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  • In AS3/Flex, how can I get from flat data to hierarchical data?

    - by Dave S
    I have some data that gets pulled out of a database and mapped to an arraycollection. This data has a field called parentid, and I would like to map the data into a new arraycollection with hierarchical information to then feed to an advanced data grid. I think I'm basically trying to take the parent object, add a new property/field/variable of type ArrayCollection called children and then remove the child object from the original list and clone it into the children array? Any help would be greatly appreciated, and I apologize ahead of time for this code: private function PutChildrenWithParents(accountData : ArrayCollection) : ArrayCollection{ var pos_inner:int = 0; var pos_outer:int = 0; while(pos_outer < accountData.length){ if (accountData[pos_outer].ParentId != null){ pos_inner = 0; while(pos_inner < accountData.length){ if (accountData[pos_inner].Id == accountData[pos_outer].ParentId){ accountData.addItemAt( accountData[pos_inner] + {children:new ArrayCollection(accountData[pos_outer])}, pos_inner ); accountData.removeItemAt(pos_outer); accountData.removeItemAt(pos_inner+1); } pos_inner++; } } pos_outer++; } return accountData; }

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  • How to animate a path like it's being drawn, dot by dot? (Raphael.js)

    - by Anton
    How to animate a vector path like it's being drawn by hand? In other words, slowly show the path pixel by pixel. I'm using Raphaël.js, but if your answer is not library specific—like maybe there's some general programming pattern for doing that kind of thing (I'm fairly new to vector animation)—it's welcome! Update I know it's easy to do with straight paths, as easy as an example on that page:: path("M114 253").animate({path: "M114 253 L 234 253"}); But try to change code on that page, say, this way:: path("M114 26").animate({path: "M114 26 C 24 23 234 253 234 253"}); And you'll see what I mean. Path is certainly animated from it initial state (point "M114 26") to the end state (curve "C 24 23 234 253 234 253" starting on point "M114 26"), but not in a way specified in question, not like it's being drawn. (Sorry for not making clear from the start that I don't mean animating straight lines.) I don't see how animateAlong can do that either. It can animate an object along a path, and how can I make this path to gradually show itself while object is being animated along it?

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  • Which way to store this data is effective?

    - by Tattat
    I am writing a game, which need a map, and I want to store the map. The first thing I can think of, is using a 2D-array. But the problem is what data should I store in the 2D-array. The player can tap different place to have different reaction. So, I am thinking store a 2D-array with objects, when player click some position, and I find it in the array, and use the object in that array to execute a cmd. But I have a concern that storing lots of object may use lots of memory. So, I am think storing char/int only. But it seems that not enough for me. I want to store the data like that: { Type:1 Color:Green } No matter what color is, if they are all type 1, the have same reactions in logic, but the visual effect is based on the color. So, it is not easy to store using a prue char/int data, unless I make something like this: 1-5 --> all type 1. 1=color green , 2=color red, 3 = color yellow.... ... 6-10 --> all type 2. 2 = color green, 2 = color red ... ... So, do you have any ideas on how to minimize the ram use, but also easy for me to read... ...thx

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  • How to merge two icons together? (overlay one icon on top of another)

    - by demoncodemonkey
    I've got two 16x16 RGB/A .ICO icon files, each loaded into a separate System.Drawing.Icon object. How would you create a new Icon object containing the merge of the two icons (one overlaid on top of the other)? Edit: I probably wasn't too clear, I don't want to blend two images into each other, I want to overlay one icon on top of another. I should add that the icons already contain transparent parts and I do not need any transparent "blending" to make both icons visible. What I need is to overlay the non-transparent pixels of one icon over the top of another icon. The transparent pixels should let the background icon show through. For example, look at the stackoverflow icon. It has some areas that are grey and orange, and some areas that are totally transparent. Imagine you want to overlay the SO icon on top of the Firefox icon. You would see the greys and oranges of the SO icon in full colour, and where the SO icon is transparent, you would see those parts of the Firefox icon.

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  • BufferedImage & ColorModel in Java

    - by spol
    I am using a image processing library in java to manipulate images.The first step I do is I read an image and create a java.awt.Image.BufferedImage object. I do it in this way, BufferedImage sourceImage = ImageIO.read( new File( filePath ) ); The above code creates a BufferedImage ojbect with a DirectColorModel: rmask=ff0000 gmask=ff00 bmask=ff amask=0. This is what happens when I run the above code on my macbook. But when I run this same code on a linux machine (hosted server), this creates a BufferedImage object with ColorModel: #pixelBits = 24 numComponents = 3 color space = java.awt.color.ICC_ColorSpace@c39a20 transparency = 1 has alpha = false isAlphaPre = false. And I use the same jpg image in both the cases. I don't know why the color model on the same image is different when run on mac and linux. The colormodel for mac has 4 components and the colormodel for linux has 3 components.There is a problem arising because of this, the image processing library that I use always assumes that there are always 4 components in the colormodel of the image passed, and it throws array out of bounds exception when run on linux box. But on macbook, it runs fine. I am not sure if I am doing something wrong or there is a problem with the library. Please let me know your thoughts. Also ask me any questions if I am not making sense!

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  • C++ Constructor With Parameters Won't Initialize, Errors C2059 and C2228

    - by Some Girl
    I'm a C# programmer trying to muddle through C++ to create a Windows Forms Application. I have a Windows Form that makes use of a user-created class. Basically I'm trying to use a constructor that takes parameters, but my form won't let me initialize the object with parameter. Here's the code, hopefully somebody can explain the problem to me because I'm completely baffled... Here's my header file: BankAcct.h public ref class BankAcct { private: int money; public: BankAcct(); BankAcct(int); void Deposit(int); void GetBalance(int&); }; And my definition file: BankAcct.cpp #include "StdAfx.h" #include "BankAcct.h" BankAcct::BankAcct() { money = 0; } BankAcct::BankAcct(int startAmt) { money = startAmt; } void BankAcct::Deposit(int depAmt) { money += depAmt; } void BankAcct::GetBalance(int& balance) { balance = money; } And finally my main form. Won't copy the whole thing, of course, but I'm trying to declare the new bank account object, and start it with a balance of say $50. private: BankAcct myAccount(50); //does not work! WHY?? //private: //BankAcct myAccount; //works then in the form constructor my code is this: public: frmBank(void) { InitializeComponent(); int bal; myAccount.GetBalance(bal); lblBankBalance->Text += Convert::ToString(bal); } I've included the BankAcct.h file at the top of my frmBank.h, what else am I doing wrong here? It works great if I use the default constructor (the one that starts the bank balance at zero). I get the following error messages: error C2059: syntax error: 'constant' and error C2228: left of '.GetBalance' must have class/struct/union Thank you for any and all help on this one!!

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  • std::vector elements initializing

    - by Chameleon
    std::vector<int> v1(1000); std::vector<std::vector<int>> v2(1000); std::vector<std::vector<int>::const_iterator> v3(1000); How elements of these 3 vectors initialized? About int, I test it and I saw that all elements become 0. Is this standard? I believed that primitives remain undefined. I create a vector with 300000000 elements, give non-zero values, delete it and recreate it, to avoid OS memory clear for data safety. Elements of recreated vector were 0 too. What about iterator? Is there a initial value (0) for default constructor or initial value remains undefined? When I check this, iterators point to 0, but this can be OS When I create a special object to track constructors, I saw that for first object, vector run the default constructor and for all others it run the copy constructor. Is this standard? Is there a way to completely avoid initialization of elements? Or I must create my own vector? (Oh my God, I always say NOT ANOTHER VECTOR IMPLEMENTATION) I ask because I use ultra huge sparse matrices with parallel processing, so I cannot use push_back() and of course I don't want useless initialization, when later I will change the value.

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  • Iphone Core Data Internal Inconsistency

    - by kiyoshi
    This question has something to do with the question I posted here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1230858/iphone-core-data-crashing-on-save however the error is different so I am making a new question. Now I get this error when trying to insert new objects into my managedObjectContext: *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: '"MailMessage" is not a subclass of NSManagedObject.' But clearly it is: @interface MailMessage : NSManagedObject { .... And when I run this code: NSManagedObjectModel *managedObjectModel = [[self.managedObjectContext persistentStoreCoordinator] managedObjectModel]; NSEntityDescription *entity =[[managedObjectModel entitiesByName] objectForKey:@"MailMessage"]; NSManagedObject *newObject = [[NSManagedObject alloc] initWithEntity:entity insertIntoManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]; It runs fine when I do not present an MFMailComposeViewController, but if I run this code in the - (void)mailComposeController:(MFMailComposeViewController*)controller didFinishWithResult:(MFMailComposeResult)result error:(NSError*)error { method, it throws the above error when creating the newObject variable. The entity object when I use print object produces the following: (<NSEntityDescription: 0x1202e0>) name MailMessage, managedObjectClassName MailMessage, renamingIdentifier MailMessage, isAbstract 0, superentity name (null), properties { in both cases, so I don't think the managedObjectContext is completely invalid. I have no idea why it would say MailMessage is not a subclass of NSManagedObject at that point, and not at the other. Any help would be appreciated, thanks in advance.

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  • How do I authenticate an ADO.NET Data Service?

    - by lsb
    Hi! I've created an ADO.Net Data Service hosted in a Azure worker role. I want to pass credentials from a simple console client to the service then validate them using a QueryInterceptor. Unfortunately, the credentials don't seem to be making it over the wire. The following is a simplified version of the code I'm using, starting with the DataService on the server: using System; using System.Data.Services; using System.Linq.Expressions; using System.ServiceModel; using System.Web; namespace Oslo.Worker { [ServiceBehavior(AddressFilterMode = AddressFilterMode.Any)] public class AdminService : DataService<OsloEntities> { public static void InitializeService( IDataServiceConfiguration config) { config.SetEntitySetAccessRule("*", EntitySetRights.All); config.SetServiceOperationAccessRule("*", ServiceOperationRights.All); } [QueryInterceptor("Pairs")] public Expression<Func<Pair, bool>> OnQueryPairs() { // This doesn't work!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! if (HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name != "ADMIN") throw new Exception("Ooops!"); return p => true; } } } Here's the AdminService I'm using to instantiate the AdminService in my Azure worker role: using System; using System.Data.Services; namespace Oslo.Worker { public class AdminHost : DataServiceHost { public AdminHost(Uri baseAddress) : base(typeof(AdminService), new Uri[] { baseAddress }) { } } } And finally, here's the client code. using System; using System.Data.Services.Client; using System.Net; using Oslo.Shared; namespace Oslo.ClientTest { public class AdminContext : DataServiceContext { public AdminContext(Uri serviceRoot, string userName, string password) : base(serviceRoot) { Credentials = new NetworkCredential(userName, password); } public DataServiceQuery<Order> Orders { get { return base.CreateQuery<Pair>("Orders"); } } } } I should mention that the code works great with the signal exception that the credentials are not being passed over the wire. Any help in this regard would be greatly appreciated! Thanks....

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  • Apply [ThreadStatic] attribute to a method in external assembly

    - by Sen Jacob
    Can I use an external assembly's static method like [ThreadStatic] method? Here is my situation. The assembly class (which I do not have access to its source) has this structure public class RegistrationManager() { private RegistrationManager() {} public static void RegisterConfiguration(int ID) {} public static object DoWork() {} public static void UnregisterConfiguration(int ID) {} } Once registered, I cannot call the DoWork() with a different ID without unregistering the previously registered one. Actually I want to call the DoWork() method with different IDs simultaneously with multi-threading. If the RegisterConfiguration(int ID) method was [ThreadStatic], I could have call it in different threads without problems with calls, right? So, can I apply the [ThreadStatic] attribute to this method or is there any other way I can call the two static methods same time without waiting for other thread to unregister it? If I check it like the following, it should work. for(int i=0; i < 10; i++) { new Thread(new ThreadStart(() => Checker(i))).Start(); } public string Checker(int i) { public static void RegisterConfiguration(i); // Now i cannot register second time public static object DoWork(i); Thread.Sleep(5000); // DoWork() may take a little while to complete before unregistered public static void UnregisterConfiguration(i); }

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  • What kind of data do I pass into a Django Model.save() method?

    - by poswald
    Lets say that we are getting POSTed a form like this in Django: rate=10 items= [23,12,31,52,83,34] The items are primary keys of an Item model. I have a bunch of business logic that will run and create more items based on this data, the results of some db lookups, and some business logic. I want to put that logic into a save signal or an overridden Model.save() method of another model (let's call it Inventory). The business logic will run when I create a new Inventory object using this form data. Inventory will look like this: class Inventory(models.Model): picked_items = models.ManyToManyField(Item, related_name="items_picked_set") calculated_items = models.ManyToManyField(Item, related_name="items_calculated_set") rate = models.DecimalField() ... other fields here ... New calculated_items will be created based on the passed in items which will be stored as picked_items. My question is this: is it better for the save() method on this model to accept: the request object (I don't really like this coupling) the form data as arguments or kwargs (a list of primary keys and the other form fields) a list of Items (The caller form or view will lookup the list of Items and create a list as well as pass in the other form fields) some other approach? I know this is a bit subjective, but I was wondering what the general idea is. I've looked through a lot of code but I'm having a hard time finding a pattern I like.

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  • Send Automated Email through Windows Service that has an embedded image using C#

    - by Refracted Paladin
    I already have a C# windows service that we use internally to monitor a directory on our network and when it detects a change sends off an email using our internal SMTP server to the specified groups of people. Now I need to embedd an image in that automated email. I understand that I need to create an AlternateView and a Linked Resource and use the Linked Resource's cID in the AlternateView, correct. What I do not understand is where do I put the image? Should I add it to my service project and set Copy to Output Directory = Copy Always? If so, how would I then access when creating my LinkedResource? Also, where do I put the image on the Server hosting the Service? Here is what I have so far but it doesn't seem to work. I don't get any errors, that I am aware of, but I do not get an email either. I am guessing it is looking for the image but that I do not have it in the correct location. // This event is called when an object(file,folder) is created in the srcPath void WatcherCreated(object source , FileSystemEventArgs e) { var folderName = e.Name; var folderPath = e.FullPath; MailMessage mail = new MailMessage(); mail.From = new MailAddress("[email protected]"); mail.To.Add("[email protected]"); mail.Subject = "New Enrollment for " + folderName; AlternateView plainView = AlternateView.CreateAlternateViewFromString("This is the plain text view", null, "text/html"); AlternateView htmlView = AlternateView.CreateAlternateViewFromString("Here is an embedded image. <img src=cid:enrollProcessID>", null, "text/html"); LinkedResource imageResourceLink = new LinkedResource("EnrollmentProcess.jpg") {ContentId = "enrollProcessID"}; htmlView.LinkedResources.Add(imageResourceLink); mail.AlternateViews.Add(plainView); mail.AlternateViews.Add(htmlView); var smtp = new SmtpClient("internalSMTP"); smtp.Send(mail); }

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  • Failed to create a 'System.Windows.RoutedEventHandler' from the text 'Button_Click'

    - by ay89
    In my windows phone 8 application, while trying to create a dependency property I am always getting this exception. what I am doing wrong, plz guide me. {System.Windows.Markup.XamlParseException: Failed to create a 'System.Windows.RoutedEventHandler' from the text 'Button_Click'. [Line: 108 Position: 66] at System.Windows.Application.LoadComponent(Object component, Uri resourceLocator) at com.sap.View.HomePage.InitializeComponent() at com.sap.View.HomePage..ctor()} this is code-behind of Header public static readonly DependencyProperty MenuClickProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("MenuClick", typeof(RoutedEventHandler), typeof(Header), new PropertyMetadata(OnMenuClickHandlerChanged)); public RoutedEventHandler MenuClick { get { return (RoutedEventHandler)GetValue(MenuClickProperty); } set { SetValue(MenuClickProperty, new RoutedEventHandler(value)); } } private static void OnMenuClickHandlerChanged(DependencyObject d, DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { Header header = d as Header; header.OnMenuClickHandlerPropertyChanged(e); } private void OnMenuClickHandlerPropertyChanged(DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { MenuButton.Click += MenuClick; } this is in my user control (Header) <Button Click="{Binding Path=MenuClick, Source={RelativeSource Mode=Self}}" /> this is how i am including control on my Page: <myControls:Header Title="{Binding Title}" MenuClick="Button_Click" /> this is in code-behind: public void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { OpenSettings(); }

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  • How to Bind a Command in WPF

    - by MegaMind
    Sometimes we used complex ways so many times, we forgot the simplest ways to do the task. I know how to do command binding, but i always use same approach. Create a class that implements ICommand interface and from the view model i create new instance of that class and binding works like a charm. This is the code that i used for command binding public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = this; testCommand = new MeCommand(processor); } ICommand testCommand; public ICommand test { get { return testCommand; } } public void processor() { MessageBox.Show("hello world"); } } public class MeCommand : ICommand { public delegate void ExecuteMethod(); private ExecuteMethod meth; public MeCommand(ExecuteMethod exec) { meth = exec; } public bool CanExecute(object parameter) { return false; } public event EventHandler CanExecuteChanged; public void Execute(object parameter) { meth(); } } But i want to know the basic way to do this, no third party dll no new class creation. Do this simple command binding using a single class. Actual class implements from ICommand interface and do the work.

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  • How to translate the fields of a database model?

    - by Tõnis M
    I have some tables/models in a web app that will have multilingual content. For example a university, with it's description in a default language(english) and the user wants he can see the same information in another language( if the object has it's fields translated). If there were only a few languages then I would just add fields like name_en and name_de and so on, but the number of languages isn't fixed, so that' would create a mess. I could also just create a new object with the translated data but then foreign keys wouldn't work, and only some of the fields can be translated so that would create duplicate data. Storing the translations in a file and using gettext or something similar is also not an option since the objects fields can be translated by the website user, not only developers/admins. What would be the best way to design/architect such a database? Searching from the translated data should also be not too complex - as it should not require creating complex joins which would make the queries slower I'm using PostgreSQL and Ruby of Rails but I'm not looking for a technical solution but for a general idea how to design it.

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  • How can I make this simple C# generics factory work?

    - by Kevin Brassen
    I have this design: public interface IFactory<T> { T Create(); T CreateWithSensibleDefaults(); } public class AppleFactory : IFactory<Apple> { ... } public class BananaFactory : IFactory<Banana> { ... } // ... The fictitious Apple and Banana here do not necessarily share any common types (other than object, of course). I don't want clients to have to depend on specific factories, so instead, you can just ask a FactoryManager for a new type. It has a FactoryForType method: IFactory<T> FactoryForType<T>(); Now you can invoke the appropriate interface methods with something like FactoryForType<Apple>().Create(). So far, so good. But there's a problem at the implementation level: how do I store this mapping from types to IFactory<T>s? The naive answer is an IDictionary<Type, IFactory<T>>, but that doesn't work since there's no type covariance on the T (I'm using C# 3.5). Am I just stuck with an IDictionary<Type, object> and doing the casting manually?

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  • A better way of getting a data table with various column types into string array

    - by Vlad
    This should be an easy one, looks like I got myself too confused. I get a table from a database, data ranges from varchar to int to Null values. Cheap and dirty way of converting this into a tab-delimited file that I already have is this (shrunken to preserve space, ugliness is kept on par with original): da.Fill(dt) ' da - DataAdapter ' ' dt - DataTable ' Dim lColumns As Long = dt.Columns.Count Dim arrColumns(dt.Columns.Count) As String Dim arrData(dt.Columns.Count) As Object Dim j As Long = 0 Dim arrData(dt.Columns.Count) As Object For i = 0 To dt.Rows.Count - 1 arrData = dt.Rows(i).ItemArray() For j = 0 To arrData.GetUpperBound(0) - 1 arrColumns(j) = arrData(j).ToString Next wrtOutput.WriteLine(String.Join(strFieldDelimiter, arrColumns)) Array.Clear(arrColumns, 0, arrColumns.GetLength(0)) Array.Clear(arrData, 0, arrData.GetLength(0)) Next Not only this is ugly and inefficient, it is also getting on my nerves. Besides, I want, if possible, to avoid the infamous double-loop through the table. I would really appreciate a clean and safe way of rewriting this piece. I like the approach that is used here - especially that is trying to solve the same problem that I have, but it crashes on me when I apply it to my case directly.

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  • How can I get my business objects layer to use the management layer in their methods?

    - by Tom Pickles
    I have a solution in VS2010 with several projects, each making up a layer within my application. I have business entities which are currently objects with no methods, and I have a management layer which references the business entities layer in it's project. I now think I have designed my application poorly and would like to move methods from helper classes (which are in another layer) into methods I'll create within the business entities themselves. For example I have a VirtualMachine object, which uses a helper class to call a Reboot() method on it which passes the request to the management layer. The static manager class talks to an API that reboots the VM. I want to move the Reboot() method into the VirtualMachine object, but I will need to reference the management layer: public void Reboot() { VMManager.Reboot(this.Name); } So if I add a reference to my management project in my entities project, I get the circular dependency error, which is how it should be. How can I sort this situation out? Do I need to an yet another layer between the entity layer and the management layer? Or, should I just forget it and leave it as it is. The application works ok now, but I am concerned my design isn't particularly OOP centric and I would like to correct this.

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  • Java Graphics not displaying on successive function calls, why?

    - by primehunter326
    Hi, I'm making a visualization for a BST implementation (I posted another question about it the other day). I've created a GUI which displays the viewing area and buttons. I've added code to the BST implementation to recursively traverse the tree, the function takes in coordinates along with the Graphics object which are initially passed in by the main GUI class. My idea was that I'd just have this function re-draw the tree after every update (add, delete, etc...), drawing a rectangle over everything first to "refresh" the viewing area. This also means I could alter the BST implementation (i.e by adding a balance operation) and it wouldn't affect the visualization. The issue I'm having is that the draw function only works the first time it is called, after that it doesn't display anything. I guess I don't fully understand how the Graphics object works since it doesn't behave the way I'd expect it to when getting passed/called from different functions. I know the getGraphics function has something to do with it. Relevant code: private void draw(){ Graphics g = vPanel.getGraphics(); tree.drawTree(g,ORIGIN,ORIGIN); } vPanel is what I'm drawing on private void drawTree(Graphics g, BinaryNode<AnyType> n, int x, int y){ if( n != null ){ drawTree(g, n.left, x-10,y+10 ); if(n.selected){ g.setColor(Color.blue); } else{ g.setColor(Color.gray); } g.fillOval(x,y,20,20); g.setColor(Color.black); g.drawString(n.element.toString(),x,y); drawTree(g,n.right, x+10,y+10); } } It is passed the root node when it is called by the public function. Do I have to have: Graphics g = vPanel.getGraphics(); ...within the drawTree function? This doesn't make sense!! Thanks for your help.

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  • How to lazy load a data structure (python)

    - by Anton Geraschenko
    I have some way of building a data structure (out of some file contents, say): def loadfile(FILE): return # some data structure created from the contents of FILE So I can do things like puppies = loadfile("puppies.csv") # wait for loadfile to work kitties = loadfile("kitties.csv") # wait some more print len(puppies) print puppies[32] In the above example, I wasted a bunch of time actually reading kitties.csv and creating a data structure that I never used. I'd like to avoid that waste without constantly checking if not kitties whenever I want to do something. I'd like to be able to do puppies = lazyload("puppies.csv") # instant kitties = lazyload("kitties.csv") # instant print len(puppies) # wait for loadfile print puppies[32] So if I don't ever try to do anything with kitties, loadfile("kitties.csv") never gets called. Is there some standard way to do this? After playing around with it for a bit, I produced the following solution, which appears to work correctly and is quite brief. Are there some alternatives? Are there drawbacks to using this approach that I should keep in mind? class lazyload: def __init__(self,FILE): self.FILE = FILE self.F = None def __getattr__(self,name): if not self.F: print "loading %s" % self.FILE self.F = loadfile(self.FILE) return object.__getattribute__(self.F, name) What might be even better is if something like this worked: class lazyload: def __init__(self,FILE): self.FILE = FILE def __getattr__(self,name): self = loadfile(self.FILE) # this never gets called again # since self is no longer a # lazyload instance return object.__getattribute__(self, name) But this doesn't work because self is local. It actually ends up calling loadfile every time you do anything.

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  • Problem FlashVars parameter asp.net

    - by sofie-vo
    Code for asp.net page <%@ Page Language="VB" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeFile="trainingupload.aspx.vb" Inherits="trainingupload" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div height> <object width="1000" height="800"> <param name="movie" value="player.swf" /> <param name="FlashVars" value='userid=<%=String.Format(getuser())%>" '/> <embed src="bin-release/trainingscentrum.swf" FlashVars='userid=<%=String.Format(getuser())%>" ' width="1500" height="800" /> </embed> </object> </div> </form> </body> </html> Code behind Public Function getuser() As Guid Dim user As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser() Dim userid As Guid = (CType(user.ProviderUserKey, Guid)) Return userid End Function In the code above I use an function to return the userid. When I replace <%=String.Format(getuser())% with an actual userid, I get the value in my flex application. But this code returns nothing. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Cached data accessed by reference?

    - by arthurdent510
    I am running into an odd problem, and this is the only thing I can think of. I'm storing a list in cache, and I am randomly losing items from my list as users use the site. I have a class that is called that either goes to cache and returns the list from there, or if the cache is over a certain time frame old, it goes to the database and refreshes the cache. So when I pull the data from cache, this is what it looks like.... results = (List<Software>)cache["software"]; And then I return results and do some processing, filter for security, and eventually it winds up on the screen. For each Software record, there can be multiple resources attached to it, and based on how the security goes they may see some, all, or none of the records. So in the security check it will remove some of those resources from the software record. So my question is.... when I return my results list, is it a reference directly to the cache object? So when I remove a resource from the software object, it is really removing from cache as well? If that is the case, is there any way to not return it as a reference? Thanks!

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  • How do I post back information from a webpage that has post-generated content?

    - by meanbunny
    Ok so I am very new to html and the web. Right now I am trying to generate list items on the fly and then have them post back to the web server so I know what the person is trying to obtain. Here is the code for generating the list items: foreach (var item in dataList) { MyDataList.InnerHtml += "<li><a runat='server' onclick='li_Click' id='" + item.Name + "-button'></a></li>"; } Further down I have my click event. protected void li_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //How do I determine here which item was actually clicked? } My question is how do I determine which list item was clicked? Btw, the code running behind is C#. EDIT 1 LinkButton link = new LinkButton(); link.ID = "all-button"; link.Text = "All"; link.Click += new EventHandler(link_Click); MyDataList.Controls.Add(link); Then below I have my link_Click event that never seems to hit a breakpoint. void link_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (sender != null) { if (sender.GetType() == typeof(LinkButton)) { LinkButton button = (LinkButton)sender; if (button.ID == "all-button") { } } } } I know this has to be possible I just cant figure out what I am missing. Edit 2 Ok ok I think I know what the problem is. I was trying to add a second list inside of another list. This was causing the whole thing to have problems. It is working now.

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  • Any techniques to interrupt, kill, or otherwise unwind (releasing synchronization locks) a single de

    - by gojomo
    I have a long-running process where, due to a bug, a trivial/expendable thread is deadlocked with a thread which I would like to continue, so that it can perform some final reporting that would be hard to reproduce in another way. Of course, fixing the bug for future runs is the proper ultimate resolution. Of course, any such forced interrupt/kill/stop of any thread is inherently unsafe and likely to cause other unpredictable inconsistencies. (I'm familiar with all the standard warnings and the reasons for them.) But still, since the only alternative is to kill the JVM process and go through a more lengthy procedure which would result in a less-complete final report, messy/deprecated/dangerous/risky/one-time techniques are exactly what I'd like to try. The JVM is Sun's 1.6.0_16 64-bit on Ubuntu, and the expendable thread is waiting-to-lock an object monitor. Can an OS signal directed to an exact thread create an InterruptedException in the expendable thread? Could attaching with gdb, and directly tampering with JVM data or calling JVM procedures allow a forced-release of the object monitor held by the expendable thread? Would a Thread.interrupt() from another thread generate a InterruptedException from the waiting-to-lock frame? (With some effort, I can inject an arbitrary beanshell script into the running system.) Can the deprecated Thread.stop() be sent via JMX or any other remote-injection method? Any ideas appreciated, the more 'dangerous', the better! And, if your suggestion has worked in personal experience in a similar situation, the best!

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  • Are these saml request-response good enough?

    - by Ashwin
    I have set up a single sign on(SSO) for my services. All the services confirm the identity of the user using the IDPorvider(IDP). In my case I am also the IDP. In my saml request, I have included the following: 1. the level for which auth. is required. 2. the consumer url 3. the destination service url. 4. Issuer Then, encrypting this message with the SP's(service provider) private key and then with the IDP's Public key. Then I am sending this request. The IDP on receiving the request, first decrypts with his own private key and then with SP's public key. In the saml response: 1. destination url 2. Issuer 3. Status of the response Is this good enough? Please give your suggestions?

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