Search Results

Search found 19212 results on 769 pages for 'side projects'.

Page 656/769 | < Previous Page | 652 653 654 655 656 657 658 659 660 661 662 663  | Next Page >

  • Twitter API Rate Limit - Overcoming on an unauthenticated JSON Get with Objective C?

    - by Cian
    I see the rate limit is 150/hr per IP. This'd be fine, but my application is on a mobile phone network (with shared IP addresses). I'd like to query twitter trends, e.g. GET /trends/1/json. This doesn't require authorization, however what if the user first authorized with my application using OAuth, then hit the JSON API? The request is built as follows: - (void) queryTrends:(NSString *) WOEID { NSString *urlString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://api.twitter.com/1/trends/%@.json", WOEID]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlString]; NSURLRequest *theRequest=[NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url cachePolicy:NSURLRequestUseProtocolCachePolicy timeoutInterval:10.0]; NSURLConnection *theConnection=[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self startImmediately:YES]; if (theConnection) { // Create the NSMutableData to hold the received data. theData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } else { NSLog(@"Connection failed in Query Trends"); } //NSData *data = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:urlString]]; } I have no idea how I'd build this request as an authenticated one however, and haven't seen any examples to this effect online. I've read through the twitter OAuth documentation, but I'm still puzzled as to how it should work. I've experimented with OAuth using Ben Gottlieb's prebuild library, and calling this in my first viewDidLoad: OAuthViewController *oAuthVC = [[OAuthViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"OAuthTwitterDemoViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; // [self setViewController:aViewController]; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:oAuthVC animated:YES]; This should store all the keys required in the app's preferences, I just need to know how to build the GET request after authorizing! Maybe this just isn't possible? Maybe I'll have to proxy the requests through a server side application? Any insight would be appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Any solution to IE8 bug rendering error when hiding elements?

    - by Magnar
    Bug: when hiding an element with JavaScript in IE8, the margin of still-visible other elements on the side is ignored. This bug has been introduced with IE8, since it works as expected in IE6+7 (and other browsers). <html> <head> <style> #a, #b, #c, #d {background: #ccf; padding: 4px; margin-bottom: 8px;} </style> </head> <body> <div id="a">a</div> <div id="b">b</div> <div id="c">c</div> <div id="d">d</div> <script> setTimeout(function () { document.getElementById("b").style.display = "none"; }, 1000); </script> </body> </html> When running this code, notice how a and c have a margin of 8 between them in normal browsers, but a margin of 0 in IE8. Remove the padding, and IE8 behaves like normal. Remove the timeout and IE8 behaves like normal. A border behaves the same way. I've been working with IE-bugs the last 10 years, but this has me stumped. The solution for now is to wrap the divs, and apply the margin to the outer element and other styles to the inner. But that's reminicent of horrible IE6-workarounds. Any better solutions?

    Read the article

  • HTML Submit button vs AJAX based Post (ASP.NET MVC)

    - by Graham
    I'm after some design advice. I'm working on an application with a fellow developer. I'm from the Webforms world and he's done a lot with jQuery and AJAX stuff. We're collaborating on a new ASP.MVC 1.0 app. He's done some pretty amazing stuff that I'm just getting my head around, and used some 3rd party tools etc. for datagrids etc. but... He rarely uses Submit buttons whereas I use them most of the time. He uses a button but then attaches Javascript to it that calls an MVC action which returns a JSON object. He then parses the object to update the datagrid. I'm not sure how he deals with server-side validation - I think he adds a message property to the JSON object. A sample scenario would be to "Save" a new record that then gets added to the gridview. The user doesn't see a postback as such, so he uses jQuery to disable the UI whilst the controller action is running. TBH, it looks pretty cool. However, the way I'd do it would be to use a Submit button to postback, let the ModelBinder populate a typed model class, parse that in my controller Action method, update the model (and apply any validation against the model), update it with the new record, then send it back to be rendered by the View. Unlike him, I don't return a JSON object, I let the View (and datagrid) bind to the new model data. Both solutions "work" but we're obviously taking the application down different paths so one of us has to re-work our code... and we don't mind whose has to be done. What I'd prefer though is that we adopt the "industry-standard" way of doing this. I'm unsure as to whether my WebForms background is influencing the fact that his way just "doesn't feel right", in that a "submit" is meant to submit data to the server. Any advice at all please - many thanks.

    Read the article

  • Eclipse: PyDev installation difficulties

    - by Rosarch
    I'm having difficulty getting PyDev to work. I had an installation of Eclipse for PHP developers (1.2.1.20090918-0703). A month ago, I installed PyDev, and everything worked great. I go to fire it up this morning, and PyDev is gone. There is no option to create a Python project, the Python language editor is missing, etc. Eclipse for PHP does not say that PyDev is installed, so I grab it from the update URL. The version that comes down is 1.5.6. I restart after the installation, and everything works fine again. Sweet. Then, I grab Subclipse 1.0.7. Upon restarting after that installation, PyDev is now gone. It isn't recognizing Python projects or Python files, etc. So I uninstall Subclipse. PyDev is still gone. Uninstalling and reinstalling PyDev again doesn't bring it back. What am I doing wrong? Do I need a different version of Eclipse?

    Read the article

  • How do i write task? (parallel code)

    - by acidzombie24
    I am impressed with intel thread building blocks. I like how i should write task and not thread code and i like how it works under the hood with my limited understanding (task are in a pool, there wont be 100 threads on 4cores, a task is not guaranteed to run because it isnt on its own thread and may be far into the pool. But it may be run with another related task so you cant do bad things like typical thread unsafe code). I wanted to know more about writing task. I like the 'Task-based Multithreading - How to Program for 100 cores' video here http://www.gdcvault.com/sponsor.php?sponsor_id=1 (currently second last link. WARNING it isnt 'great'). My fav part was 'solving the maze is better done in parallel' which is around the 48min mark (you can click the link on the left side). However i like to see more code examples and some API of how to write task. Does anyone have a good resource? I have no idea how a class or pieces of code may look after pushing it onto a pool or how weird code may look when you need to make a copy of everything and how much of everything is pushed onto a pool.

    Read the article

  • Can't get KnownType to work with WCF

    - by Kelly Cline
    I have an interface and a class defined in separate assemblies, like this: namespace DataInterfaces { public interface IPerson { string Name { get; set; } } } namespace DataObjects { [DataContract] [KnownType( typeof( IPerson ) ) ] public class Person : IPerson { [DataMember] public string Name { get; set; } } } This is my Service Interface: public interface ICalculator { [OperationContract] IPerson GetPerson ( ); } When I update my Service Reference for my Client, I get this in the Reference.cs: public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); I was hoping that KnownType would give me IPerson instead of "object" here. I have also tried [KnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] with the same result. I have control of both client and server, so I have my DataObjects (where Person is defined) and DataInterfaces (where IPerson is defined) assemblies in both places. Is there something obvious I am missing? I thought KnownType was the answer to being able to use interfaces with WCF. ----- FURTHER INFORMATION ----- I removed the KnownType from the Person class and added [ServiceKnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] to my service interface, as suggested by Richard. The client-side proxy still looks the same, public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); , but now it doesn't blow up. The client just has an "object", though, so it has to cast it to IPerson before it is useful. var person = client.GetPerson ( ); Console.WriteLine ( ( ( IPerson ) person ).Name );

    Read the article

  • How important is the programming language when you choose a new job?

    - by Luhmann
    We are currently hiring at the company where I work, and here the codebase is in VB.Net. We are worried that we miss out on a lot of brilliant programmers, who would never ever consider working with VB.Net. My own background is Java and C#, and I was somewhat sceptical as to whether it would work out with VB, as - to be honest - i didn't care much for VB. After a month or so, I was completely fluent in VB, and a few months later i discovered to my surprise, that I actually like VB. I still code my free time projects in C# and Boo though. So my question is firstly, how important is language for you, when you choose a new programming job? Lets say if its a great company, salary is good, and generally an attractive work-place. Would you say no to the perfect job, if the language wasn't your preferred dialect? VB or C# is one thing, but how about Java or C# etc. Secondly if the best developers won't join your company because of your language or platform, would you consider changing, to get the right people? (This is not a language bashing thread, so please no religious language wars) NB: This is Community Wiki

    Read the article

  • HTTP Handler error when downloading files - SSL

    - by Chiefy
    Ok big problem as this is affecting two projects on our new server. We have a file that is downloaded by users, the files are downloaded using a HTTPHandler. Since moving the site to the server and setting SSL the downloads have stopped working and we get an error message "Unable to download DownloadDocument.ashx" from site". DownloadDocument.ashx is the handler page that is set in the web.config and the button that goes there is a hyperlink with the id of the document as a querystring. Ive read the article on http://support.microsoft.com/kb/316431 and read a few other requests on this site but nothing seems to be working. This problem only happens in IE and works fine when I run it on the server in http instead of https. public override void HandleRequest(HttpContext context) { Guid guid = new Guid(context.Request.QueryString["ID"]); DataTable dt = Documents.GetDocument(guid); if (dt != null) { context.Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.Private); context.Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", string.Format("attachment; filename={0}", dt.Rows[0]["DocumentName"].ToString())); context.Response.AddHeader("Content-Transfer-Encoding", "binary"); context.Response.AddHeader("Content-Length", ((byte[])dt.Rows[0]["Document"]).Length.ToString()); context.Response.ContentType = string.Format("application/{0}", dt.Rows[0]["Extension"].ToString().Remove(0, 1)); context.Response.Buffer = true; context.Response.BinaryWrite((byte[])dt.Rows[0]["Document"]); context.Response.Flush(); context.Response.End(); } } The above is my current code for the request. Ive used the base handler on http://haacked.com/archive/2005/03/17/AnAbstractBoilerplateHttpHandler.aspx. Any ideas on what this might be and how we can fix it. Thanks in advance for all responses.

    Read the article

  • Rotating UIWebView with transform, content partially off screen, how to get it to stick on screen?

    - by jarmod
    I have a 320x416 portrait-shaped UIWebView filling a UIViewController's view. I also have a 90 degree rotate button that will transform the UIWebView through 90 degrees each time the button is touched. The code is basically: webView.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeRotation(touches%4 * M_PI/2.0); After rotation through 90 degrees, the now-landscape transformed UIWebView extends beyond both the left and right edges of the screen. In the process of applying the transformation, iPhone OS has changed the UIWebView's frame from {{0,0}, {320,416}} to {{-48,48}, {416,320}}. Don't have a problem with that. I then tweak the UIWebView's frame origin to (0,0) so that it starts top-left, but extends a little further beyond the right edge of the screen. Now, I can touch the UIWebView and pull it left to view the hidden information on the right but I cannot get the right-hand end to to stay on the screen -- the moment I untouch it, the right side bounces back off the screen. What is it that causes the view to bounce back off-screen? In other words, what is it that I need to tweak to allow either the left edge or the right edge to stick on the screen and remain visible (only one at a time, obviously)? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why do I get "mysql_query(): supplied argument is not a valid"

    - by Brian Ojeda
    Why do I get a "mysql_query(): supplied argument is not a valid" for the first... $r = mysql_query($q, $connection); In the following code... $bId = trim($_POST['bId']); $title = trim($_POST['title']); $story = trim($_POST['story']); $q = "SELECT * "; $q .= "FROM " . DB_NAME . ".`blog` "; $q .= "WHERE `blog`.`id` = {$bId}"; $r = mysql_query($q, $connection); //confirm_query($r); if (mysql_num_rows($r) == 1) { $q = "UPDATE " . DB_NAME . ".`blog` SET `title` = '{$title}', `story` = '{$story}' WHERE `id` = {$bId}"; $r = mysql_query($q, $connection); if (mysql_affected_rows() == 1) { //Successful $data['success'] = true; $date['errors'] = false; $date['message'] = "You are the Greatest!"; } else { //Fail $data['success'] = false; $data['error'] = true; $date['message'] = "You can't do it fool!"; } } I also get an "mysql_num_rows(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result resource" error too. Side notes: I am using 1&1 Hosting (worst hosting ever), custom .htaccess file with one line text to enable PHP 5.2 (only why with 1&1 Hosting).

    Read the article

  • The perfect web UI framework (with Microsoft stack?) - architecture question?

    - by Igorek
    I'm looking for suggestions for the following issue, and I realize there is really not going to be a perfect answer to my question: I have a UI built in WinForms.NET (v4.0 framework) with WCF back-end and EF4 model objects, that I am looking to port to the web. UI is not huge and is not super complex and is structured well. But it is not a super simple system either. I am looking to pick a technology stack for the web-frontend that will target desktop & partially mobile platforms, provide a good development platform to build on, and facilitate code reuse across UI and back-end tiers... I would rather avoid: custom coding of UI-centric scripts, because they are hard to debug, non-compiled, usually a maintenance nightmare, almost always start to contain business logic, and duplicate some of the logic that back-end tiers have (especially validation) custom-coding for Desktop Web and Mobile Web UI's separately (although I realize that mobile web UI will likely contain fewer of data-entry screens and more reporting screens) non-.NET technology stacks I would love to: target the reporting capabilities of the system toward mobile web browsers not have to write a single line of script (javascript, jquery, etc.) utilize a good collection of controls that produces an elegant UI use .NET for everything The way I see it right now, I need to re-write this app in Silverlight, utilize a 3rd party UI framework like Telerik, and re-do the reports UI again for mobile platforms separately. However, I'm rather concerned about the shelf-life of Silverlight and the needed to deploy a different architecture to deal with mobile platform. Is there an ASP.NET/MVC/Ajax architecture/framework/library that would allow me to get at the power of .NET and without painful (imho) client-side scripting, while providing a decent user experience Thank you

    Read the article

  • Page content layout issues

    - by Prupel
    I'm designing a theme for a blog and I'm having some trouble trying to get a layout working. Here's an image of what I want. This diagram represents the individual posts and not the website itself, so it will be contained in a box of it's own, lets call it .container. Also the purple and green are in another box, let's call it .content. The other elements will be called by their color for now. so here's more or less what the CSS looks like: .container { display:block; margin:0 25px; } .gray, .blue, .content { display:block; width:100%; } .purple { display:inline-block; width:125px; height:100%; text-align:center; } .green { display:inline-block; } That's all there is at the moment. I tried float but that made no effect. What's happening is something like this. Here's a few more things you should know: .container's width is NOT set it is auto .purple and .green don't necessarily need to be the same size as long as .green doesn't go to that side. .purple CAN have a set height .green is where the meat is, that's where the actual post goes, keep that in mind. I don't think tables will help, the problem is inside .content.

    Read the article

  • Same session and session ID for different subdomains in Grails project - How can I do that?

    - by fluxon
    I am currently working on a project that supports multiple languages. In order to be seo friendly, I am trying to redirect users subdomains corresponding to their locale (or their preferred language). I.e., my projects's url is mydomain.com and I work with the subdomains en.mydomain.com, es.mydomain.com, de.mydomain.com, fr.mydomain.com ... you get the idea. All subdomains are served by the same grails app for now. What happens is that my grails project maintains different sessions (as seen by the session ids) for every single subdomain, hence information is lost, when a user switches between languages. I had not forseen that. :( How can I explicitly set the session identifier? I would like it to be based on just mydomain.com. I got the hint that Apache Tomcat offers something like <Context sessionCookiePath="/" sessionCookieDomain=".mydomain.com"> , but that does not help for the devel environment etc. Any hints? Have you tried storing session information in the DB? This is sometimes used for load-balancing purposes and might help here as well?! Help is highly appreciated (as always)! Cheers!

    Read the article

  • PHP check http referer for form submitted by AJAX, secure?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: This is the first time I am working for a front-end project that requires server-side authentication for AJAX requests. I've encountered problems like I cannot make a call of session_start as the beginning line of the "destination page", cuz that would get me a PHP Warning : Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\ajaxInsert Book.php:1) in C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\common.php on line 10 I reckon this means I have to figure out a way other than checking PHP session variables to authenticate the "caller" of this PHP script, and this is my approach : I have a "protected" PHP page, which must be used as the "container" of my javascript that posts the form through jQuery $.ajax(); method In my "receiver" PHP script, what I've got is: <?php define(BOOKS_TABLE, "books"); define(APPROOT, "/comic/"); define(CORRECT_REFERER, "/protected/staff/addBook.php"); function isRefererCorrect() { // the following line evaluates the relative path for the referer uri, // Say, $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] returns "http://localhost/comic/protected/staff/addBook.php" // Then the part we concern is just this "/protected/staff/addBook.php" $referer = substr($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], 6 + strrpos($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], APPROOT)); return (strnatcmp(CORRECT_REFERER, $referer) == 0) ? true : false; } //http://stackoverflow.com/questions/267546/correct-http-header-for-json-file header('Content-type: application/json charset=UTF-8'); header('Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate'); echo json_encode(array ( "feedback"=>"ok", "info"=>isRefererCorrect() )); ?> My code works, but I wonder is there any security risks in this approach? Can someone manipulate the post request so that he can pretend that the caller javascript is from the "protected" page? Many thanks to any hints or suggestions.

    Read the article

  • problm with MANIFEST.MF in jar

    - by Atul
    hi I have created jar in the following folder: /usr/local/bin/niidle.jar. And my MANIFEST.MF file is as follows: Manifest-Version: 1.0 Main-Class: com.ensarm.niidle.web.scraper.NiidleScrapeManager Class-Path: hector-0.6.0-17.jar And I verified that,this 'hector-0.6.0-17.jar' file is also present in the folder: /Projects/EnwelibDatedOct13/Niidle/lib/hector-0.6.0-17.jar I don't want to give full class-path name in MANIFEST.MF file,because I have to run this jar on other's machine,so I gave only jar file name 'Class-Path=hector-0.6.0-17.jar' in MANIFEST.MF file. Inspite of mentioning the Class-Path in MANIFEST.MF file, when I run this using command: java -jar /usr/local/bin/niidle.jar arguments... It is showing error massage: --Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: me/prettyprint/hector/api/Serializer at com.ensarm.niidle.web.scraper.NiidleScrapeManager.main(NiidleScrapeManager.java:21) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: me.prettyprint.hector.api.Serializer at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:252) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:320) ... 1 more Please give me solution for this error message..

    Read the article

  • JAX-RS --- How to return JSON and HTTP Status code together?

    - by masato-san
    I'm writing REST web app (Netbean6.9, JAX-RS, Toplink-essential) and trying to return JSON and Http status code. I have code ready and working just to return JSON when HTTP GET Method is called from client. Code snippet @Path("get/id") @GET @Produces("application/json") public M_?? getMachineToUpdate(@PathParam("id") String id) { //some code to return JSON . . return myJson But I also want to return HTTP status code (500, 200, 204 etc) along with returning JSON. I tried using HttpServletResponse object, response.sendError("error message", 500); But this made browser to think it's real 500 so output web page was regular Http 500 error page. What I want to is just to return status code so that my Javascript on client side can handle some logic depending on what HTTP status code is returned. (maybe just to display the error code and message on html page.) Is it possible to do so? or should HTTP status code not be used for such thing?

    Read the article

  • Immutable classes in C++

    - by ereOn
    Hi, In one of my projects, I have some classes that represent entities that cannot change once created, aka. immutable classes. Example : A class RSAKey that represent a RSA key which only has const methods. There is no point changing the existing instance: if you need another one, you just create one. My objects sometimes are heavy and I enforced the use of smart pointers to avoid copy. So far, I have the following pattern for my classes: class RSAKey : public boost::noncopyable, public boost::enable_shared_from_this<RSAKey> { public: /** * \brief Some factory. * \param member A member value. * \return An instance. */ static boost::shared_ptr<const RSAKey> createFromMember(int member); /** * \brief Get a member. * \return The member. */ int getMember() const; private: /** * \brief Constructor. * \param member A member. */ RSAKey(int member); /** * \brief Member. */ const int m_member; }; So you can only get a pointer (well, a smart pointer) to a const RSAKey. To me, it makes sense, because having a non-const reference to the instance is useless (it only has const methods). Do you guys see any issue regarding this pattern ? Are immutable classes something common in C++ or did I just created a monster ? Thank you for your advices !

    Read the article

  • How can I get a custom made set of checkboxes return values in the postback?

    - by AngryHacker
    I have the following in an aspx page: <td colspan="2"> <% DisplayParties(); %> </td> In the code behind for the aspx page, i have this (e.g. I build HTML for the checkboxes): public void DisplayParties() { var s = new StringBuilder(); s.Append("<input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"attorney\" value=\"12345\"/>"); s.Append("<input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"attorney\" value=\"67890\"/>"); s.Append("<input type=\"checkbox\" id=\"adjuster\" value=\"125\"/>"); Response.WriteLine(s.ToString()); } Not my proudest moment, but whatever. The problem is that when this page posts back via some event on the page, I never get these tags in the Request.Form collection. Is this simply how ASP.NET works (e.g. only server-side control post back) or am I missing something simple. My understanding was that a postback should bring back all the form variables.

    Read the article

  • Pump Messages During Long Operations + C# (it is urgent)

    - by Newbie
    Hi I have a web service that is doing huge computation and is taking more than a minute. I have generated the proxy file of the web service and then from my client end I am using the dll(of course I generated the proxy dll). My client side code is TimeSeries3D t = new TimeSeries3D(); int portfolioId = 4387919; string[] str = new string[2]; str[0] = "MKT_CAP"; DateRange dr = new DateRange(); dr.mStartDate = DateTime.Today; dr.mEndDate = DateTime.Today; Service1 sc = new Service1(); t = sc.GetAttributesForPortfolio(portfolioId, true, str, dr); But since it is taking to much time for the server to compute, after 1 minute I am receiving an error message The CLR has been unable to transition from COM context 0x33caf30 to COM context 0x33cb0a0 for 60 seconds. The thread that owns the destination context/apartment is most likely either doing a non pumping wait or processing a very long running operation without pumping Windows messages. This situation generally has a negative performance impact and may even lead to the application becoming non responsive or memory usage accumulating continually over time. To avoid this problem, all single threaded apartment (STA) threads should use pumping wait primitives (such as CoWaitForMultipleHandles) and routinely pump messages during long running operations. Kindly guide me what to do? It is very urgent. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Has anyone setup tomcat to run virtual hosts using mod_jk

    - by Adam
    I work in OSX primarily with mostly PHP. Normally I work locally using MAMP and virtual hosts setup in my httpd.conf so that I can point a browser to http://some-project and have as many projects as I need setup. We have a project coming up where we need to serve JSP pages and I would like to set up my local apache server to serve only JSP files to Tomcat and everything else to MAMP using the same virtual hosts setup in: ~/applications/MAMP/conf/apache/httpd.conf So far I have: Successfully installed Tomcat Placed mod_jd.so in ~/applications/MAMP/Library/modules/mod_jk.so Added the module by placing: LoadModule jk_module modules/mod_jk.so in ~/applications/MAMP/conf/apache/httpd.conf Created /Library/Tomcat/Home/conf/jk/workers.properties and added the following lines: workers.tomcat_home=/Library/Tomcat workers.java_home=/System/Library/Frameworks/JavaVM.framework/Versions/1.5.0/Home ps=/ worker.list=ajp12, ajp13 worker.ajp13.port=8009 worker.ajp13.host=localhost worker.ajp12.type=ajp13 worker.ajp13.mount=/*.jsp added the following lines: JkWorkersFile /Library/Tomcat/Home/conf/workers.properties JkLogFile /Library/Tomcat/Home/logs/mod_jk.log JkLogLevel debug to ~/applications/MAMP/conf/apache/httpd.conf I cannot start my MAMP however when these last two lines are present in my httpd.conf. Does anyone work like this? Any tips? Any clear ideas of what I'm doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • CGI Buffering issue

    - by Punit
    I have a server side C based CGI code as: cgiFormFileSize("UPDATEFILE", &size); //UPDATEFILE = file being uploaded cgiFormFileName("UPDATEFILE", file_name, 1024); cgiFormFileContentType("UPDATEFILE", mime_type, 1024); buffer = malloc(sizeof(char) * size); if (cgiFormFileOpen("UPDATEFILE", &file) != cgiFormSuccess) { exit(1); } output = fopen("/tmp/cgi.tar.gz", "w+"); printf("The size of file is: %d bytes", size); inc = size/(1024*100); while (cgiFormFileRead(file, b, sizeof(b), &got_count) == cgiFormSuccess) { fwrite(b,sizeof(char),got_count,output); i++; if(i == inc && j<=100) { ***inc_pb*** = j; i = 0; j++; // j is the progress bar increment value } } cgiFormFileClose(file); retval = system("mkdir /tmp/update-tmp;\ cd /tmp/update-tmp;\ tar -xzf ../cgi.tar.gz;\ bash -c /tmp/update-tmp/update.sh"); However, this doesn't work the way as is seen above. Instead of printing 1,2,...100 to progress_bar.txt one by one it prints at ONE GO, seems it buffers and then writes to the file. fflush() also didn't work. Any clue/suggestion would be really appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Boost binding a function taking a reference

    - by Jamie Cook
    Hi all, I am having problems compiling the following snippet int temp; vector<int> origins; vector<string> originTokens = OTUtils::tokenize(buffer, ","); // buffer is a char[] array // original loop BOOST_FOREACH(string s, originTokens) { from_string(temp, s); origins.push_back(temp); } // I'd like to use this to replace the above loop std::transform(originTokens.begin(), originTokens.end(), origins.begin(), boost::bind<int>(&FromString<int>, boost::ref(temp), _1)); where the function in question is // the third parameter should be one of std::hex, std::dec or std::oct template <class T> bool FromString(T& t, const std::string& s, std::ios_base& (*f)(std::ios_base&) = std::dec) { std::istringstream iss(s); return !(iss >> f >> t).fail(); } the error I get is 1>Compiling with Intel(R) C++ 11.0.074 [IA-32]... (Intel C++ Environment) 1>C:\projects\svn\bdk\Source\deps\boost_1_42_0\boost/bind/bind.hpp(303): internal error: assertion failed: copy_default_arg_expr: rout NULL, no error (shared/edgcpfe/il.c, line 13919) 1> 1> return unwrapper<F>::unwrap(f, 0)(a[base_type::a1_], a[base_type::a2_]); 1> ^ 1> 1>icl: error #10298: problem during post processing of parallel object compilation Google is being unusually unhelpful so I hope that some one here can provide some insights.

    Read the article

  • Object-oriented GUI development in python

    - by ptabatt
    Hey guys, new programmer here. I have an assignment for class and I'm stuck... What I need to do is a create a GUI that gives someone a basic arithmetic problem in one box, asks the person to answer it, evaluates it, and tells you if you're right or wrong... Basically, what I have is this: [code] class Lesson(Frame): def init (self, parent=None): Frame.init(self, parent) self.pack() Lesson.make_widgets(self) def make_widgets(self): Label(self, text="").pack(side=TOP) ent = Entry(self) self.a = randrange(1,10) self.b = randrange(1,10) self.expr = choice(["+","-"]) ent.insert(END, str(self.a) + str(self.expr) + str(self.a)) [/code] I've broken this down into many little steps and basically, what I'm trying to do right now is insert a default random expression into the first entry widget. When I run this code, I just get a blank Label. Why is that? How can I put a something like "7+7" into the box? If you absolutely need background to the problem, it's question #3 on this link. http://reed.cs.depaul.edu/lperkovic/csc242/homeworks/Homework8.html -Thanks for all help in advance.

    Read the article

  • How do I add code automatically to a derived function in C++

    - by Ian
    I have code that's meant to manage operations on both a networked client and a server, since there is significant overlap between the two. However, there are a few functions here and there that are meant to be exclusively called by the client or server, and accidentally calling a client function on the server (or vice versa) is a significant source of bugs. To reduce these sorts of programming errors, I'm trying to tag functions so that they'll raise a ruckus if they're misused. My current solution is a simple macro at the start of each function that calls an assert if the client or server accesses members they shouldn't. However, this runs into problems when there are multiple derived instances of classes, in that I have to tag the implementation as client or server side in EVERY child class. What I'd like to be able to do is put a tag in the virtual member's signature in the base class, so that I only have to tag it once and not run into errors by forgetting to do it repeatedly. I've considered putting a check in a base class implementation and then referring to it with something like base::functionName, but that runs into the same issue as far as needing to manually add the function call to every implementation. Ideally, I'd be able to have parent versions of the function called automatically like default constructors do. Does anybody know how to achieve something like this in C++? Is there an alternate approach I should be considering? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • get the javascript variable value to Code Behind Asp.net

    - by Siddiq Baig
    i am trying to pass the javascript variable value to hidden feild from code behind by onclientclick event.. i have button that have both client and server side onclick event <asp:Button ID="btnSave" runat="server" Text="Save" class="buttonstyle" onclick="btnSave_Click" OnClientClick="otherdata()" /> i want to get the javascript value in codebehind from OnClientClick event and then want to insert that value to database table from Onclick event function otherdata() { var hv = $('input[id$=hdnOthers]').val(); var $arrT = $('#<%=gv_Others.ClientID %>').find('input:text[id$="txtEmp"]'); var count = []; for (var i = 0; i < 10; i++) { var $txt = $arrT[i]; count[i] = $($txt).val(); } hv = count; alert(hv); } i am getting the value in alert and assigning the value to hidden field but problem is that i am not getting the value in hidden field from code behind.. although i have already pass the value to hidden field from javascript so why i am not getting that value from code behind.. protected void Insert_OtherServices() { dsJobCardTableAdapters.Select_OtherServiceTableAdapter dsother = new dsJobCardTableAdapters.Select_OtherServiceTableAdapter(); string hdn = hdnOthers.Value; dsother.Insert_OtherService(hdn); }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 652 653 654 655 656 657 658 659 660 661 662 663  | Next Page >