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how to get something to display only once in a while loop

- by Matt Nathanson

I've got a mysql query running and it checks to see if an iterator is equal to 1, then display this div title... if ($this->dliterator == 1) {echo "<div class='clientsection' id='downloads'>Downloads</div><br/>";}; The problem is, is that the dl iterator may not necessarily start at 1. (it is directly related to a downloadid from the database). How can I get this to display only for the first time through the loop ONLY? while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { if ($row['download'] != null){ if ($this->dliterator == 1) {echo "<div class='clientsection' id='downloads'>Downloads</div><br/>";}; if ($editDownload == 1) { echo "<div class='clientlink' style='margin-top: 15px;'>"; echo "<input name='downloads[$this->dliterator][name]' type='text' id='download$this->dliterator' value='" . $row['download'] . "'/>"; echo "<input name='downloads[$this->dliterator][title]' type='text' id='downloadtitle$this->dliterator' value='" . $row['downloadtitle'] . "'/>"; echo "<img class='removelink' src='/images/deletelink.png' width='15' />"; echo "<input id='downloadid' name='downloads[$this->dliterator][id]' type='hidden' value='".$row['downloadid']."' style='display: none'/>"; echo "<br/><img id='uploaddownload$uploaditerator' class='uploaddownload' src='../images/upload.png' width='80'/>"; echo "</div>"; }; }; $this->dliterator++; $uploaditerator++; };

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Best way to store this data?

- by Malfist

I have just been assigned to renovate an old website, and I get to move it from some old archaic system to drupal. The only problem is that it's a real-estate system and a lot of data is stored. Currently all the information is stored in a single table, an id represents the house and then everything else is key/value pairs. There are a possible 243 keys per estate, there are 23840 estates in the system. As you can imagine the system is slow and difficult to query. I don't think a table with 243 rows would be a very good idea, and probably worse than the current situation. I've done some investigating and here's what I've found out: Missing data does not indicate a 0 value, data is merged from two, unique sources/formats. Some guessing is involved. I have no control over the source of the data. There are 4 keys that are common to all estates, all values look like something that is commonly searched for and could be indexed There are 10 keys that are in the [90-100)% range 8 of these are information like who's selling it, and it's address. The other two seem to belong with the below range There are 80 keys that are in the [80-90)% range This range seems to mostly just list room types and how many the house has (e.g. bedrooms_possible, bathrooms, family_room_3rd, etc) This range also includes some minor information like school districts, one or two more pieces of data on the address. The 179 keys that are in the [0-80)% range include all sorts of miscellaneous information about the estate My best idea was a hybrid approach, create a table that stores important, common information and keep a smaller key/value table. How would you store this information?

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Querying for a unique value based on the aggregate of another value while grouping on a third value

- by Justin Swartsel

So I know this problem isn't a new one, but I'm trying to wrap my head around it and understand the best way to deal with scenarios like this. Say I have a hypothetical table 'X' that looks like this: GroupID ID (identity) SomeDateTime -------------------------------------------- 1 1000 1/1/01 1 1001 2/2/02 1 1002 3/3/03 2 1003 4/4/04 2 1004 5/5/05 I want to query it so the result set looks like this: ---------------------------------------- 1 1002 3/3/03 2 1004 5/5/05 Basically what I want is the MAX SomeDateTime value grouped by my GroupID column. The kicker is that I DON'T want to group by the ID column, I just want to know the 'ID' that corresponds to the MAX SomeDateTime. I know one pseudo-solution would be: ;WITH X1 as ( SELECT MAX(SomeDateTime) as SomeDateTime, GroupID FROM X GROUP BY GroupID ) SELECT X1.SomeDateTime, X1.GroupID, X2.ID FROM X1 INNER JOIN X as X2 ON X.DateTime = X2.DateTime But this doesn't solve the fact that a DateTime might not be unique. And it seems sloppy to join on a DateTime like that. Another pseudo-solution could be: SELECT X.GroupID, MAX(X.ID) as ID, MAX(X.SomeDateTime) as SomeDateTime FROM X GROUP BY X.GroupID But there are no guarantees that ID will actually match the row that SomeDateTime comes from. A third less useful option might be: SELECT TOP 1 X.GroupID, X.ID, X.SomeDateTime FROM X WHERE X.GroupID = 1 ORDER BY X.SomeDateTime DESC But obviously that only works with a single, known, GroupID. I want to be able to join this result set on GroupID and/or ID. Does anyone know of any clever solutions? Any good uses of windowing functions? Thanks!

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curl run out very slowly.

- by sabuj

here is my code bellow: $url = "http://localhost/Test/post_output.php"; $post_data = array ( "foo" => "bar", "query" => "Nettuts", "action" => "Submit" ); $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); // we are doing a POST request curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); // adding the post variables to the request curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $post_data); curl_setopt($ch, CURLINFO_HEADER_OUT, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, true); // some output will go to stderr / error_log curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 10); curl_setopt(CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, 5); $output = curl_exec($ch); $errStr = curl_error($ch); $errNum = curl_errno($ch); $head = curl_getinfo($ch, CURLINFO_HEADER_OUT); $ci = curl_getinfo($ch); print_r(array($head, $errStr, $errNum, $ci)); exit; curl_close($ch); echo $output; This script outputs very slowly. Even outputs nothing... can anyone help out this. Thanks...

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MySQL Delete Records Older Than X Minutes?

- by sajanNOPPIX

I've searched quite a bit and found a few solutions that didn't end up working for me and can't understand why. I have a table with a timestamp column. The MySQL type for this column is 'datetime'. I insert into this table the following from PHP. date('Y-m-d H:i:s') This enters, what looks like the correct value for the MySQL date time. 2012-06-28 15:31:46 I want to use this column to delete rows that are older than say 10 minutes. I'm running the following query, but it's not working. It affects 0 rows. DELETE FROM adminLoginLog WHERE timestamp < (NOW() - INTERVAL 10 MINUTE); Can anyone shed some light as to what I'm doing wrong and why it's not working properly? Thanks. Update: It looks like my first issue is that I'm using DATETIME when I should be using the TIMESTAMP data type. I'm updating my code to do that now. Thanks.

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MS Access PIVOT with User Defined Field

- by user2535359

Any of you good souls please help!! I need to query the source table shown in the below. (NULL are blank fields) UNUM, Ticket, Overflow 1 , 135 , NULL 1 , 136 ,NULL 1, 137, NULL 1, 138, NULL 1, NULL, 2b 2, 135, NULL 2, 136, NULL 2, 137, NULL 3, 135, NULL 3, 136, NULL 3, 137,NULL 3, 138, NULL 3, 139, NULL 3, 140, NULL 3, NULL, 66a 4, NULL, 12a 5, NULL, 14a I need to generate the output as shown below. UserNum, Ticket1, Ticket2, Ticket3, Ticket4, Ticket5, Ticket6, Ticket7, Ticket8, Ticket9, Overflow 1, 135, 136, 137, 138, Null, Null, Null, Null, Null, 2b 2, 135, 136, 137, Null, Null, Null, Null, Null, Null, Null 3, 135, 136, 137, 138, 139, 140, Null, Null, Null, 66a 4, Null, Null, Null, Null, Null, Null, Null, Null, Null, 12a 5, Null, Null, Null, Null, Null, Null, Null, Null, Null, 14a The source table has multiple tickets assigned to user. There are always maximum of 9 tickets. The user either has a ticket or an overflow but here can be only overflow per user. I am having issue pivoting the data in Ticket column to pre-defined field names like Ticket1, Ticket2...

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How to write data option in jQuery.ajax() function when it include in a mysql_query?

- by cj333

I modify a php comment system. I want add it after every article witch are query from database. this is the php part <?php ... while($result = mysql_fetch_array($resultset)) { $article_title = $result['article_title']; ... ?> <form id="postform" class="postform"> <input type="hidden" name="title" id="title" value="<?=$article_title;?>" /> <input type="text" name="content" id="content" /> <input type="button" value="Submit" class="Submit" /> </form> ... <?php } ?> this is the ajax part. $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "ajax_post.php", data: {title:$('#title').val(), content:$('#content').val() ajax_post.php echo $title; echo $content; How to modify the ajax data part that each article's comment can send each data to the ajax_post.php? thanks a lot.

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Problem in data binding in NSString?

- by Rajendra Bhole

Hi, I selecting the row of the table. The text of the row i stored in the application delegate object as a NSString. That NSString i want to retrieving or binding in SELECT statement of SQLite query, For that i written code in the TableView Class (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { selectedText = [appDelegate.categoryArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; appDelegate.selectedTextOfRow = selectedText; ListOfPrayersViewController *listVC = [[ListOfPrayersViewController alloc] init]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:listVC animated:YES]; [listVC release]; } and database class class code is. + (void) getDuas:(NSString *)dbPath{ if(sqlite3_open([dbPath UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK){ SalahAppDelegate *appDelegate = (SalahAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSString *categoryTextForQuery =[NSString stringWithFormat:@"SELECT Category FROM Prayer WHERE Category ='%s'", appDelegate.selectedTextOfRow ]; NSLog(@"The Text %@", categoryTextForQuery); //const char *sqlQuery1 = (char *)categoryTextForQuery; //const char *sqlQuery = "SELECT Category FROM Prayer WHERE Category = 'Invocations for the beginning of the prayer'"; sqlite3_stmt *selectstmt; if(sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, [categoryTextForQuery UTF8String], -1, &selectstmt, NULL) == SQLITE_OK){ appDelegate.duasArray =[[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; while(sqlite3_step(selectstmt) == SQLITE_ROW){ NSString *dua = [[NSString alloc] initWithCString:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(selectstmt,0) encoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; Prayer *prayerObj = [[Prayer alloc] initwithDuas:dua]; prayerObj.DuaName = dua; [appDelegate.duasArray addObject:prayerObj]; } } } } The code is comes out of loop on the statement or starting the loop of the while(sqlite3_step(selectstmt) == SQLITE_ROW) Why? How i bind the table selected text in SELECT statement of sqlite?

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'<=' operator is not working in sql server 2000

- by Lalit

Hello, Scenario is, database is in the maintenance phase. this database is not developed by ours developer. it is an existing database developed by the 'xyz' company in sql server 2000. This is real time database, where i am working now. I wanted to write the stored procedure which will retrieve me the records From date1 to date 2.so query is : Select * from MyTableName Where colDate>= '3-May-2010' and colDate<= '5-Oct-2010' and colName='xyzName' whereas my understanding I must get data including upper bound date as well as lower bound date. but somehow I am getting records from '3-May-2010' (which is fine but) to '10-Oct-2010' As i observe in table design , for ColDate, developer had used 'varchar' to store the date. i know this is wrong remedy by them. so in my stored procedure I have also used varchar parameters as @FromDate1 and @ToDate to get inputs for SP. this is giving me result which i have explained. i tried to take the parameter type as 'Datetime' but it is showing error while saving/altering the stored procedure that "@FromDate1 has invalid datatype", same for "@ToDate". situation is that, I can not change the table design at all. what i have to do here ? i know we can use user defined table in sql server 2008 , but there is version sql server 2000. which does not support the same. Please guide me for this scenario. **Edited** I am trying to write like this SP: CREATE PROCEDURE USP_Data (@Location varchar(100), @FromDate DATETIME, @ToDate DATETIME) AS SELECT * FROM dbo.TableName Where CAST(Dt AS DATETIME) >=@fromDate and CAST(Dt AS DATETIME)<=@ToDate and Location=@Location GO but getting Error: Arithmetic overflow error converting expression to data type datetime. in sql server 2000 What should be that ? is i am wrong some where ? also (202 row(s) affected) is changes every time in circular manner means first time sayin (122 row(s) affected) run again saying (80 row(s) affected) if again (202 row(s) affected) if again (122 row(s) affected) I can not understand what is going on ?

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Conceptual data modeling: Is RDF the right tool? Other solutions?

- by paprika

I'm planning a system that combines various data sources and lets users do simple queries on these. A part of the system needs to act as an abstraction layer that knows all connected data sources: the user shouldn't [need to] know about the underlying data "providers". A data provider could be anything: a relational DBMS, a bug tracking system, ..., a weather station. They are hooked up to the query system through a common API that defines how to "offer" data. The type of queries a certain data provider understands is given by its "offer" (e.g. I know these entities, I can give you aggregates of type X for relationship Y, ...). My concern right now is the unification of the data: the various data providers need to agree on a common vocabulary (e.g. the name of the entity "customer" could vary across different systems). Thus, defining a high level representation of the entities and their relationships is required. So far I have the following requirements: I need to be able to define objects and their properties/attributes. Further, arbitrary relations between these objects need to be represented: a verb that defines the nature of the relation (e.g. "knows"), the multiplicity (e.g. 1:n) and the direction/navigability of the relation. It occurs to me that RDF is a viable option, but is it "the right tool" for this job? What other solutions/frameworks do exist for semantic data modeling that have a machine readable representation and why are they better suited for this task? I'm grateful for every opinion and pointer to helpful resources.

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Mystery: How does Google do cross-domain iframe communication?

- by Shraga

Hi everyone, When you host Googles web search element on a page, a div is created which incorporates an iframe which points to a Google adsense ads page. However, if there are no ads for the specific query, Google somehow changes the class on YOUR domain to render the div (and iframe) invisible. They are NOT using postMessage, as it also works in IE7. They are also not using the fragment identifier method, as no hash appears in the url. So how do they do it? To check what I'm saying just put the following into a regular html page:  <div id="cse" style="width:100%;">Loading</div> <script src="http://www.google.com/jsapi" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> google.load('search', '1'); google.setOnLoadCallback(function(){ new google.search.CustomSearchControl().draw('cse'); }, true); </script> and then do a search for "cars" (or anything else that will definitely have ads) and then for "wzxv", which has no ads...

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How can I secure my $_GETs in PHP?

- by ggfan

My profile.php displays all the user's postings,comments,pictures. If the user wants to delete, it sends the posting's id to the remove.php so it's like remove.php?action=removeposting&posting_id=2. If they want to remove a picture, it's remove.php?action=removepicture&picture_id=1. Using the get data, I do a query to the database to display the info they want to delete and if they want to delete it, they click "yes". So the data is deleted via $POST NOT $GET to prevent cross-site request forgery. My question is how do I make sure the GETs are not some javascript code, sql injection that will mess me up. here is my remove.php //how do I make $action safe? //should I use mysqli_real_escape_string? //use strip_tags()? $action=trim($_GET['action']); if (($action != 'removeposting') && ($action != 'removefriend') && ($action != 'removecomment')) { echo "please don't change the action. go back and refresh"; header("Location: index.php"); exit(); } if ($action == 'removeposting') { //get the info and display it in a form. if user clicks "yes", deletes } if ($action =='removepicture') { //remove pic } I know I can't be 100% safe, but what are some common defenses I can use. EDIT Do this to prevent xss $action=trim($_GET['action']); htmlspecialchars(strip_tags($action)); Then when I am 'recalling' the data back via POST, I would use $posting_id = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['posting_id']));

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Where is a small, simple CMS that has no Front End done in PHP?

- by user559469

The keys are: small and simple PHP MySql no Front End By "no front end" I mean literally, I can control the look 100%. I just want a CMS on the "backend" to manage content (user login/security, upload images, udate articles, etc.) that will not dictate in anyway how the managed data is presented. Maybe it just keeps the info in a (MySql) database (which I can query and extract myself) or if it writes content, it is in super-clean xhtml fragments or even just xml I will parse myself? I have looked at Wordpress -- and don't like the code it generates, not to mention the sites look too "canned" (you can usually spot a WP site a mile a way.) Joomla and Drupal look more customizable, but they are bloated now in my opinion, and really I just want something lightweight and simple. For one-user mom-and-pop sites. (No tiered publishing/approval systems, and all that.) I envision plugging this CMS into existing websites/web apps where most of the site is made and managed by me, but a few choice areas are managed by the site owner.

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update entire table with pdo

- by MephDaddy

I am working on a simple gaming ladder script. I am having little to no luck trying to find an effective way to reset my ladder information while leaving my table id and name fields intact. I am trying to get create a loop to update my entire table, similar to the way I draw my table. Shown below. ...... //Start displaying ladder with with team with most wins at the top echo "<TABLE border=1 width=500 align=center><TR>"; foreach($db->query('SELECT * FROM test ORDER BY win DESC , name ASC') as $row) { echo "<TR><TD>" . $row['name'] . "</TD><TD>" . $row['win'] . "</TD><TD>"; echo $row['loss'] . "</TD><TD>" . $row['battles'] . "</TD><TD>"; echo $row['score'] . "</TD></TR>"; } ...... I currently have a table with 6 fields(id,name,win,loss,battles,score). I want to reset the values of win,loss,battles, and score back to 0. While leaving id and name alone. Effective reseting my ladder for a new season to begin. The only way I have been able to complete this is to find out how many rows there are and run a for loop. It seems vary inefficient. Was hoping I could get some better insight as to how to go about this.

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Cannot Display Data from MySQL table

- by MxmastaMills

I've got a pretty standard call to a MySQL database and for some reason I can't get the code to work. Here's what I have: $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost","username","password"); if (!$mysqli) { die('Could not connect: ' . mysqli_error($mysqli)); } session_start(); $sql = "SELECT * FROM jobs ORDER BY id DESC"; $result = $mysqli->query($sql); $num_rows = mysqli_num_rows($result); Now, first, I know that it is connecting properly because I'm not getting the die method plus I added an else conditional in there previously and it checked out. Then the page displays but I get the errors: Warning: mysqli_num_rows() expects parameter 1 to be mysqli_result, boolean given in blablabla/index.php on line 11 Warning: mysqli_fetch_array() expects parameter 1 to be mysqli_result, boolean given in blablabla/index.php on line 12 I've double-checked my database and there is a table called jobs with a row of "id" (it's the primary row). The thing that confuses me is this is code that I literally copied and pasted from another site I built and for some reason the code doesn't work on this one (I obviously copy and pasted it and then just changed the table name and rows accordingly). I saw the error and tried: $num_rows = $mysqli_result->num_rows; $row_array = $mysqli_result->fetch_array; and that fixed the errors but resulted in no data being passed (because obviously $mysqli_result has no value). I don't know why the error is calling for that (is it a difference in version of MySQL or PHP from the other site)? Can someone help me track down the problem? Thanks so much. Sorry if it's something super simple that I'm overlooking, I've been at it for a while.

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List View Array from Database

- by leenolasco

I have retrieved data and successfully shown it in text view. What do i modify in my codes to make it look like a list view? And also how do modify my listview programatically(adding size and padding)? Here is my a part of my DBclass in selecting the items that I've displayed getFAData() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub String [] columns = new String[]{Row_Name}; Cursor c = ourDB.query(db_Table, columns, null, null, null, null, null); String res = ""; int iRow = c.getColumnIndex(Row_Name); //int iDesc = c.getColumnIndex(Row_Desc); //int iID = c.getColumnIndex(Row_id); for (c.moveToFirst(); !c.isAfterLast(); c.moveToNext()) { res = res + c.getString(iRow) + "\n"; } return res; } And here is class file: public class FirstAid extends Activity { @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.firstaid); displayresult(); } public void displayresult (){ TextView tvFa = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.tvFA); tvFa.setMovementMethod(new ScrollingMovementMethod()); DbHelper tblFa = new DbHelper(this); tblFa.open(); String result = tblFa.getFAData(); tblFa.close(); tvFa.setText(result); } }

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What is the best way to create a running integer id on the AppEngine data storage?

- by Freed

For various reasons, I need a unique running integer id for my entities stored on the Google AppEngine. The automatically generated key sort of has this behaviour, but it doesn't start from 1 (or 0) and doesn't guarantee that the generated integer part will come from a continuous sequence. What would be the best way to efficiently implement this on AppEngine? Is there any support from the storage system? To add to the complexity, I might need to do this over entities from different entity groups, meaning I can't just get the highest id right now and save an entity with the next id in a transaction. Might memcache be the way to go..? Edit: I havn't yet implemented this, but to clarify on the memcache idea. I know memcache is unreliable, but in practice it probably won't lose data "too often" to hurt performance. Basically, I would have a memcache entry for the last used id, update it (somehow atomically) whenever I create a new entity and use that id. In the case of memcache not having a value for this entry, I'd get the highest id so far by doing a query on my entities sorted by the id and update memcache (unless someone else had already done so). The only problem I can see with this right now would be atomicity of the operation as a whole if the save of my new entity was also part of a transaction. Thoughts..?

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Warning: Trim expects

- by user1257518

I'm getting this warning Warning: trim() expects parameter 1 to be string, array given in .. which is my trim line. The full code is functioned to send an error when fields are empty. However, this error appears saying every field is empty, but only the 'native' field is meant to be required so thats my 2nd problem. Thanks for any help! session_start(); $err = array(); $user_id = intval($_SESSION['user_id']); // otherwise if (isset($_POST['doLanguage'])) { $link = mysql_connect(DB_HOST, DB_USER, DB_PASS) or die("Couldn't make connection."); // check if current user is banned $the_query = sprintf("SELECT COUNT(*) FROM users WHERE `banned` = '0' AND `id` = '%d'", $user_id); $result = mysql_query($the_query, $link); $user_check = mysql_num_rows($result); // user is ok if ($user_check > 0) { // check for empty fields foreach ($_POST as $key => $val) { $value = trim($val); if (empty($value)) { $err[] = "ERROR - $key is required"; } } // no errors if(empty($err)) { for($i = 0; $i < count($_POST["other"]); $i++) $native = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['native'][$i]); $other = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['other'][$i]); $other_list = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['other_list'][$i]); $other_read = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['other_read'][$i]); $other_spokint = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['other_spokint'][$i]); $other_spokprod = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['other_spokprod'][$i]); $other_writ = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['other_writ'][$i]); // insert into the database $the_query = sprintf("INSERT INTO `language` (`user_id`,`native`,`other`,`other_list`,`other_read`, `other_spokint` ,`other_spokprod`,`other_writ` ) VALUES ('%d','%s','%s','%s','%s','%s','%s','%s')", $user_id,$native,$other,$other_list,$other_read, $other_spokint,$other_spokprod,$other_writ); // query is ok? if (mysql_query($the_query, $link) ){ // redirect to user profile header('Location: myaccount.php?id=' . $user_id); } } } }

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How do I create a self referential association (self join) in a single class using ActiveRecord in Rails?

- by Daniel Chang

I am trying to create a self join table that represents a list of customers who can refer each other (perhaps to a product or a program). I am trying to limit my model to just one class, "Customer". The schema is: create_table "customers", force: true do |t| t.string "name" t.integer "referring_customer_id" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end add_index "customers", ["referring_customer_id"], name: "index_customers_on_referring_customer_id" My model is: class Customer < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :referrals, class_name: "Customer", foreign_key: "referring_customer_id", conditions: {:referring_customer_id => :id} belongs_to :referring_customer, class_name: "Customer", foreign_key: "referring_customer_id" end I have no problem accessing a customer's referring_customer: @customer.referring_customer.name ... returns the name of the customer that referred @customer. However, I keep getting an empty array when accessing referrals: @customer.referrals ... returns []. I ran binding.pry to see what SQL was being run, given a customer who has a "referer" and should have several referrals. This is the SQL being executed. Customer Load (0.3ms) SELECT "customers".* FROM "customers" WHERE "customers"."id" = ? ORDER BY "customers"."id" ASC LIMIT 1 [["id", 2]] Customer Exists (0.2ms) SELECT 1 AS one FROM "customers" WHERE "customers"."referring_customer_id" = ? AND "customers"."referring_customer_id" = 'id' LIMIT 1 [["referring_customer_id", 3]] I'm a bit lost and am unsure where my problem lies. I don't think my query is correct -- @customer.referrals should return an array of all the referrals, which are the customers who have @customer.id as their referring_customer_id.

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Yii 'limit' on related model's scope

- by pethee

I have a model called Guesses that has_many Comments. I'm making eager queries to this to then pass on as JSON as response to an API call. The relations are obviously set between the two models and they are correct(one2many <= belongs2) I added a scope to Comments called 'api' like this: public function scopes() { return array( 'api' => array( 'select' => 'id, comment, date', 'limit'=>3, 'order'=>'date DESC', 'together'=>true, ), ); } And I'm running the following one-liner query: $data = Guesses::model()->with('comments:api')->findAll(); The issue here is that when calling the 'api' scope using a with('relation'), the limit property simply doesn't apply. I added the 'together'=true there for another type of scope, plus I hear it might help. It doesn't make a difference. I don't need all the comments of all Guesses. I want the top 3 (or 5). I am also trying to keep the one-liner call intact and simple, manage everything through scopes, relations and parameterized functions so that the API call itself is clean and simple. Any advice?

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Selecting records in SQL that have the minimum value for that record based on another field

- by Ryan

I have a set of data, and while the number of fields and tables it joins with is quite complex, I believe I can distill my problem down using the required fields/tables here for illustration regarding this particular problem. I have three tables: ClientData, Sources, Prices Here is what my current query looks like before selecting the minimum value: select c.RecordID, c.Description, s.Source, p.Price, p.Type, p.Weight from ClientData c inner join Sources s ON c.RecordID = s.RecordID inner join Prices p ON s.SourceID = p.SourceID This produces the following result: RecordID Description Source Price Type Weight ============================================================= 001002003 ABC Common Stock Vendor 1 104.5 Close 1 001002003 ABC Common Stock Vendor 1 103 Bid 2 001002003 ABC Common Stock Vendor 2 106 Close 1 001002003 ABC Common Stock Vendor 2 100 Unknwn 0 111222333 DEF Preferred Stk Vendor 3 80 Bid 2 111222333 DEF Preferred Stk Vendor 3 82 Mid 3 111222333 DEF Preferred Stk Vendor 2 81 Ask 4 What I am trying to do is display prices that belong to the same record which have the minimum non-zero weight for that record (so the weight must be greater than 0, but it has to be the minimum from amongst the remaining weights). So in the above example, for record 001002003 I would want to show the close prices from Vendor 1 and Vendor 2 because they both have a weight of 1 (the minimum weight for that record). But for 111222333 I would want to show just the bid price from Vendor 3 because its weight of 2 is the minimum, non-zero for that record. The result that I'm after would like like: RecordID Description Source Price Type Weight ============================================================= 001002003 ABC Common Stock Vendor 1 104.5 Close 1 001002003 ABC Common Stock Vendor 2 106 Close 1 111222333 DEF Preferred Stk Vendor 3 80 Bid 2 Any ideas on how to achieve this? EDIT: This is for SQL Compact Edition.

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SQL Server: Why use shorter VARCHAR(n) fields?

- by chryss

It is frequently advised to choose database field sizes to be as narrow as possible. I am wondering to what degree this applies to SQL Server 2005 VARCHAR columns: Storing 10-letter English words in a VARCHAR(255) field will not take up more storage than in a VARCHAR(10) field. Are there other reasons to restrict the size of VARCHAR fields to stick as closely as possible to the size of the data? I'm thinking of Performance: Is there an advantage to using a smaller n when selecting, filtering and sorting on the data? Memory, including on the application side (C++)? Style/validation: How important do you consider restricting colunm size to force non-sensical data imports to fail (such as 200-character surnames)? Anything else? Background: I help data integrators with the design of data flows into a database-backed system. They have to use an API that restricts their choice of data types. For character data, only VARCHAR(n) with n <= 255 is available; CHAR, NCHAR, NVARCHAR and TEXT are not. We're trying to lay down some "good practices" rules, and the question has come up if there is a real detriment to using VARCHAR(255) even for data where real maximum sizes will never exceed 30 bytes or so. Typical data volumes for one table are 1-10 Mio records with up to 150 attributes. Query performance (SELECT, with frequently extensive WHERE clauses) and application-side retrieval performance are paramount.

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SQL inner join from field defined table?

- by Wolftousen

I have a, currently, a total of 6 tables that are part of this question. The primary table, tableA, contains columns that all the entries in the other 5 tables have in common. The other 5 tables have columns which define the entry in tableA in more detail. For example: TableA ID|Name|Volumn|Weight|Description 0 |T1 |0.4 |0.1 |Random text 1 |R1 |5.3 |25 |Random text TableB ID|Color|Shape 0 |Blue |Sphere TableC ID|Direction|Velocity 1 |North |3.4 (column names are just examples don't take them for what they mean...) The ID field in Table A is unique to all other tables (i.e. TableB will have 0, but TableC will not, nor any other Tables). What I would like to do is select all the fields from TableA and the corresponding (according to ID field) detail Table (TableB-F). What I have currently done and not tested is added a field to TableA so it looks like this: TableA ID|Name|Volumn|Weight|Description|Table 0 |T1 |0.4 |0.1 |Random text|TableB 1 |R1 |5.3 |25 |Random text|TableC I have a few questions about this: 1.Is it proper to do such a thing to TableA, as foreign keys wont work in this situation since they all need to link to different tables? 2.If this is proper, would the SQL query look like this (ID would be input by the user)? SELECT * FROM TableA AS a INNER JOIN a.Table AS t ON a.ID = ID; 3.Is there a better way to do this? Thanks for the help.

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Remove all rows in duplication (different from distinct row selection)

- by user1671401

How can I remove EVERY duplicating row in a DataTable, based on the value of two columns that are in duplication. Unfortunately, I am unable to find the equivalent LINQ Query. (I dont want distinct values even). The table below shall explain my problem I want to delete every row in duplication based on Column_A and Column_B COLUMN_A COLUMN_B COLUMN_C COLUMN_D..... A B C D E F G H A B E F EXPECTED OUTPUT: COLUMN_A COLUMN_B COLUMN_C COLUMN_D..... C D G H Please help

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jQuery removeClass(), how it works

- by centro

I have images on my page. User can add more images onto the page by clicking a button. New images are added asynchronously. Initially, each image on page use a special class to be used when the image is loaded. After the image is loaded, that class is removed. Each image being loaded has the class imageLoading: <img class="imageLoading" scr="someimage.png"> After those images are loaded, I remove that class (simplified code without details): $('img.imageLoading') .each(function(){ $(this) .load(function(){ $(this) .removeClass('imageloading'); });}); Visually, I see that style is removed. But when I run the query again: $('img.imageLoading') I see via debugging that all images, not just loading ones, are returned, i.e. it works like I didn't remove the class for the images that were already loaded. I had a look into the page source, and I saw that actually in HTML the class was not removed, though removeClass() was called. Is that behavior by design that all visual changes are applied but the class attribute is not removed in HTML code? If so, how it can be workarounded in this case. Or, probably, I missed something.

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