Search Results

Search found 93603 results on 3745 pages for 'one to many'.

Page 662/3745 | < Previous Page | 658 659 660 661 662 663 664 665 666 667 668 669  | Next Page >

• How to create Automation Add In Formula/Function and Excel Add In buttons (vsto) for them together?

  - by ticky

  Ok, let me explain it little bit better. Here is one example how to create formula/functions http://blogs.msdn.com/b/eric_carter/archive/2004/12/01/273127.aspx?PageIndex=1#comments I implemented something like that, I even added values in registry, so that this Automation AddIn doesn't have to be added manually in Excel, but automatically.. I created SETUP project for this project and it works GREAT. Then.. After some time, I wanted to create buttons in Excel for functions that I use. Those are custom functions, using some web services. I created Excel AddIn and added Ribbon with buttons - one button = one custom function. I can publish this project and I am creating VSTO, so this way, I can install excel ribbon buttons in custom group of mine. Now, I have 2 installations, first for Automation AddIn and second for Excel AddIn. How can I connect them? I tried to include VSTO to Setup - something like this: [I WILL ADD IT LATER] When I install it, it works great, it installs both parts. But when I install on my friends computer, it doesn't shows Ribbon buttons. What could be the problem? If there is some other way to integrate those two, I would be very grateful!!!!! Thanks! Tijana

  Read the article

• Using Subsonic 3.0 Advanced Templates

  - by umit

  Hi all, I've been trying to use Subsonic Advanced Templates in a project for a while but most of the time I find myself writing a Stored Procedure as I can't find a proper way of doing it in code. Subsonic created corresponding objects for my DB tables and for foreign keys it created IQueryable fields inside each object. These fields are not loaded by default and a new SQL query is executed when you access them. 1- Is there a way to get all data in one query (deep load)? Also these fields can not be assigned. So when I want to create an object in a maintenance page, I can't put all the data into this object before saving it in DB: Post post = new Post(); //get photos for this post IList<PostPhoto> postPhotos = GetPostPhotos(); post.PostPhotos = postPhotos; 2- Is it possible to have one Post object with all fields set from user input? Think of the Post object above and assume I've successfully assigned its fields. Now I need to save it to the DB. 3- Is using BatchQuery the only way to do it in one query? If I have 4 photos in PostPhotos field; 2 of them previously saved and 2 of them new, can I use the Update method to handle both the adding and updating of these photos? Any ideas or links are appreciated. Cheers...

  Read the article

• Jquery Accordion : set action to a specific element inside header

  - by J.Tay

  by default, if we have something like this as a Header in jQuery Accordion : <h3> <div class="1">TEXT</div> <div class="2">ICON</div> <div class="3">BUTTON</div> </h3> by clicking anywhere on this , accordion works and toggle the next element and ... the question is , how can we set an option and select a specific element ( like: 'div' with class '1' ) to click on it to and toggle the accordion. i mean i don't want the whole Header remain click able. i just want to click on a icon or div o something inside the header and toggle open/close the accordion. thank you Update 1 : HTML : <div id="testAcc"> <h3> <div class="one">Text</div> <div class="two">Icon</div> <div class="three">Button</div> </h3> <div class="accBody"> text text text text text text text text text text </div> <h3> <div class="one">Text</div> <div class="two">Icon</div> <div class="three">Button</div> </h3> <div class="accBody"> text text text text text text text text text text </div> </div> JS : $('#testAcc').accordion({ autoHeight: false, header: 'h3', collapsible: 'ture', }); this codes working fine. but i want to use something like ( header: 'h3.one' ) means i want to set a specific class and element inside the header , then if user click ONLY on that element, the accordion will open or close ...

  Read the article

• Basic Team Foundation Server 2010 Question - System Resource Usage?

  - by user127954

  Guys / Gals i have a real basic Team Foundation Server 2010 question. For those of you who have played around with tfs 2010 is it a lot more light weight than tfs2008 is? I remember installing all the pieces needed for TFS 2008 one one machine at work. I remember it being a pain to install (i know 2010 is supposed to be much better) We wanted to play around with it a little bit to see if it met our needs. Well it brought that machine to a screeching halt. I'm needing a source control repository for home and i thought why not just install tfs 2010 so i can get familiar with it and maybe in the future i can make a better sell to my organization and FINALLY get them to move off of Source Safe but my concern is i only have one server at home (granted i already have SQL Server installed) and don't want to buy a machine just for this purpose. I'd also like to get more familiar with CI too. Anyways, if team is going to be to heavy i'll just use subversion but i'd like to use TFS if possible. Any help would be appreciated. thanks, Ncage

  Read the article

• Using HABTM relationships in cakephp plugins with unique set to false

  - by Dean

  I am working on a plugin for our CakePHP CMS that will handle blogs. When getting to the tags I needed to set the HABTM relationship to unique = false to be able add tags to a post without having to reset them all. The BlogPost model looks like this class BlogPost extends AppModel { var $name = 'BlogPost'; var $actsAs = array('Core.WhoDidIt', 'Containable'); var $hasMany = array('Blog.BlogPostComment'); var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array('Blog.BlogTag' => array('unique' => false), 'Blog.BlogCategory'); } The BlogTag model looks like this class BlogTag extends AppModel { var $name = 'BlogTag'; var $actsAs = array('Containable'); var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array('Blog.BlogPost'); } The SQL error I am getting when I have the unique = true setting in the HABTM relationship between the BlogPost and BlogTag is Query: SELECT `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`id`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`name`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`slug`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`created_by`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`modified_by`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`created`, `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`modified`, `BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_post_id`, `BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_tag_id` FROM `blog_tags` AS `Blog`.`BlogTag` JOIN `blog_posts_blog_tags` AS `BlogPostsBlogTag` ON (`BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_post_id` = 4 AND `BlogPostsBlogTag`.`blog_tag_id` = `Blog`.`BlogTag`.`id`) As you can see it is trying to set the blog_tags table to 'Blog'.'BlogTag. which isn't a valid MySQL name. When I remove the unique = true from the relationship it all works find and I can save one tag but when adding another it just erases the first one and puts the new one in its place. Does anyone have any ideas? is it a bug or am I just missing something? Cheers, Dean

  Read the article

• How to setup relationships in contact Database

  - by Walt

  I am currently embarking on a new venture to learn PHP and MySQL. I have done some simple databases in the past using Access, but this one is to be a web-centric database for tracking a myriad of data including contacts and project information. I will need to link the various tables in various relationships, and I am not sure the best way to do that. Since I am just starting out with PHP/MySQL I am researching online sources for learning as much as possible. If anyone has recommendations on books or websites, I would appreciate it. In setting up my tables, one major area that I am concerned with is contacts. I will have a variety of contacts that include: employees, clients, vendors, subcontractors, etc.. and a single contact can be multiple types and each type would have various additional fields that pertain to them. My thought was to have one contacts table that links to other tables for the various contact types. I'm not sure which field type or setup of table options are best... Thoughts? This scenario will likely play out in other areas of the database as well for projects and products. Any pointers/direction would be appreciated. WES

  Read the article

• DDD and Entity Base, Model using multiple identity types

  - by Thomas

  I have a model that looks like this: public interface IEntity { int Id { get; set; } } Then the idea is to have my entities inherit from this interface: public class User : IEntity { public int Id { get; set; } } However, one of my entities actually has a Guid as an identifier. public class UserSession { public Guid Id { get; set; } } I really would like all my entities inheriting from the same interface but that would force me to add an integer based identity column to the UserSession which is unnecessary since Guid is the identity, but it would keep the domain model nice since all entities would inherit from the same base. What options do I have in this scenario? Can I have two base interfaces, one for int and one for Guid? Should I add an identity column into the UserSession entity although it is unnecessary? I need the Guid so I can't just get rid of it and replace it with and integer. Any thoughts on best practices?

  Read the article

• Get Image from Byte Aarray.

  - by Arun Thakkar

  Hello Everyone!! Hope You all are fine and also in one of your best of moods!! Hope You all are Enjoying iPhone development. I herewith one issue that i am not able to solve, may be i don't know the depth concept of iPhone. So Its my humble requet to you to guide me or suggest or share your ideas. I do find an issue with getting an image from Bytes array. I am calling a webservice which returns an image in form of Bytes Array as response. I have Converted this bytes array in to form of NSData, Now i have NSData, But When i Try to get an image from this NSData, It shows nil. I Did lots of R&D and Find one suggestion to use base64 encoder, But unfortunately because of not proper guidance I was not able to Implement that. I was also suggested to use OPenSSL Library for base64 from url http://www.cocoadev.com/index.pl?BaseSixtyFour But again i was not able to include #include #include these two files. as in Newer Version of SDK 3.X family Apple has depreciated those (as i guess). So Now i need help from you guys. kindly help me if you have solution or if you know the steps to solve these. Looking Forwards. Regards, Arun Thakkar

  Read the article

• What tasks aren't easy for PHP, ColdFusion and ASP?

  - by boost

  PHP, ColdFusion, and ASP (among many others) are usually sold on their strengths. What are their weaknesses? If one were to develop a niche product to handle the things that these products weren't so good at, what should it focus on? EDIT I'm trying to figure out what things PHP etc are bad at. They're all good at doing the nuts and bolts stuff, if one is looking with a bottom-to-top mindset. I'm thinking a little more globally, more top-to-bottom; what's difficult to achieve in PHP/ASP/CF without thousands of lines of code and twenty minutes of server time? EDIT Suppose company A comes up to you and says, "We want you to do x in PHP." What values of x will cause you to say, "Forget it, buddy, no one in their right mind would use PHP for that"? (swap PHP in the above quote for your favourite tool) EDIT Have we got to the point where everyone's needs can be met with PHP frameworks, Rails and ... er ... Java?

  Read the article

• Using shared_ptr to implement RCU (read-copy-update)?

  - by yongsun

  I'm very interested in the user-space RCU (read-copy-update), and trying to simulate one via tr1::shared_ptr, here is the code, while I'm really a newbie in concurrent programming, would some experts help me to review? The basic idea is, reader calls get_reading_copy() to gain the pointer of current protected data (let's say it's generation one, or G1). writer calls get_updating_copy() to gain a copy of the G1 (let's say it's G2), and only one writer is allowed to enter the critical section. After the updating is done, writer calls update() to do a swap, and make the m_data_ptr pointing to data G2. The ongoing readers and the writer now hold the shared_ptr of G1, and either a reader or a writer will eventually deallocate the G1 data. Any new readers would get the pointer to G2, and a new writer would get the copy of G2 (let's say G3). It's possible the G1 is not released yet, so multiple generations of data my co-exists. template <typename T> class rcu_protected { public: typedef T type; typedef std::tr1::shared_ptr<type> rcu_pointer; rcu_protected() : m_data_ptr (new type()) {} rcu_pointer get_reading_copy () { spin_until_eq (m_is_swapping, 0); return m_data_ptr; } rcu_pointer get_updating_copy () { spin_until_eq (m_is_swapping, 0); while (!CAS (m_is_writing, 0, 1)) {/* do sleep for back-off when exceeding maximum retry times */} rcu_pointer new_data_ptr(new type(*m_data_ptr)); // as spin_until_eq does not have memory barrier protection, // we need to place a read barrier to protect the loading of // new_data_ptr not to be re-ordered before its construction _ReadBarrier(); return new_data_ptr; } void update (rcu_pointer new_data_ptr) { while (!CAS (m_is_swapping, 0, 1)) {} m_data_ptr.swap (new_data_ptr); // as spin_until_eq does not have memory barrier protection, // we need to place a write barrier to protect the assignments of // m_is_writing/m_is_swapping be re-ordered bofore the swapping _WriteBarrier(); m_is_writing = 0; m_is_swapping = 0; } private: volatile long m_is_writing; volatile long m_is_swapping; rcu_pointer m_data_ptr; };

  Read the article

• After Delete Trigger Fires Only After Delete?

  - by Brandi

  I thought "after delete" meant that the trigger is not fired until after the delete has already taken place, but here is my situation... I made 3, nearly identical SQL CLR after delete triggers in C#, which worked beautifully for about a month. Suddenly, one of the three stopped working while an automated delete tool was run on it. By stopped working, I mean, records could not be deleted from the table via client software. Disabling the trigger caused deletes to be allowed, but re-enabling it interfered with the ability to delete. So my question is 'how can this be the case?' Is it possible the tool used on it futzed up the memory? It seems like even if the trigger threw an exception, if it is AFTER delete, shouldn't the records be gone? All the trigger looks like is this: ALTER TRIGGER [sysdba].[AccountTrigger] ON [sysdba].[ACCOUNT] AFTER DELETE AS EXTERNAL NAME [SQL_IO].[SQL_IO.WriteFunctions].[AccountTrigger] GO The CLR trigger does one select and one insert into another database. I don't yet know if there are any errors from SQL Server Mgmt Studio, but will update the question after I find out.

  Read the article

• Mysql Performance Question - Essentially about normalizing efficiency

  - by freqmode

  Hi there. Just a quick question about database performance. I'll outline my site purpose below as background. I'm creating a dictionary site that saves the words users define to a database. What I'm wondering is whether or not to create a words table for each user or to keep one massive words table. This site will be used for entire schools so the single words table would be massive! The database structure is as follows: A user table with: User_ID PRIMARY KEY Username First Last Password Email Country Research Standings SendInfo Donated JoinedOn LastLogin Logins Correct Attempts Admin Active And one word table with: User_ID PRIMARY KEY Word Vocab Spell Defined DefinedAttempted Spelled SpelledAttempted Sentenced SentencedAttempted So what I'm asking is , performance-wise, should I create a new table for each user when they join the site - each user could have hundreds or thousands of words over time? Or is it better to have one massive table with thousands and thousands of records and filter by User_ID. I don't think I'll perform many table joins. My gut feeling is to create a new table for each user, but I thought I'd ask for expert advice! Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Undefined Web.config error in VS 2008

  - by user1066050

  I'm working on a web app using VS 2008, .Net 3.5 and C#. Most of the projects in the solution are either classic asp.net pages with some MVC 1 in the mix, the rest is shared libraries. The solution is one that is some 5 years old and has gone through a variety of developers working on it and clearly has some performance and architectural issues. Previously, I've been working on the project using VS 2008 on a Win XP machine, but have just transitioned over to a new box using Win 7 Ultimate. To do so, I've installed VS 2008, asp.net 3.5. To support future work on the solution I've also installed VS 2010 and asp.net 4.0. Opening the solution on the new box with VS 2008 works fine, and it builds without error. However, when I attempt to run it with the debugger, I get the following message: "There is an error in web.config. Please correct before proceeding. (You might rename the current web.config and add a new one.)" I think it's clear that there is some sort of environmental issue regarding web.config on the new machine, but the error message is not "helpful". Adding a new web.config is not an option as the existing one is quite long and involved (too much to post here). I'm hoping someone has a suggestion or two about where I might look for missing elements or changed configurations that might produce such an error message. Lacking that, I'll revisit this post and provide the web.config in the hope that will elicit further help. Thanks to all in advance for taking a look at this. The StackOverflow community has helped me many times in the past with pertinent answers although this is my first posting. Jeff

  Read the article

• table subtraction challenge

  - by Valentin

  I have a challenge that I haven’t overcome in the last two days using Stored Procedures and SQL 2008. I took several approaches but must fell short. One appraoch very interesting was using a table substraction. It’s really all about table subtraction. I was wondering if you could help me crack this one. Here is the challenge: Two tables 1Testdb y 2Testdb. My first step was to select ID relationships ([2Testdb].Acc_id) on table 2Testdb for one given individual ([2Testdb].Bus_id). Then query table 1Testdb for records not mathcing my original selection from 2Testdb. But other approaches are welcome. Data and Structures: USE [Challengedb] GO SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[1Testdb]( [Acc_id] [uniqueidentifier] NULL [Name] [Varchar(10)] NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[2Testdb]( [Acc_id] [uniqueidentifier] NULL, [Bus_id] [uniqueidentifier] NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] GO Records on 1Testdb: 34455F60-9474-4521-804E-66DB39A579F3, John C23523F6-2309-4F58-BB3F-EF7486C7AF8B, Pete DC711615-3BE4-4B31-9EF2-B1314185CA62, Dave E3AAB073-2398-476D-828B-92829F686A4C, Adam Records on 2Testdb: (Relationship table, ex. Friend relationships) Record #1: DC711615-3BE4-4B31-9EF2-B1314185CA62, 34455F60-9474-4521-804E-66DB39A579F3 Record #2: E3AAB073-2398-476D-828B-92829F686A4C, 34455F60-9474-4521-804E-66DB39A579F3 Record # 3: DC711615-3BE4-4B31-9EF2-B1314185CA62, E3AAB073-2398-476D-828B-92829F686A4C Record # 4: E3AAB073-2398-476D-828B-92829F686A4C, DC711615-3BE4-4B31-9EF2-B1314185CA62 Challenge: Select from table 1Testdb only those records distinct that may not have a relationship with John [34455F60-9474-4521-804E-66DB39A579F3] on table 2Testdb. Expected result should be (Who does John doesn’t have relationship with?): C23523F6-2309-4F58-BB3F-EF7486C7AF8B, Pete Thank you, Valentin

  Read the article

• C++ Program Flow: Sockets in an Object and the Main Function

  - by jfm429

  I have a rather tricky problem regarding C++ program flow using sockets. Basically what I have is this: a simple command-line socket server program that listens on a socket and accepts one connection at a time. When that connection is lost it opens up for further connections. That socket communication system is contained in a class. The class is fully capable of receiving the connections and mirroring the data received to the client. However, the class uses UNIX sockets, which are not object-oriented. My problem is that in my main() function, I have one line - the one that creates an instance of that object. The object then initializes and waits. But as soon as a connection is gained, the object's initialization function returns, and when that happens, the program quits. How do I somehow wait until this object is deleted before the program quits? Summary: main() creates instance of object Object listens Connection received Object's initialization function returns main() exits (!) What I want is for main() to somehow delay until that object is finished with what it's doing (aka it will delete itself) before it quits. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• jquery selecting all elements except the last per group

  - by Anthony

  I have a table that looks like: <table> <tr> <td>one</td><td>two</td><td>three</td><td>last</td> </tr> <tr> <td>blue</td><td>red</td><td>green</td><td>last</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Monday</td><td>Tuesday</td><td>Wednesday</td><td>last</td> </tr> </table> What I want is a jquery selector that will choose all but the last td of each table row. I tried: $("tr td:not(:last)").css("background-color","red"); //changing color just as a test... But instead of all cells but the last on each row being changed, all cells but the very last one in the table are selected. Similarly, if I change it to: $("tr td:last").css("background-color","red"); the only one that changes is the very last cell. How do I choose the last (or not last) of each row?

  Read the article

• Need to exclude results in a MySQL query where two table fields are not of certain values (brain far

  - by DondeEstaMiCulo

  I don't know if I'm just burnt out and can't think, or what... But I can't seem to make this work right... (We're using MySQL 5.1...) I have two tables which have some transactional stuff stored in them. There will be many records per user_id in each table. Table1 and Table2 have a one-to-one relationship with each other. I want to pull records from both tables, but I want to exclude records which have certain values in both tables. I don't care if they both don't have these values, or if just one does, but both tables should not have both values. (Does this make any sense? lol) For example: SELECT t1.id, t1.type, t2.name FROM table1 t1 INNER JOIN table2 t2 ON table.xid = table2.id WHERE t1.user_id = 100 AND (t1.type != 'FOO' AND t2.name != 'BAR') So t1.type is type ENUM with about 10 different options, and t2.name is also type ENUM with 2 options. My expected results would look a little like: 1, FOO, YUM 2, BOO, BAR 3, BOO, YUM But instead, all I'm getting is: 3, BOO, YUM Because it's filtering out all records which has 'FOO' as the type, and 'BAR' as the name. I keep waiting for that D'oh! moment where it hits me and I feel like an idiot for not realizing what I'm doing wrong. But it hasn't come. And I still feel like an idiot, lol. I appreciate any light any of you can shed on this! Many thanks in advance for the help!

  Read the article

• How add class='active' to html menu with php

  - by meow

  Hello I want to put my html navigation in a separate php file so when I need to edit it, I only have to edit it once. The problem starts when I want to add the class active to the active page. I've got three pages and one common file. common.php : <?php $nav = <<<EOD <div id="nav"> <ul> <li><a <? if($page == 'one'): ?> class="active"<? endif ?> href="index.php">Tab1</a>/</li> <li><a href="two.php">Tab2</a></li> <li><a href="three.php">Tab3</a></li> </ul> </div> EOD; ?> index.php : All three pages are identical except their $page is different on each page. <?php $page = 'one'; require_once('common.php'); ?> <html> <head></head> <body> <?php echo $nav; ?> </body> </html> This simply won't work unless I put my nav on each page, but then the whole purpose of separating the nav from all pages is ruined. Is what I want to accomplish even possible? What am I doing wrong? Thanks EDIT: When doing this, the php code inside the li don't seem to run, it's just being printed as if it was html

  Read the article

• VB.NET trying simple captcha

  - by Pride Grimm

  I'm trying to write a simple captcha program in vb.net. I'm just wanting to make an image from random numbers and display it, check the answer, and then proceed. I'm pretty new to vb.net, so I found some code to generate the information. I will cite the owner when I find it again (http://www.knowlegezone.com/80/article/Technology/Software/Asp-Net/Simple-ASP-NET-CAPTCHA-Tutorial) This is in the onload() of default2.aspx Public Sub returnNumer() Dim num1 As New Random Dim num2 As New Random Dim numQ1 As Integer Dim numQ2 As Integer Dim QString As String numQ1 = num1.Next(10, 15) numQ2 = num2.Next(17, 31) QString = numQ1.ToString + " + " + numQ2.ToString + " = " Session("answer") = numQ1 + numQ2 Dim bitmap As New Bitmap(85, 35) Dim Grfx As Graphics = Graphics.FromImage(bitmap) Dim font As New Font("Arial", 18, FontStyle.Bold, GraphicsUnit.Pixel) Dim Rect As New Rectangle(0, 0, 100, 50) Grfx.FillRectangle(Brushes.Brown, Rect) Grfx.DrawRectangle(Pens.PeachPuff, Rect) ' Border Grfx.DrawString(QString, font, Brushes.Azure, 0, 0) Response.ContentType = "Image/jpeg" bitmap.Save(Response.OutputStream, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg) bitmap.Dispose() Grfx.Dispose() End Sub So I put this in a separate page, like this This all works find and dandy, but when I get the answer from the session like this Dim literal As String = Convert.ToString(Session("answer")) It's always one behind. So if The images adds to 32, the answer in session isn't 32. But after a refresh (and a new image) the session("answer") will be 32. Is there a way to refresh the session on page 1, after the default2.aspx loads? Is there a better way to do this? I though about trying to run the code all on one page, and trying to set the src of and image to returnNumber(), but I need a bit of help on that one.

  Read the article

• xcode project-/target-settings-syntax for linker flag force_load on iPhone

  - by Kaiserludi

  Hi all. I am confronted with the double bind, that on the one hand for one of the 3rd party static libraries, my iPhone application uses, the linker flag -all_load has to be set in the application project- or target settings, otherwise the app crashes at runtime not finding some symbols, called internally from the lib, on the other hand for another 3rd party static lib -all_load must not be set on application level, or the app won't build thanks to a "duplicate symbols"-linker error. To solve this issue I now want to use force_load instant of load_all, as it due to documentation it does the same like all_load, but only for the passed path or lib-file, instead of all libs. The problem with force_load is, I do not have a clue, how to pass a path or file as parameter with it, when passing it via xcode project- or target-settings. All syntax-possibilities coming to my mind either lead into xcode thinking its another linker flag instead of a parameter to the previous one, or the linker is throwing syntax related errors or the flag simply does nothing at all in comparison to not being set. I also opened the .pbxproj-file in a text-editor to edit it to the correct command line syntax manually, but when reloading the project with xcode, it auto changes the syntax into interpreting the parameter to force_load as a separate flag. Anyone having an idea on this issue? Thx, Kaiserludi.

  Read the article

• C++ class is not being included properly.

  - by ravloony

  Hello all, I have a problem which is either something I have completely failed to understand, or very strange. It's probably the first one, but I have spent the whole afternoon googling with no success, so here goes... I have a class called Schedule, which has as a member a vector of Room. However, when I compile using cmake, or even by hand, I get the following: In file included from schedule.cpp:1: schedule.h:13: error: ‘Room’ was not declared in this scope schedule.h:13: error: template argument 1 is invalid schedule.h:13: error: template argument 2 is invalid schedule.cpp: In constructor ‘Schedule::Schedule(int, int, int)’: schedule.cpp:12: error: ‘Room’ was not declared in this scope schedule.cpp:12: error: expected ‘;’ before ‘r’ schedule.cpp:13: error: request for member ‘push_back’ in ‘((Schedule*)this)->Schedule::_sched’, which is of non-class type ‘int’ schedule.cpp:13: error: ‘r’ was not declared in this scope Here are the relevant bits of code: #include <vector> #include "room.h" class Schedule { private: std::vector<Room> _sched; //line 13 int _ndays; int _nrooms; int _ntslots; public: Schedule(); ~Schedule(); Schedule(int nrooms, int ndays, int ntslots); }; Schedule::Schedule(int nrooms, int ndays, int ntslots):_ndays(ndays), _nrooms(nrooms),_ntslots(ntslots) { for (int i=0; i<nrooms;i++) { Room r(ndays,ntslots); _sched.push_back(r); } } In theory, g++ should compile a class before the one that includes it. There are no circular dependencies here, it's all straightforward stuff. I am completely stumped on this one, which is what leads me to believe that I must be missing something. :-D

  Read the article

• Developer friendly open-source license?

  - by Francisco Garcia

  As a software engineer/programmer myself, I love the possibility to download the code and learn from it. However building software is what brings food to my table. I have doubts regarding the type of license I should use for my own personal projects or when picking up one project to learn from. There are already many questions about licenses on Stackoverflow, but I would like to make this one much more specific. If your main profession and way of living is building software, which type of license do you find more useful for you? And I mean, the license that can benefit you most as a professional because it gives you more freedom to reuse the experience you gain. GPL is a great license to build communities because it forces you to give back your work. However I like BSD licenses because of their extra freedom. I know that if the code I am exploring is BSD licensed, I might be able to expand not only my skills, but also my programmer toolbox. Whenever I am working for a company, I might recall that something similar was done in another project and I will be able to copy or imitate certain part of the code. I know that there are religious wars regarding GPL vs BSD and it is not my intention to start one. Probably many companies already take snipsets from GPL projects anyway. I just want to insist in the factor of professional enrichment. I do not intend to discriminate any license. I said I prefer BSD licenses but I also use Linux because the user base is bigger and also the market demand.

  Read the article

• C# getpixels() gets the correct value on xp and vista but is slightly off when used on windows 7

  - by user352288

  I have a C# program that works correctly on xp and vista but it needs to be used on windows 7, I have not been able to come up with a solution, it appears that getpixels just doesn't work right on windows 7. I am getting one of the RGB values because I am dealing with tiff grayscale images. System.Drawing.Bitmap image;// this is in a separate class image = new Bitmap(destination);// this is in the constructor Color t = image.GetPixel(j, i); // this is in a separate function int s = t.R when I print s, for example, image(0,0), it is supposed to be 220, it will be 221 I am doing edge detection on an image and I have to go through the image pixel by pixel, I have run the exact same program on XP,Vista,windows7 and windows 7 got different values. It wouldn't let me post images at all and only one link. The first image is the original image, the second is the correct image, also the one I get with XP and Vista, the final image is the image when running the same program in Windows 7. There is not much of a visible difference but it matters for what I am doing. Thanks for the help, it seems that I am having a hard time explaining my problem.

  Read the article

• how do I deconstruct COUNT()?

  - by user151841

  I have a view with some joins in it. I'm doing a select from that view with COUNT(*) as one of the columns of the select. I'm surprised by the number it's returning. Note that there is no GROUP BY nor aggregate column statement in the source view that the query is drawing from. How can I take it apart to see how it arrives at this number? I have three columns in the GROUP BY clause. SELECT column1, column2, column3, COUNT(*) FROM View GROUP BY column1, column2, column3 I get a result like +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | column1 | column2 | column3 | COUNT(*) | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | value1 | valueA | value_a | 103 | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ | value2 | valueB | value_b | 56 | +---------+---------+---------+----------+ etc. I'd like to see how it arrives at that 103, 26, etc. In other words, I want to run a query that returns 103 rows of something, so that I know that I've expressed the query properly. I'm double-checking my work. I'm not saying that I think COUNT(*) doesn't work ( I know that "SELECT is not broken" ), what I want to double-check is exactly what I'm expressing in my query, because I think I've expressed the wrong thing, which would be why I'm getting unexpected values. I need to see more what I'm actually directing MySQL to count. So should I take them one by one, and try out each value in a WHERE clause? In other words, should I do SELECT column1 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'first_grouped_value' SELECT column1 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'second_grouped_value' SELECT column2 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'first_grouped_value' SELECT column2 FROM View WHERE column1 = 'second_grouped_value' and see the row count returned matches the COUNT(*) value in the grouped results? Because of confidentiality, I won't be able to post any of the query or database structure. All I'm asking for is a general technique to see what COUNT(*) is actually counting.

  Read the article

• Got Hacked. Want to understand how.

  - by gaoshan88

  Someone has, for the second time, appended a chunk of javascript to a site I help run. This javascript hijacks Google adsense, inserting their own account number, and sticking ads all over. The code is always appended, always in one specific directory (one used by a third party ad program), affects a number of files in a number of directories inside this one ad dir (20 or so) and is inserted at roughly the same overnight time. The adsense account belongs to a Chinese website (located in a town not an hour from where I will be in China next month. Maybe I should go bust heads... kidding, sort of), btw. So, how could they append text to these files? Is it related to the permissions set on the files (ranging from 755 to 644)? To the webserver user (it's on MediaTemple so it should be secure, yes?)? I mean, if you have a file that has permissions set to 777 I still can't just add code to it at will... how might they be doing this?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 658 659 660 661 662 663 664 665 666 667 668 669  | Next Page >