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  • Help with editing data in entity framework.

    - by Levelbit
    Title of this question is simple because there is no an easy explanation for what I'm trying to ask you. I hope you'll understand in the end :). I have to tables in my database: Company and Location (relationship:one to many) and corresponding entity sets. In my wpf application I have some datagrid which I want to fill with locations and to be able to edit every row in separate window as some form of details view (so I don't want to edit my data in datagrid). I did this by accessing Location entity from selected row and creating a new Location entity and then I copy properties from original entity to newly created. Something like cloning the object. After editing if I press OK changed data is copied to original object back, and if I press Cancel nothing happens. Of course, you probably thinking I could use NoTracking option and AttachAsModified method as was mentioned as solution in some earlier questions(see:http://stackoverflow.com/questions/803022/changing-entities-in-the-entityframework) by Alex James, but lets say I had some problems about that and I have my own reasons for doing this. Finally, because navigation property(Company) of my location entity is assigned to newly created location object(during cloning) from some reason in object context additional object as copy of object I want to edit from datagrid is created without my will(similar problem :http://blogs.msdn.com/alexj/archive/2009/12/02/tip-47-how-fix-up-can-make-it-hard-to-change-relationships.aspx). So, when I do ObjectContext.SaveChanges it inserts additional row of data into my database table Location, the same as the one i wanted to edit. I read about sth like this, but I don't quite understand why is that and how to block or override this. I hope I was clear as I could. Please, solutions or some other ideas.

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  • Assigning a property across threads

    - by Mike
    I have set a property across threads before and I found this post http://stackoverflow.com/questions/142003/cross-thread-operation-not-valid-control-accessed-from-a-thread-other-than-the-t about getting a property. I think my issue with the code below is setting the variable to the collection is an object therefore on the heap and therefore is just creating a pointer to the same object So my question is besides creating a deep copy, or copying the collection into a different List object is there a better way to do the following to aviod the error during the for loop. Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'lstProcessFiles' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on. Code: private void btnRunProcess_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { richTextBox1.Clear(); BackgroundWorker bg = new BackgroundWorker(); bg.DoWork += new DoWorkEventHandler(bg_DoWork); bg.RunWorkerCompleted += new RunWorkerCompletedEventHandler(bg_RunWorkerCompleted); bg.RunWorkerAsync(lstProcessFiles.SelectedItems); } void bg_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { WorkflowEngine engine = new WorkflowEngine(); ListBox.SelectedObjectCollection selectedCollection=null; if (lstProcessFiles.InvokeRequired) { // Try #1 selectedCollection = (ListBox.SelectedObjectCollection) this.Invoke(new GetSelectedItemsDelegate(GetSelectedItems), new object[] { lstProcessFiles }); // Try #2 //lstProcessFiles.Invoke( // new MethodInvoker(delegate { // selectedCollection = lstProcessFiles.SelectedItems; })); } else { selectedCollection = lstProcessFiles.SelectedItems; } // *********Same Error on this line******************** // Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'lstProcessFiles' accessed // from a thread other than the thread it was created on. foreach (string l in selectedCollection) { if (engine.LoadProcessDocument(String.Format(@"C:\TestDirectory\{0}", l))) { try { engine.Run(); WriteStep(String.Format("Ran {0} Succussfully", l)); } catch { WriteStep(String.Format("{0} Failed", l)); } engine.PrintProcess(); WriteStep(String.Format("Rrinted {0} to debug", l)); } } } private delegate void WriteDelegate(string p); private delegate ListBox.SelectedObjectCollection GetSelectedItemsDelegate(ListBox list); private ListBox.SelectedObjectCollection GetSelectedItems(ListBox list) { return list.SelectedItems; }

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  • UIView coordinate transforms on rotation during keyboard appearance

    - by SG
    iPad app; I'm trying to resize my view when the keyboard appears. It amounts to calling this code at appropriate times: CGRect adjustedFrame = self.frame; adjustedFrame.size.height -= keyboardFrame.size.height; [self setFrame:adjustedFrame]; Using this technique for a view contained in a uisplitview-based app works in all 4 orientations, but I've since discovered that a vanilla uiview-based app does not work. What happens is that apparently the uisplitview is smart enough to convert the coordinates of its subviews (their frame) such that the origin is in the "viewer's top left" regardless of the orientation. However, a uiview is not able to correctly report these coordinates. Though the origin is reported as (0,0) in all orientations, the view's effective origin is always as if the ipad were upright. What is weird about this is that the view correctly rotates and draws, but it always originates in the literal device top left. How can I get the view to correctly make its origin the "top left" to the viewer, not the device's fixed top left? What am I missing? Please, for something so trivial I've spent about 6 hours on this already with every brute force technique and research angle I could think of. This is the original source which doesn't work in this case: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1951826/move-up-uitoolbar

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  • JQuery-UI Drag, Drop and Re-Drag Clones on Re-Drag

    - by amarcy
    I am using the following code to extend the JQuery-UI demos included with the download. I am trying to set up a container that the user can drag items into and then move the items around within the container. I incorporated the answer from http://stackoverflow.com/questions/867469/jquery-draggable-clone which works with one problem. <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("#droppable").droppable({ accept: '.ui-widget-content', drop: function(event, ui) { if($(ui).parent(":not(:has(#id1))")){ $(this).append($(ui.helper).clone().attr("id", "id1")); } $("#id1").draggable({ containment: 'parent', }); } }); $(".ui-widget-content").draggable({helper: 'clone'}); }); </script> div class="demo"> <div id="draggable" class="ui-widget-content"> <p>Drag me around</p> </div> <div id="droppable" class="ui-widget-header"> <p>Drop here</p> </div> When an item is dropped onto the droppable container it can be dragged one time and when it is dropped after that drag it loses its dragging capability. How do I allow for the item to be dragged multiple times after it has been added to the droppable container?

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  • How do I grant a site's applet an AllPermission privilege?

    - by nahsra
    I'd like to specify certain applets to run with java.security.AllPermission on my computer (for debugging and security testing). However, I don't want to enable all applets that I run to have this permission. So, editing my user Java policy file (which I have ensured is the correct policy file through testing), I try to put this value: grant codeBase "http://host_where_applet_lives/-" { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; This value fails when the applet tries to do something powerful (create a new Thread, in my case). However, when I put the following value: grant { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; The applet is able to perform the powerful operation. The only difference is the lack of a codeBase attribute. An answer to a similar question asked here [1] seemed to suggest (but never show or prove) that AccessController.doPrivileged() calls may be required. To me, this sounds wrong as I don't need that call when I grant the permissions to all applets (the second example I showed). Even if this is a solution, littering the applets I run with AccessController.doPrivileged() calls is not easy or necessarily possible. To top it off, my tests show that this just doesn't work anyway. But I'm happy to hear more ideas around it. [1] http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1751412/cant-get-allpermission-configured-for-intranet-applet-can-anyone-help

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  • Dynamically created iframe used to download file triggers onload with firebug but not without

    - by justkt
    EDIT: as this problem is now "solved" to the point of working, I am looking to have the information on why. For the fix, see my comment below. I have an web application which repeatedly downloads wav files dynamically (after a timeout or as instructed by the user) into an iframe in order to trigger the a default audio player to play them. The application targets only FF 2 or 3. In order to determine when the file is downloaded completely, I am hoping to use the window.onload handler for the iframe. Based on this stackoverflow.com answer I am creating a new iframe each time. As long as firebug is enabled on the browser using the application, everything works great. Without firebug, the onload never fires. The version of firebug is 1.3.1, while I've tested Firefox 2.0.0.19 and 3.0.7. Any ideas how I can get the onload from the iframe to reliably trigger when the wav file has downloaded? Or is there another way to signal the completion of the download? Here's the pertinent code: HTML (hidden's only attribute is display:none;): <div id="audioContainer" class="hidden"> </div> JavaScript (could also use jQuery, but innerHTML is faster than html() from what I've read): waitingForFile = true; // (declared at the beginning of closure) $("#loading").removeClass("hidden"); var content = "<iframe id='audioPlayer' name='audioPlayer' src='" + /path/to/file.wav + "' onload='notifyLoaded()'></iframe>"; document.getElementById("audioContainer").innerHTML = content; And the content of notifyLoaded: function notifyLoaded() { waitingForFile = false; // (declared at beginning of the closure) $("#loading").addClass("hidden"); } I have also tried creating the iframe via document.createElement, but I found the same behavior. The onload triggered each time with firebug enabled and never without it. EDIT: Fixed the information on how the iframe is being declared and added the callback function code. No, no console.log calls here.

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  • Web Service Client in JBOSS 5.1 with JDK6

    - by dcp
    This is a continuation of the question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2435286/jboss-does-app-have-to-be-compiled-under-same-jdk-as-jboss-is-running-under It's different enough though that it required a new question. I am trying to use jdk6 to run JBOSS 5.1, and I downloaded the JDK6 version of JBOSS 5.1. This works fine and my EAR application deploys fine. However, when I want to run a web service client with code like this: public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { System.out.println("creating the web service client..."); TestClient client = new TestClient("http://localhost:8080/tc_test_project-tc_test_project/TestBean?wsdl"); Test service = client.getTestPort(); System.out.println("calling service.retrieveAll() using the service client"); List<TestEntity> list = service.retrieveAll(); System.out.println("the number of elements in list retrieved using the client is " + list.size()); } I get the following exception: javax.xml.ws.WebServiceException: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: setProperty must be overridden by all subclasses of SOAPMessage at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.handleRemoteException(ClientImpl.java:396) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.invoke(ClientImpl.java:302) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:170) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:150) Now, here's the really interesting part. If I change the JDK that my the code above is running under from JDK6 to JDK5, the exception above goes away! It's really strange. The only way I found for the code above to run under JDK6 was to take the JBOSS_HOME/lib/endorsed folder and copy it to JDK6_HOME/lib. This seems like it shouldn't be necessary, but it is. Is there any other way to make this work other than using the workaround I just described?

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  • Kohana 3 ORM: How to get data from pivot table? and all other tables for that matter

    - by zenna
    I am trying to use ORM to access data stored, in three mysql tables 'users', 'items', and a pivot table for the many-many relationship: 'user_item' I followed the guidance from http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1946357/kohana-3-orm-read-additional-columns-in-pivot-tables and tried $user = ORM::factory('user',1); $user->items->find_all(); $user_item = ORM::factory('user_item', array('user_id' => $user, 'item_id' => $user->items)); if ($user_item->loaded()) { foreach ($user_item as $pivot) { print_r($pivot); } } But I get the SQL error: "Unknown column 'user_item.id' in 'order clause' [ SELECT user_item.* FROM user_item WHERE user_id = '1' AND item_id = '' ORDER BY user_item.id ASC LIMIT 1 ]" Which is clearly erroneous because Kohana is trying to order the elements by a column which doesn't exist: user_item.id. This id doesnt exist because the primary keys of this pivot table are the foreign keys of the two other tables, 'users' and 'items'. Trying to use: $user_item = ORM::factory('user_item', array('user_id' => $user, 'item_id' => $user->items)) ->order_by('item_id', 'ASC'); Makes no difference, as it seems the order_by() or any sql queries are ignored if the second argument of the factory is given. Another obvious error with that query is that the item_id = '', when it should contain all the elements. So my question is how can I get access to the data stored in the pivot table, and actually how can I get access to the all items held by a particular user as I even had problems with that? Thanks

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  • Application Architect vs. Systems Architect vs. Enterprise Architect?

    - by iaman00b
    So many buzzwords. Not sure if I need to start playing BS Bingo or not. And I'm not trying to be cynical. But I've heard many people with these various titles. There never seems to be a clear delineation between the three. Or there's a lot of domain crossover between the three. Actually, another I've seen while looking around here on Stackoverflow has been "Solutions Architect" as well. But that one doesn't seem to be so prevalent in other places. There are questions here and there with vague answers. But I'd like definative answers to this. Please assume I'm still relatively new to software stuff and that I'm trying to map out a career path. Oh, and please be gentle folks; this most definitely is not a duplicate question. Neither is it an aggregate. So kindly leave it alone. Xp

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  • How do I duplicate Facebook picture tagging functionality?

    - by marcamillion
    I asked this question in another post - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2597773/how-do-i-put-a-div-box-around-my-cursor-on-click I got a wonderful answer. See the code below: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#image-wrapper").click(function(e){ var ele = $("<div>"); ele.css({width:"50px", height:"50px", border:"1px solid green", position:"absolute", left: e.pageX - 25, top: e.pageY -25}); $("body").append(ele); }); }); </script> <div id="image-wrapper" style="border: 1px solid red; width: 300px; height: 200px;"> </div> The issue I am having is that when I implement this snippet, on every click a box appears and stays there. So if I click on the image 10 times, I get 10 boxes. How do I get the previous box to disappear once I click somewhere else (i.e. have the box move to another place on the image (just like with Facebook Picture Tagging))? Thanks.

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  • How can I stop an auto-generated Linq to SQL class from loading ALL data?

    - by Gary McGill
    DUPLICATE of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2433422/how-can-i-stop-an-auto-generated-linq-to-sql-class-from-loading-all-data post answers there! I have an ASP.NET MVC project, much like the NerdDinner tutorial example. (I'm using MVC 2, but followed the NerdDinner tutorial in order to create it). As per the instructions in part 3 of the tutorial, I've created a Linq-to-SQL model of my database by creating a "Linq to SQL Classes" (.dbml) surface, and dropping my database tables onto it. The designer has automatically added relationships between the generated classes based on my database tables. Let's say that my classes are as per the NerdDinner example, so I have Dinner and RSVP tables, where each Dinner record is associated with many RSVP records - hence in the generated classes, the Dinner object has a RSVPs property which is a list of RSVP objects. My problem is this: it appears (and I'd be gladly proved wrong on this) that as soon as I access a Dinner object, it's loading all of the corresponding RSVP objects, even if I don't use the RSVPs member. First question: is this really the default behavior for the generated classes? In my particular situation, the object graph contains many more tables (which have an order of magnitude more records), and so this is disastrous behaviour - I'd be loading tons of data when all I want to do is show the details of a single parent record. Second question: are there any properties exposed through the designer UI that would let me modify this behavior? (I can't find any). Third question: I've seen a description of how to control the loading of related records in a DataContext by using a DataShape object associated with the DataContext. Is that what I'm meant to do, and if so are there any tutorials like the NerdDinner one that would show not only how to do it, but also suggest a 'pattern' for normal use?

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  • Play multiple audio files using AVAudioPlayer

    - by inScript09
    Hi all, I am planning on releasing 10 of my song recordings for free but bundled in an iphone app. They are not available on web or itunes or anywhere as of now. I am new to iphone sdk (latest) as you can imagine, so I have been going through the developer documentation, various forums and stackoverflow to learn. Apple's avTouch sample application was a great start. But I want my app to play all the 10 tracks one by one. All the songs are added to resources folder and are named as track1, track2...track10. In the avTouch app code I can see the following 2 parts which is where I think I need to make changes to achieve what I am looking for. But I am lost. // Load the array with the sample file NSURL *fileURL = [[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath: [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"sample" ofType:@"m4a"]]; - (void)audioPlayerDidFinishPlaying:(AVAudioPlayer *)player successfully:(BOOL)flag { if (flag == NO) NSLog(@"Playback finished unsuccessfully"); [player setCurrentTime:0.]; [self updateViewForPlayerState]; } can anyone please help me on 1. how to load the array with all the 10 tracks which are added to resources folder 2. and when I hit play, player should start the first track. when the 1st track ends 2nd track should start and so on for the remaining tracks. Thank You

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  • "Public" nested classes or not

    - by Frederick
    Suppose I have a class 'Application'. In order to be initialised it takes certain settings in the constructor. Let's also assume that the number of settings is so many that it's compelling to place them in a class of their own. Compare the following two implementations of this scenario. Implementation 1: class Application { Application(ApplicationSettings settings) { //Do initialisation here } } class ApplicationSettings { //Settings related methods and properties here } Implementation 2: class Application { Application(Application.Settings settings) { //Do initialisation here } class Settings { //Settings related methods and properties here } } To me, the second approach is very much preferable. It is more readable because it strongly emphasises the relation between the two classes. When I write code to instantiate Application class anywhere, the second approach is going to look prettier. Now just imagine the Settings class itself in turn had some similarly "related" class and that class in turn did so too. Go only three such levels and the class naming gets out out of hand in the 'non-nested' case. If you nest, however, things still stay elegant. Despite the above, I've read people saying on StackOverflow that nested classes are justified only if they're not visible to the outside world; that is if they are used only for the internal implementation of the containing class. The commonly cited objection is bloating the size of containing class's source file, but partial classes is the perfect solution for that problem. My question is, why are we wary of the "publicly exposed" use of nested classes? Are there any other arguments against such use?

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  • JQuery Cycle fails on Page Refresh

    - by Darknight
    In a similar issue as this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1719475/jquery-cycle-firefox-squishing-images I've managed to overcome the initial problem using Jeffs answer in the above link. However now I have noticed a new bug, upon page refresh it simply does not work. I have tried a hard refresh (ctrl+F5) but this does not work. However when you come page to the page it loads fine. here is my modified version (taken from Jeff's): <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var imagesRemaining = $('#slideshow img').length; $('#slideshow img').bind('load', function(e) { imagesRemaining = imagesRemaining - 1; if (imagesRemaining == 0) { $('#slideshow').show(); $('#slideshow').cycle({ fx: 'shuffle', speed: 1200 }); } }); }); </script> Any ideas? I've also tried JQuery Live but could not implement it correctly. I've also tried Meta tags to force images to load. But it only works first time round.

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  • Sending mail issues. very confusing

    - by Dejan.S
    Hi my name is what, my name is who.. ops got carried away Now this might be a serverfault question and a stackoverflow question but I will go with it here because I don't really know the answer. I been sending mail a lot with asp.net before and never had problems like this before. I have setup a mail with this following code var list = new List<string> { "mail", "mail", "mail", "mail" }; var smtp = new SmtpClient("localhost", 25); var plainText = txtPlain.Text; var htmlText = Server.HtmlDecode(FCKeditor1.Value); foreach (var email in list) { var message = new MailMessage() { From = new MailAddress("my server mail"), ReplyTo = new MailAddress("mail") }; var mailMessage = Server.HtmlDecode(FCKeditor1.Value); message.To.Add(email); message.Subject = "Hi Enzorit"; message.Body = mailMessage; message.IsBodyHtml = true; message.BodyEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.GetEncoding("iso-8859-2"); var alternateViewHtml = AlternateView.CreateAlternateViewFromString(htmlText, null, MediaTypeNames.Text.Html); var alternateViewPlainText = AlternateView.CreateAlternateViewFromString(plainText, null, MediaTypeNames.Text.Plain); message.AlternateViews.Add(alternateViewHtml); message.AlternateViews.Add(alternateViewPlainText); smtp.Send(message); } now the issue becomes that some email clients get just plain while some get the html. Like on my hotmail on the computer i get the html but on my iphone i get the plain one. Why is that? and like that wasn't enough The mail wont deliver to some mails like any .pl email. Now here is where I am thinking that it might be a reverse DNS setup thing on my windows server 2008 issue + some company mails, it becomes spam, i had same issue with hotmail but that was solved when I added the plain. Anybody have had the problem before? I am very thankful for any answer I get.. thanks

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  • Investigating the root cause behind SharePoint's "request not found in the TrackedRequests"

    - by Muhimbi
    We have a long standing issue in our bug tracking system about the dreaded "ERROR: request not found in the TrackedRequests. We might be creating and closing webs on different threads." message in SharePoint's trace log. As we develop Workflow software for the SharePoint market, we look into this issue from time to time to make sure it is not caused by our products. I have personally come to the conclusion that this is a problem in SharePoint, but perhaps someone else can prove me wrong. Here is what I know: According to the hundreds of search results returned by Google on this topic, this issue appears to be mainly related to SharePoint Workflows, both SharePoint Designer and Visual Studio based workflows. Assuming ULS logging is set to Monitorable, the easiest way to reproduce this problem is to create a new SharePoint Designer Workflow, attach it to a document library, set it to auto start on add/update, don't add any actions, save the workflow and upload a file to the document library. The error is only visible in the SharePoint trace log, it does not appear to impact the execution of the workflow at hand. I have verified that the problem occurs on 32 bit as well as 64 bit systems, Win2K3 and 2K8, WSS and MOSS with SharePoint versions up to the December 2009 Cumulative Update (6524). The problem does not occur when a workflow is started manually. There are dozens of related posts on MSDN Forums, hundreds on Google, one on StackOverflow and none on SharePoint Overflow. There appears to be no answer. Does anyone have any idea about what is going on, what is causing this and if we should worry or file this under 'Red Herrings'.

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  • RDP through TCP Proxy

    - by johng100
    Hi, First time in Stackoverflow and I'm hoping someone can help me. I'm looking at a proof of concept to pass RDP traffic through a TCP Proxy/tunnel which will pass through firewalls using HTTPS. The problem has to do with deploying images to machines and so it can't be assumed that the .NET framework will be present, so C++ is being used at the deployment end of a connection. The basic system I have at present is a program which listens for client connections on a port then passes any data to a WCF service which stores it as a byte array. A deployment machine (using GSoap and C++) polls the WCF service for messages and if it finds them then passes the data onto the target server process via sockets. I know this sounds horrible, but it works for simple test clients and server passing data to and from simple test client and server programs via this WCF/C++/C# proxy layer. But I have to support traffic from RDP, VNC and possibly others, so I need a transparent proxy to do this and am wondering whether the above approach is worth pursuing. I've read up on SSH tunneling and that seems a possibility. My basic question is is it possible to tunnel RDP traffic over HTTPS using custom code. Thanks John

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  • How to implement properly plugins in C#?

    - by MartyIX
    I'm trying to add plugins to my game and what I'm trying to implement is this: Plugins will be either mine or 3rd party's so I would like a solution where crashing of the plugin would not mean crashing of the main application. Methods of plugins are called very often (for example because of drawing of game objects). What I've found so far: 1) http://www.codeproject.com/KB/cs/pluginsincsharp.aspx - simple concept that seems like it should work nicely. Since plugins are used in my game for every round I would suffice to add the Restart() method and if a plugin is no longer needed Unload() method + GC should take care of that. 2) http://mef.codeplex.com/Wikipage - Managed Extensibility Framework - my program should work on .NET 3.5 and I don't want to add any other framework separately I want to write my plugin system myself. Therefore this solution is out of question. 3) Microsoft provides: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.addin.aspx but according to a few articles I've read it is very complex. 4) Different AppDomains for plugins. According to Marc Gravell ( http://stackoverflow.com/questions/665668/usage-of-appdomain-in-c ) different AppDomains allow isolation. Unloading of plugins would be easy. What would the performance load be? I need to call methods of plugins very often (to draw objects for example). Using Application Domains - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/yb506139.aspx A few tutorials on java2s.com Could you please comment on my findings? New approaches are also welcomed! Thanks!

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  • Maintain one to one mapping between objects

    - by Rohan West
    Hi there, i have the following two classes that provide a one to one mapping between each other. How do i handle null values, when i run the second test i get a stackoverflow exception. How can i stop this recursive cycle? Thanks [TestMethod] public void SetY() { var x = new X(); var y = new Y(); x.Y = y; Assert.AreSame(x.Y, y); Assert.AreSame(y.X, x); } [TestMethod] public void SetYToNull() { var x = new X(); var y = new Y(); x.Y = y; y.X = null; Assert.IsNull(x.Y); Assert.IsNull(y.X); } public class X { private Y _y; public Y Y { get { return _y; } set { if(_y != value) { if(_y != null) { _y.X = null; } _y = value; if(_y != null) { _y.X = this; } } } } } public class Y { private X _x; public X X { get { return _x; } set { if (_x != value) { if (_x != null) { _x.Y = null; } _x = value; if (_x != null) { _x.Y = this; } } } } }

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  • jQuery eval of ajax inline script not throwing errors

    - by Josh
    http://stackoverflow.com/questions/606794/debugging-ajax-code-with-firebug This question is quite similar, though old and without real answers. I'm currently putting together an app that has scripts that get loaded in with an ajax request. An example: var main = _main.get(); main.load( someurl ); Where someurl is a page that contains an inline script element: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function(){ var activities = new activities(); activities.init(); }); </script> jQuery will do a line by line eval of js that lives in inline script tags. The problem is, I get no errors or any information whatsoever in firebug when something goes awry. Does anyone have a good solution for this? Or a better practice for loading pages which contain javascript functionality? Edit: A little progress... so at the top of the page that is being loaded in via ajax, I have another script that was being included like this: <script type="text/javascript" src="javascript/pages/activities.js"></script> When I moved the inline $(document).ready() code in the page to the end of this included file, instead, syntax errors were now properly getting thrown. As an aside, I threw a console.log() into the inline script tag, and it was being logged just fine. I also tried removing the $(document).ready() altogether, and also switching it out for a $(window).load() event. No difference. May have something to do with the inline scripts dependency on the included activities.js, I guess. :: shakes head :: javascript can be a nightmare.

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  • PHP5 : Applying a method from an extended class on an object from the original (parent) class.

    - by Glauber Rocha
    Hello, I'm trying to extend two native PHP5 classes (DOMDocument and DOMNode) to implement 2 methods (selectNodes and selectSingleNode) in order to make XPath queries easier. I thought it would be rather straighforward, but I'm stuck in a problem which I think is an OOP beginner's issue. class nDOMDocument extends DOMDocument { public function selectNodes($xpath){ $oxpath = new DOMXPath($this); return $oxpath->query($xpath); } public function selectSingleNode($xpath){ return $this->selectNodes($xpath)->item(0); } } Then I tried to do extend DOMNode to implement the same methods so I can perform an XPath query directly on a node: class nDOMNode extends DOMNode { public function selectNodes($xpath){ $oxpath = new DOMXPath($this->ownerDocument,$this); return $oxpath->query($xpath); } public function selectSingleNode($xpath){ return $this->selectNodes($xpath)->item(0); } } Now if I execute the following code (on an arbitrary XMLDocument): $xmlDoc = new nDOMDocument; $xmlDoc->loadXML(...some XML...); $node1 = $xmlDoc->selectSingleNode("//item[@id=2]"); $node2 = $node1->selectSingleNode("firstname"); The third line works and returns a DOMNode object $node1. However, the fourth line doesn't work because the selectSingleNode method belongs to the nDOMNode class, not DOMNode. So my question: is there a way at some point to "transform" the returned DOMNode object into a nDOMNode object? I feel I'm missing some essential point here and I'd greatly appreciate your help. (Sorry, this is a restatement of my question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2573820/)

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  • TextMate tips for Rails Development

    - by Ganesh Shankar
    Working on Rails code for a bit has started me on the spiral into obsessively customising my dev environment (I say obsessive as at the last Rails meetup I went to there was some guy who was raving about shaving milliseconds off each line of code and therefore upto half an hour a day... I hope I don't become that guy...) I spend most of my time in TextMate so it seemed like a great place to start the optimising... So far I've added a few TextMate bundles like Git Bundle, Project Plus and the theme from Railscasts. I've noticed some of the other TextMate users I've come into contact with using heaps of nifty keyboard shortcuts and other plugins to help make their dev environment more friendly. Looking around the net, I was a bit overwhelmed by the amount of shortcuts and plugins available... So I was hoping to hear from other Rails developers out there: What are some good keyboard shortcuts and plugins that I should be aware of for TextMate with specific reference to Rails Development? I've read this question on SO: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/99807/what-are-some-useful-textmate-shortcuts but I was wondering if there was something a bit more specific to Rails development.

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  • Blob in Java/Hibernate/sql-server 2005

    - by Ramy
    Hi, I'm trying to insert an HTML blob into our sql-server2005 database. i've been using the data-type [text] for the field the blob will eventually live in. i've also put a '@Lob' annotation on the field in the domain model. The problem comes in when the HTML blob I'm attempting to store is larger than 65536 characters. Its seems that is the caracter-limit for a text data type when using the @Lob annotation. Ideally I'd like to keep the whole blob in tact rather than chunk it up into multiple rows in the database. I appreciate any help or insight that might be provided. Thanks! _Ramy Allow me to clarify annotation: @Lob @Column(length = Integer. MAX_VALUE) //per an answer on stackoverflow private String htmlBlob; database side (sql-server-2005): CREATE TABLE dbo.IndustrySectorTearSheetBlob( ... htmlBlob text NULL ... ) Still seeing truncation after 65536 characters... EDIT: i've printed out the contents of all possible strings (only 10 right now) that would be inserted into the Database. Each string seems to contain all cahracters, judging by the fact that the close html tag is present at the end of the string....

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  • How can I get jQuery validation plugin Ketchup to stop an Ajax form submission when validation fails?

    - by Marshall Sontag
    I'm using Ruby on Rails, Formtastic gem, jQuery and ketchup to validate my form. I'm submitting the form created by Formtastic inside a modal box using ajax: <% semantic_form_remote_for @contact_form, :url => '/request/contact' do |f| %> I have a validation plugin verifying the fields on the form: $(document).ready(function() { $("#new_contact_form").ketchup(); }); The problem is that semantic_form_remote_for generates an onSubmit ajax request that the jQuery validation plugins won't prevent, since it's not a normal form submission. One question on stackoverflow suggests using :condition on the remote form declaration to fire a javascript function, but I can't do that since I'm not using a function, but rather relying on a jQuery handler. I also tried putting ketchup within a submit event handler: $(document).ready(function() { $("#new_contact_form").submit(function() { $('#new_contact_form').ketchup(); }); }); No luck. Form still submits. I also tried using the beforeSend option of jQuery.ajax: $(document).ready(function() { jQuery.ajax( { beforeSend: function(){ $('#new_contact_form').ketchup(); } }); }); Validation fires off, but form is still submitted. I switched to jQuery Validation plugin just to see if it was due to some limitation in Ketchup. It turns out that Validation has a submitHandler option: $(document).ready(function() { $('#new_contact_form').validate({ submitHandler: function(form) { jQuery.ajax({ data:jQuery.param(jQuery('#new_contact_form').serializeArray()), dataType:'script', type:'post', url:'/request/contact' }); return false; } }); }); This works when I use a regular semantic_form_for instead of semantic_form_remote_for, but alas, I would rather use Ketchup. Is Ketchup just woefully lacking? Am I forced to use jQuery Validation?

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  • Dynamic Connection Strings for Strongly Typed DataSet in a Class Library using App.Config

    - by Luc
    This is my first question on StackOverflow.com and I'm not sure if this is the correct way to do this. I found a similar question titled: Modifying the Data Source for the Strongly Typed Dataset Connection String. However, the answer provided is not working for me. I'm not able to comment on it because I don't have enough "reputation points" (again, I just signed up), and I didn't want to provide an "answer", because I don't know the correct answer. My problem is that I need to be able to modify the connection string inside the generated myproject.dll.config file, but doing so has no effect for me at all. My library still uses the default connection string that was setup at design time. I've tried everything I know to try, but still no luck. I've tried working around the issue using multiple different approaches, but still the problem persists. I can't find any help on the internet with my specific problem either. It would be great if somebody could shed some light as to why my modified config file isn't being read. Useful information: I'm using a Strongly Typed DataSet I don't know the actual connection string at design time. The app.config doesn't allow me to specify a 'User' scoped connection string. I'm tied to a class library (no Windows Forms) Thank you for any help! Luc

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