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• iPhone App IDs and Provisioning... Does App ID get used instead of provisioning ID if I decide to us

  - by Jann

  This is a question that has been bugging me for a while. I started my app (now submitted -- not yet approved) not wishing to get into the mess that is APNS (Push). I did the following: iPhone Developer Center: Provisioning Portal-Provisioning: Then I created a Development and a Distribution Provisioning Profile. I installed both in XCode. Everything hunky dory. The Development profile scares me a bit by expiring so soon (90 days) but I can remove it from the iPhone(s) and sign it with a new one later. I tested using the Development profile, and later to submitted it by signing it with the Distribution profile. I then uploaded the Distribution profile-signed app to iTunesConnect (app store). Okay, I understand that much. Now, what I don't understand is this: Now that I understand the theories and methods behind how Push works, I am wishing to add it to my app. I already went under: iPhone Developer Center: Provisioning Portal-App IDs: and created a Development Provisioning Profile and Distribution Provisioning Profile there (push & in-app purchase enabled). Here is where it gets confusing to me. All the books and docs I have read say that I have to sign the app with this "App ID" provisioning profile (push-enabled) from now on. Does that mean I no longer ever use the previously created provisioning profiles? If I were to import these "App ID" provisioning profiles into Xcode they will exist alongside my previously generated "non-push" profiles. ~/Library/Mobile Devices/Provisioning Profiles now has 2 files. One Devel and one Distrib. It will now have 4 even though for this app I will not use the "non-push" anymore right? (actually, since they are locked by using bundle-codes and app ids i will never use it again if all of my further versions of this app use Push?) Confused. Can anyone enlighten me? Why not use the "App ID" profiles in the first place for everyone -- even if you are not gonna use push? Would keep it simpler. Should I only generate "Push Enabled" profiles from now on -- even if i am not sure I am gonna use push (or for that matter in-app purchase)? Please give me some insight. I do not wanna do this wrong. Thanks! Jann

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• Ajax call to wcf windows service over ssl (https)

  - by bpatrick100

  I have a windows service which exposes an endpoint over http. Again this is a windows service (not a web service hosted in iis). I then call methods from this endpoint, using javascript/ajax. Everything works perfectly, and this the code I'm using in my windows service to create the endpoint: //Create host object WebServiceHost webServiceHost = new WebServiceHost(svcHost.obj, new Uri("http://192.168.0.100:1213")); //Add Https Endpoint WebHttpBinding binding = new WebHttpBinding(); webServiceHost.AddServiceEndpoint(svcHost.serviceContract, binding, string.Empty); //Add MEX Behaivor and EndPoint ServiceMetadataBehavior metadataBehavior = new ServiceMetadataBehavior(); metadataBehavior.HttpGetEnabled = true; webServiceHost.Description.Behaviors.Add(metadataBehavior); webServiceHost.AddServiceEndpoint(ServiceMetadataBehavior.MexContractName, MetadataExchangeBindings.CreateMexHttpBinding(), "mex"); webServiceHost.Open(); Now, my goal is to get this same model working over SSL (https not http). So, I have followed the guidance of several msdn pages, like the following: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms733791(VS.100).aspx I have used makecert.exe to create a test cert called "bpCertTest". I have then used netsh.exe to configure my port (1213) with the test cert I created, all with no problem. Then, I've modified the endpoint code in my windows service to be able to work over https as follows: //Create host object WebServiceHost webServiceHost = new WebServiceHost(svcHost.obj, new Uri("https://192.168.0.100:1213")); //Add Https Endpoint WebHttpBinding binding = new WebHttpBinding(); binding.Security.Mode = WebHttpSecurityMode.Transport; binding.Security.Transport.ClientCredentialType = HttpClientCredentialType.Certificate; webServiceHost.AddServiceEndpoint(svcHost.serviceContract, binding, string.Empty); webServiceHost.Credentials.ServiceCertificate.SetCertificate("CN=bpCertTest", StoreLocation.LocalMachine, StoreName.My); //Add MEX Behaivor and EndPoint ServiceMetadataBehavior metadataBehavior = new ServiceMetadataBehavior(); metadataBehavior.HttpsGetEnabled = true; webServiceHost.Description.Behaviors.Add(metadataBehavior); webServiceHost.AddServiceEndpoint(ServiceMetadataBehavior.MexContractName, MetadataExchangeBindings.CreateMexHttpsBinding(), "mex"); webServiceHost.Open(); The service creates the endpoint successfully, recognizes my cert in the SetCertificate() call, and the service starts up and running with success. Now, the problem is my javascript/ajax call cannot communicate with the service over https. I simply get some generic commication error (12031). So, as a test, I changed the port I was calling in the javascript to some other random port, and I get the same error - which tells me that I'm obviously not even reaching my service over https. I'm at a complete loss at this point, I feel like everything is in place, and I just can't see what the problem is. If anyone has experience in this scenario, please provide your insight and/or solution! Thanks!

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• How to troubleshoot a 'System.Management.Automation.CmdletInvocationException'

  - by JamesD

  Does anyone know how best to determine the specific underlying cause of this exception? Consider a WCF service that is supposed to use Powershell 2.0 remoting to execute MSBuild on remote machines. In both cases the scripting environments are being called in-process (via C# for Powershell and via Powershell for MSBuild), rather than 'shelling-out' - this was a specific design decision to avoid command-line hell as well as to enable passing actual objects into the Powershell script. The Powershell script that calls MSBuild is shown below: function Run-MSBuild { [System.Reflection.Assembly]::LoadWithPartialName("Microsoft.Build.Engine") $engine = New-Object Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine.Engine $engine.BinPath = "C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v3.5" $project = New-Object Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine.Project($engine, "3.5") $project.Load("deploy.targets") $project.InitialTargets = "DoStuff" # # Set some initial Properties & Items # # Optionally setup some loggers (have also tried it without any loggers) $consoleLogger = New-Object Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine.ConsoleLogger $engine.RegisterLogger($consoleLogger) $fileLogger = New-Object Microsoft.Build.BuildEngine.FileLogger $fileLogger.Parameters = "verbosity=diagnostic" $engine.RegisterLogger($fileLogger) # Run the build - this is the line that throws a CmdletInvocationException $result = $project.Build() $engine.Shutdown() } When running the above script from a PS command prompt it all works fine. However, as soon as the script is executed from C# it fails with the above exception. The C# code being used to call Powershell is shown below (remoting functionality removed for simplicity's sake): // Build the DTO object that will be passed to Powershell dto = SetupDTO() RunspaceConfiguration runspaceConfig = RunspaceConfiguration.Create(); using (Runspace runspace = RunspaceFactory.CreateRunspace(runspaceConfig)) { runspace.Open(); IList errors; using (var scriptInvoker = new RunspaceInvoke(runspace)) { // The Powershell script lives in a file that gets compiled as an embedded resource TextReader tr = new StreamReader(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetManifestResourceStream("MyScriptResource")); string script = tr.ReadToEnd(); // Load the script into the Runspace scriptInvoker.Invoke(script); // Call the function defined in the script, passing the DTO as an input object var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("$input | Run-MSBuild", dto, out errors); } } Assuming that the issue was related to MSBuild outputting something that the Powershell runspace can't cope with, I have also tried the following variations to the second .Invoke() call: var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("$input | Run-MSBuild | Out-String", dto, out errors); var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("$input | Run-MSBuild | Out-Null", dto, out errors); var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("Run-MSBuild | Out-String"); var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("Run-MSBuild | Out-String"); var psResults = scriptInvoker.Invoke("Run-MSBuild | Out-Null"); I've also looked at using a custom PSHost (based on this sample: http://blogs.msdn.com/daiken/archive/2007/06/22/hosting-windows-powershell-sample-code.aspx), but during debugging I was unable to see any 'interesting' calls to it being made. Do the great and the good of Stackoverflow have any insight that might save my sanity?

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• javascript - multiple dependent/cascading/chained select boxes on same form

  - by Aaron

  I'm populating select box options via jquery and json but I'm not sure how to address multiple instances of the same chained select boxes within my form. Because the select boxes are only rendered when needed some records will have ten sets of chained select boxes and others will only need one. How does one generate unique selects to support the auto population of secondary select options? Here's the code I'm using, and I thank you in advance for any insight you may provide. <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function populateACD() { $.getJSON('/acd/acd2json.php', {acdSelect:$('#acdSelect').val()}, function(data) { var select = $('#acd2'); var options = select.attr('options'); $('option', select).remove(); $.each(data, function(index, array) { options[options.length] = new Option(array['ACD2']); }); }); } $(document).ready(function() { populateACD(); $('#acdSelect').change(function() { populateACD(); }); }); </script> <?php require_once('connectvars.php'); $dbc = mysqli_connect(DB_HOST, DB_USER, DB_PASSWORD, DB_NAME); $squery = "SELECT ACD1ID, ACD1 from ACD1"; $sdata = mysqli_query($dbc, $squery); // Loop through the array of ACD1s, placing them into an option of a select echo '<select name="acdSelect" id="acdSelect">'; while ($row = mysqli_fetch_array($sdata)) { echo "<option value=" . $row['ACD1ID'] . ">" . $row['ACD1'] . "</option>\n"; } echo '</select><br /><br />'; <select name="acd2" id="acd2"> </select> acd2json.php <?php $dsn = "mysql:host=localhost;dbname=wfn"; $user = "acd"; $pass = "***************"; $pdo = new PDO($dsn, $user, $pass); $rows = array(); if(isset($_GET['acdSelect'])) { $stmt = $pdo->prepare("SELECT ACD2 FROM ACD2 WHERE ACD1ID = ? ORDER BY ACD2"); $stmt->execute(array($_GET['acdSelect'])); $rows = $stmt->fetchAll(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC); } echo json_encode($rows); ?>

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• Linq to List and IEnumerable issues

  - by Otaku

  I am querying an HTML file with Linq. It looks something like this: <html> <body> <div class="Players"> <div class="role">Goalies</div> <div class="name">John Smith</div> <div class="name">Shawn Xie</div> <div class="role">Right Wings</div> <div class="name">Jack Davis</div> <div class="name">Carl Yuns</div> <div class="name">Wayne Gortonia</div> <div class="role">Centers</div> <div class="name">Lutz Gaspy</div> <div class="name">John Jacobs</div> </div </html> </body> What I'm trying to do is create a list of these folks like in a list of a structure called Players: Structure Players Public Name As String Public Position As String End Structure But I've quickly found out I don't really know what I'm doing when it comes to Linq. I've got this far my my queries: Dim goalieList = From d In player.Elements _ Where d.Value = "Goalies" _ Select From g In d.ElementsAfterSelf _ Take While (g.@class <> "role") _ Select New Players With {.Position = "Goalie", _ .Name = g.Value} Dim centersList = From d In player.Elements _ Where d.Value = "Centers" _ Select From g In d.ElementsAfterSelf _ Take While (g.@class <> "role") _ Select New Players With {.Position = "Centers", _ .Name = g.Value} Which gets me down to the the players by position, but then I can't do much with this afterwards the result type is System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable(Of System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable(Of Player)) What I want to do is add these two results to a new list, like: Dim playersList As List(Of Players) = Nothing playersList.AddRange(centersList) playersList.AddRange(goalieList) So that I can then query the list and use it. But it kicks the error: Unable to cast object of type 'WhereSelectEnumerableIterator2[System.Xml.Linq.XElement,System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable1[Players]]' to type 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable`1[Players]' As you can see, I may really have no idea how to work with all these objects/classes. Does anyone have any insight on what I may be doing wrong and how I can resolve it? RESOLVED: The Linq query needs to return a single iEnumerable, like this: Dim goalieList = From l In _ (From d In players.Elements _ Where d.Value = "Goalies" _ Select d.ElementsAfterSelf.TakeWhile(Function(f) f.@class <> "role")) _ Select New Players With {.Position = "Goalie", .Name = l.Value} and then use goalieList.ToList

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• Salesforce/PHP - Bulk Outbound message (SOAP), Time out issue

  - by Phill Pafford

  Salesforce can send up to 100 requests inside 1 SOAP message. While sending this type of Bulk Ooutbound message request my PHP script finishes executing but SF fails to accept the ACK used to clear the message queue on the Salesforce side of things. Looking at the Outbound message log (monitoring) I see all the messages in a pending state with the Delivery Failure Reason "java.net.SocketTimeoutException: Read timed out". If my script has finished execution, why do I get this error? I have tried these methods to increase the execution time on my server as I have no access on the Salesforce side: set_time_limit(0); // in the script max_execution_time = 360 ; Maximum execution time of each script, in seconds max_input_time = 360 ; Maximum amount of time each script may spend parsing request data memory_limit = 32M ; Maximum amount of memory a script may consume I used the high settings just for testing. Any thoughts as to why this is failing the ACK delivery back to Salesforce? Here is some of the code: This is how I accept and send the ACK file for the imcoming SOAP request $data = 'php://input'; $content = file_get_contents($data); if($content) { respond('true'); } else { respond('false'); } The respond function function respond($tf) { $ACK = <<<ACK <?xml version = "1.0" encoding = "utf-8"?> <soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <soapenv:Body> <notifications xmlns="http://soap.sforce.com/2005/09/outbound"> <Ack>$tf</Ack> </notifications> </soapenv:Body> </soapenv:Envelope> ACK; print trim($ACK); } These are in a generic script that I include into the script that uses the data for a specific workflow. I can process about 25 requests (That are in 1 SOAP response) but once I go over that I get the timeout error in the Salesforce queue. for 50 requests is usually takes my PHP script 86.77 seconds. Could it be Apache? PHP? I have also tested just accepting the 100 request SOAP response and just accepting and sending the ACK the queue clears out, so I know it's on my side of things. I show no errors in the apache log, the script runs fine. Thanks for any insight into this, --Phill

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• How does this ajax call persist DOM changes in the browser cache?

  - by Greg

  For the purpose of the question I need to create a simple fictitious scenario. I have the following trivial page with one link, call it page A: <a class="red-anchor" onclick="change_color(event);" href="http://mysite.com/b/">B</a> With the associated Javascript function: function change_color(e) { var event = e || window.event; var link = event.target; link.className = "green-anchor"; } And I have the appropriate CSS to make the anchor red or green based on the classname. This is working. That is, when I click the anchor it changes color from red to green, which is briefly visible before the browser loads page B. But if I then use the BACK button to return to page A I get different behavior in different browsers. In Safari, the anchor is still green (desired behavior) In Firefox it reverts to red I imagine that Safari is somehow updating its cached version of the page, whereas Firefox isn't. So my first question is: is there any way to get FF to update the cached page, or is something else happening here? Secondly: I have a different implementation where I use an ajax call. In this I set the class of the anchor using a session variable, something like... <a class="<?php echo $_SESSION["color"]; ?>" ...[snip]... >B</a> And the javascript function makes an additional ajax call that changes the "color" session variable. In this case both Safari and Firefox work as expected. When going back from B to A the color is still green. But I can't for the life of me figure out why it should be different to the non-ajax case. I have tried many different permutations and for it to work on FF the "color" session variable MUST change (i.e. the ajax call itself is not somehow reloading the cache). But on coming BACK, the page is being reloaded from the cache (verified in Firebug), so how is the page even accessing this session variable if it isn't reprocessing the page and running that fragment of php in the anchor? I figure there must be something fundamental here that I am not understanding. Any insight would be much appreciated.

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• iPhone SDK: Audio Queue control

  - by codemercenary

  Hi all, I am new to the audio queue services so I have taken an example from a book called iPhone Cool Projects where it describes how to stream audio. I want to extend this to being able to play a continuous playlist of links to mp3 files like an internet radio. The problem with the example code it that it does not detect when a stream ends and does not call AudioQueueStop at any point, so I added a counter to number of buffers added to the queue, and then decrement this counter each time audioQueueOutputCallback is called by the queue. This works fine except if when the buffer count goes to 0, and then I add a call AudioQueueFlush(audioQueue) and then AudioQueueStop(audioQueue, false) I get an error. If I only call AudioQueueReset, it continues to load the buffers again, but plays them out faster then it loads them... getting stuck in a loop and then crashing. 2010-04-14 13:56:29.745 AudioPlayer[2269:207] init player with URL 2010-04-14 13:56:29.941 AudioPlayer[2269:207] did recieve data 2010-04-14 13:56:29.942 AudioPlayer[2269:207] audio request didReceiveData 2010-04-14 13:56:29.944 AudioPlayer[2269:207] >>> start audio queue 2010-04-14 13:56:29.960 AudioPlayer[2269:207] packetCallback count 2 2010-04-14 13:56:29.961 AudioPlayer[2269:207] add buffer: 1 2010-04-14 13:56:29.962 AudioPlayer[2269:207] did recieve data 2010-04-14 13:56:29.963 AudioPlayer[2269:207] audio request didReceiveData 2010-04-14 13:56:29.963 AudioPlayer[2269:207] packetCallback count 1 2010-04-14 13:56:29.964 AudioPlayer[2269:207] add buffer: 2 2010-04-14 13:56:29.965 AudioPlayer[2269:207] packetCallback count 13 2010-04-14 13:56:29.967 AudioPlayer[2269:207] add buffer: 3 2010-04-14 13:56:29.968 AudioPlayer[2269:207] done with buffer: 3 2010-04-14 13:56:29.969 AudioPlayer[2269:207] done with buffer: 2 2010-04-14 13:56:29.974 AudioPlayer[2269:207] done with buffer: 1 So this loop continues some 20 - 30 times and then it crashes. The first time it plays an audio file it queues up the buffers and then plays sound, but doesn't callback to delete them until some 100 or more have been played. Can anyone explain this behavior? I read that there was a limit of 1 audio queue for MP3 playback for the iPhone. Is that still true? If not then I suppose I should use another audio queue for the next mp3 stream. I've had a look through the apple docs but it doesn't explain this in any particular detail. A better insight into this would be great. TIA.

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• cucumber, capybara & selenium works randomly

  - by user247479

  Setup with cucumber, capybara and selenium but some scenarios works only randomly. Running ruby 1.8.6 on rvm rails 2.3.8 selenium pops open firefox 3.6 I have tried to add this with no luck: with_scope(selector) do click_button(button) selenium.wait_for_page_to_load end The error output is sometimes: Given I am logged in and have created newsletter and subscribers # features/step_definitions/newsletter_send_steps.rb:108 end of file reached (EOFError) /Users/christianhager/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.8.6-p399/lib/ruby/1.8/net/protocol.rb:133:in sysread' /Users/christianhager/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.8.6-p399/lib/ruby/1.8/net/protocol.rb:133:inrbuf_fill' /Users/christianhager/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.8.6-p399/lib/ruby/1.8/timeout.rb:62:in timeout' /Users/christianhager/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.8.6-p399/lib/ruby/1.8/timeout.rb:93:intimeout' /Users/christianhager/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.8.6-p399/lib/ruby/1.8/net/protocol.rb:132:in rbuf_fill' /Users/christianhager/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.8.6-p399/lib/ruby/1.8/net/protocol.rb:116:inreaduntil' /Users/christianhager/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.8.6-p399/lib/ruby/1.8/net/protocol.rb:126:in readline' /Users/christianhager/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.8.6-p399/lib/ruby/1.8/net/http.rb:2020:inread_status_line' /Users/christianhager/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.8.6-p399/lib/ruby/1.8/net/http.rb:2009:in read_new' /Users/christianhager/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.8.6-p399/lib/ruby/1.8/net/http.rb:1050:inrequest_without_fakeweb' /Users/christianhager/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.8.6-p399/lib/ruby/1.8/net/http.rb:1037:in request_without_fakeweb' /Users/christianhager/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.8.6-p399/lib/ruby/1.8/net/http.rb:543:instart' /Users/christianhager/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.8.6-p399/lib/ruby/1.8/net/http.rb:1035:in request_without_fakeweb' ./features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:24:in__instance_exec2' ./features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:9:in with_scope' ./features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:9:inwith_scope' ./features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:23:in /^(?:|I )press "([^\"]*)"(?: within "([^\"]*)")?$/' features/enhanced/newsletter_send1.feature:7:inGiven I am logged in and have created newsletter and subscribers' And othertimes: no button with value or id or text 'create_user_button' found (Capybara::ElementNotFound) ./features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:24:in __instance_exec2' ./features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:9:inwith_scope' ./features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:9:in with_scope' ./features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:23:in/^(?:|I )press "([^\"])"(?: within "([^\"])")?$/' features/enhanced/newsletter_send1.feature:7:in `Given I am logged in and have created newsletter and subscribers' And sometimes it just works.... This is how my env.rb looks like ENV["RAILS_ENV"] ||= "cucumber" require File.expand_path(File.dirname(__FILE__) + '/../../config/environment') require 'cucumber/formatter/unicode' # Remove this line if you don't want Cucumber Unicode support require 'cucumber/rails/world' require 'cucumber/rails/active_record' require 'cucumber/web/tableish' require 'capybara/rails' require 'capybara/cucumber' require 'capybara/session' require 'cucumber/rails/capybara_javascript_emulation' require "selenium-webdriver" Capybara.default_driver = :selenium Capybara.default_wait_time = 5 Capybara.ignore_hidden_elements = false Capybara.default_selector = :css ActionController::Base.allow_rescue = false require 'database_cleaner' DatabaseCleaner.strategy = :truncation Before do Capybara.reset_sessions! DatabaseCleaner.clean end Cucumber::Rails::World.use_transactional_fixtures = false Cucumber-steps: Given I am on the signup page And I fill in "user_login" with "[email protected]" within "body" And I fill in "user_password" with "secret" within "body" And I fill in "user_password_confirmation" with "secret" within "body" And I check "terms_of_use" within "body" And I press "create_user_button" within "body" Any insight would be great :)

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• Dojo Table not Rendering in IE6

  - by Mike Carey

  I'm trying to use Dojo (1.3) checkBoxes to make columns appear/hide in a Dojo Grid that's displayed below the checkBoxes. I got that functionality to work fine, but I wanted to organize my checkBoxes a little better. So I tried putting them in a table. My dojo.addOnLoad function looks like this: dojo.addOnLoad(function(){ var checkBoxes = []; var container = dojo.byId('checkBoxContainer'); var table = dojo.doc.createElement("table"); var row1= dojo.doc.createElement("tr"); var row2= dojo.doc.createElement("tr"); var row3= dojo.doc.createElement("tr"); dojo.forEach(grid.layout.cells, function(cell, index){ //Add a new "td" element to one of the three rows }); dojo.place(addRow, table); dojo.place(removeRow, table); dojo.place(findReplaceRow, table); dojo.place(table, container); }); What's frustrating is: 1) Using the Dojo debugger I can see that the HTML is being properly generated for the table. 2) I can take that HTML and put just the table in an empty HTML file and it renders the checkBoxes in the table just fine. 3) The page renders correctly in Firefox, just not IE6. The HTML that is being generated looks like so: <div id="checkBoxContainer"> <table> <tr> <td> <div class="dijitReset dijitInline dijitCheckBox" role="presentation" widgetid="dijit_form_CheckBox_0" wairole="presentation"> <input class="dijitReset dijitCheckBoxInput" id="dijit_form_CheckBox_0" tabindex="0" type="checkbox" name="" dojoattachevent= "onmouseover:_onMouse,onmouseout:_onMouse,onclick:_onClick" dojoattachpoint="focusNode" unselectable="on" aria-pressed="false"/> </div> <label for="dijit_form_CheckBox_0"> Column 1 </label> </td> <td> <div class="dijitReset dijitInline dijitCheckBox" role="presentation" widgetid="dijit_form_CheckBox_1" wairole="presentation"> <input class="dijitReset dijitCheckBoxInput" id="dijit_form_CheckBox_1" tabindex="0" type="checkbox" name="" dojoattachevent= "onmouseover:_onMouse,onmouseout:_onMouse,onclick:_onClick" dojoattachpoint="focusNode" unselectable="on" aria-pressed="false"/> </div> </td> </tr> <tr> ... </tr> </table> </div> I would have posted to the official DOJO forums, but it says they're deprecated and they're using a mailing list now. They said if a mailing list doesn't work for you, use stackoverflos.com. So, here I am! Thanks for any insight you can provide.

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• Best practices concerning view model and model updates with a subset of the fields

  - by Martin

  By picking MVC for developing our new site, I find myself in the midst of "best practices" being developed around me in apparent real time. Two weeks ago, NerdDinner was my guide but with the development of MVC 2, even it seems outdated. It's an thrilling experience and I feel privileged to be in close contact with intelligent programmers daily. Right now I've stumbled upon an issue I can't seem to get a straight answer on - from all the blogs anyway - and I'd like to get some insight from the community. It's about Editing (read: Edit action). The bulk of material out there, tutorials and blogs, deal with creating and view the model. So while this question may not spell out a question, I hope to get some discussion going, contributing to my decision about the path of development I'm to take. My model represents a user with several fields like name, address and email. All the names, in fact, on field each for first name, last name and middle name. The Details view displays all these fields but you can change only one set of fields at a time, for instance, your names. The user expands a form while the other fields are still visible above and below. So the form that is posted back contains a subset of the fields representing the model. While this is appealing to us and our layout concerns, for various reasons, it is to be shunned by serious MVC-developers. I've been reading about some patterns and best practices and it seems that this is not in key with the paradigm of viewmodel == view. Or have I got it wrong? Anyway, NerdDinner dictates using FormCollection och UpdateModel. All the null fields are happily ignored. Since then, the MVC-community has abandoned this approach to such a degree that a bug in MVC 2 was not discovered. UpdateModel does not work without a complete model in your formcollection. The view model pattern receiving most praise seems to be Dedicated view model that contains a custom view model entity and is the only one that my design issue could be made compatible with. It entails a tedious amount of mapping, albeit lightened by the use of AutoMapper and the ideas of Jimmy Bogard, that may or may not be worthwhile. He also proposes a 1:1 relationship between view and view model. In keeping with these design paradigms, I am to create a view and associated view for each of my expanding sets of fields. The view models would each be nearly identical, differing only in the fields which are read-only, the views also containing much repeated markup. This seems absurd to me. In future I may want to be able to display two, more or all sets of fields open simultaneously. I will most attentively read the discussion I hope to spark. Many thanks in advance.

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• CSS Background-Images Loading after HTML Images (Involves Javascript)

  - by Kevin C.

  I threw together a quick little microsite that you can see at http://monterraauction.com. If you don't have a super-fast connection (and nothing's cached), the very last items to load are the background-images that are used for CSS image-text replacement (primarily, that h1#head at the top, with a 7kb background image). Nothing debilitating, but it looks slightly awkward. And I'm asking this question as a matter of curiosity more than anything else ;) Also, please note that this occurs in Firefox, but not Chrome. Now, underneath the h1#head I have a jquery.cycle.lite-powered slideshow in div#photo. In the HTML markup there are a total of 13, heavy image files that make up each of the slides. If I remove all but the first slide, then the problem goes away! So the CSS background-images are loading after...those HTML images are done? But here's what's confusing: I check it out in YSlow...the CSS background-images have a much lower response time than all of the slides in #photo. Right after all the JS files finish loading, in fact. So why aren't they showing up first? I tried $('#photo img:last-child').load(function() { alert('Locked and Loaded!')});, but the background-images pop up a while before the alert does, so I'm assuming it's not waiting until the last slide has loaded (admittedly I'm a bit of JS noob so maybe I'm just making a wrong assumption). I also tried commenting out all the jquery.cycle.lite stuff, so that I knew I didn't have any JS manipulating the DOM elements in #photo, but that wasn't the problem. I tried putting all the JS at the bottom of the document, right before </body>, but that didn't work. Lastly, I tried turning off javascript, and of course the css background-image loads way before the images in #photo, so it's definitely a JS thing (amirite?) I guess the obvious solution here is to mark the slides up as LINKS rather than IMGs, and have Javascript insert those 12 extra slideshow images after the DOM is ready--users without javascript shouldn't need to download the extra images anyways. But again, I'm curious: Why does removing the extra HTML images from within #photo solve the problem? And why are the CSS background-images showing up after the HTML images have loaded, even though YSlow says the css background-images loaded first? Seeing as how it happens in FF but not Chrome, is it simply a browser issue? I appreciate any insight you guys could give me!

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• Implementing EAV pattern with Hibernate for User -> Settings relationship

  - by Trevor

  I'm trying to setup a simple EAV pattern in my web app using Java/Spring MVC and Hibernate. I can't seem to figure out the magic behind the hibernate XML setup for this scenario. My database table "SETUP" has three columns: user_id (FK) setup_item setup_value The database composite key is made up of user_id | setup_item Here's the Setup.java class: public class Setup implements CommonFormElements, Serializable { private Map data = new HashMap(); private String saveAction; private Integer speciesNamingList; private User user; Logger log = LoggerFactory.getLogger(Setup.class); public String getSaveAction() { return saveAction; } public void setSaveAction(String action) { this.saveAction = action; } public User getUser() { return user; } public void setUser(User user) { this.user = user; } public Integer getSpeciesNamingList() { return speciesNamingList; } public void setSpeciesNamingList(Integer speciesNamingList) { this.speciesNamingList = speciesNamingList; } public Map getData() { return data; } public void setData(Map data) { this.data = data; } } My problem with the Hibernate setup, is that I can't seem to figure out how to map out the fact that a foreign key and the key of a map will construct the composite key of the table... this is due to a lack of experience using Hibernate. Here's my initial attempt at getting this to work: <composite-id> <key-many-to-one foreign-key="id" name="user" column="user_id" class="Business.User"> <meta attribute="use-in-equals">true</meta> </key-many-to-one> </composite-id> <map lazy="false" name="data" table="setup"> <key column="user_id" property-ref="user"/> <composite-map-key class="Command.Setup"> <key-property name="data" column="setup_item" type="string"/> </composite-map-key> <element column="setup_value" not-null="true" type="string"/> </map> Any insight into how to properly map this common scenario would be most appreciated!

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• user generated / user specific functions

  - by pedalpete

  I'm looking for the most elegant and secure method to do the following. I have a calendar, and groups of users. Users can add events to specific days on the calendar, and specify how long each event lasts for. I've had a few requests from users to add the ability for them to define that events of a specific length include a break, of a certain amount of time, or require that a specific amount of time be left between events. For example, if event is 2 hours, include a 20min break. for each event, require 30 minutes before start of next event. The same group that has asked for an event of 2 hours to include a 20 min break, could also require that an event 3 hours include a 30 minute break. In the end, what the users are trying to get is an elapsed time excluding breaks calculated for them. Currently I provide them a total elapsed time, but they are looking for a running time. However, each of these requests is different for each group. Where one group may want a 30 minute break during a 2 hour event, and another may want only 10 minutes for each 3 hour event. I was kinda thinking I could write the functions into a php file per group, and then include that file and do the calculations via php and then return a calculated total to the user, but something about that doesn't sit right with me. Another option is to output the groups functions to javascript, and have it run client-side, as I'm already returning the duration of the event, but where the user is part of more than one group with different rules, this seems like it could get rather messy. I currently store the start and end time in the database, but no 'durations', and I don't think I should be storing the calculated totals in the db, because if a group decides to change their calculations, I'd need to change it throughout the db. Is there a better way of doing this? I would just store the variables in mysql, but I don't see how I can then say to mysql to calculate based on those variables. I'm REALLY lost here. Any suggestions? I'm hoping somebody has done something similar and can provide some insight into the best direction. If it helps, my table contains eventid, user, group, startDate, startTime, endDate, endTime, type The json for the event which I return to the user is {"eventid":"'.$eventId.'", "user":"'.$userId.'","group":"'.$groupId.'","type":"'.$type.'","startDate":".$startDate.'","startTime":"'.$startTime.'","endDate":"'.$endDate.'","endTime":"'.$endTime.'","durationLength":"'.$duration.'", "durationHrs":"'.$durationHrs.'"} where for example, duration length is 2.5 and duration hours is 2:30.

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• The most efficient method of drawing multiple quads in OpenGL

  - by CPatton

  I'm not very keen with OpenGL and I was wondering if someone could give me some insight on this. I'm a 'seasoned' programmer, I've read the redbook about VBOs and the like, but I was wondering from a more experienced person about the best/most efficient way of achieving this. I've been producing this 2d tile-based game engine to be used in several projects. I have a class called "ScreenObject" which is mainly composed of a Dictionary<Point, Tile> The Point key is to show where to render the Tile on the screen, and the Tile contains one or more textures to be drawn at that point. This ScreenObject is where the tiles will be modified, deleted, added, etc.. My original method of drawing the tiles in the testing I've done was to iterate through the ScreenObject and draw each quad at each location separately. From what I've read, this is a massive waste of resources. It wasn't horribly slow in the testing, but after I've completed the animation classes and effect classes, I'm sure it would be extremely slow. And one last thing, if you wouldn't mind.. As I said before, the Tile class can contain multiple textures to be drawn at the Point location on the screen. I recognize possibly two options for me here. Either add a quad at that location for each texture to be drawn, or, somehow.. use a multiple texture for the same quad (if it's possible). Even if each tile contained one texture only, that would be 64 quads to be drawn on the screen. Most of the tiles will contain 2-5 textures, so the number of total quads would increase dramatically with this method. Would it be feasible to add a quad for each new texture, or am I ignoring a better way to do this? Just need some help understanding this if you don't mind :) I've tried to be as concise as possible, and I'd greatly appreciate any responses.. and even some criticism. Programming is often a learning process and one who develops seems to never stops learning. Thanks for your time.

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• Passing Flash variables to PHP.

  - by user340553

  Hi, I have a simple standalone application written in Visual Basic that I'm porting to a browser based application using PHP/javascript. The original VB application has some simple embedded flash games with token and point counters. The token and point values are being passed as variables between the application and the game. I'm trying to achieve the same effect in my PHP port without modifying the actionscript code( using the variables in actionscript that already exist). Below is Visual Basic code that's loading a value from a database and posting that value to flash using FlashVars: Private Sub loadPlayer() Try If CtblPoints.CheckPointsByID(mCard) Then objPoints = CtblPoints.GettblPointsByID(mCard) objPlayerAc = CtblPlayerAccount.GettblPlayerAccountByPlayerID(objPoints.AccountId) objPlayer = CtblPlayer.GettblPlayerByID(objPlayerAc.PlayerID) objPlayerBal = CtblPlayerBalance.GettblPlayerBalanceByID(objPlayerAc.PlayerID) objPlayerAcDetail = CtblPlayerAccountDetail.GettblPlayerAccountDetailByAmount(objPoints.AccountId) strTotalPoints = Convert.ToString(objPlayerAc.Points) strTotalWin = Convert.ToString(objPlayerBal.TokenAmount) 'Dim intTokenAmount As Decimal = Convert.ToDecimal(objPlayerBal.TokenAmount) 'strTotalWin = Convert.ToString(Convert.ToInt64(intTokenAmount * 100)) flashPlayer.Size = panelGame.Size flashPlayer.FlashVars = "totalEntries=" & strTotalPoints & "&credit=" & strTotalWin flashPlayer.LoadMovie(0, strGameFile) flashPlayer.Play() Else Me.Close() Dim frmInvCrd As New frmInvalidCard frmInvCrd.ShowDialog() End If Catch ex As Exception End Try I'm trying to recreate this in PHP, but I'm at a loss as to how to begin implementing it. The variables in flash are declared publicly, and global imports used: import com.atticmedia.console.*; import flash.display.*; import flash.events.*; import flash.geom.*; import flash.media.*; import flash.net.*; import flash.system.*; import flash.utils.*; First declaration of variable 'totalEntries' is: public var totalEntries:int = 0; and this is a snip of totalEntries being used in the actionscript public function notifyServerOfUnwonCredits(param1) { var remainder:* = param1; if (this.useServer) { this.targetWinAmount = 0; this.cancelUpdateOverTime = F9.setEnterFrame(this.updateOverTime); fscommand("OverTime", "" + remainder); this.flashVarsUpdatedAction = function () { originalTotalWin = totalWin; return; }// end function ; } else { this.setTotalEntries(100000); this.setTotalWin(0); } return; }// end function Eventually I'll be passing these values back to a mySQL database. Any insight into this would be extremely helpful, Thanks!

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• NSTimer as a self-targeting ivar.

  - by Matt Wilding

  I have come across an awkward situation where I would like to have a class with an NSTimer instance variable that repeatedly calls a method of the class as long as the class is alive. For illustration purposes, it might look like this: // .h @interface MyClock : NSObject { NSTimer* _myTimer; } - (void)timerTick; @end - // .m @implementation MyClock - (id)init { self = [super init]; if (self) { _myTimer = [[NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0f target:self selector:@selector(timerTick) userInfo:nil repeats:NO] retain]; } return self; } - (void)dealloc { [_myTimer invalidate]; [_myTImer release]; [super dealloc]; } - (void)timerTick { // Do something fantastic. } @end That's what I want. I don't want to to have to expose an interface on my class to start and stop the internal timer, I just want it to run while the class exists. Seems simple enough. But the problem is that NSTimer retains its target. That means that as long as that timer is active, it is keeping the class from being dealloc'd by normal memory management methods because the timer has retained it. Manually adjusting the retain count is out of the question. This behavior of NSTimer seems like it would make it difficult to ever have a repeating timer as an ivar, because I can't think of a time when an ivar should retain its owning class. This leaves me with the unpleasant duty of coming up with some method of providing an interface on MyClock that allows users of the class to control when the timer is started and stopped. Besides adding unneeded complexity, this is annoying because having one owner of an instance of the class invalidate the timer could step on the toes of another owner who is counting on it to keep running. I could implement my own pseudo-retain-count-system for keeping the timer running but, ...seriously? This is way to much work for such a simple concept. Any solution I can think of feels hacky. I ended up writing a wrapper for NSTimer that behaves exactly like a normal NSTimer, but doesn't retain its target. I don't like it, and I would appreciate any insight.

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• mysql index optimization for a table with multiple indexes that index some of the same columns

  - by Sean

  I have a table that stores some basic data about visitor sessions on third party web sites. This is its structure: id, site_id, unixtime, unixtime_last, ip_address, uid There are four indexes: id, site_id/unixtime, site_id/ip_address, and site_id/uid There are many different types of ways that we query this table, and all of them are specific to the site_id. The index with unixtime is used to display the list of visitors for a given date or time range. The other two are used to find all visits from an IP address or a "uid" (a unique cookie value created for each visitor), as well as determining if this is a new visitor or a returning visitor. Obviously storing site_id inside 3 indexes is inefficient for both write speed and storage, but I see no way around it, since I need to be able to quickly query this data for a given specific site_id. Any ideas on making this more efficient? I don't really understand B-trees besides some very basic stuff, but it's more efficient to have the left-most column of an index be the one with the least variance - correct? Because I considered having the site_id being the second column of the index for both ip_address and uid but I think that would make the index less efficient since the IP and UID are going to vary more than the site ID will, because we only have about 8000 unique sites per database server, but millions of unique visitors across all ~8000 sites on a daily basis. I've also considered removing site_id from the IP and UID indexes completely, since the chances of the same visitor going to multiple sites that share the same database server are quite small, but in cases where this does happen, I fear it could be quite slow to determine if this is a new visitor to this site_id or not. The query would be something like: select id from sessions where uid = 'value' and site_id = 123 limit 1 ... so if this visitor had visited this site before, it would only need to find one row with this site_id before it stopped. This wouldn't be super fast necessarily, but acceptably fast. But say we have a site that gets 500,000 visitors a day, and a particular visitor loves this site and goes there 10 times a day. Now they happen to hit another site on the same database server for the first time. The above query could take quite a long time to search through all of the potentially thousands of rows for this UID, scattered all over the disk, since it wouldn't be finding one for this site ID. Any insight on making this as efficient as possible would be appreciated :) Update - this is a MyISAM table with MySQL 5.0. My concerns are both with performance as well as storage space. This table is both read and write heavy. If I had to choose between performance and storage, my biggest concern is performance - but both are important. We use memcached heavily in all areas of our service, but that's not an excuse to not care about the database design. I want the database to be as efficient as possible.

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• Add inner-marging to a 4 columns CSS

  - by Martín Marconcini

  I am not a CSS expert (mainly because I haven’t had the need to use much HTML/CSS stuff lately), so I came up with the following style/divs to create a 4 column layout: <style type="text/css"> <!-- .columns:after { content: "."; display: block; height: 0; clear: both; visibility: hidden; } * html .columns {height: 1%;} .columns{ display:inline-block; } .columns{ display:block; } .columns .column{ float:left; overflow:hidden; display:inline; } .columns .last{ float:right; } .col4 .first{ left: auto;width:25%; } .col4 .second{ left: auto;width:25%; } .col4 .third{ left: auto;width:25%; } .col4 .last{ left: auto;width:25%; } --> </style> note: most of this stuff comes from this google result, I just adapted it to 4 columns. The HTML then looks like this: <div class="columns col4"> <div class="column first”> SOME TEXT </div><!-- /.first -—> <div class="column second”> MORE TEXT</div><!—- /.second -—> <div class="column third”> SOME MORE TEXT </div><!—- /.third --> <div class="column last”> SOME LAST TEXT </div><!-- /.last -—> </div><!-- /.columns --> Ok, I’ve simplified that a bit (there’s a small image and some < h2 text in there too) but the thing is that I’d like to add some space between the columns. Here’s how it looks now: Do you have any idea what CSS property should I touch? note: If I add margin or padding, one column shifts down because (as I understand it) it doesn’t fit. There might be other CSSs as well, since this came in a template (I have been asked for this change, but I didn’t do any of this, as usual). Thanks for any insight.

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• How do I refactor these two C# functions to abstrtact their logic from the specific class properties

  - by ObligatoryMoniker

  I have two functions whose underlying logic is the same but in one case it sets one property value on a class and in another case it sets a different one. How can I rewrite the following two functions to abstract away as much of the algorithm as possible so that I can make changes in logic in a single place? SetBillingAddress private void SetBillingAddress(OrderAddress newBillingAddress) { BasketHelper basketHelper = new BasketHelper(SiteConstants.BasketName); OrderAddress oldBillingAddress = basketHelper.Basket.Addresses[basketHelper.BillingAddressID]; bool NewBillingAddressIsNotOldBillingAddress = ((oldBillingAddress == null) || (newBillingAddress.OrderAddressId != oldBillingAddress.OrderAddressId)); bool BillingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet = (oldBillingAddress != null); bool BillingAddressIsNotSameAsShippingAddress = (basketHelper.ShippingAddressID != basketHelper.BillingAddressID); bool NewBillingAddressIsNotShippingAddress = (newBillingAddress.OrderAddressId != basketHelper.ShippingAddressID); if (NewBillingAddressIsNotOldBillingAddress && BillingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet && BillingAddressIsNotSameAsShippingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Remove(oldBillingAddress); } if (NewBillingAddressIsNotOldBillingAddress && NewBillingAddressIsNotShippingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Add(newBillingAddress); } basketHelper.BillingAddressID = newBillingAddress.OrderAddressId; basketHelper.Basket.Save(); } And here is the second one: SetShippingAddress private void SetBillingAddress(OrderAddress newShippingAddress) { BasketHelper basketHelper = new BasketHelper(SiteConstants.BasketName); OrderAddress oldShippingAddress = basketHelper.Basket.Addresses[basketHelper.ShippingAddressID]; bool NewShippingAddressIsNotOldShippingAddress = ((oldShippingAddress == null) || (newShippingAddress.OrderAddressId != oldShippingAddress.OrderAddressId)); bool ShippingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet = (oldShippingAddress != null); bool ShippingAddressIsNotSameAsBillingAddress = (basketHelper.ShippingAddressID != basketHelper.BillingAddressID); bool NewShippingAddressIsNotBillingAddress = (newShippingAddress.OrderAddressId != basketHelper.BillingAddressID); if (NewShippingAddressIsNotOldShippingAddress && ShippingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet && ShippingAddressIsNotSameAsBillingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Remove(oldShippingAddress); } if (NewShippingAddressIsNotOldShippingAddress && NewShippingAddressIsNotBillingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Add(newShippingAddress); } basketHelper.ShippingAddressID = newShippingAddress.OrderAddressId; basketHelper.Basket.Save(); } My initial thought was that if I could pass a class's property by refernce then I could rewrite the previous functions into something like private void SetPurchaseOrderAddress(OrderAddress newAddress, ref String CurrentChangingAddressIDProperty) and then call this function and pass in either basketHelper.BillingAddressID or basketHelper.ShippingAddressID as CurrentChangingAddressIDProperty but since I can't pass C# properties by reference I am not sure what to do with this code to be able to reuse the logic in both places. Thanks for any insight you can give me.

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• A Python Wrapper for Shutterfly. Uploading an Image

  - by iJames

  I'm working on a Django app in which I want to order prints through Shutterfly's Open API: http://www.shutterfly.com/documentation/start.sfly So far I've been able to build the appropriate POSTs and GETs using the modules and suggested code snippets including httplib, httplib2, urllib, urllib2, mimetype, etc. But I'm stuck on the image uploading when placing an order (the ordering process is not the same process as uploading images to albums which I haven't tried.) From what I can tell, I'm supposed to basically create the multipart form data by concatenating the HTTP request body together with the binary data of the image. I take the strings: --myuniqueboundary1273149960.175.1 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="AuthenticationID" auniqueauthenticationid --myuniqueboundary1273149960.175.1 Content-Disposition: file; name="Image.Data"; filename="1_41_orig.jpg" Content-Type: image/jpeg and I put this data into it and end with the final boundary: ...\xb5|\xf88\x1dj\t@\xd9\'\x1f\xc6j\x88{\x8a\xc0\x18\x8eGaJG\x03\xe9J-\xd8\x96[\x91T\xc3\x0eTu\xf4\xaa\xa5Ty\x80\x01\x8c\x9f\xe9Z\xad\x8cg\xba# g\x18\xe2\xaa:\x829\x02\xb4["\x17Q\xe7\x801\xea?\xad7j\xfd\xa2\xdf\x81\xd2\x84D\xb6)\xa8\xcb\xc8O\\\x9a\xaf(\x1cqM\x98\x8d*\xb8\'h\xc8+\x8e:u\xaa\xf3*\x9b\x95\x05F8\xedN%\xcb\xe1B2\xa9~Tw\xedF\xc4\xfe\xe8\xfc\xa9\x983\xff\xd9... That ends up making it look like this (when I use print to debug): ... --myuniqueboundary1273149960.175.1 Content-Disposition: file; name="Image.Data"; filename="1_41_orig.jpg" Content-Type: image/jpeg ????q?ExifMM* ? ??(1?2?<??i?b?NIKON CORPORATIONNIKON D40HHQuickTime 7.62009:02:17 13:05:25Mac OS X 10.5.6%??????"?'??0220?????? ???? ? ?|_???,b???50??5 ... --myuniqueboundary1273149960.175.1-- My code for grabbing the binary data is pretty much this: filedata = open('myjpegfile.jpeg','rb').read() Which I then add to the rest of the body. I've see something like this code everywhere. I'm then using this to post the full request (with the headers too): response = urllib2.urlopen(request).read() This seems to me to be the standard way that form POSTS with files happens. Am I missing something here? At some point I might be able to make this into a library worth posting up on github, but this problem has stopped me cold in my tracks. Thanks for any insight!

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• iPhone dev: load a file from resource folder

  - by thomax

  I'm writing an iPhone app with a UIWebView which should display various html files I have in the app resource folder. In xcode my project overview, these html files are displayed like this: dirA |---> index.html |---> a1.html |---> a2.html |---> my.css |---> dirB |---> b1.html |---> b2.html |---> dirC |---> c1.html |---> c2.html These resources where added to the project as such: - Checked "Copy items into destination groups folder (if needed)". - Reference type: Default. - Text encoding: Unicode (utf-8). - Recursively create groups for any added folders. The links in my html are relative, meaning they look like this: <a href="a1.html">a2</a> <a href="a2.html">a2</a> <a href="dirB/b2.html">b2</a> <a href="dirC/c1.html">b2</a> In order to display the index.html when the app starts up, I use the following code: NSString *path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"index" ofType:@"html"]; NSURL *url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:path]; NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [webView loadRequest:request]; This works fine. Following links from the index file also works fine, as long as the html files requested are directly under dirA. If the link followed points to a file in a sub-directory, then didFailLoadWithError will catch the situation and report that the requested file does not exist. Note that [webView loadHtmlString:myHtml]; cannot be part of the solution, as I need back and forward buttons to work in my web view. So the question is: How can I follow a relative link to an html file in a sub directory within my resources? I've been all over stackoverflow and the rest of the tubes for the past few days trying to figure this one out, but nowhere have I come across the solution to this exact problem. Any insight at all would be very, very much appreciated!

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• Mindblowing jQuery Weirdness

  - by Jason

  ...at least to me. This code used to work fine. I'm pretty sure nothing has changed, but now all of the sudden it behaves oddly. Basically I'm trying to create inline editing functionality. When the user clicks on the link, it dynamically generates a textbox and a confirm and cancel link. I'm having problems with the cancel link not removing everything in the cell. HTML: ... <td class="bid"> <a href="javascript:" class="102093" title="Click to modify bid">$0.45</a> </td> ... Binding jQuery (in $(function())): $('.bid a').live('click', renderBidChange); .... $('.report_table .cancel').live('click', cancelUpdate); renderBidChange (this function creates the dynamic elements): function renderBidChange(){ var cpc = $(this); var value = cpc.text().replace('$', ''); var cell = cpc.parent('.bid'); cpc.hide(); var input = document.createElement('input'); $(input).attr({type:'text',class:'dynamic cpc-input'}).val(value); cell.append(input); var accept = document.createElement('a'); $(accept).addClass('accept').attr({'href':'javascript:', 'title':'Accept Changes'}).text('Accept Changes'); cell.append(accept); var cancel = document.createElement('a'); $(cancel).addClass('cancel').attr({'href':'javascript:', 'title':'Cancel Changes'}).text('Cancel Changes'); cell.append(cancel); $(input).focus(); input.select(); } cancelUpdate this function just removes everything visible (all the dynamic junk in this case) in the cell and shows what used to be there. function cancelUpdate(){ var cell = $(this).parent(); cell.find(':visible').remove(); cell.find(':hidden').show(); } However, for some reason, the cancel link remains after it is clicked! Everything else is removed except that. W T F Thanks for any insight you're able to provide! I'm sure it's just some stupid little detail I'm over[caffeinatedly]looking... UPDATE Immediately after posting this I epiphanied that it may be a CSS issue, but after double checking my code, it is not.

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• Issues in Ada Concurrency

  - by Arkapravo

  Hi I need some help and also some insight. This is a program in Ada-2005 which has 3 tasks. The output is 'z'. If the 3 tasks do not happen in the order of their placement in the program then output can vary from z = 2, z = 1 to z = 0 ( That is easy to see in the program, mutual exclusion is attempted to make sure output is z = 2). WITH Ada.Text_IO; USE Ada.Text_IO; WITH Ada.Integer_Text_IO; USE Ada.Integer_Text_IO; WITH System; USE System; procedure xyz is x : Integer := 0; y : Integer := 0; z : Integer := 0; task task1 is pragma Priority(System.Default_Priority + 3); end task1; task task2 is pragma Priority(System.Default_Priority + 2); end task2; task task3 is pragma Priority(System.Default_Priority + 1); end task3; task body task1 is begin x := x + 1; end task1; task body task2 is begin y := x + y; end task2; task body task3 is begin z := x + y + z; end task3; begin Put(" z = "); Put(z); end xyz; I first tried this program (a) without pragmas, the result : In 100 tries, occurence of 2: 86, occurence of 1: 10, occurence of 0: 4. Then (b) with pragmas, the result : In 100 tries, occurence of 2: 84, occurence of 1 : 14, occurence of 0: 2. Which is unexpected as the 2 results are nearly identical. Which means pragmas or no pragmas the output has same behavior. Those who are Ada concurrency Gurus please shed some light on this topic. Alternative solutions with semaphores (if possible) is also invited. Further in my opinion for a critical process (that is what we do with Ada), with pragmas the result should be z = 2, 100% at all times, hence or otherwise this program should be termed as 85% critical !!!! (That should not be so with Ada)

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• Structuring Win32 GUI code

  - by kraf

  I wish to improve my code and file structure in larger Win32 projects with plenty of windows and controls. Currently, I tend to have one header and one source file for the entire implementation of a window or dialog. This works fine for small projects, but now it has come to the point where these implementations are starting to reach 1000-2000 lines, which is tedious to browse. A typical source file of mine looks like this: static LRESULT CALLBACK on_create(const HWND hwnd, WPARAM wp, LPARAM lp) { setup_menu(hwnd); setup_list(hwnd); setup_context_menu(hwnd); /* clip */ return 0; } static LRESULT CALLBACK on_notify(HWND hwnd, UINT msg, WPARAM wp, LPARAM lp) { const NMHDR* header = (const NMHDR*)lp; /* At this point I feel that the control's event handlers doesn't * necessarily belong in the same source file. Perhaps I could move * each control's creation code and event handlers into a separate * source file? Good practice or cause of confusion? */ switch (header->idFrom) { case IDC_WINDOW_LIST: switch (header->code) { case NM_RCLICK: return on_window_list_right_click(hwnd, wp, lp); /* clip */ } } } static LRESULT CALLBACK wndmain_proc(HWND hwnd, UINT msg, WPARAM wp, LPARAM lp) { switch (msg) { case WM_CREATE: return on_create(hwnd, wp, lp); case WM_CLOSE: return on_close(hwnd, wp, lp); case WM_NOTIFY: return on_notify(hwnd, wp, lp); /* It doesn't matter much how the window proc looks as it just forwards * events to the appropriate handler. */ /* clip */ default: return DefWindowProc(hwnd, msg, wp, lp); } } But now as the window has a lot more controls, and these controls in turn have their own message handlers, and then there's the menu click handlers, and so on... I'm getting lost, and I really need advice on how to structure this mess up in a good and sensible way. I have tried to find good open source examples of structuring Win32 code, but I just get more confused since there are hundreds of files, and within each of these files that seem GUI related, the Win32 GUI code seems so far encapsulated away. And when I finally find a CreateWindowEx statement, the window proc is nowhere to be found. Any advice on how to structure all the code while remaining sane would be greatly appreciated. Thanks! I don't wish to use any libraries or frameworks as I find the Win32 API interesting and valuable for learning. Any insight into how you structure your own GUI code could perhaps serve as inspiration.

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