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  • Custom Swing component: questions on approach

    - by phatmanace
    Hi Folks, I'm trying to build a new java swing component, I realise that I might be able to find one that does what I need on the web, but this is partly an exercise for me to learn ow to do this. I want to build a swing component that represents a Gantt chart. it would be good (though not essential for people to be able to interact with it (e.g slide the the tasks around to adjust timings) it feels like the best approach for this is to subclass JComponent, and override PaintComponent() to 'draw a picture' of what the chart should look like, as opposed to doing something like trying to jam everything into a custom JTable. I've read a couple of books on the subject, and also looked at a few examples (most notably things like JXGraph) - but I'm curious about a few things When do I have to switch to using UI delegates, and when can I stick to just fiddling around in paintcomponent() to render what I want? if I want other swing components as sub-elements of my component (e.g I wanted a text box on my gantt chart) can I no longer use paintComponent()? can I arbitrarily position them within my Gantt chart, or do I have to use a normal swing layout manager many thanks in advance. -Ace

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  • Hashing the state of a complex object in .NET

    - by Jan
    Some background information: I am working on a C#/WPF application, which basically is about creating, editing, saving and loading some data model. The data model contains of a hierarchy of various objects. There is a "root" object of class A, which has a list of objects of class B, which each has a list of objects of class C, etc. Around 30 classes involved in total. Now my problem is that I want to prompt the user with the usual "you have unsaved changes, save?" dialog, if he tries to exit the program. But how do I know if the data in current loaded model is actually changed? There is of course ways to solve this, like e.g. reloading the model from file and compare against the one in memory value by value or make every UI control set a flag indicating the model has been changed. Now instead, I want to create a hash value based on the model state on load and generate a new value when the user tries to exit, and compare those two. Now the question: So inspired of that, I was wondering if there exist some way to generate a hash value from the (value)state of some arbitrary complex object? Preferably in a generic way, e.g. no need to apply attributes to each involved class/field. One idea could be to use some of .NET's serialization functionality (assuming it will work out-of-the-box in this case) and apply a hash function to the content of the resulting file. However, I guess there exist some more suitable approach. Thanks in advance.

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  • What would be different in Java if Enum declaration didn't have the recursive part

    - by atamur
    Please see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/211143/java-enum-definition and http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3061759/why-in-java-enum-is-declared-as-enume-extends-enume for general discussion. Here I would like to learn what exactly would be broken (not typesafe anymore, or requiring additional casts etc) if Enum class was defined as public class Enum<E extends Enum> I'm using this code for testing my ideas: interface MyComparable<T> { int myCompare(T o); } class MyEnum<E extends MyEnum> implements MyComparable<E> { public int myCompare(E o) { return -1; } } class FirstEnum extends MyEnum<FirstEnum> {} class SecondEnum extends MyEnum<SecondEnum> {} With it I wasn't able to find any benefits in this exact case. PS. the fact that I'm not allowed to do class ThirdEnum extends MyEnum<SecondEnum> {} when MyEnum is defined with recursion is a) not relevant, because with real enums you are not allowed to do that just because you can't extend enum yourself b) not true - pls try it in a compiler and see that it in fact is able to compile w/o any errors PPS. I'm more and more inclined to believe that the correct answer here would be "nothing would change if you remove the recursive part" - but I just can't believe that.

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  • C# custom control to get internal text as string

    - by Ed Woodcock
    ok, I'm working on a custom control that can contain some javascript, and read this out of the page into a string field. This is a workaround for dynamic javascript inside an updatepanel. At the moment, I've got it working, but if I try to put a server tag inside the block: <custom:control ID="Custom" runat="server"> <%= ControlName.ClientID %> </custom:control> The compiler does not like it. I know these are generated at runtime, and so might not be compatible with what I'm doing, but does anyone have any idea how I can get that working? EDIT Error message is: Code blocks are not supported in this context EDIT 2 The control: [DataBindingHandler("System.Web.UI.Design.TextDataBindingHandler, System.Design, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a"), ControlValueProperty("Text"), DefaultProperty("Text"), ParseChildren(true, "Text"), AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.LinkDemand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal), AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.InheritanceDemand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal)] public class CustomControl : Control, ITextControl { [DefaultValue(""), Bindable(true), Localizable(true)] public string Text { get { return (string)(ViewState["Text"] ?? string.Empty); } set { ViewState["Text"] = value; } } }

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  • populate checkboxes with database.

    - by amby
    Hi, I have to poulate checkboxes with data coming from database but no checkbox is showing on my page. please give me correct way to do that. in C# file page_load method i m doing this: public partial class dbTest1 : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string Server = "al2222"; string Username = "hshshshsh"; string Password = "sjjssjs"; string Database = "database1"; string ConnectionString = "Data Source=" + Server + ";"; ConnectionString += "User ID=" + Username + ";"; ConnectionString += "Password=" + Password + ";"; ConnectionString += "Initial Catalog=" + Database; string query = "Select * from Customer_Order where orderNumber = 17"; using (SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(ConnectionString)) { using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(query, conn)) { conn.Open(); SqlDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); while (dr.Read()) { if (!IsPostBack) { Interests.DataSource = dr; Interests.DataTextField = "OptionName"; Interests.DataValueField = "OptionName"; Interests.DataBind(); } } conn.Close(); conn.Dispose(); } } } } and in .aspx using this: <asp:CheckBoxList ID="Interests" runat="server"></asp:CheckBoxList> please tell me correct way to do that.

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  • How do I bind arrays to columns in a WPF datagrid

    - by user1432917
    I have a Log object that contains a list of Curve objects. Each curve has a Name property and an array of doubles. I want the Name to be in the column header and the data below it. I have a user control with a datagid. Here is the XAML; <UserControl x:Class="WellLab.UI.LogViewer" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignHeight="500" d:DesignWidth="500"> <Grid> <StackPanel Height="Auto" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" Margin="0" Name="stackPanel1" VerticalAlignment="Stretch" Width="Auto"> <ToolBarTray Height="26" Name="toolBarTray1" Width="Auto" /> <ScrollViewer Height="Auto" Name="scrollViewer1" Width="Auto" HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Visible" CanContentScroll="True" Background="#E6ABA4A4"> <DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="True" Height="Auto" Name="logDataGrid" Width="Auto" ItemsSource="{Binding}" HorizontalAlignment="Left"> </DataGrid> </ScrollViewer> </StackPanel> </Grid> In the code behind I have figured out how to create columns and name them, but I have not figured out how to bind the data. public partial class LogViewer { public LogViewer(Log log) { InitializeComponent(); foreach (var curve in log.Curves) { var data = curve.GetData(); var col = new DataGridTextColumn { Header = curve.Name }; logDataGrid.Columns.Add(col); } } } I wont even show the code I tried to use to bind the array "data", since nothing even came close. I am sure I am missing something simple, but after hours of searching the web, I have to come begging for an answer.

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  • document.write Not working when loading external Javascript source

    - by jadent
    I'm trying to load an external JavaScript file dynamically into an HTML element to preview an ad tag. The script loads and executes but the script contains "document.write" which has an issue executing properly but there are no errors. <html> <head> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/2.0.3/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { source = 'http://ib.adnxs.com/ttj?id=555281'; // DOM Insert Approach // ----------------------------------- var script = document.createElement('script'); script.setAttribute('type', 'text/javascript'); script.setAttribute('src', source); document.body.appendChild(script); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> I can get it to work if If i move the the source to the same domain for testing If the script was modified to use document.createElement and appendChild instead of document.write like the code above. I don't have the ability to modify the script since it being generated and hosted by a 3rd party. Does anyone know why the document.write will not work correctly? And is there a way to get around this? Thanks for the help!

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  • Scope of "library" methods

    - by JS
    Hello, I'm apparently laboring under a poor understanding of Python scoping. Perhaps you can help. Background: I'm using the 'if name in "main"' construct to perform "self-tests" in my module(s). Each self test makes calls to the various public methods and prints their results for visual checking as I develop the modules. To keep things "purdy" and manageable, I've created a small method to simplify the testing of method calls: def pprint_vars(var_in): print("%s = '%s'" % (var_in, eval(var_in))) Calling pprint_vars with: pprint_vars('some_variable_name') prints: some_variable_name = 'foo' All fine and good. Problem statement: Not happy to just KISS, I had the brain-drizzle to move my handy-dandy 'pprint_vars' method into a separate file named 'debug_tools.py' and simply import 'debug_tools' whenever I wanted access to 'pprint_vars'. Here's where things fall apart. I would expect import debug_tools foo = bar debug_tools.pprint_vars('foo') to continue working its magic and print: foo = 'bar' Instead, it greets me with: NameError: name 'some_var' is not defined Irrational belief: I believed (apparently mistakenly) that import puts imported methods (more or less) "inline" with the code, and thus the variable scoping rules would remain similar to if the method were defined inline. Plea for help: Can someone please correct my (mis)understanding of scoping regards imports? Thanks, JS

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  • i want to convert my aspx.cs to dll

    - by jay rathod
    i have a default.aspx page: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Button ID="btn" runat="server" Text="clicke here" OnClick="btn_Click"/> <asp:TextBox ID="txt" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lbl"></asp:Label> </div> </div> </form> </body> </html> and default.aspx.cs : public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { string test; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected void btn_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { test = txt.Text; lbl.Text = test; } } now i want to make the dll of my default.aspx.cs file and remove it from the website and give the reference of it. so how can i do this??

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  • Get Instance ID of an Object in PHP

    - by Alix Axel
    I've learn a while ago on StackOverflow that we can get the "instance ID" of any resource, for instance: var_dump(intval(curl_init())); // int(2) var_dump(intval(finfo_open())); // int(3) var_dump(intval(curl_init())); // int(4) var_dump(intval(finfo_open())); // int(5) var_dump(intval(curl_init())); // int(6) I need something similar but applied to classes: var_dump(intval(new stdClass())); // int(1) var_dump(intval(new stdClass())); // int(1) var_dump(intval(new stdClass())); // int(1) var_dump(intval(new stdClass())); // int(1) var_dump(intval(new stdClass())); // int(1) I'm using stdClass just has an example here, but as you can see, it's not the output I was hoping for. I just did some more testing and I found that var_dump() can see the instance ID of an object: var_dump($a = new stdClass()); // object(stdClass)#1 (0) { } var_dump($b = new stdClass()); // object(stdClass)#2 (0) { } var_dump($c = new stdClass()); // object(stdClass)#3 (0) { } The same happens with resources of course: var_dump(curl_init()); // resource(2) of type (curl) var_dump(curl_init()); // resource(3) of type (curl) var_dump(curl_init()); // resource(4) of type (curl) Is there any way to achieve the same effect in PHP?

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  • Delaying LINQ to SQL Select Query Execution

    - by Maxim Z.
    I'm building an ASP.NET MVC site that uses LINQ to SQL. In my search method that has some required and some optional parameters, I want to build a LINQ query while testing for the existence of those optional parameters. Here's what I'm currently thinking: using(var db = new DBDataContext()) { IQueryable<Listing> query = null; //Handle required parameter query = db.Listings.Where(l => l.Lat >= form.bounds.extent1.latitude && l.Lat <= form.bounds.extent2.latitude); //Handle optional parameter if (numStars != null) query = query.Where(l => l.Stars == (int)numStars); //Other parameters... //Execute query (does this happen here?) var result = query.ToList(); //Process query... Will this implementation "bundle" the where clauses and then execute the bundled query? If not, how should I implement this feature? Also, is there anything else that I can improve? Thanks in advance.

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  • Why can't I simply copy installed Perl modules to other machines?

    - by pistacchio
    Being very new to Perl but not to dynamic languages, I'm a bit surprised at how not straight forward the manage of modules is. Sure, cpan X does theoretically work, but I'm working on the same project from three different machines and OSs (at work, at home, testing in an external environment). At work (Windows 7) I have problem using cpan because of our firewall that makes ftp unusable At home (Mac OS X) it does work In the external environment (Linux CentOs) it worked after hours because I don't have root access and I had to configure cpan to operate as a non-root user I've tried on another server where I have an access. If the previous external environment is a VPS and so I have a shell access, this other one is a cheap shared hosting where I have no way to install new modules other than the ones pre-installed At the moment I still can't install Template under Windows. I've seen that as an alternative I could compile it and I've also tried ActiveState's PPM but the module is not existent there. Now, my perplexity is about Perl being a dynamic language. I've had all these kind of problems while working, for example, with C where I had to compile all the libraries for all the platform, but I thought that with Perl the approach would have been very similar to Python's or PHP's where in 90% of the cases copying the module in a directory and importing it simply works. So, my question: if Perl's modules are written in Perl, why the copy/paste approach will not work? If some (or some part) of the modules have to be compiled, how to see in CPAN if a module is Perl-only or it relies upon compiled libraries? Isn't there a way to download the module (tar, zip...) and use cpan to deploy it? This would solve my problem under Windows.

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  • NSTimer as a timeout mechanism

    - by alexantd
    I'm pretty sure this is really simple, and I'm just missing something obvious. I have an app that needs to download data from a web service for display in a UITableView, and I want to display a UIAlertView if the operation takes more than X seconds to complete. So this is what I've got (simplified for brevity): MyViewController.h @interface MyViewController : UIViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { NSTimer *timer; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSTimer *timer; MyViewController.m @implementation MyViewController @synthesize timer; - (void)viewDidLoad { timer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:20 target:self selector:@selector(initializationTimedOut:) userInfo:nil repeats:NO]; [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime]; [timer invalidate]; } - (void)doSomethingThatTakesALongTime { sleep(30); // for testing only // web service calls etc. go here } - (void)initializationTimedOut:(NSTimer *)theTimer { // show the alert view } My problem is that I'm expecting the [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime] call to block while the timer keeps counting, and I'm thinking that if it finishes before the timer is done counting down, it will return control of the thread to viewDidLoad where [timer invalidate] will proceed to cancel the timer. Obviously my understanding of how timers/threads work is flawed here because the way the code is written, the timer never goes off. However, if I remove the [timer invalidate], it does.

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  • When and why can sprintf fail?

    - by Srekel
    I'm using swprintf to build a string into a buffer (using a loop among other things). const int MaxStringLengthPerCharacter = 10 + 1; wchar_t* pTmp = pBuffer; for ( size_t i = 0; i < nNumPlayers ; ++i) { const int nPlayerId = GetPlayer(i); const int nWritten = swprintf(pTmp, MaxStringLengthPerCharacter, TEXT("%d,"), nPlayerId); assert(nWritten >= 0 ); pTmp += nWritten; } *pTaskPlayers = '\0'; If during testing the assert never hits, can I be sure that it will never hit in live code? That is, do I need to check if nWritten < 0 and handle that, or can I safely assume that there won't be a problem? Under which circumstances can it return -1? The documentation more or less just states "If the function fails". In one place I've read that it will fail if it can't match the arguments (i.e. the formatting string to the varargs) but that doesn't worry me. I'm also not worried about buffer overrun in this case - I know the buffer is big enough.

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  • Problems migrating databinding in VB.NET from Winforms to ASP.NET 2.0

    - by David
    And this was supposed to be so easy... I have existing business and data access layers that handle the retrieval and update of the data in question. These work great with the existing Winforms application (.Net V2.0) Now, in trying to write a new web-based UI, I'm running into all sorts of problems (last time I wrote asp.net code was in 1.1). Specifically, I can't data bind a text box to a business object. Oh, sure there's the ObjectDataSource but that wants to know how to do CRUD operations on the data. What I'm looking for is something that acts like the 'classic' binding objects so that, in my code, it's as simple as retrieving the object and doing a a refresh. The data component like FormView and DetailsView are so generic-looking that it's ridiculous. The existing application would have tabbed dialogs, text boxes grouped by panels, etc. On top of that, I have a directive to use master pages and unless one control causes it, I can't seem to get the content section to expand. I can't just put a text box 'below' the bottom of "Content1" and have it resize the content section - which gives me the same results as an earlier question I posted when the footer wasn't being 'pushed down' - relative position solved that but doesn't seem to solve it with placing small text boxes in the area. What I want is fairly simple. Something like: bindingobject.datasource = businessdataobject bindingobject.refresh ...and have the text boxes refresh with the new values. Likewise to have 'businessdataobject' properties updated as the user enters new data. I was able to do this with the GridView (grdRequests.DataSource = lstRequests) by making a list of asp:BoundField tags inside the collection of the GridView. Am I tilting at windmills here?

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  • How should I organize complex SQL views in Rails?

    - by Benjamin Oakes
    I manage a research database with Ruby on Rails. The data that is entered is primarily used by scientists who prefer to have all the relevant information for a study in one single massive table for use in their statistics software of choice. I'm currently presenting it as CSV, as it's very straightforward to do and compatible with the tools people want to use. I've written many views (the SQL kind, not the Rails HTML/ERB kind) to make the output they expect a reality. Some of these views are quite large and have a fair amount of complexity behind them. I wrote them in SQL because there are many calculations and comparisons that are more easily done with SQL. They're currently loaded into the database straight from a file named views.sql. To get the requested data, I do a select * from my_view;. The views.sql file is getting quite large. Part of the problem is that we're still figuring out what the data we collect means, so there's a lot of changes being made to the views all the time -- and a ton of them are being created. Many of them need to be repeatable. I've recently run into issues organizing and testing these views. Rails works great for user interface stuff and business logic, but I'm not aware of much existing structure for handling the reporting we require. Some options I've thought of: Should I move them into the most relevant models somehow? Several of the views interact with each other, which makes this situation more complex than just doing a single find_by_sql, so I don't know if they should only be part of the model. Perhaps they should be treated as a "view" in the MVC sense? (That is, they could be moved into app/views/ and live alongside the HTML, perhaps as files named something like my_view.csv.sql which return CSV.) How would you deal with a complex reporting problem like this?

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  • [Cocoa] Placing an NSTimer in a separate thread

    - by ndg
    I'm trying to setup an NSTimer in a separate thread so that it continues to fire when users interact with the UI of my application. This seems to work, but Leaks reports a number of issues - and I believe I've narrowed it down to my timer code. Currently what's happening is that updateTimer tries to access an NSArrayController (timersController) which is bound to an NSTableView in my applications interface. From there, I grab the first selected row and alter its timeSpent column. From reading around, I believe what I should be trying to do is execute the updateTimer function on the main thread, rather than in my timers secondary thread. I'm posting here in the hopes that someone with more experience can tell me if that's the only thing I'm doing wrong. Having read Apple's documentation on Threading, I've found it an overwhelmingly large subject area. NSThread *timerThread = [[[NSThread alloc] initWithTarget:self selector:@selector(startTimerThread) object:nil] autorelease]; [timerThread start]; -(void)startTimerThread { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSRunLoop *runLoop = [NSRunLoop currentRunLoop]; activeTimer = [[NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0 target:self selector:@selector(updateTimer:) userInfo:nil repeats:YES] retain]; [runLoop run]; [pool release]; } -(void)updateTimer:(NSTimer *)timer { NSArray *selectedTimers = [timersController selectedObjects]; id selectedTimer = [selectedTimers objectAtIndex:0]; NSNumber *currentTimeSpent = [selectedTimer timeSpent]; [selectedTimer setValue:[NSNumber numberWithInt:[currentTimeSpent intValue]+1] forKey:@"timeSpent"]; } -(void)stopTimer { [activeTimer invalidate]; [activeTimer release]; }

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  • Windows Services in Win7?

    - by Brandi
    I am trying to make a service that spawns a desktop application, and then watches to make sure it restarts again if it is closed. . I would like it to basically spawn the process and then forget about it, allowing to act like a normal interactive application. (Apparently this is much easier to do in XP and before, but I need this for XP, Vista, and 7) My problem now is that either it shows up invisible if I use process.start() with desktop interactive checked, and if I directly spawn a form it asks "Do you REALLY want to do this?!" and then the whole screen goes blank EXCEPT for my program. I just want this to be an inoffensive background app. I have the app working well, I just need to figure out how to spawn it from a service without all the trouble. I am finding all of this stuff that says "Don't make services that have UI", but first off this was a requirement that was given to me. (Boss does not want it to be a scheduled task) Also, I noticed that the Task scheduler is itself a service, and it does not have any problem spawning user interactive applications. Why can't I do that too? What am I doing wrong?

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  • Is it possible to definitively identify whether a DML command was issued from a stored procedure?

    - by Ed Harper
    I have inherited a SQL Server 2008 database to which calling applications have access through stored procedures. Each table in the database has a shadow audit table into which Insert/Update/Delete operations for are logged. Performance testing on populating the audit tables showed that inserting the audit records using OUTPUT clauses was 20% or so faster than using triggers, so this has been implemented in the stored procedures. However, because this design cannot track changes made directly to the tables through DML statements issued directly against the tables, triggers have also been implemented which use the value of @@NESTLEVEL to determine whether or not to run the trigger (the assumption being that all DML run through stored procedures will have @@NESTLEVEL 1). i.e. the body of the trigger code looks something like: IF @@NESTLEVEL = 1 -- implies call is direct sql so generate history from here BEGIN ... insert into audit table This design is flawed because it won't track updates where DML statements are executed in dynamic SQL, or any other context where @@NESTLEVEL is raised above 1. Can anyone suggest a completely reliable method we can use in the triggers to execute them only if not triggered by a stored procedure? Or is this (as I suspect) not possible?

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  • jquery autocomplete, $array source. how do i make it multiple?

    - by Toni Michel Caubet
    hello there! I'm using autocomplete so user can easly enter data on inputs, like this: <? $a = new etiqueta(0, ''); $b = $a->autocomplete_etiquetas(); ?> <script type="text/javascript"> function cargar_autocomplete_etiquetas(){ $("#tags").autocomplete({ source: [<? echo $b; ?>] }); } </script> $a = $b its an array with a result like: 'help','please',i','need','to,'be able to', 'select next item',' with autocomplete'; and i checked the ui documentation, but it doesn't fith with my source method.. any idea? I'm trying like this (edited with Bugai13 aportation): <? $a = new etiqueta(0, ''); $b = $a->autocomplete_etiquetas(); ?> <script type="text/javascript"> function cargar_autocomplete_etiquetas(){ $("#tags").autocomplete({ source: [<? echo $b; ?>], multiple: true, multipleSeparator: ", ", matchContains: true }); } </script> but i don't know how to do it.. any idea? are .push and .pop functions from the autocomplete? or shall i define, them? thanks again! PS: i'm getting adicted to this site! PS: come on dudes, i think the answer will be very usefull for many people PS: is it allowed to offer paypal reward?

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  • select failing with C program but not shell

    - by Gary
    So I have a parent and child process, and the parent can read output from the child and send to the input of the child. So far, everything has been working fine with shell scripts, testing commands which input and output data. I just tested with a simple C program and couldn't get it to work. Here's the C program: #include <stdio.h> int main( void ) { char stuff[80]; printf("Enter some stuff:\n"); scanf("%s", stuff); return 0; } The problem with with the C program is that my select fails to read from the child fd and hence the program cannot finish. Here's the bit that does the select.. //wait till child is ready fd_set set; struct timeval timeout; FD_ZERO( &set ); // initialize fd set FD_SET( PARENT_READ, &set ); // add child in to set timeout.tv_sec = 3; timeout.tv_usec = 0; int r = select(FD_SETSIZE, &set, NULL, NULL, &timeout); if( r < 1 ) { // we didn't get any input exit(1); } Does anyone have any idea why this would happen with the C program and not a shell one? Thanks!

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  • Sending files using Winsock - optimal send() data length?

    - by Meta
    I am using Winsock with non-blocking sockets to send a file to a client. The way I'm doing it right now is that I read a chunk of 8192 bytes from the file, and then loop until all of it successfully goes through send() (obviously handling WSAEWOULDBLOCK as it occurs). I then move on and read the next 8192 bytes, and so on... Although I can use any other number than 8192 when I test the transfer on my local machine, once I try it over a network, it seems like 8191 is the largest number I can use. When I try to use any number higher than 8191 (starting with 8192), the file transfer becomes extremely slow (about 5 times slower). Is there any reason why 8191 is so special? I've done some more testing and it turns out that using 8000 is slightly faster (by 0.5%). If you understand why 8191 is so special, can you tell me if there is a number better than the others (better than 8000)? I have a feeling that it has something to do with the fact that the default send buffer allocated to the socket by Winsock is 8KB, but I don't understand why. It might also have something to do with the Nagle algorithm, but again, I'm not sure how. Note that I have not modified the SO_SNDBUF option nor the TCP_NODELAY option. Or am I doing this all wrong? What's the best way of sending a file over a non-blocking socket?

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  • VB.NET: Dialog exits when enter pressed?

    - by Camilo Martin
    Hi all; My problem seems to be quite simple, but it's not working the intuitive way. I'm designing a Windows Forms Application, and there is a dialog that should NOT exit when the enter key is pressed, instead it has to validate data first, in case enter was pressed after changing the text of a ComboBox. I've tried by telling it what to do on KeyPress event of the ComboBox if e is the Enter key: Private Sub ComboBoxSizeChoose_KeyPress(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.KeyPressEventArgs) Handles ComboBoxSizeChoose.KeyPress If e.KeyChar = Convert.ToChar(Keys.Enter) Then Try TamanhoDaNovaFonte = Single.Parse(ComboBoxSizeChoose.Text) Catch ex As Exception Dim Dialogo2 As New Dialog2 Dialog2.ShowDialog() ComboBoxSizeChoose.Text = TamanhoDaNovaFonte End Try End If End Sub But no success so far. When the Enter key is pressed, even with the ComboBox on focus, the whole dialog is closed, returning to the previous form. The validation is NOT done at all, and it has to be done before exiting. In fact, I don't even want to exit on the form's enter KeyPress, the only purpose of the enter key on the whole dialog is to validate the ComboBox (but only when in focus, for the sake of an intuitive UI). I've also tried appending the validation to the KeyPress event of the whole dialog's form, if the key is Enter. NO SUCCESS! It's like my code wasn't there at all. What should I do? (Visual Studio 2008, VB.NET)

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  • Boost link error when using "--layout=system" on VS2005

    - by Kevin
    I'm new to boost, and thought I'd try it out with some realistic deployment scenarios for the .dlls, so I used the following command to compile/install the libraries: .\bjam install --layout=system variant=debug runtime-link=shared link=shared --with-date_time --with-thread --with-regex --with-filesystem --includedir=<my include directory> --libdir=<my bin directory> > installlog.txt That seemed to work, but my simple program (taken right from the "Getting Started" page) fails: #include <boost/regex.hpp> #include <iostream> #include <string> // Place your functions after this line int main() { std::string line; boost::regex pat( "^Subject: (Re: |Aw: )*(.*)" ); while (std::cin) { std::getline(std::cin, line); boost::smatch matches; if (boost::regex_match(line, matches, pat)) std::cout << matches[2] << std::endl; } } This fails with the following linker error: fatal error LNK1104: cannot open file 'libboost_regex-vc80-mt-1_42.lib' I'm sure that both the .lib and the .dlls are in that directory, and named how I want them to be (ie: boost_regex.lib, etc, all unversioned, as the --layout=system says). So why is it looking for the versioned type of it? And how do I get it to look for the unversioned type of the library? I've tried this with more "normal" options, such as below: .\bjam stage --build-type=complete --with-date_time --with-thread --with-filesystem --with-regex > mybuildlog.txt And that works fine. I made sure my compiler saw the "stage\lib" directory, and it compiled and ran fine with nothing beyond having the environment looking into the right lib directory. But when I took those "testing" directories away, and wanted to use these others (unversioned), then it failed. I'm under VS2005 here on XP. Any ideas?

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  • Widget host app with custom view - onClick is not triggered in the app widget.

    - by Dennis K
    I'm writing an app that will host widgets. The app has custom view (which probably is the source of issue). I obtain AppWidgetHostView like this private AppWidgetHostView widget; ... AppWidgetProviderInfo appWidgetInfo = mAppWidgetManager.getAppWidgetInfo(appWidgetId); widget = mAppWidgetHost.createView(this, appWidgetId, appWidgetInfo); widget.setAppWidget(appWidgetId, appWidgetInfo); mView.addWidget(widget, appWidgetInfo); mView.addWidget() basically just remembers this AppWidgetHostView instance and then draws it directly onto canvas. Visually everything is fine - I can see the actual widget. But the issue is with reacting on UI events. Please advise what needs to be done in the parent view in order to correctly trigger handlers in the widgets like onClick(). Notes: I used standard widgets which normally react on click events. None worked. I also created my own test widget with listener (via views.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.appwidget_text, pending);) and onClick() is successfully triggered if the widget is added on Homescreen, but doesn't work in my app. mView correctly detects click event and I tried to call widget.performClick() there, which returns false meaning onClickListener is not registered in the widget. But according to source mAppWidgetHost.createView() would call updateAppWidget which would register its onClick listener.. Please advise where to look at. Thanks

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