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  • Strange behaviour of DataTable with DataGridView

    - by Paul
    Please explain me what is happening. I have created a WinForms .NET application which has DataGridView on a form and should update database when DataGridView inline editing is used. Form has SqlDataAdapter _da with four SqlCommands bound to it. DataGridView is bound directly to DataTable _names. Such a CellValueChanged handler: private void dataGridView1_CellValueChanged(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { _da.Update(_names); } does not update database state although _names DataTable is updated. All the rows of _names have RowState == DataRowState.Unchanged Ok, I modified the handler: private void dataGridView1_CellValueChanged(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { DataRow row = _names.Rows[e.RowIndex]; row.BeginEdit(); row.EndEdit(); _da.Update(_names); } this variant really writes modified cell to database, but when I attempt to insert new row into grid, I get an error about an absence of row with index e.RowIndex So, I decided to improve the handler further: private void dataGridView1_CellValueChanged(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { if (_names.Rows.Count<e.RowIndex) { DataRow row = _names.Rows[e.RowIndex]; row.BeginEdit(); row.EndEdit(); } else { DataRow row = _names.NewRow(); row["NameText"] = dataGridView1["NameText", e.RowIndex].Value; _names.Rows.Add(row); } _da.Update(_names); } Now the really strange things happen when I insert new row to grid: the grid remains what it was until _names.Rows.Add(row); After this line THREE rows are inserted into table - two rows with the same value and one with Null value. The slightly modified code: DataRow row = _names.NewRow(); row["NameText"] = "--------------" _names.Rows.Add(row); inserts three rows with three different values: one as entered into the grid, the second with "--------------" value and third - with Null value. I really got stuck in guessing what is happening.

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  • Icons in menu are smaller than they should be

    - by martinpelant
    Hello I have a little problem. All the icons in my apk are smaller than the same icons in other apps (Gmail etc.) This is how it looks like in my apk and this is the same icon in Gmail.apk. I have copied these icons directly from SDK to the specific folders for hdpi, mdpi and ldpi. Here is an example of a hdpi icon I use and my menu.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <menu xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <item android:id="@+id/refresh" android:title="@string/refresh" android:icon="@drawable/ic_menu_refresh" /> <item android:id="@+id/add" android:title="@string/add" android:icon="@drawable/ic_menu_add" /> <item android:id="@+id/login" android:title="@string/account" android:icon="@drawable/ic_menu_login" /> </menu> Does anybody know how to make these icon have the same size as in other apk's? I have tried the asset studio with no effect. UPDATE: If I reference an icon directly from android (android:drawable) then it has normal size. However not all icons can be referenced.

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  • how to organize classes in ruby if they are literal subclasses

    - by RetroNoodle
    I know that title didn't make sense, Im sorry! Its hard to word what I am trying to ask. I had trouble googling it for the same reason. So this isn't even Ruby specific, but I am working in ruby and I am new to it, so bear with me. So you have a class that is a document. Inside each document, you have sentences, and each sentence has words. Words will have properties, like "noun" or a count of how many times they are used in the document, etc. I would like each of the elements, document, sentence, word be an object. Now, if you think literally - sentences are in documents, and words are in sentences. Should this be organized literally like this as well? Like inside the document class you will define and instantiate the sentence objects, and inside the sentence class you will define and instantiate the words? Or, should everything be separate and reference each other? Like the word class would sit outside the sentence class but the sentence class would be able to instantiate and work with words? This is a basic OOP question I guess, and I suppose you could argue to do it either way. What do you guys think? Each sentence in the document could be stored in a hash of sentence objects inside the document object, and each word in the sentence could be stored in a hash of word objects inside the sentence. I dont want to code myself into a corner here, thats why I am asking, plus I have wondered this before in other situations. Thank you!

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  • Is there a point to have multiple VS projects for an ASP.NET MVC application?

    - by mare
    I'm developing MVC application where I currently have 3 projects in solution. Core (it is supposed to be for Repositories, Business Classes, Models, HttpModules, HttpFilters, Settings, etc.) Data access (Data provider, for instance SqlDataProvider for working with SQL Server datastore - implements Repository interfaces, XmlDataProvider - also implements Repository interfaces but for local XML files as datastore) ASP.NET MVC project (all the typical stuff, UI, controllers, content, scripts, resources and helpers). I have no Models in my ASP.NET MVC project. I've just run into a problem because of that coz I want to use the new DataAnnotation feature in MVC 2 on my Bussiness class, which are, as said in Core, however I have I want to be able to localize the error messages. This where my problem starts. I cannot use my Resources from MVC project in Core. The MVC project references Core and it cannot be vice-versa. My options as I see them are: 1) Move Resources out but this would require correcting a whole bunch of Views and Controllers where I reference them, 2) Make a complete restructure of my app What are your thoughts on this? Also, Should I just move everything business related into Models folder in MVC project?? Does it even make any sense to have it structured like that, because we can just make subfolders for everything under MVC project? The whole Core library is not intended to ever be used for anything else, so there actually no point of compiling it to a separate DLL. Suggestions appreciated.

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  • What rules govern the copying of variables in Javascript closures?

    - by int3
    I'd just like to check my understanding of variable copying in Javascript. From what I gather, variables are passed/assigned by reference unless you explicitly tell them to create a copy with the new operator. But I'm a little uncertain when it comes to using closures. Say I have the following code: var myArray = [1, 5, 10, 15, 20]; var fnlist = []; for (var i in myArray) { var data = myArray[i]; fnlist.push(function() { var x = data; console.log(x); }); } fnlist[2](); // returns 20 I gather that this is because fnlist[2] only looks up the value of data at the point where it is invoked. So I tried an alternative tack: var myArray = [1, 5, 10, 15, 20]; var fnlist = []; for (var i in myArray) { var data = myArray[i]; fnlist.push(function() { var x = data; return function() { console.log(x); } }()); } fnlist[2](); // returns 10 So now it returns the 'correct' value. Am I right to say that it works because a function resolves all variable references to their 'constant' values when it is invoked? Or is there a better way to explain it? Any explanations / links to explanations regarding this referencing / copying business would be appreciated as well. Thanks!

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  • Scroll to item in listview in Silverlight 3.

    - by the empirical programmer
    I have a silverlight 3 app with a textbox on the main window and a childwindow that has a list of all the potential textbox values. When I open that childwindow I want it to scroll to the correct one in the list. I'm trying to do this with the code below...using the ScrollIntoView. It was not working at all until I add the UpdateLayerout(). However it does not seem to work all the time. At times it scrolls but not all the way to the item, it is a few items higher than it should be. The listbox is in an Accordion and the list items use a ItemTemplate\DataTemplate, not sure if that effects anything but thought I'd mention it. Any ideas what I'm missing in the code below? What I would like is to scroll the item to the top of the list ....any ideas how to that? (Or any other suggestions on how to code this better) Thanks! for (int index = 0; index < myList.Items.Count; index++) { object obj = myList.Items[index]; var listItem= obj as listItemObject; if (listItemObj != null) { if (string.Compare(listItemObj.id, _PastedInId, StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase) == 0) { selectThisIndex = index; scrollToThisItem = obj; } } } myList.SelectedIndex = selectThisIndex; if (scrollToThisItem != null){ myList.UpdateLayout(); myList.ScrollIntoView(scrollToThisItem); }

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  • Static selection and Ruby on Rails objects

    - by Dave
    Hi all- I have a simple problem, but am having trouble wrapping my head around it. I have an video object that should have one or more "genres". This list of genres should be prepopulated and then the user should just select one or more using autocomplete or some such. Here is the question: Is it worth creating a table with genres for the static selection? Or should it just be included in the presentation layer? If there is a static table, how do we name it correctly. I envision something like this class Video < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :genres ... end class Genre < ... belongs_to :video ... end But then we get a table called genre, that basically maps all the selected genres to their parent videos. There would need to be some static table to reference the static genres. Is this the best way to do it? Sorry if this was rambl-y a little stream of conciousness. Thanks!

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  • when i create user it aoutomaticaly logged in to newly created user how can i prevent it?

    - by kalyani
    heloo public partial class CreateUser : System.Web.UI.Page { TextBox username; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Class1.OpenConn(); string[] rolesArray; if(!(IsPostBack)) { rolesArray = Roles.GetAllRoles(); rdButtonListRoles.DataSource = rolesArray; rdButtonListRoles.DataBind(); } if(IsPostBack) { Class1 cs = new Class1(); username = (TextBox)CreateUserWizard1.CreateUserStep.ContentTemplateContainer.FindControl("UserName"); ProfileCommon newProf; newProf = Profile.GetProfile(username.Text); TextBox MobileNo, name, Sirname; name = (TextBox)CreateUserWizard1.CreateUserStep.ContentTemplateContainer.FindControl("txtname"); Sirname = (TextBox)CreateUserWizard1.CreateUserStep.ContentTemplateContainer.FindControl("txtSirname"); MobileNo = (TextBox)CreateUserWizard1.CreateUserStep.ContentTemplateContainer.FindControl("MobileNo"); newProf.Name = name.Text; newProf.Sirname = Sirname.Text; newProf.MobileNo = MobileNo.Text; newProf.Save(); RoleDiv.Visible = false; } } protected void ContinueButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { for (int i = 0; i < rdButtonListRoles.Items.Count; i++) { if (rdButtonListRoles.Items[i].Selected == true) { if (!Roles.IsUserInRole(username.Text, rdButtonListRoles.Items[i].Text)) { Roles.AddUserToRole(username.Text, rdButtonListRoles.Items[i].Text.ToString()); } } else { if (Roles.IsUserInRole(username.Text, rdButtonListRoles.Items[i].Text)) { Roles.RemoveUserFromRole(username.Text, rdButtonListRoles.Items[i].Text.ToString()); } } } Response.Redirect("ManageUser.aspx"); } protected void CreateUserWizard1_CreatedUser(object sender, EventArgs e) { } } plz give me the solution help me

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  • Get textboxes in to a list! c#

    - by Chelsea_cole
    public class Account { public string Username { get { return Username; } set { Username = value; } } } public class ListAcc { static void Data() { List<Account> UserList = new List<Account>(); //example of adding user account Account acc = new Account(); acc.Username = textBox1.Text; //error UserList.Add(acc); } } there are a error from access to textBox1.Text? ( An object reference is required for the nonstatic field, method, or property)... Someone can help? but if the code is: private void textBox1_TextChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { List<Account> UserList = new List<Account>(); //example of adding user account Account acc = new Account(); acc.Username = textBox1.Text; UserList.Add(acc); } it's work! someone can help me fix my error? Many thanks!

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  • Django - Problem with models/manager to organise a query...

    - by user296644
    Hi, I have an application to count the number of access to an object for each website in a same database. class SimpleHit(models.Model): """ Hit is the hit counter of a given object """ content_type = models.ForeignKey(ContentType) object_id = models.PositiveIntegerField() content_object = generic.GenericForeignKey('content_type', 'object_id') site = models.ForeignKey(Site) hits_total = models.PositiveIntegerField(default=0, blank=True) [...] class SimpleHitManager(models.Manager): def get_query_set(self): print self.model._meta.fields qset = super(SimpleHitManager, self).get_query_set() qset = qset.filter(hits__site=settings.SITE_ID) return qset class SimpleHitBase(models.Model): hits = generic.GenericRelation(SimpleHit) objects = SimpleHitManager() _hits = None def _db_get_hits(self, only=None): if self._hits == None: try: self._hits = self.hits.get(site=settings.SITE_ID) except SimpleHit.DoesNotExist: self._hits = SimpleHit() return self._hits @property def hits_total(self): return self._db_get_hits().hits_total [...] class Meta: abstract = True And I have a model like: class Model(SimpleHitBase): name = models.CharField(max_length=255) url = models.CharField(max_length=255) rss = models.CharField(max_length=255) creation = AutoNowAddDateTimeField() update = AutoNowDateTimeField() So, my problem is this one: when I call Model.objects.all(), I would like to have one request for the SQL (not two). In this case: one for Model in order to have information and one for the hits in order to have the counter (hits_total). This is because I cannot call directly hits.hits_total (due to SITE_ID?). I have tried select_related, but it seems to do not work... Question: - How can I add column automatically like (SELECT hits.hits_total, model.* FROM [...]) to the queryset? - Or use a functional select_related with my models? I want this model could be plugable on all other existing model. Thank you, Best regards.

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  • How to know the type of an object in a list?

    - by nacho4d
    Hi, I want to know the type of object (or type) I have in my list so I wrote this: void **list; //list of references list = new void * [2]; Foo foo = Foo(); const char *not_table [] = {"tf", "ft", 0 }; list[0] = &foo; list[1] = not_table; if (dynamic_cast<LogicProcessor*>(list[0])) { //ERROR here ;( printf("Foo was found\n"); } if (dynamic_cast<char*> (list[0])) { //ERROR here ;( printf("char was found\n"); } but I get : error: cannot dynamic_cast '* list' (of type 'void*') to type 'class Foo*' (source is not a pointer to class) error: cannot dynamic_cast '* list' (of type 'void*') to type 'char*' (target is not pointer or reference to class) Why is this? what I am doing wrong here? Is dynamic_cast what I should use here? Thanks in advance EDIT: I know above code is much like plain C and surely sucks from the C++ point of view but is just I have the following situation and I was trying something before really implementing it: I have two arrays of length n but both arrays will never have an object at the same index. Hence, or I have array1[i]!=NULL or array2[i]!=NULL. This is obviously a waste of memory so I thought everything would be solved if I could have both kind of objects in a single array of length n. I am looking something like Cocoa's (Objective-C) NSArray where you don't care about the type of the object to be put in. Not knowing the type of the object is not a problem since you can use other method to get the class of a certain later. Is there something like it in c++ (preferably not third party C++ libraries) ? Thanks in advance ;)

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  • Using unions to simplify casts

    - by Steven Lu
    I realize that what I am trying to do isn't safe. But I am just doing some testing and image processing so my focus here is on speed. Right now this code gives me the corresponding bytes for a 32-bit pixel value type. struct Pixel { unsigned char b,g,r,a; }; I wanted to check if I have a pixel that is under a certain value (e.g. r, g, b <= 0x10). I figured I wanted to just conditional-test the bit-and of the bits of the pixel with 0x00E0E0E0 (I could have wrong endianness here) to get the dark pixels. Rather than using this ugly mess (*((uint32_t*)&pixel)) to get the 32-bit unsigned int value, i figured there should be a way for me to set it up so I can just use pixel.i, while keeping the ability to reference the green byte using pixel.g. Can I do this? This won't work: struct Pixel { unsigned char b,g,r,a; }; union Pixel_u { Pixel p; uint32_t bits; }; I would need to edit my existing code to say pixel.p.g to get the green color byte. Same happens if I do this: union Pixel { unsigned char c[4]; uint32_t bits; }; This would work too but I still need to change everything to index into c, which is a bit ugly but I can make it work with a macro if i really needed to.

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  • ASP.NET javascript embed in template column

    - by Mahesh
    Hi, I am developing a web page in which a rad grid displays the list of exams. I included a template column which shows count down timer when the exam is going to expire. Code is as given below: <telerik:RadGrid ID="radGrid" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false"> <MasterTableView> <Columns> <telerik:GridTemplateColumn HeaderText="template" DataField="Date"> <ItemTemplate> <script language="JavaScript" type="text/javascript"> TargetDate = '<%# Eval("Date") %>'; BackColor = "white"; ForeColor = "black"; CountActive = true; CountStepper = -1; LeadingZero = true; DisplayFormat = "%%D%% Days, %%H%% Hours, %%M%% Minutes, %%S%% Seconds."; FinishMessage = "It is finally here!"; </script> <script language="JavaScript" src="http://scripts.hashemian.com/js/countdown.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </ItemTemplate> </telerik:GridTemplateColumn> </Columns> </MasterTableView> </telerik:RadGrid> I am giving DataTable as datasource to this grid. But my problem is , the template column is showing data only for the first record and the value taken is from the last row in the DataTable. For Ex: If I give data as given below, I can see 3 records but with only the first record displaying the counter with last value(10/10/2010 05:43 PM). 02/02/2011 01:00 AM 08/09/2010 11:00 PM 10/10/2010 05:43 PM Could you please help in this?? Thanks, Mahesh

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  • PHP: Check if 0?

    - by tarnfeld
    Hi, I am using a class which returns me the value of a particular row and cell of an excel spreadsheet. To build up an array of one column I am counting the rows and then looping through that number with a for() loop and then using the $array[] = $value to set the incrementing array object's value. This works great if none of the values in a cell are 0. The class returns me a number 0 so it's nothing to do with the class, I think it's the way I am looping through the rows and then assigning them to the array... I want to carry through the 0 value because I am creating graphs with the data afterwards, here is the code I have. // Get Rainfall $rainfall = array(); for($i=1;$i<=$count;$i++) { if($data->val($i,2) != 'Rainfall') // Check if not the column title { $rainfall[] = $data->val($i,2); } } For your info $data is the excel spreadsheet object and the method $data->val(row,col) is what returns me the value. In this case I am getting data from column 2. Screenshot of spreadsheet http://cl.ly/1Dmy Thanks! All help is very much appreciated!

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  • How to get the parameter names of an object's constructors (reflection)?

    - by Tom
    Say I somehow got an object reference from an other class: Object myObj = anObject; Now I can get the class of this object: Class objClass = myObj.getClass(); Now, I can get all constructors of this class: Constructor[] constructors = objClass.getConstructors(); Now, I can loop every constructor: if (constructors.length > 0) { for (int i = 0; i < constructors.length; i++) { System.out.println(constructors[i]); } } This is already giving me a good summary of the constructor, for example a constructor public Test(String paramName) is shown as public Test(java.lang.String) Instead of giving me the class type however, I want to get the name of the parameter.. in this case "paramName". How would I do that? I tried the following without success: if (constructors.length > 0) { for (int iCon = 0; iCon < constructors.length; iCon++) { Class[] params = constructors[iCon].getParameterTypes(); if (params.length > 0) { for (int iPar = 0; iPar < params.length; iPar++) { Field fields[] = params[iPar].getDeclaredFields(); for (int iFields = 0; iFields < fields.length; iFields++) { String fieldName = fields[i].getName(); System.out.println(fieldName); } } } } } Unfortunately, this is not giving me the expected result. Could anyone tell me how I should do this or what I am doing wrong? Thanks!

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  • php memory how much is too much

    - by Rob
    I'm currently re-writing my site using my own framework (it's very simple and does exactly what I need, i've no need for something like Zend or Cake PHP). I've done alot of work in making sure everything is cached properly, caching pages in files so avoid sql queries and generally limiting the number of sql queries. Overall it looks like it's very speedy. The average time taken for the front page (taken over 100 times) is 0.046152 microseconds. But one thing i'm not sure about is whether i've done enough to reduce php memory usage. The only time i've ever encountered problems with it is when uploading large files. Using memory_get_peak_usage(TRUE), which I THINK returns the highest amount of memory used whilst the script has been running, the average (taken over 100 times) is 1572864 bytes. Is that good? I realise you don't know what it is i'm doing (it's rather simple, get the 10 latest articles, the comment count for each, get the user controls, popular tags in the sidebar etc). But would you be at all worried with a script using that sort of memory getting hit 50,000 times a day? Or once every second at peak times? I realise that this is a very open ended question. Hopefully you can understand that it's a bit of a stab in the dark and i'm really just looking for some re-assurance that it's not going to die horribly come re-launch day.

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  • AS3 colorTransform over multiple frames?

    - by user359519
    (Flash Professional, AS3) I'm working on a custom avatar system where you can select various festures and colors. For example, I have 10 hairstyles, and a colorPicker to change the color. mc_myAvatar has 10 frames. Each frame has a movieclip of a different hairstyle (HairStyle1, HairStyle2, etc.) Here's my code: var hairColor:ColorTransform; hairColor = mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer.transform.colorTransform; hairColor.color = 0xCCCC00; mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer.transform.colorTransform = hairColor; This correctly changes the initial color. I have a "nextHair" button to advance mc_myAvatar.hair to the next frame. When I click the button, I get an error message saying that I have a null object reference. I added a trace, and mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer is null on frame 2. Why??? I've clearly named HairStyle2 as "colorLayer" in frame 2. I think the problem is related to me using the same name for different classes/movieclips, but I don't know how to fix the problem... I added a square movieclip below my hairStyle movieclips, named the square "colorLevel", and deleted the name from my hairStyle clips. When I click the next button, the square correctly maintains the color from frame to frame. However, having a square doesn't do me much good. :( I tried converting the hairStyle layer to a mask. Doing this, however, results in yet another "null object" error - mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer is null after frame 1. I even tried "spanning" my colorLevel across all frames (no keyframes), thinking that this would give me just one movieclip to work with. No luck. Same error! What's going on, here? Why am I getting these null objects, when they are clearly defined in my movieclip? I'm also open to suggestions on a better way to do multiple frames and colors.

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  • Multiple ID's in database

    - by eric
    I have a database that contains a few tables such as person, staff, member, and supporter. The person table contains information about every staff, member, and supporter. The information it contains is name,address,email, and telephone. I also created an id that is the primary key. My issue is that I also have an primary key ID for staff, member, and supporter. For instance, in the person table is John with id 1. He is a supporter so in the supporter table is pID(for person id)to reference back to John with all his information and ID(for supporter ID). pID references to the person table and every person has an ID incremented by 1 starting at 1. supporter ID is for every supporter and also starts at 1 and is incremented by 1. Is it possible to have in the supporter table pID = 1 and supporter ID = 1? Another person may have a pID = 26 and supporter ID = 5. Or will supporter ID have to be different than the pID and be something like "sup"? So you would have pID = 1 and supporter ID = sup1 or pID = 26 and supporter ID = sup5

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  • what's a good technique for building and running many similar unit tests?

    - by jcollum
    I have a test setup where I have many very similar unit tests that I need to run. For example, there are about 40 stored procedures that need to be checked for existence in the target environment. However I'd like all the tests to be grouped by their business unit. So there'd be 40 instances of a very similar TestMethod in 40 separate classes. Kinda lame. One other thing: each group of tests need to be in their own solution. So Business Unit A will have a solution called Tests.BusinessUnitA. I'm thinking that I can set this all up by passing a configuration object (with the name of the stored proc to check, among other things) to a TestRunner class. The problem is that I'm losing the atomicity of my unit tests. I wouldn't be able to run just one of the tests, I'd have to run all the tests in the TestRunner class. This is what the code looks like at this time. Sure, it's nice and compact, but if Test 8 fails, I have no way of running just Test 8. TestRunner runner = new TestRunner(config, this.TestContext); var runnerType = typeof(TestRunner); var methods = runnerType.GetMethods() .Where(x => x.GetCustomAttributes(typeof(TestMethodAttribute), false) .Count() > 0).ToArray(); foreach (var method in methods) { method.Invoke(runner, null); } So I'm looking for suggestions for making a group of unit tests that take in a configuration object but won't require me to generate many many TestMethods. This looks like it might require code-generation, but I'd like to solve it without that.

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  • Javascript object properties access functions in parent constructor?

    - by Bob Spryn
    So I'm using this pretty standard jquery plugin pattern whereby you can grab an api after applying the jquery function to a specific instance. This API is essentially a javascript object with a bunch of methods and data. So I wanted to essentially create some private internal methods for the object only to manipulate data etc, which just doesn't need to be available as part of the API. So I tried this: // API returned with new $.TranslationUI(options, container) $.TranslationUI = function (options, container) { // private function? function monkey(){ console.log("blah blah blah"); } // extend the default settings with the options object passed this.settings = $.extend({},$.TranslationUI.defaultSettings,options); // set a reference for the container dom element this.container = container; // call the init function this.init(); }; The problem I'm running into is that init can't call that function "monkey". I'm not understanding the explanation behind why it can't. Is it because init is a prototype method?($.TranslationUI's prototype is extended with a bunch of methods including init elsewhere in the code) $.extend($.TranslationUI, { prototype: { init : function(){ // doesn't work monkey(); // editing flag this.editing = false; // init event delegates here for // languagepicker $(this.settings.languageSelector, this.container).bind("click", {self: this}, this.selectLanguage); } } }); Any explanations would be helpful. Would love other thoughts on creating private methods with this model too. These particular functions don't HAVE to be in prototype, and I don't NEED private methods protected from being used externally, but I want to know how should I have that requirement in the future.

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  • table column accepting "0" as a member Id

    - by user682417
    I have two tables one is members table with columns member id , member first name, member last name. I have another table guest passes with columns guest pass id and member id and issue date . I have a list view that will displays guest passes details (I.e) like member name and issue date and I have two text boxes those are for entering member name and issue date . member name text box is auto complete text box that working fine.... but the problem is when I am entering the name that is not in member table at this time it will accept and displays a blank field in list view in member name column and member id is stored as "0" in guest pass table ...... I don't want to display the member name empty blank and I don t want to store "0" in guest pass table and this is the insert statement sql2 = @"INSERT INTO guestpasses(member_Id,guestPass_IssueDate)"; sql2 += " VALUES("; sql2 += "'" + tbCGuestPassesMemberId.Text + "'"; sql2 += ",'" + tbIssueDate.Text + "'"; guestpassmemberId = memberid is there any validation that need to be done can any one suggestions on this pls... and this is the auto complete text box statement sql = @"SELECT member_Id FROM members WHERE concat(member_Firstname,'',member_Lastname) ='" + tbMemberName.Text+"'"; if (dt != null) { if (dt.Rows.Count > 0) { tbCGuestPassesMemberId.Text = Convert.ToInt32(dt.Rows[0] ["member_Id"]).ToString(); } } can any one help me on this ... is there any type of validation with sql query pls help me .....

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  • In C# should I reuse a function / property parameter to compute cleaner temporary value or create a

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    The example below may not be problematic as is, but it should be enough to illustrate a point. Imagine that there is a lot more work than trimming going on. public string Thingy { set { // I guess we can throw a null reference exception here on null. value = value.Trim(); // Well, imagine that there is so much processing to do this.thingy = value; // That this.thingy = value.Trim() would not fit on one line ... So, if the assignment has to take two lines, then I either have to abusereuse the parameter, or create a temporary variable. I am not a big fan of temporary variables. On the other hand, I am not a fan of convoluted code. I did not include an example where a function is involved, but I am sure you can imagine it. One concern I have is if a function accepted a string and the parameter was "abused", and then someone changed the signature to ref in both places - this ought to mess things up, but ... who would knowingly make such a change if it already worked without a ref? Seems like it is their responsibility in this case. If I mess with the value of value, am I doing something non-trivial under the hood? If you think that both approaches are acceptable, then which do you prefer and why? Thanks.

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  • jQuery function unresponsive after changing html

    - by asdgfas sagas
    $(document).ready(function () { $(".tab_content").hide(); //Hide all content $(".tab_content:first").show(); //Show first tab content $(".next").click(function() { $(".tab_content").hide(); //Hide all tab content $('#tab_change').html('<div class="back"></div>'); $("#tab2").show(); return false; }); $(".back").click(function() { $(".tab_content").hide(); //Hide all tab content $('#tab_change').html('<div class="next"></div>'); $("#tab1").show(); return false; }); THe problem is that when next is clicked, the 2nd tab opens. But after the html of #tab_change changed, the back button is responsive. The $(".back").click(function() { doesnt work. HTML is posted for reference. <div class="dialog_content" style="width:780px"> <div id="tab_change" class="left border_right"> <div class="next"></div> </div> <div id="tab1" class="tab_content"> </div> <div id="tab2" class="tab_content"> <div class="right"><?php include("C:/easyphp/www/zabjournal/lib/flexpaper/php/split_document.php"); ?> </div> </div> </div>

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  • How to select "child" entities in subview?

    - by Andy
    I am trying to manage a drill-down list of data. I've got an entity, Contact, that has a to-many relationship with another entity, Rule. In my root view controller, I use a fetched results controller to manage and display the list of Contacts. When a Contact is tapped, I push a new view controller onto the stack with a list of the Contact's Rules. I have not been able to figure out how to use a second fetched results controller to display the Rules, so I'm using the following: // create a set of the contact's rules rules = [NSMutableSet set]; rules = [self.contact mutableSetValueForKey:@"rule"]; // create an array of rules from the set arrayOfRules = [NSMutableArray arrayWithCapacity:[rules count]]; for (id oneObject in rules) [arrayOfRules addObject:oneObject]; // sort the array of rules NSSortDescriptor *descriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"phoneLabel" ascending:YES]; [arrayOfRules sortUsingDescriptors:[NSArray arrayWithObject:descriptor]]; [descriptor release]; I create a set of Rules, then use that to create an array of Rules for sorting. I then use these two collections to populate the grouped table view. All of this appears to be working correctly. Here's my problem: There are several different actions a user can take in this view, and most of them require that I know which Rule was tapped. But I can't figure out how to get that. For instance, say a user wants to delete a Rule. It seems to me the proper approach is something like... [rules removeObject:ruleObjectToBeRemoved] ...but I can't figure out how to specifiy ruleObjectToBeRemoved. I hope all of this makes sense. As usual, thanks in advance for any advice you can offer.

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  • UPDATE Table SET Field

    - by davlyo
    This is my Very first Post! Bear with me. I have an Update Statement that I am trying to understand how SQL Server handles it. UPDATE a SET a.vField3 = b.vField3 FROM tableName a INNER JOIN tableName b ON a.vField1 = b.vField1 AND b.nField2 = a.nField2 – 1 This is my query in its simplest form. vField1 is a Varchar nField2 is an int (autonumber) vField3 is a Varchar I have left the WHERE clause out so understand there is logic that otherwise makes this a nessessity. Say vField1 is a Customer Number and that Customer has 3 records The value in nField2 is 1, 2, and 3 consecutively. vField3 is a Status When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 1 there is no a.nField2 -1 so it continues When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 2, b.nField2 = 1 When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 3, b.nField2 = 2 So when the Update is on a.nField2 = 2, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 1) And it SETs the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the Update is on a.nField2 = 3, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 2) And it (should) SET the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the process is complete –the Second of three records looks as expected –hence the value in vField3 of the second record reflects the value in vField3 from the First record However, vField3 of the Third record does not reflect the value in vField3 from the Second record. I think this demonstrates that SQL Server may be producing a transaction of some sort and then an update. Question: How can I get the DB to Update after each transaction so I can reference the values generated by each transaction?

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