Test Project's reference to the Calculator Silverlight Class Library Assembly. Second Question: Any comments ideas if this just a bug in VS2010 RC or is Silverlight Class Library TDD not really supported. I have not created a Silverlight UI project or changed and build or debug settings so I have no idea what is hosting the silverlight DLL. Finally, some of the Silverlight Class Libraries I need to write will provide functionality that requires elevated Out-Of-Browser rights. Based on the above, it looks like I can use TDD Test Projects against regular Silverlight 4.0 Class Libraries, but I have no idea how I can TDD the elevated OOB functionality without also creating the UI component that gets installed. The UI piece is not really needed for the Library development and gets in the way of what I actually want to TDD. I know I can (and will) mock some of that functionality but at some point I will also need the real thing in my tests. Third Question: Any ideas how to TDD Silverlight 4.0 Class Library project that requires OOB elevated rights? Thanks!

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• How to send messages between c++ .dll and C# app using named pipe?

  - by Gal

  I'm making an injected .dll written in C++, and I want to communicate with a C# app using named pipes. Now, I am using the built in System.IO.Pipe .net classes in the C# app, and I'm using the regular functions in C++. I don't have much experience in C++ (Read: This is my first C++ code..), tho I'm experienced in C#. It seems that the connection with the server and the client is working, the only problem is the messaged aren't being send. I tried making the .dll the server, the C# app the server, making the pipe direction InOut (duplex) but none seems to work. When I tried to make the .dll the server, which sends messages to the C# app, the code I used was like this: DWORD ServerCreate() // function to create the server and wait till it successfully creates it to return. { hPipe = CreateNamedPipe(pipename,//The unique pipe name. This string must have the following form: \\.\pipe\pipename PIPE_ACCESS_DUPLEX, PIPE_TYPE_MESSAGE | PIPE_READMODE_MESSAGE | PIPE_NOWAIT, //write and read and return right away PIPE_UNLIMITED_INSTANCES,//The maximum number of instances that can be created for this pipe 4096 , // output time-out 4096 , // input time-out 0,//client time-out NULL); if(hPipe== INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE) { return 1;//failed } else return 0;//success } void SendMsg(string msg) { DWORD cbWritten; WriteFile(hPipe,msg.c_str(), msg.length()+1, &cbWritten,NULL); } void ProccesingPipeInstance() { while(ServerCreate() == 1)//if failed { Sleep(1000); } //if created success, wait to connect ConnectNamedPipe(hPipe, NULL); for(;;) { SendMsg("HI!"); if( ConnectNamedPipe(hPipe, NULL)==0) if(GetLastError()==ERROR_NO_DATA) { DebugPrintA("previous closed,ERROR_NO_DATA"); DisconnectNamedPipe(hPipe); ConnectNamedPipe(hPipe, NULL); } Sleep(1000); } And the C# cliend like this: static void Main(string[] args) { Console.WriteLine("Hello!"); using (var pipe = new NamedPipeClientStream(".", "HyprPipe", PipeDirection.In)) { Console.WriteLine("Created Client!"); Console.Write("Connecting to pipe server in the .dll ..."); pipe.Connect(); Console.WriteLine("DONE!"); using (var pr = new StreamReader(pipe)) { string t; while ((t = pr.ReadLine()) != null) { Console.WriteLine("Message: {0}",t); } } } } I see that the C# client connected to the .dll, but it won't receive any message.. I tried doing it the other way around, as I said before, and trying to make the C# send messages to the .dll, which would show them in a message box. The .dll was injected and connected to the C# server, but when It received a message it just crashed the application it was injected to. Please help me, or guide me on how to use named pipes between C++ and C# app

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• How to create StackedBarSeries with custom tooltip without losing standard colors

  - by Simon_Weaver

  I have a StackedBarSeries in Silverlight 4 charting (latest release). I have created a DataPointStyle called MyDataPointStyle for a custom tooltip. By itself this breaks the standard palette used for the different bars. I've applied a custom palette - as described in David Anson's blog to the chart. However when I have the DataPointStyle set for my SeriesDefinition objects it does not use this palette. I'm not sure what I'm missing - but David specifically says : ... it enables the use of DynamicResource (currently only supported by the WPF platform) to let users customize their DataPointStyle without inadvertently losing the default/custom Palette colors. (Note: A very popular request!) Unfortunately I'm inadvertently losing these colors - and I can't see why? <chartingToolkit:Chart.Palette> <dataviz:ResourceDictionaryCollection> <ResourceDictionary> <Style x:Key="DataPointStyle" TargetType="Control"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Blue"/> </Style> </ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary> <Style x:Key="DataPointStyle" TargetType="Control"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Green"/> </Style> </ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary> <Style x:Key="DataPointStyle" TargetType="Control"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Red"/> </Style> </ResourceDictionary> </dataviz:ResourceDictionaryCollection> </chartingToolkit:Chart.Palette> <chartingToolkit:Chart.Series> <chartingToolkit:StackedBarSeries> <chartingToolkit:SeriesDefinition IndependentValueBinding="{Binding SKU}" DependentValueBinding="{Binding Qty}" DataPointStyle="{StaticResource MyDataPointStyle}" Title="Regular"/> <chartingToolkit:SeriesDefinition IndependentValueBinding="{Binding SKU}" DependentValueBinding="{Binding Qty}" DataPointStyle="{StaticResource MyDataPointStyle}" Title="FSP Orders"/> <chartingToolkit:StackedBarSeries.IndependentAxis> <chartingToolkit:CategoryAxis Title="SKU" Orientation="Y" FontStyle="Italic" AxisLabelStyle="{StaticResource LeftAxisStyle}"/> </chartingToolkit:StackedBarSeries.IndependentAxis> <chartingToolkit:StackedBarSeries.DependentAxis> <chartingToolkit:LinearAxis Orientation="X" ExtendRangeToOrigin="True" Minimum="0" ShowGridLines="True" /> </chartingToolkit:StackedBarSeries.DependentAxis> </chartingToolkit:StackedBarSeries > </chartingToolkit:Chart.Series> </chartingToolkit:Chart>

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• How to use SQL file streaming win32 API and support WCF streaming

  - by Mahesh

  I'm using Sql server file stream type to store large files in the backend. I'm trying to use WCf to stream the file across to the clients. I'm able to get the handle to the file using SQLFileStream (API). I then try to return this stream. I have implemenetd data chunking on the client side to retrive the data from the stream. I'm able to do it for regular filestream and memory stream. Also if i convert then sqlfilestream in to memorystream that also works. The only think that doesn't work is when I try to return sqlfilestream. What am I doing wrong. I have tried both nettcpbinding with streaming enabled and http binding with MTOM encoding. This is the error message am getting : Socket connection was aborted. This could be caused by an error processing your mesage or a receive timeout being exceeded by the remote host, or an underlying network issue.. Local socket timneout was 00:09:59.... Here is my sample code RemoteFileInfo info = new RemoteFileInfo(); info.FileName = "SampleXMLFileService.xml"; string pathName = DataAccess.GetDataSnapshotPath("DataSnapshot1"); SqlConnection connection = DataAccess.GetConnection(); SqlTransaction sqlTransaction = connection.BeginTransaction("SQLSileStreamingTrans"); SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(); command.Connection = connection; command.Transaction = sqlTransaction; command.CommandText = "SELECT GET_FILESTREAM_TRANSACTION_CONTEXT()"; byte[] transcationContext = command.ExecuteScalar() as byte[]; SqlFileStream stream = new SqlFileStream(pathName, transcationContext, FileAccess.Read); // byte[] bytes = new byte[stream.Length]; // stream.Read(bytes, 0, (int) stream.Length); // Stream reeturnStream = stream; // MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream(bytes); info.FileByteStream = stream; info.Length = info.FileByteStream.Length; connection.Close(); return info; [MessageContract] public class RemoteFileInfo : IDisposable { [MessageHeader(MustUnderstand = true)] public string FileName; [MessageHeader(MustUnderstand = true)] public long Length; [MessageBodyMember(Order = 1)] public System.IO.Stream FileByteStream; public void Dispose() { if (FileByteStream != null) { FileByteStream.Close(); FileByteStream = null; } } } ANy help is appreciated

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• How to setup named instances using StructureMap profiles?

  - by khaledh

  I've done quite a bit of googling and searching here on SO, but couldn't find a similar question or answer. In typical SM configuration you can add multiple named instances for a single PluginType: ForRequestedType<IFoo>() .AddInstances( x => { x.OfConcreteType<FooA>().WithName( "FooA" ); x.OfConcreteType<FooB>().WithName( "FooB" ); } ); No problem there. The problem is that I can't do the same when creating a profile. Most examples explaining how to use profiles use the For<>() method of the passed ProfileExpression: CreateProfile( "Default", p => { p.For<IFoo>().UseConcreteType<FooC>(); } ); I can't seem to find a way to add multiple named instances for the same PluginType as you can do above with regular configuration. The only other method available through ProfileExpression is Type<>(), but I'm not sure if it can be used for this purpose. Edit: I tried to use Type<>() instead of For<>() and it seems to be taking me in the right direction, but I bumped into another problem. To better explain it here's a better example of what I'm trying to do (this is what I posted to the structuremap-users group, no answer yet): ObjectFactory.Initialize( x => { x.CreateProfile( "Nissan", p => { p.Type<ICar>().Is.OfConcreteType<NewNissanCar>().WithName( "New" ); p.Type<ICar>().Is.OfConcreteType<OldNissanCar>().WithName( "Old" ); } ); x.CreateProfile( "Honda", p => { p.Type<ICar>().Is.OfConcreteType<NewHondaCar>().WithName( "New" ); p.Type<ICar>().Is.OfConcreteType<OldHondaCar>().WithName( "Old" ); } ); } ); ObjectFactory.Profile = "Nissan"; ICar newCar = ObjectFactory.GetNamedInstance<ICar>( "New" ); // -> returns NewHondaCar ICar car = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<ICar>(); // -> returns OldNissanCar So even though I set the profile to "Nissan", GetNamedInstance<>("New") returned an instance from the incorrect profile - it should've returned NewNissanCar instead of NewHondaCar. Interestingly, GetInstance<>() uses the correct profile, but because I can't pass an instance name, it returns an arbitrary concrete type from that profile that implements ICar (I guess it just returns the last concrete type added for that interface).

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• How to make a Custom Data Generator for SQL XML DataType.

  - by Keith Sirmons

  Howdy, I am using Visual Studio 2010 and am playing around with the Database Projects. I am creating a DataGenerationPlan to insert data into a simple table, in which one of the column datatypes is XML. Out of the box, the generation plan uses the Regular Expression generator and generates something like this : HGcSv9wa7yM44T9x5oFT4pmBkEmv62lJ7OyAmCnL6yqXC2X.......... I am looking at creating a custom data Generator for this data type and have followed this site for the basics: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa833244.aspx This example works if I am creating a string datatype and using it for a nvarchar datatype. What do I need to change to hook this Generator to the XML Datatype? Below are my code files. The string property works for nvarchar. The XElement property does not work for the xml datatype, and the RecordXMLDataGenerator is not listed as an option in the Generator column for the generation plan. CustomDataGenerators: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using Microsoft.Data.Schema.Tools.DataGenerator; using Microsoft.Data.Schema.Extensibility; using Microsoft.Data.Schema; using Microsoft.Data.Schema.Sql; using System.Xml.Linq; namespace CustomDataGenerators { [DatabaseSchemaProviderCompatibility(typeof(SqlDatabaseSchemaProvider))] public class RecordXMLDataGenerator : Generator { private XElement _RecordData; [Output(Description = "Generates string of XML Data for the Record.", Name = "RecordDataString")] public string RecordDataString { get { return _RecordData.ToString(SaveOptions.None); } } [Output(Description = "Generates XML Data for the Record.", Name = "RecordData")] public XElement RecordData { get { return _RecordData; } } protected override void OnGenerateNextValues() { base.OnGenerateNextValues(); XElement element = new XElement("Root", new XElement("Children1", 1), new XElement("Children6", 6) ); _RecordData = element; } } } XML Extensions File: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <extensions assembly="" version="1" xmlns="urn:Microsoft.Data.Schema.Extensions" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="urn:Microsoft.Data.Schema.Extensions Microsoft.Data.Schema.Extensions.xsd"> <extension type="CustomDataGenerators.RecordXMLDataGenerator" assembly="CustomDataGenerators, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=xxxxxxxxxxxx" enabled="true"/> </extensions> Table.sql: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Record] ( id int IDENTITY (1,1) NOT NULL, recordData xml NULL, userId int NULL, test nvarchar(max) NULL, rowver rowversion NULL, CONSTRAINT pk_RecordID PRIMARY KEY (id) )

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• Android 2.1 GoogleMaps ItemizedOverlay ConcurrentModificationException

  - by Soumya Simanta

  Hi, I cannot figure out the origin of the ConcurrentModificationException. In my activity I'm calling updateMapOverlay(). I'm also calling updateMapOverlay() inside another Thread (a TimerTask) that is invoked on regular intervals. I'm taking the appropriate locks when invoking updateMapOverlay() from both the threads. Is this problem being caused because I'm invoking updateMapOverlay from inside a non-UI thread (i.e., TimerTask). Has anyone else faced a similar issue ? private void updateMapOverlay() { this.itemizedOverlay.refreshItems(createOverlayItemsList()); List<Overlay> overlays = mapView.getOverlays(); overlays.clear(); overlays.add(cotItemizedOverlay); this.mapview.invalidate(); } Thanks. Exception: W/dalvikvm(10641): threadid=3: thread exiting with uncaught exception (group=0x4001b180) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): Uncaught handler: thread main exiting due to uncaught exception E/AndroidRuntime(10641): java.util.ConcurrentModificationException E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at java.util.AbstractList$SimpleListIterator.next(AbstractList.java:64) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at com.google.android.maps.OverlayBundle.draw(OverlayBundle.java:41) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at com.google.android.maps.MapView.onDraw(MapView.java:494) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at android.view.View.draw(View.java:6535) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at android.view.ViewGroup.drawChild(ViewGroup.java:1531) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchDraw(ViewGroup.java:1258) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at android.view.ViewGroup.drawChild(ViewGroup.java:1529) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchDraw(ViewGroup.java:1258) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at android.view.View.draw(View.java:6538) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at android.widget.FrameLayout.draw(FrameLayout.java:352) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at android.view.ViewGroup.drawChild(ViewGroup.java:1531) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchDraw(ViewGroup.java:1258) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at android.view.ViewGroup.drawChild(ViewGroup.java:1529) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchDraw(ViewGroup.java:1258) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at android.view.View.draw(View.java:6538) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at android.widget.FrameLayout.draw(FrameLayout.java:352) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow$DecorView.draw(PhoneWindow.java:1830) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at android.view.ViewRoot.draw(ViewRoot.java:1349) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at android.view.ViewRoot.performTraversals(ViewRoot.java:1114) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at android.view.ViewRoot.handleMessage(ViewRoot.java:1633) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:123) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4363) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:860) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:618) E/AndroidRuntime(10641): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) I/Process ( 95): Sending signal. PID: 10641 SIG: 3

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• Pointer arithmetic and arrays: what's really legal?

  - by bitcruncher

  Consider the following statements: int *pFarr, *pVarr; int farr[3] = {11,22,33}; int varr[3] = {7,8,9}; pFarr = &(farr[0]); pVarr = varr; At this stage, both pointers are pointing at the start of each respective array address. For *pFarr, we are presently looking at 11 and for *pVarr, 7. Equally, if I request the contents of each array through *farr and *varr, i also get 11 and 7. So far so good. Now, let's try pFarr++ and pVarr++. Great. We're now looking at 22 and 8, as expected. But now... Trying to move up farr++ and varr++ ... and we get "wrong type of argument to increment". Now, I recognize the difference between an array pointer and a regular pointer, but since their behaviour is similar, why this limitation? This is further confusing to me when I also consider that in the same program I can call the following function in an ostensibly correct way and in another incorrect way, and I get the same behaviour, though in contrast to what happened in the code posted above!? working_on_pointers ( pFarr, farr ); // calling with expected parameters working_on_pointers ( farr, pFarr ); // calling with inverted parameters . void working_on_pointers ( int *pExpect, int aExpect[] ) { printf("%i", *pExpect); // displays the contents of pExpect ok printf("%i", *aExpect); // displays the contents of aExpect ok pExpect++; // no warnings or errors aExpect++; // no warnings or errors printf("%i", *pExpect); // displays the next element or an overflow element (with no errors) printf("%i", *aExpect); // displays the next element or an overflow element (with no errors) } Could someone help me to understand why array pointers and pointers behave in similar ways in some contexts, but different in others? So many thanks. EDIT: Noobs like myself could further benefit from this resource: http://www.panix.com/~elflord/cpp/gotchas/index.shtml

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• Question About Example In Robert C Martin's _Clean Code_

  - by Jonah

  This is a question about the concept of a function doing only one thing. It won't make sense without some relevant passages for context, so I'll quote them here. They appear on pgs 37-38: To say this differently, we want to be able to read the program as though it were a set of TO paragraphs, each of which is describing the current level of abstraction and referencing subsequent TO paragraphs at the next level down. To include the setups and teardowns, we include setups, then we include the test page content, and then we include the teardowns. To include the setups, we include the suite setup if this is a suite, then we include the regular setup. It turns out to be very dif?cult for programmers to learn to follow this rule and write functions that stay at a single level of abstraction. But learning this trick is also very important. It is the key to keeping functions short and making sure they do “one thing.” Making the code read like a top-down set of TO paragraphs is an effective technique for keeping the abstraction level consistent. He then gives the following example of poor code: public Money calculatePay(Employee e) throws InvalidEmployeeType { switch (e.type) { case COMMISSIONED: return calculateCommissionedPay(e); case HOURLY: return calculateHourlyPay(e); case SALARIED: return calculateSalariedPay(e); default: throw new InvalidEmployeeType(e.type); } } and explains the problems with it as follows: There are several problems with this function. First, it’s large, and when new employee types are added, it will grow. Second, it very clearly does more than one thing. Third, it violates the Single Responsibility Principle7 (SRP) because there is more than one reason for it to change. Fourth, it violates the Open Closed Principle8 (OCP) because it must change whenever new types are added. Now my questions. To begin, it's clear to me how it violates the OCP, and it's clear to me that this alone makes it poor design. However, I am trying to understand each principle, and it's not clear to me how SRP applies. Specifically, the only reason I can imagine for this method to change is the addition of new employee types. There is only one "axis of change." If details of the calculation needed to change, this would only affect the submethods like "calculateHourlyPay()" Also, while in one sense it is obviously doing 3 things, those three things are all at the same level of abstraction, and can all be put into a TO paragraph no different from the example one: TO calculate pay for an employee, we calculate commissioned pay if the employee is commissioned, hourly pay if he is hourly, etc. So aside from its violation of the OCP, this code seems to conform to Martin's other requirements of clean code, even though he's arguing it does not. Can someone please explain what I am missing? Thanks.

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• Including configuration files while compiling a Flex application with MXMLC

  - by Daniel

  Hello there, I'm using: - Flex SDK 3.5.0 - Parsley 2.2.2. - Flash Builder 4 Down in my src folder (which is configured as part of the source path in the Flash Builder), I have a logging.xml which I configure via Parsley: FlexLoggingXmlSupport.initialize(); XmlContextBuilder.build("com/company/product/util/log/logging.xml"); When I run my application through Flash Builder, the XmlContentBuilder seems to locate the logging.xml (the implementation is a regular URLLoader one). When I compile my application using MXMLC (whether in Ant or command-line), and then run the swf, I get the following error: Cause(0): Error loading com/company/product/util/log/logging.xml: Error in URLLoader - cause: Error #2032: Stream Error. URL: file:///C|/workspace/folder01/product/target/com/company/product/util/log/logging.xml - cause: Error #2032: Stream Error. URL: file:///C|/workspace/folder01/product/target/com/company/product/util/log/logging.xml Here is the MXMLC tag in Ant: <mxmlc file="${product.src.dir}/com/company/product/view/Main.mxml" output="${product.target.dir}/${product.release.filename}" keep-generated-actionscript="false"> <load-config filename="${FLEX_HOME}/frameworks/flex-config.xml" /> <!-- source paths --> <source-path path-element="${FLEX_HOME}/frameworks" /> <compiler.source-path path-element="${product.src.dir}" /> <compiler.source-path path-element="${product.locale.dir}/{locale}" /> <compiler.library-path dir="${product.basedir}" append="true"> <include name="libs" /> </compiler.library-path> <warnings>false</warnings> <debug>false</debug> </mxmlc> And here is the command line: \mxmlc.exe -output "C:\temp\Rap.swf" -load-config "C:\Program Files\Adobe\Adobe Flash Builder 4 Plug-in\sdks\3.5.0\frameworks\flex-config.xml" -source-path "C:\Program Files\Adobe\Adobe Flash Builder 4 Plug-in\sdks\3.5.0\frameworks" C:\workspace\folder01\product\src C:\workspace\folder01\product\locale\en_US -library-path+=C:\workspace\folder01\product\libs -file-specs C:\workspace\folder01\product\src\com\company\product\view\main.mxml Now perhaps I don't get this correctly, but as far as I understand the SWF should be compiled with all of the resources in the paths I give MXMLC as source-paths. For some reason it seems that the XML file is not compiled into the SWF, hence the relative path of the XmlContentBuilder isn't located successfully. I could not find any argument to provide the MXMLC with that might solve this. I tried using the -dump-config option with the Flash Builder's compiler, then giving that configuration to MXMLC, but it didn't work either. I tried providing the XmlContentBuilder with an absolute path. That worked fine when I compiled with MXMLC via Ant, but still didn't work when I used MXMLC in the command-line... I'd be happy to be enlightened here, regarding all subjects - using MXMLC, accessing resources with relative paths, configuring logging in Parsley, etc. Many thanks in advance, Daniel

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• Zend Framework + Uplodify Flash Uploader Troubles

  - by Richard Knop

  I've been trying to get the Uploadify flash uploader (www.uploadify.com) to work with Zend Framework, with no success so far. I have placed all Uploadify files under /public/flash-uploader directory. In the controller I include all required files and libraries like this: $this->view->headScript()->appendFile('/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js'); $this->view->headLink()->appendStylesheet('/flash-uploader/css/default.css'); $this->view->headLink()->appendStylesheet('/flash-uploader/css/uploadify.css'); $this->view->headScript()->appendFile('/flash-uploader/scripts/swfobject.js'); $this->view->headScript()->appendFile('/flash-uploader/scripts/jquery.uploadify.v2.1.0.min.js'); And then I activate the plugin like this (#photo is id of the input file field): $(document).ready(function() { $("#photo").uploadify({ 'uploader' : '/flash-uploader/scripts/uploadify.swf', 'script' : 'my-account/flash-upload', 'cancelImg' : '/flash-uploader/cancel.png', 'folder' : 'uploads/tmp', 'queueID' : 'fileQueue', 'auto' : true, 'multi' : true, 'sizeLimit' : 2097152 }); }); As you can see I am targeting the my-account/flash-upload script as a backend processing (my-account is a controller, flash-upload is an action). My form markup looks like this: <form enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post" action="/my-account/upload-public-photo"><ol> <li><label for="photo" class="optional">File Queue<div id="fileQueue"></div></label> <input type="hidden" name="MAX_FILE_SIZE" value="31457280" id="MAX_FILE_SIZE" /> <input type="file" name="photo" id="photo" class="input-file" /></li> <li><div class="button"> <input type="submit" name="upload_public_photo" id="upload_public_photo" value="Save" class="input-submit" /></div></li></ol></form> And yet it's not working. The browse button doesn't even show up as in the demo page, I get only a regular input file field. Any ideas where could the problem be? I've already been staring into the code for hours and I cannot see any mistake anywhere and I'm starting to be exhausted after going through the same 30 lines of code 30 times in a row.

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• F#: Advantages of converting top-level functions to member methods?

  - by J Cooper

  Earlier I requested some feedback on my first F# project. Before closing the question because the scope was too large, someone was kind enough to look it over and leave some feedback. One of the things they mentioned was pointing out that I had a number of regular functions that could be converted to be methods on my datatypes. Dutifully I went through changing things like let getDecisions hand = let (/=/) card1 card2 = matchValue card1 = matchValue card2 let canSplit() = let isPair() = match hand.Cards with | card1 :: card2 :: [] when card1 /=/ card2 -> true | _ -> false not (hasState Splitting hand) && isPair() let decisions = [Hit; Stand] let split = if canSplit() then [Split] else [] let doubleDown = if hasState Initial hand then [DoubleDown] else [] decisions @ split @ doubleDown to this: type Hand // ...stuff... member hand.GetDecisions = let (/=/) (c1 : Card) (c2 : Card) = c1.MatchValue = c2.MatchValue let canSplit() = let isPair() = match hand.Cards with | card1 :: card2 :: [] when card1 /=/ card2 -> true | _ -> false not (hand.HasState Splitting) && isPair() let decisions = [Hit; Stand] let split = if canSplit() then [Split] else [] let doubleDown = if hand.HasState Initial then [DoubleDown] else [] decisions @ split @ doubleDown Now, I don't doubt I'm an idiot, but other than (I'm guessing) making C# interop easier, what did that gain me? Specifically, I found a couple *dis*advantages, not counting the extra work of conversion (which I won't count, since I could have done it this way in the first place, I suppose, although that would have made using F# Interactive more of a pain). For one thing, I'm now no longer able to work with function "pipelining" easily. I had to go and change some |> chained |> calls to (some |> chained).Calls etc. Also, it seemed to make my type system dumber--whereas with my original version, my program needed no type annotations, after converting largely to member methods, I got a bunch of errors about lookups being indeterminate at that point, and I had to go and add type annotations (an example of this is in the (/=/) above). I hope I haven't come off too dubious, as I appreciate the advice I received, and writing idiomatic code is important to me. I'm just curious why the idiom is the way it is :) Thanks!

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• Trouble with OpenLayers Styles.

  - by Jenny

  So, tired of always seeing the bright orange default regular polygons, I'm trying to learn to style OpenLayers. I've had some success with: var layer_style = OpenLayers.Util.extend({},OpenLayers.Feature.Vector.style['default']); layer_style.fillColor = "#000000"; layer_style.strokeColor = "#000000"; polygonLayer = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector("PolygonLayer"); polygonLayer.style = layer_style; But sine I am drawing my polygons with DrawFeature, my style only takes effect once I've finished drawing, and seeing it snap from bright orange to grey is sort of disconcerting. So, I learned about temporary styles, and tried: var layer_style = new OpenLayers.Style({"default": {fillColor: "#000000"}, "temporary": {fillColor: "#000000"}}) polygonLayer = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector("PolygonLayer"); polygonLayer.style = layer_style; This got me a still orange square--until I stopped drawing, when it snapped into completely opaque black. I figured maybe I had to explicitly set the fillOpacity...no dice. Even when I changed both fill colors to be pink and blue, respectively, I still saw only orange and opaque black. I've tried messing with StyleMaps, since I read that if you only add one style to a style map, it uses the default one for everything, including the temporary style. var layer_style = OpenLayers.Util.extend({}, OpenLayers.Feature.Vector.style['default']); var style_map = new OpenLayers.StyleMap(layer_style); polygonLayer = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector("PolygonLayer"); polygonLayer.style = style_map; That got me the black opaque square, too. (Even though that layer style works when not given to a map). Passing the map to the layer itself like so: polygonLayer = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector("PolygonLayer", style_map); Didn't get me anything at all. Orange all the way, even after drawn. polygonLayer = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector("PolygonLayer", {styleMap: style_map}); Is a lot more succesful: Orange while drawing, translucent black with black outline when drawn. Just like when I didn't use a map. Problem is, still no temporary... So, I tried initializing my map this way: var style_map = new OpenLayers.StyleMap({"default": layer_style, "temporary": layer_style}); No opaque square, but no dice for the temporary, either... Still orange snapping to black transparent. Even if I make a new Style (layer_style2), and set temporary to that, still no luck. And no luck with setting "select" style, either. What am I doing wrong? Temporary IS for styling things that are currently being sketched, correct? Is there some other way specific to the drawFeature Controller? Edit: setting extendDefault to be true doesn't seem to help, either... var style_map = new OpenLayers.StyleMap({"default": layer_style, "temporary": layer_style}, {"extendDefault": "true"});

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• PCRE multi line matche problem

  - by Simone Margaritelli

  Hi guys, i have this C++ program (actually it's just a snippet) : #include <iostream> #include <pcre.h> #include <string> using namespace std; int main(){ string pattern = "<a\\s+href\\s*=\\s*\"([^\"]+)\"", html = "<html>\n" "<body>\n" "<a href=\"example_link_1\"/>\n" "<a href=\"example_link_2\"/>\n" "<a href=\"example_link_3\"/>\n" "</body>\n" "</html>"; int i, ccount, rc, *offsets, eoffset; const char *error; pcre *compiled; compiled = pcre_compile( pattern.c_str(), PCRE_CASELESS | PCRE_MULTILINE, &error, &eoffset, 0 ); if( !compiled ){ cerr << "Error compiling the regexp!!" << endl; return 0; } rc = pcre_fullinfo( compiled, 0, PCRE_INFO_CAPTURECOUNT, &ccount ); offsets = new int[ 3 * (ccount + 1) ]; rc = pcre_exec( compiled, 0, html.c_str(), html.length(), 0, 0, offsets, 3 * (ccount + 1) ); if( rc >= 0 ){ for( i = 1; i < rc; ++i ){ cout << "Match : " << html.substr( offsets[2*i], offsets[2*i+1] - offsets[2*i] ) << endl; } } else{ cout << "Sorry, no matches!" << endl; } delete [] offsets; return 0; } As you can see, i'm trying to match html links inside a buffer with the given regular expression (the \\s is \s escaped for C/C++ strings). But, even if in the buffer there are 3 links and the regexp is compiled with the PCRE_CASELESS and PCRE_MULTILINE flags, i match only one element : Match : example_link_1 Note: I start the loop fro index 1 because the pcre library returns the string that matched (not the match itself) as the first element, and the matches follows. What's wrong with this code? The regexp itself i think it's correct (tried in PHP for instance).

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• No properties file found Error for ReloadableResourceBundleMessageSource

  - by samspot

  I'm trying to use a reloadable spring resource bundle but spring cannot find the file. I've tried tons of different paths, but can't get it to work anywhere. In the code below you'll see that i load both the spring bundle and the regular one from the same path variable but only one works. I've been banging my head against this for far too long. Anybody have any ideas? logfile INFO 2010-04-28 11:38:31,805 [main] org.myorg.test.TestMessages: C:\www\htdocs\messages.properties INFO 2010-04-28 11:38:31,805 [main] org.myorg.data.Messages: initializing Spring Message Source to C:\www\htdocs\messages.properties INFO 2010-04-28 11:38:31,821 [main] org.myorg.data.Messages: Attempting to load properties from C:\www\htdocs\messages.properties DEBUG 2010-04-28 11:38:31,836 [main] org.springframework.context.support.ReloadableResourceBundleMessageSource: No properties file found for [C:\www\htdocs\messages.properties_en_US] - neither plain properties nor XML DEBUG 2010-04-28 11:38:31,842 [main] org.springframework.context.support.ReloadableResourceBundleMessageSource: No properties file found for [C:\www\htdocs\messages.properties_en] - neither plain properties nor XML DEBUG 2010-04-28 11:38:31,848 [main] org.springframework.context.support.ReloadableResourceBundleMessageSource: No properties file found for [C:\www\htdocs\messages.properties] - neither plain properties nor XML INFO 2010-04-28 11:38:31,848 [main] org.myorg.test.TestMessages: I am C:\www\htdocs\messages.properties Messages.java package org.myorg.data; import java.io.File; import java.io.FileInputStream; import java.io.IOException; import java.util.PropertyResourceBundle; import java.util.ResourceBundle; import org.apache.commons.logging.Log; import org.apache.commons.logging.LogFactory; import org.springframework.context.support.ReloadableResourceBundleMessageSource; public class Messages { protected static final Log logger = LogFactory.getLog(Messages.class); private static ReloadableResourceBundleMessageSource msgSource = null; private static ResourceBundle RESOURCE_BUNDLE; public static final String PATH = "C:" + File.separator + "www" + File.separator + "htdocs" + File.separator + "messages.properties"; private Messages() { } public static String getString(String key) { initBundle(); return msgSource.getMessage(key, null, RESOURCE_BUNDLE.getString(key), null); } private static void initBundle(){ if(null == msgSource || null == RESOURCE_BUNDLE){ logger.info("initializing Spring Message Source to " + PATH); msgSource = new ReloadableResourceBundleMessageSource(); msgSource.setBasename(PATH); msgSource.setCacheSeconds(1); /* works, but you have to hardcode the platform dependent path starter. It also does not cache */ FileInputStream fis = null; try { logger.info("Attempting to load properties from " + PATH); fis = new FileInputStream(PATH); RESOURCE_BUNDLE = new PropertyResourceBundle(fis); } catch (Exception e) { logger.info("couldn't find " + PATH); } finally { try { if(null != fis) fis.close(); } catch (IOException e) { } } } } } TestMessages.java package org.myorg.test; import org.myorg.data.Messages; public class TestMessages extends AbstractTest { public void testMessage(){ logger.info(Messages.PATH); logger.info(Messages.getString("OpenKey.TEST")); } }

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