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  • JQuery/JavaScript confusion with Previous and Next buttons.

    - by Anders H
    I've got some inherited JQuery code that isn't working as I'd think and I'm just not even sure what to research or look up next. The Problem: I've got a few DIVs within the HTML: a container, a "frame" and the content. If the content is longer than the frame, it's cut off using overflow:hidden and a Next - button appears. The next button works correctly. However, there's also a previous button with similar code, but it does not work as expected and just displays whenever the next button does. Whenever either button is hidden, it will not reappear again when navigating back through the "pages". When the I may be overlooking something in the code, but here it is in full. The HTML: <div id="draggable" class="ui-widget-content"> <div id="draggable-title" class="cufon">about</div> <a id="draggable-close" href="javascript:void(0);"><div class="close-img icon"></div></a> <div class="clear"></div> <div id="draggable-frame"> <div id="draggable-content"> </div> </div> <a id="prevContent" href="javascript:void(0);">&laquo; previous</a><a id="nextContent" href="javascript:void(0);">next &raquo;</a> </div> The JavaScript: $(function() { $("#draggable").draggable(); }); $(document).ready(function(){ $("#draggable-frame").scrollTop(0); $("#prevContent").click(function(){ $("#draggable-content").fadeOut("medium"); setTimeout("showPrev()", 250); if($("#draggable-frame").scrollTop()+$("#draggable-frame").height() >= $("#draggable-content").height()) { $("#prevContent").hide(); } $("#draggable-content").fadeIn("medium"); }); $("#nextContent").click(function(){ $("#draggable-content").fadeOut("medium"); setTimeout("showNext()", 250); if($("#draggable-frame").scrollTop()+$("#draggable-frame").height() >= $("#draggable-content").height()) { $("#nextContent").hide(); } $("#draggable-content").fadeIn("medium"); }); $("#draggable-close").click(function(){ $("#draggable").fadeOut("medium"); }); $("#prevContent").hide(); $("#nextContent").hide(); showContent("about"); $(".opener").click(function(){ $("#draggable-frame").scrollTop(0); $("#draggable").fadeIn("medium"); showContent($(this).attr("title")); }); }); // function showPrev() { $("#draggable-frame").scrollTop($("#draggable-frame").scrollTop() - $("#draggable-frame").height()); } // function showNext() { $("#draggable-frame").scrollTop($("#draggable-frame").scrollTop() + $("#draggable-frame").height()); } function showContent(title) { $("#draggable-title").html(title); $("#draggable-content").html($("#"+title).html()); Cufon.replace('.cufon', { fontFamily: 'cav', hover: true }); $("#nextContent").hide(); $("#prevContent").hide(); if($("#draggable-content").height() > $("#draggable-frame").height()) { $("#nextContent").show(); } if($("#draggable-content").height() > $("#draggable-frame").height()) { $("#prevContent").show(); } } Even just point me in the right direction to research would be a big help right now. Thank you.

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  • C#: Inheritence, Overriding, and Hiding

    - by Rosarch
    I'm having difficulty with an architectural decision for my C# XNA game. The basic entity in the world, such as a tree, zombie, or the player, is represented as a GameObject. Each GameObject is composed of at least a GameObjectController, GameObjectModel, and GameObjectView. These three are enough for simple entities, like inanimate trees or rocks. However, as I try to keep the functionality as factored out as possible, the inheritance begins to feel unwieldy. Syntactically, I'm not even sure how best to accomplish my goals. Here is the GameObjectController: public class GameObjectController { protected GameObjectModel model; protected GameObjectView view; public GameObjectController(GameObjectManager gameObjectManager) { this.gameObjectManager = gameObjectManager; model = new GameObjectModel(this); view = new GameObjectView(this); } public GameObjectManager GameObjectManager { get { return gameObjectManager; } } public virtual GameObjectView View { get { return view; } } public virtual GameObjectModel Model { get { return model; } } public virtual void Update(long tick) { } } I want to specify that each subclass of GameObjectController will have accessible at least a GameObjectView and GameObjectModel. If subclasses are fine using those classes, but perhaps are overriding for a more sophisticated Update() method, I don't want them to have to duplicate the code to produce those dependencies. So, the GameObjectController constructor sets those objects up. However, some objects do want to override the model and view. This is where the trouble comes in. Some objects need to fight, so they are CombatantGameObjects: public class CombatantGameObject : GameObjectController { protected new readonly CombatantGameModel model; public new virtual CombatantGameModel Model { get { return model; } } protected readonly CombatEngine combatEngine; public CombatantGameObject(GameObjectManager gameObjectManager, CombatEngine combatEngine) : base(gameObjectManager) { model = new CombatantGameModel(this); this.combatEngine = combatEngine; } public override void Update(long tick) { if (model.Health <= 0) { gameObjectManager.RemoveFromWorld(this); } base.Update(tick); } } Still pretty simple. Is my use of new to hide instance variables correct? Note that I'm assigning CombatantObjectController.model here, even though GameObjectController.Model was already set. And, combatants don't need any special view functionality, so they leave GameObjectController.View alone. Then I get down to the PlayerController, at which a bug is found. public class PlayerController : CombatantGameObject { private readonly IInputReader inputReader; private new readonly PlayerModel model; public new PlayerModel Model { get { return model; } } private float lastInventoryIndexAt; private float lastThrowAt; public PlayerController(GameObjectManager gameObjectManager, IInputReader inputReader, CombatEngine combatEngine) : base(gameObjectManager, combatEngine) { this.inputReader = inputReader; model = new PlayerModel(this); Model.Health = Constants.PLAYER_HEALTH; } public override void Update(long tick) { if (Model.Health <= 0) { gameObjectManager.RemoveFromWorld(this); for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++) { Debug.WriteLine("YOU DEAD SON!!!"); } return; } UpdateFromInput(tick); // .... } } The first time that this line is executed, I get a null reference exception: model.Body.ApplyImpulse(movementImpulse, model.Position); model.Position looks at model.Body, which is null. This is a function that initializes GameObjects before they are deployed into the world: public void Initialize(GameObjectController controller, IDictionary<string, string> data, WorldState worldState) { controller.View.read(data); controller.View.createSpriteAnimations(data, _assets); controller.Model.read(data); SetUpPhysics(controller, worldState, controller.Model.BoundingCircleRadius, Single.Parse(data["x"]), Single.Parse(data["y"]), bool.Parse(data["isBullet"])); } Every object is passed as a GameObjectController. Does that mean that if the object is really a PlayerController, controller.Model will refer to the base's GameObjectModel and not the PlayerController's overriden PlayerObjectModel?

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  • CSS: Labels in table columns

    - by hello
    Hello. BACKGROUND: I would like to have small labels in columns of a table. I'm using some implemented parts of HTML5/CSS3 in my project, and this section specifically is for mobile devices. While both facts are not necessarily relevant, the bottom line is that I don't have to support Internet Explorer or even Firefox for that matter (just WebKit). THE PROBLEM With my current CSS approach, the vertical padding of the cell comes from the <span element (set to display: block with top/bottom margins), which contains the "value" of the column. As a result there's no padding when the <span> is empty or missing (no value) and the label is not in place. The "full" coulmns should give you the idea of where I want the labels to be, even if there's no value, and the <span> is not there. I realize that I could use "non-breaking-space", but I would really like to avoid it. I wonder if any of you have a fix / better way to do this? current code is below. Thank you for any help. <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <title>ah</title> <style> body { width: 320px; } /* TABLE */ table { width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; font-family: arial; } th, td { border: 1px solid #ccc; border-width: 0px 0px 1px 1px; } th:last-child, td:last-child { border-right-width: 1px; } tr:first-child th { border-top-width: 1px; background: #efefef; } /* RELEVANT STUFF */ td { padding: 3px; } td sup { display: block; } td span { display: block; margin: 3px 0px; text-align: center; } </style> </head> <body> <table> <tr> <th colspan="3">something</th> </tr> <tr> <td><sup>some label</sup><span>any content</span></td> <td><sup>some label</sup><span>any content</span></td> <td><sup>some label</sup><span></span></td><!-- No content, just a label --> </tr> </table> </body> </html>

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  • Mercurial "hg clone" on Windows via ssh with plink issue

    - by Kyle Tolle
    I have a Windows Server 2008 machine (iis7) that has CopSSH set up on it. To connect to it, I have a Windows 7 machine with Mercurial 1.5.1 (and TortoiseHg) installed. I can connect to the server using PuTTY with a non-standard ssh port and a .ppk file just fine. So I know the server can be SSH'd into. Next, I wanted to use the CLI to connect via hg clone to get a private repo. I've seen elsewhere that you need to have ssh configured in your mercurial.ini file, so my mercurial.ini has a line: ssh = plink.exe -ssh -C -l username -P #### -i "C:/Program Files/PuTTY/Key Files/KyleKey.ppk" Note: username is filled in with the username I set up via copSSH. #### is filled in with the non-standard ssh port I've defined for copSSH. I try to do the command hg clone ssh://inthom.com but I get this error: remote: bash: inthom.com: command not found abort: no suitable response from remote hg! It looks like hg or plink parses the hostname such that it thinks that inthom.com is a command instead of the server to ssh to. That's really odd. Next, I tried to just use plink to connect by plink -P #### ssh://inthom.com, and I am then prompted for my username, and next password. I enter them both and then I get this error: bash: ssh://inthom.com: No such file or directory So now it looks like plink doesn't parse the hostname correctly. I fiddled around for a while trying to figure out how to do call hg clone with an empty ssh:// field and eventually figured out that this command allows me to reach the server and clone a test repo on the inthom.com server: hg clone ssh://!/Repos/test ! is the character I've found that let's me leave the hostname blank, but specify the repo folder to clone. What I really don't understand is how plink knows what server to ssh to at all. neither my mercurial.ini nor the command specify a server. None of the hg clone examples I've seen have a ! character. They all use an address, which makes sense, so you can connect to any repo via ssh that you want to clone. My only guess is that it somehow defaults to the last server I used PuTTY to SSH to, but I SSH'd into another server, and then tried to use plink to get to it, but plink still defaults to inthom.com (verified with the -v arg to plink). So I am at a loss as to how plink gets this server value at all. For "fun", I tried using TortoiseHg and can only clone a repo when I use ssh://!/Repos/test as the Source. Now, you can see that, since plink doesn't parse the hostname correctly, I had to specify the port number and username in the mercurial.ini file, instead of in the hostname like [email protected]:#### like you'd expect to. Trying to figure this out at first drove me insane, because I would get errors that the host couldn't be reached, which I knew shouldn't be the case. My question is how can I configure my setup so that ssh://[email protected]:####/Repos/test is parsed correctly as the username, hostname, port number, and repo to copy? Is it something wrong with the version of plink that I'm using, or is there some setting I may have messed up? If it is plink's fault, is there an alternative tool I can use? I'm going to try to get my friend set up to connect to this same repo, so I'd like to have a clean solution instead of this ! business. Especially when I have no idea how plink gets this default server, so I'm not sure if he'd even be able to get to inthom.com correctly. PS. I've had to use a ton of different tutorials to even get to this stage. Therefore, I haven't tried pushing any changes to the server yet. Hopefully I'll get this figured out and then I can try pushing changes to the repo.

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  • A format for storing personal contacts in a database

    - by Gart
    I'm thinking of the best way to store personal contacts in a database for a business application. The traditional and straightforward approach would be to create a table with columns for each element, i.e. Name, Telephone Number, Job title, Address, etc... However, there are known industry standards for this kind of data, like for example vCard, or hCard, or vCard-RDF/XML or even Windows Contacts XML Schema. Utilizing an standard format would offer some benefits, like inter-operablilty with other systems. But how can I decide which method to use? The requirements are mainly to store the data. Search and ordering queries are highly unlikely but possible. The volume of the data is 100,000 records at maximum. My database engine supports native XML columns. I have been thinking to use some XML-based format to store the personal contacts. Then it will be possible to utilize XML indexes on this data, if searching and ordering is needed. Is this a good approach? Which contacts format and schema would you recommend for this? Edited after first answers Here is why I think the straightforward approach is bad. This is due to the nature of this kind of data - it is not that simple. The personal contacts it is not well-structured data, it may be called semi-structured. Each contact may have different data fields, maybe even such fields which I cannot anticipate. In my opinion, each piece of this data should be treated as important information, i.e. no piece of data could be discarded just because there was no relevant column in the database. If we took it further, assuming that no data may be lost, then we could create a big text column named Comment or Description or Other and put there everything which cannot be fitted well into table columns. But then again - the data would lose structure - this might be bad. If we wanted structured data then - according to the database design principles - the data should be decomposed into entities, and relations should be established between the entities. But this adds complexity - there are just too many entities, and lots of design desicions should be made, like "How do we store Address? Personal Name? Phone number? How do we encode home phone numbers and mobile phone numbers? How about other contact info?.." The relations between entities are complex and multiple, and each relation is a table in the database. Each relation needs to be documented in the design papers. That is a lot of work to do. But it is possible to avoid the complexity entirely - just document that the data is stored according to such and such standard schema, period. Then anybody who would be reading that document should easily understand what it was all about. Finally, this is all about using an industry standard. The standard is, hopefully, designed by some clever people who anticipated and described the structure of personal contacts information much better than I ever could. Why should we all reinvent the wheel?? It's much easier to use a standard schema. The problem is, there are just too many standards - it's not easy to decide which one to use!

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  • Does anyone know how to appropriately deal with user timezones in rails 2.3?

    - by Amazing Jay
    We're building a rails app that needs to display dates (and more importantly, calculate them) in multiple timezones. Can anyone point me towards how to work with user timezones in rails 2.3(.5 or .8) The most inclusive article I've seen detailing how user time zones are supposed to work is here: http://wiki.rubyonrails.org/howtos/time-zones... although it is unclear when this was written or for what version of rails. Specifically it states that: "Time.zone - The time zone that is actually used for display purposes. This may be set manually to override config.time_zone on a per-request basis." Keys terms being "display purposes" and "per-request basis". Locally on my machine, this is true. However on production, neither are true. Setting Time.zone persists past the end of the request (to all subsequent requests) and also affects the way AR saves to the DB (basically treating any date as if it were already in UTC even when its not), thus saving completely inappropriate values. We run Ruby Enterprise Edition on production with passenger. If this is my problem, do we need to switch to JRuby or something else? To illustrate the problem I put the following actions in my ApplicationController right now: def test p_time = Time.now.utc s_time = Time.utc(p_time.year, p_time.month, p_time.day, p_time.hour) logger.error "TIME.ZONE" + Time.zone.inspect logger.error ENV['TZ'].inspect logger.error p_time.inspect logger.error s_time.inspect jl = JunkLead.create! jl.date_at = s_time logger.error s_time.inspect logger.error jl.date_at.inspect jl.save! logger.error s_time.inspect logger.error jl.date_at.inspect render :nothing => true, :status => 200 end def test2 Time.zone = 'Mountain Time (US & Canada)' logger.error "TIME.ZONE" + Time.zone.inspect logger.error ENV['TZ'].inspect render :nothing => true, :status => 200 end def test3 Time.zone = 'UTC' logger.error "TIME.ZONE" + Time.zone.inspect logger.error ENV['TZ'].inspect render :nothing => true, :status => 200 end and they yield the following: Processing ApplicationController#test (for 98.202.196.203 at 2010-12-24 22:15:50) [GET] TIME.ZONE#<ActiveSupport::TimeZone:0x2c57a68 @tzinfo=#<TZInfo::DataTimezone: Etc/UTC>, @name="UTC", @utc_offset=0> nil Fri Dec 24 22:15:50 UTC 2010 Fri Dec 24 22:00:00 UTC 2010 Fri Dec 24 22:00:00 UTC 2010 Fri, 24 Dec 2010 22:00:00 UTC +00:00 Fri Dec 24 22:00:00 UTC 2010 Fri, 24 Dec 2010 22:00:00 UTC +00:00 Completed in 21ms (View: 0, DB: 4) | 200 OK [http://www.dealsthatmatter.com/test] Processing ApplicationController#test2 (for 98.202.196.203 at 2010-12-24 22:15:53) [GET] TIME.ZONE#<ActiveSupport::TimeZone:0x2c580a8 @tzinfo=#<TZInfo::DataTimezone: America/Denver>, @name="Mountain Time (US & Canada)", @utc_offset=-25200> nil Completed in 143ms (View: 1, DB: 3) | 200 OK [http://www.dealsthatmatter.com/test2] Processing ApplicationController#test (for 98.202.196.203 at 2010-12-24 22:15:59) [GET] TIME.ZONE#<ActiveSupport::TimeZone:0x2c580a8 @tzinfo=#<TZInfo::DataTimezone: America/Denver>, @name="Mountain Time (US & Canada)", @utc_offset=-25200> nil Fri Dec 24 22:15:59 UTC 2010 Fri Dec 24 22:00:00 UTC 2010 Fri Dec 24 22:00:00 UTC 2010 Fri, 24 Dec 2010 15:00:00 MST -07:00 Fri Dec 24 22:00:00 UTC 2010 Fri, 24 Dec 2010 15:00:00 MST -07:00 Completed in 20ms (View: 0, DB: 4) | 200 OK [http://www.dealsthatmatter.com/test] Processing ApplicationController#test3 (for 98.202.196.203 at 2010-12-24 22:16:03) [GET] TIME.ZONE#<ActiveSupport::TimeZone:0x2c57a68 @tzinfo=#<TZInfo::DataTimezone: Etc/UTC>, @name="UTC", @utc_offset=0> nil Completed in 17ms (View: 0, DB: 2) | 200 OK [http://www.dealsthatmatter.com/test3] Processing ApplicationController#test (for 98.202.196.203 at 2010-12-24 22:16:04) [GET] TIME.ZONE#<ActiveSupport::TimeZone:0x2c57a68 @tzinfo=#<TZInfo::DataTimezone: Etc/UTC>, @name="UTC", @utc_offset=0> nil Fri Dec 24 22:16:05 UTC 2010 Fri Dec 24 22:00:00 UTC 2010 Fri Dec 24 22:00:00 UTC 2010 Fri, 24 Dec 2010 22:00:00 UTC +00:00 Fri Dec 24 22:00:00 UTC 2010 Fri, 24 Dec 2010 22:00:00 UTC +00:00 Completed in 151ms (View: 0, DB: 4) | 200 OK [http://www.dealsthatmatter.com/test] It should be clear above that the 2nd call to /test shows Time.zone set to Mountain, even though it shouldn't. Additionally, checking the database reveals that the test action when run after test2 saved a JunkLead record with a date of 2010-12-22 15:00:00, which is clearly wrong.

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  • Temporary "Backup" of SharePoint Content During Feature and Solution Deployment

    - by ccomet
    I need to decide on a method for storing a subset of the content in a SharePoint site, so that when I delete and recreate certain lists as part of a feature activation, I can re-insert all of this content back where it should belong. I have an idea myself, but I don't know if it's the only method and more importantly, the right method. My client has me creating a SharePoint system for them to communicate with their clients. The business process has maybe 5 stages in it (maybe it's more, I don't even know because they don't tell me everything), and the current system I've written over the past months is maybe 2 stages through. This meets our deadline of completing those systems by Monday next week... but at that point my client is planning on making the site live from that point. In effect, their work with their clients will be running parallel with my work for them. As I complete my own work on a separate test server, I'll push each following stage of the process onto the live server. Scheduled downtimes during non-business times (like a weekend) will be available for me to perform these pushes. Keeping pace so that my development is faster than the actual business process is my own problem and off-topic... so let's get back to the problem I stated at the start of this post. In this system, we have sets of features which will create lists for their associated content types and field types when activated, and delete these lists when the feature is deactivated. Most updates don't need to deactivate and reactivate these features, such as workflow changes, custom actions, custom forms, and similar ilk. But there are some parts which do require this. On my test server, it's okay for me to obliterate lists, but once the site is live and there's real correspondence data, it's absolutely unacceptable to do this. So when I need to implement a new change in functionality, I need to be able to store the currently present data in several lists, deactivate the feature, reactivate the feature, and restore all of this data. Perhaps I have hoist myself by my own petard with the feature system I implemented. Unfortunately, the necessity to later on make several of these "project sites" meant I had to do a lot of my code with the concept of "Can be deployed repeatedly" in mind. My current plan is to run through lists and libraries which will be affected by the particular feature that is to be reset. Files and all of their versions will be saved in a directory on the server. Then, a set of text files will be used to store all of the important field values for the items. This includes a lot of cross-list reference lookups that will need to be maintained, but that's simple enough. Then, I deactivate the feature, deploy the new solution, and reactivate the feature. We upload all of the files in the order specified by their versions and update them with the stored fields for those versions, so that we retain the version structure. As each one is first uploaded, the new ID is picked out, and all relevant lookups in the rest of the files are updated (in some manner that I make sure I don't re-update it later with an incorrect value, of course). After that, we run through all the rest of the items in the order most conducive to keeping the relational data correct. This roughly summarizes what my current plan is. To my advantage, there are no long running workflows in the system that will be affected by this, so there's nothing I will have to worry about making sure nothing is "still running" when I do this stuff. I don't really know all the cons of this approach... I can imagine they're quite hefty. But I'm unsure what other choices I even have, and my searches haven't turned up anything. Is there anyone who can think of a better idea? Or will anyone just tell me that I really have no other choice? Thanks in advance!

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  • Windows NT Service shutdown issues

    - by Jeremiah Gowdy
    I have developed middleware that provides RPC functionality to multiple client applications on multiple platforms within our organization. The middleware is written in C# and runs as a Windows NT Service. It handles things like file access to network shares, database access, etc. The middleware is hosted on two high end systems running Windows Server 2008 R2. When one of our server administrators goes to reboot the machine, primarily to do Windows Updates, there are serious problems with how the system behaves in regards to my NT Service. My service is designed to immediately stop listening for new connections, immediately start refusing new requests on existing connections, and otherwise shut down as rapidly as possible in the case of an OnStop or OnShutdown request from the SCM. Still, to maintain system integrity, operations that are currently in progress are allowed to continue for a reasonable time. Usually the server shuts down inside of 30 seconds (when the service is manually stopped for example). However, when the system is instructed to restart, my service immediately loses access to network drives and UNC paths, causing data integrity problems for any open files and partial writes to those locations. My service does list Workstation (and thus SMB Redirector) as a dependency, so I would think that my service would need to be stopped prior to Workstation/Redirector being stopped if Windows were honoring those dependencies. Basically, my application is forced to crash and burn, failing remote procedure calls and eventually being forced to terminate by the operating system after a timeout period has elapsed (seems to be on the order of 20-30 seconds). Unlike a Windows application, my Windows NT Service doesn't seem to have any power to stop a system shutdown in progress, delay the system shutdown, or even just the opportunity to save out any pending network share disk writes before being forcibly disconnected and shutdown. How is an NT Service developer supposed to have any kind of application integrity in this environment? Why is it that Forms Applications get all of the opportunity to finish their business prior to shutdown, while services seem to get no such benefits? I have tried: Calling SetProcessShutdownParameters via p/invoke to try to notify my application of the shutdown sooner to avoid Redirector shutting down before I do. Calling ServiceBase.RequestAdditionalTime with a value less than or equal to the two minute limit. Tweaking the WaitToKillServiceTimeout Everything I can think of to make my service shutdown faster. But in the end, I still get ~30 seconds of problematic time in which my service doesn't even seem to have been notified of an OnShutdown event yet, but requests are failing due to redirector no longer servicing my network share requests. How is this issue meant to be resolved? What can I do to delay or stop the shutdown, or at least be allowed to shut down my active tasks without Redirector services disappearing out from under me? I can understand what Microsoft is trying to do to prevent services from dragging their feet and showing shutdowns, but that seems like a great goal for Windows client operating systems, not for servers. I don't want my servers to shutdown fast, I want operational integrity and graceful shutdowns. Thanks in advance for any help you can provide. PS in regards to writing my own middleware, this is for a telephony application with sub-second "soft-realtime" response time requirements. It does make sense, and it's not a point I'm looking to debate. :)

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  • How to Get The Output Of a command terminated by a alarm() call.

    - by rockyurock
    Case 1 If I run below command i.e iperf in UL only, then i am able to capture the o/p in txt file @output = readpipe("iperf.exe -u -c 127.0.0.1 -p 5001 -b 3600k -t 10 -i 1"); open FILE, ">Misplay_DL.txt" or die $!; print FILE @output; close FILE; Case 2 When I run iperf in DL mode , as we know server will start listening in cont. mode like below even after getting data from client (Here i am using server and client on LAN) @output = system("iperf.exe -u -s -p 5001 -i 1"); on server side: D:\_IOT_SESSION_RELATED\SEEM_ELEMESNTS_AT_COMM_PORT_CONF\Tput_Related_Tools\AUTO MATION_APP_\AUTOMATION_UTILITYiperf.exe -u -s -p 5001 ------------------------------------------------------------ Server listening on UDP port 5001 Receiving 1470 byte datagrams UDP buffer size: 8.00 KByte (default) ------------------------------------------------------------ [1896] local 192.168.5.101 port 5001 connected with 192.168.5.101 port 4878 [ ID] Interval Transfer Bandwidth Jitter Lost/Total Datagrams [1896] 0.0- 2.0 sec 881 KBytes 3.58 Mbits/sec 0.000 ms 0/ 614 (0%) command prompt does not appear , process is contd... on client side: D:\_IOT_SESSION_RELATED\SEEM_ELEMESNTS_AT_COMM_PORT_CONF\Tput_Related_Tools\AUTO MATION_APP_\AUTOMATION_UTILITYiperf.exe -u -c 192.168.5.101 -p 5001 -b 3600k -t 2 -i 1 ------------------------------------------------------------ Client connecting to 192.168.5.101, UDP port 5001 Sending 1470 byte datagrams UDP buffer size: 8.00 KByte (default) ------------------------------------------------------------ [1880] local 192.168.5.101 port 4878 connected with 192.168.5.101 port 5001 [ ID] Interval Transfer Bandwidth [1880] 0.0- 1.0 sec 441 KBytes 3.61 Mbits/sec [1880] 1.0- 2.0 sec 439 KBytes 3.60 Mbits/sec [1880] 0.0- 2.0 sec 881 KBytes 3.58 Mbits/sec [1880] Server Report: [1880] 0.0- 2.0 sec 881 KBytes 3.58 Mbits/sec 0.000 ms 0/ 614 (0%) [1880] Sent 614 datagrams D:\_IOT_SESSION_RELATED\SEEM_ELEMESNTS_AT_COMM_PORT_CONF\Tput_Related_Tools\AUTO MATION_APP_\AUTOMATION_UTILITY so with this as server is cont. listening and never terminates so can't take output of server side to a txt file as it is going to the next command itself to create a txt file so i adopted the alarm() function to terminate the server side (iperf.exe -u -s -p 5001) commands after it received all data from the client. could anybody suggest me the way.. Here is my code: #! /usr/bin/perl -w my $command = "iperf.exe -u -s -p 5001"; my @output; eval { local $SIG{ALRM} = sub { die "Timeout\n" }; alarm 20; #@output = `$command`; #my @output = readpipe("iperf.exe -u -s -p 5001"); #my @output = exec("iperf.exe -u -s -p 5001"); my @output = system("iperf.exe -u -s -p 5001"); alarm 0; }; if ($@) { warn "$command timed out.\n"; } else { print "$command successful. Output was:\n", @output; } open FILE, ">display.txt" or die $!; print FILE @output_1; close FILE; i know that with system command i cannot capture the o/p to a txt file but i tried with readpipe() and exec() calls also but in vain... could some one please take a look and let me know why the iperf.exe -u -s -p 5001 is not terminating even after the alarm call and to take the out put to a txt file

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  • Qt, MSVC, and /Zc:wchar_t- == I want to blow up the world

    - by Noah Roberts
    So Qt is compiled with /Zc:wchar_t- on windows. What this means is that instead of wchar_t being a typedef for some internal type (__wchar_t I think) it becomes a typedef for unsigned short. The really cool thing about this is that the default for MSVC is the opposite, which of course means that the libraries you're using are likely compiled with wchar_t being a different type than Qt's wchar_t. This doesn't become an issue of course until you try to use something like std::wstring in your code; especially when one or more libraries have functions that accept it as parameters. What effectively happens is that your code happily compiles but then fails to link because it's looking for definitions using std::wstring<unsigned short...> but they only contain definitions expecting std::wstring<__wchar_t...> (or whatever). So I did some web searching and ran into this link: http://bugreports.qt.nokia.com/browse/QTBUG-6345 Based on the statement by Thiago Macieira, "Sorry, we will not support building Qt like this," I've been worried that fixing Qt to work like everything else might cause some problem and have been trying to avoid it. We recompiled all of our support libraries with the /Zc:wchar_t- flag and have been fairly content with that until a couple days ago when we started trying to port over (we're in the process of switching from Wx to Qt) some serialization code. Because of how win32 works, and because Wx just wraps win32, we've been using std::wstring to represent string data with the intent of making our product as i18n ready as possible. We did some testing and Wx did not work with multibyte characters when trying to print special stuff (even not so special stuff like the degree symbol was an issue). I'm not so sure that Qt has this problem since QString isn't just a wrapper to the underlying _TCHAR type but is a Unicode monster of some sort. At any rate, the serialization library in boost has compiled parts. We've attempted to recompile boost with /Zc:wchar_t- but so far our attempts to tell bjam to do this have gone unheeded. We're at an impasse. From where I'm sitting I have three options: Recompile Qt and hope it works with /Zc:wchar_t. There's some evidence around the web that others have done this but I have no way of predicting what will happen. All attempts to ask Qt people on forums and such have gone unanswered. Hell, even in that very bug report someone asks why and it just sat there for a year. Keep fighting with bjam until it listens. Right now I've got someone under me doing that and I have more experience fighting with things to get what I want but I do have to admit to getting rather tired of it. I'm also concerned that I'll KEEP running into this issue just because Qt wants to be a c**t. Stop using wchar_t for anything. Unfortunately my i18n experience is pretty much 0 but it seems to me that I just need to find the right to/from function in QString (it has a BUNCH) to encode the Unicode into 8-bytes and visa-versa. UTF8 functions look promising but I really want to be sure that no data will be lost if someone from Zimbabfuckegypt starts writing in their own language and the documentation in QString frightens me a little into thinking that could happen. Of course, I could always run into some library that insists I use wchar_t and then I'm back to 1 or 2 but I rather doubt that would happen. So, what's my question... Which of these options is my best bet? Is Qt going to eventually cause me to gouge out my own eyes because I decided to compile it with /Zc:wchar_t anyway? What's the magic incantation to get boost to build with /Zc:wchar_t- and will THAT cause permanent mental damage? Can I get away with just using the standard 8-bit (well, 'common' anyway) character classes and be i18n compliant/ready? How do other Qt developers deal with this mess?

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  • Domain Validation in a CQRS architecture

    - by Jupaol
    Basically I want to know if there is a better way to validate my domain entities. This is how I am planning to do it but I would like your opinion The first approach I considered was: class Customer : EntityBase<Customer> { public void ChangeEmail(string email) { if(string.IsNullOrWhitespace(email)) throw new DomainException(“...”); if(!email.IsEmail()) throw new DomainException(); if(email.Contains(“@mailinator.com”)) throw new DomainException(); } } I actually do not like this validation because even when I am encapsulating the validation logic in the correct entity, this is violating the Open/Close principle (Open for extension but Close for modification) and I have found that violating this principle, code maintenance becomes a real pain when the application grows up in complexity. Why? Because domain rules change more often than we would like to admit, and if the rules are hidden and embedded in an entity like this, they are hard to test, hard to read, hard to maintain but the real reason why I do not like this approach is: if the validation rules change, I have to come and edit my domain entity. This has been a really simple example but in RL the validation could be more complex So following the philosophy of Udi Dahan, making roles explicit, and the recommendation from Eric Evans in the blue book, the next try was to implement the specification pattern, something like this class EmailDomainIsAllowedSpecification : IDomainSpecification<Customer> { private INotAllowedEmailDomainsResolver invalidEmailDomainsResolver; public bool IsSatisfiedBy(Customer customer) { return !this.invalidEmailDomainsResolver.GetInvalidEmailDomains().Contains(customer.Email); } } But then I realize that in order to follow this approach I had to mutate my entities first in order to pass the value being valdiated, in this case the email, but mutating them would cause my domain events being fired which I wouldn’t like to happen until the new email is valid So after considering these approaches, I came out with this one, since I am going to implement a CQRS architecture: class EmailDomainIsAllowedValidator : IDomainInvariantValidator<Customer, ChangeEmailCommand> { public void IsValid(Customer entity, ChangeEmailCommand command) { if(!command.Email.HasValidDomain()) throw new DomainException(“...”); } } Well that’s the main idea, the entity is passed to the validator in case we need some value from the entity to perform the validation, the command contains the data coming from the user and since the validators are considered injectable objects they could have external dependencies injected if the validation requires it. Now the dilemma, I am happy with a design like this because my validation is encapsulated in individual objects which brings many advantages: easy unit test, easy to maintain, domain invariants are explicitly expressed using the Ubiquitous Language, easy to extend, validation logic is centralized and validators can be used together to enforce complex domain rules. And even when I know I am placing the validation of my entities outside of them (You could argue a code smell - Anemic Domain) but I think the trade-off is acceptable But there is one thing that I have not figured out how to implement it in a clean way. How should I use this components... Since they will be injected, they won’t fit naturally inside my domain entities, so basically I see two options: Pass the validators to each method of my entity Validate my objects externally (from the command handler) I am not happy with the option 1 so I would explain how I would do it with the option 2 class ChangeEmailCommandHandler : ICommandHandler<ChangeEmailCommand> { public void Execute(ChangeEmailCommand command) { private IEnumerable<IDomainInvariantValidator> validators; // here I would get the validators required for this command injected, and in here I would validate them, something like this using (var t = this.unitOfWork.BeginTransaction()) { var customer = this.unitOfWork.Get<Customer>(command.CustomerId); this.validators.ForEach(x =. x.IsValid(customer, command)); // here I know the command is valid // the call to ChangeEmail will fire domain events as needed customer.ChangeEmail(command.Email); t.Commit(); } } } Well this is it. Can you give me your thoughts about this or share your experiences with Domain entities validation EDIT I think it is not clear from my question, but the real problem is: Hiding the domain rules has serious implications in the future maintainability of the application, and also domain rules change often during the life-cycle of the app. Hence implementing them with this in mind would let us extend them easily. Now imagine in the future a rules engine is implemented, if the rules are encapsulated outside of the domain entities, this change would be easier to implement

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  • WinMo > ASMX WebException - how to get details?

    - by eidylon
    Okay, we've got an application which consists of a website hosting several ASMX webservices, and a handheld application running on WinMo 6.1 which calls the webservices. Been developing in the office, everything works perfect. Now we've gone to install it at the client's and we got all the servers set up and the handhelds installed. However the handhelds are now no longer able to connect to the webservice. I added in extra code in my error handler to specifically trap WebException exceptions and handle them differently in the logging to put out extra information (.Status and .Response). I am getting out the status, which is returning a [7], or ProtocolError. However when I try to read out the ResponseStream (using WebException.Response.GetResponseStream), it is returning a stream with CanRead set to False, and I thus am unable to get any further details of what is going wrong. So I guess there are two things I am asking for help with... a) Any help with trying to get more information out of the WebException? b) What could be causing a ProtocolError exception? Things get extra complicated by the fact that the client has a full-blown log-in-enabled proxy setup going on-site. This was stopping all access to the website initially, even from a browser. So we entered in the login details in the network connection for HTTP on the WinMo device. Now it can get to websites fine. In fact, I can even pull up the webservice fine and call the methods from the browser (PocketIE). So I know the device is able to see the webservices okay via HTTP. But when trying to call them from the .NET app, it throws ProtocolError [7]. Here is my code which is logging the exception and failing to read out the Response from the WebException. Public Sub LogEx(ByVal ex As Exception) Try Dim fn As String = Path.Combine(ini.CorePath, "error.log") Dim t = File.AppendText(fn) t.AutoFlush = True t.WriteLine(<s>===== <%= Format(GetDateTime(), "MM/dd/yyyy HH:mm:ss") %> =====<%= vbCrLf %><%= ex.Message %></s>.Value) t.WriteLine() t.WriteLine(ex.ToString) t.WriteLine() If TypeOf ex Is WebException Then With CType(ex, WebException) t.WriteLine("STATUS: " & .Status.ToString & " (" & Val(.Status) & ")") t.WriteLine("RESPONSE:" & vbCrLf & StreamToString(.Response.GetResponseStream())) End With End If t.WriteLine("=".Repeat(50)) t.WriteLine() t.Close() Catch ix As Exception : Alert(ix) : End Try End Sub Private Function StreamToString(ByVal s As IO.Stream) As String If s Is Nothing Then Return "No response found." // THIS IS THE CASE BEING EXECUTED If Not s.CanRead Then Return "Unreadable response found." Dim rv As String = String.Empty, bytes As Long, buffer(4096) As Byte Using mem As New MemoryStream() Do While True bytes = s.Read(buffer, 0, buffer.Length) mem.Write(buffer, 0, bytes) If bytes = 0 Then Exit Do Loop mem.Position = 0 ReDim buffer(mem.Length) mem.Read(buffer, 0, mem.Length) mem.Seek(0, SeekOrigin.Begin) rv = New StreamReader(mem).ReadToEnd() mem.Close() End Using Return rv.NullOf("Empty response found.") End Function Thanks in advance!

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  • Trouble displaying an object in WPF

    - by Scott
    I'm so new to this that I can't even phrase the question right... Anyway, I'm trying to do something very simple and have been unable to figure it out. I have the following class: public class Day : Control, INotifyPropertyChanged { public static readonly DependencyProperty DateProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Date", typeof(int), typeof(Day)); public int Date { get { return (int)GetValue(DateProperty); } set { SetValue(DateProperty, value); if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("Date")); } } } public static readonly DependencyProperty DayNameProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("DayName", typeof(String), typeof(Day)); public String DayName { get { return (String)GetValue(DayNameProperty); } set { SetValue(DayNameProperty, value); if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("DayName")); } } } static Day() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(Day), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(Day))); } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; #endregion } I've learned that you can't call a constructor that has parameters in XAML so the only way to actually set some data for this class is through the two properties, DayName and Date. I created a ControlTemplate for Day which is as follows: <Style TargetType="{x:Type con:Day}"> <Setter Property="MinHeight" Value="20"/> <Setter Property="MinWidth" Value="80"/> <Setter Property="Height" Value="20"/> <Setter Property="Width" Value="80"/> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type con:Day}"> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition/> <ColumnDefinition/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Rectangle Grid.ColumnSpan="2" x:Name="rectHasEntry" Fill="WhiteSmoke"/> <TextBlock Grid.Column="0" x:Name="textBlockDayName" Text="{TemplateBinding DayName}" FontFamily="Junction" FontSize="11" Background="Transparent" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="0,2,0,0"/> <TextBlock Grid.Column="1" x:Name="textBlockDate" Text="{TemplateBinding Date}" FontFamily="Junction" FontSize="11" Background="Transparent" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="0,2,0,0"/> <Rectangle Grid.ColumnSpan="2" x:Name="rectMouseOver" Fill="#A2C0DA" Opacity="0" Style="{StaticResource DayRectangleMouseOverStyle}"/> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> I then render it on screen in my MainWindow thusly: <Window x:Class="WPFControlLibrary.TestHarness.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:con="clr-namespace:WPFControlLibrary.Calendar;assembly=WPFControlLibrary" Title="MainWindow" Height="500" Width="525" WindowStartupLocation="CenterScreen"> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="80"/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <con:Day Grid.Column="1" Height="20" Width="80" DayName="Mon" Date="1"/> </Grid> And what I actually see is, well, nothing. If I put my cursor on the con:Day line of the XAML it'll highlight the correctly sized rectangle in the window but I don't see "Mon" on the left side of the rectangle and "1" on the right. What am I doing wrong? I suspect it's something simple but I'll be darned if I'm seeing it. My ultimate goal is to group a bunch of the Day controls within a Month control, which is then contained in a Year control as I'm trying to make a long Calendar Bar that lets you navigate through the months and years, while clicking on a Day would display any information saved on that date. But I can't even get the Day part to display independent of anything else so I'm a long way from the rest of the functionality. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Keyboard for programming

    - by exhuma
    This may seem a bit a tangential topic. It's not directly related to actual code, but is important for our line of work nevertheless. Over the years, I've switched keyboards a few times. All of them had slightly different key layouts. And I'm not talking about the language/locale layout, but the physical layout! Why not the locale layout? Well, quite frankly, that's easy to change via software. I personally have a German keyboard but have it set to the UK layout. Why? It's quite hard to find different layouts in the shops where I live. Even ordering is not always easy in the shops. So that leaves me with Internet shops. But I prefer to "test" my keyboards before buying. The most notable changes are: Mangled "Home Key Block" I've seen this first on a Logitech keyboard, but it may have originated elsewhere. Shape of the "Enter" key I've seen three different cases so far: Two lines high, wider at the top Two lines high, wider at the bottom One line high Shape of the Backspace button I've seen two types so far: One "character" wide Two "characters" wide OS Keys For Macs, you have the Option and Command buttons, for Windows you have the Windows and Context Menu buttons. Cherry even produced a Linux keyboard once (unfortunately I cannot find many details except news results). I assume a dedicated Linux keyboard would sport a Compose key and had the SysRq always labelled as well (note that some standard layouts do this already). Obviously... .. all these differences entail that some keys have to be moved around the board a lot. Which means, if you are used to one and have to work on another one, you happen to hit the wrong keys quite often. As it happens, this is much more annoying for programmers as it is for people who write texts. Mainly because the keys which are moved around are special character keys, often used in programming. Often these hardware layouts depend also indirectly on where you buy the keyboards. Honestly, I haven't seen a keyboard with a one-line "Enter" key in Germany, nor Luxembourg. I may just have missed it but that's how it looks to me at least. A survey I've seen some attempts at surveys in the style "which keyboard is best for programming". But they all - in my opinion - are not using comparable sets. So I was wondering if it was possible to concoct a survey taking the above criteria into account. But ignoring key dimensions that one would be a bit overkill I guess ;) From what I can see there are the following types of physical layout: Backspace: 2-characters wide Enter: 2-Lines, wider top Backspace: 2-characters wide Enter: 1-Line Backspace: 1-character wide Enter: 2-Lines, wider bottom Then there are the other possible permutations (home-key block, os-keys), which in total makes for quite a large list of categories. Now, I wonder... Would anyone be interested in such a survey? I personally would. Because I am looking for the perfect fit for me. If yes, then I could really use the help of anyone here to propose some models to include in the survey. Once I have some models for each category (I'd say at least 3 per category) I could go ahead and write up a survey, put it on-line and let the it collect data for a while. What do you think?

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  • How to show form in front in C#

    - by corlettk
    Folks, Please does anyone know how to show a Form from an otherwise invisible application, and have it get the focus (i.e. appear on top of other windows)? I'm working in C# .NET 3.5. I suspect I've taken "completely the wrong approach"... I do not Application.Run(new TheForm ()) instead I (new TheForm()).ShowModal()... The Form is basically a modal dialogue, with a few check-boxes; a text-box, and OK and Cancel Buttons. The user ticks a checkbox and types in a description (or whatever) then presses OK, the form disappears and the process reads the user-input from the Form, Disposes it, and continues processing. This works, except when the form is show it doesn't get the focus, instead it appears behind the "host" application, until you click on it in the taskbar (or whatever). This is a most annoying behaviour, which I predict will cause many "support calls", and the existing VB6 version doesn't have this problem, so I'm going backwards in usability... and users won't accept that (and nor should they). So... I'm starting to think I need to rethink the whole shebang... I should show the form up front, as a "normal application" and attach the remainer of the processing to the OK-button-click event. It should work, But that will take time which I don't have (I'm already over time/budget)... so first I really need to try to make the current approach work... even by quick-and-dirty methods. So please does anyone know how to "force" a .NET 3.5 Form (by fair means or fowl) to get the focus? I'm thinking "magic" windows API calls (I know Twilight Zone: This only appears to be an issue at work, we're I'm using Visual Studio 2008 on Windows XP SP3... I've just failed to reproduce the problem with an SSCCE (see below) at home on Visual C# 2008 on Vista Ulimate... This works fine. Huh? WTF? Also, I'd swear that at work yesterday showed the form when I ran the EXE, but not when F5'ed (or Ctrl-F5'ed) straight from the IDE (which I just put up with)... At home the form shows fine either way. Totaly confusterpating! It may or may not be relevant, but Visual Studio crashed-and-burned this morning when the project was running in debug mode and editing the code "on the fly"... it got stuck what I presumed was an endless loop of error messages. The error message was something about "can't debug this project because it is not the current project, or something... So I just killed it off with process explorer. It started up again fine, and even offered to recover the "lost" file, an offer which I accepted. using System; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace ShowFormOnTop { static class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); //Application.Run(new Form1()); Form1 frm = new Form1(); frm.ShowDialog(); } } } Background: I'm porting an existing VB6 implementation to .NET... It's a "plugin" for a "client" GIS application called MapInfo. The existing client "worked invisibly" and my instructions are "to keep the new version as close as possible to the old version", which works well enough (after years of patching); it's just written in an unsupported language, so we need to port it. About me: I'm pretty much a noob to C# and .NET generally, though I've got a bottoms wiping certificate, I have been a professional programmer for 10 years; So I sort of "know some stuff". Any insights would be most welcome... and Thank you all for taking the time to read this far. Consiseness isn't (apparently) my forte. Cheers. Keith.

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  • Scrolling a canvas as a shape you're moving approaches its edges

    - by Steven Sproat
    Hi, I develop a Python-based drawing program, Whyteboard. I have tools that the user can create new shapes on the canvas, such as text/images/rectangles/circles/polygons. I also have a Select tool that allows the users to modify these shapes - for example, moving a shape's position, resizing, or editing polygon's points' positions. I'm adding in a new feature where moving or resizing a point near the canvas edge will automatically scroll the canvas. I think it's a good idea in terms of program usability, and annoys me when other program's don't have this feature. I've made some good progress on coding this; below is some Python code to demonstrate what I'm doing. These functions demonstrate how some shapes calculate their "edges": def find_edges(self): """A line.""" self.edges = {EDGE_TOP: min(self.y, self.y2), EDGE_RIGHT: max(self.x, self.x2), EDGE_BOTTOM: max(self.y, self.y2), EDGE_LEFT: min(self. x, self.x2)} def find_edges(self): """An image""" self.edges = {EDGE_TOP: self.y, EDGE_RIGHT: self.x + self.image.GetWidth(), EDGE_BOTTOM: self.y + self.image.GetWidth(), EDGE_LEFT: self.x} def find_edges(self): """Get the bounding rectangle for the polygon""" xmin = min(x for x, y in self.points) ymin = min(y for x, y in self.points) xmax = max(x for x, y in self.points) ymax = max(y for x, y in self.points) self.edges = {EDGE_TOP: ymin, EDGE_RIGHT: xmax, EDGE_BOTTOM: ymax, EDGE_LEFT: xmin} And here's the code I have so far to implement the scrolling when a shape nears the edge: def check_canvas_scroll(self, x, y, moving=False): """ We check that the x/y coords are within 50px from the edge of the canvas and scroll the canvas accordingly. If the shape is being moved, we need to check specific edges of the shape (e.g. left/right side of rectangle) """ size = self.board.GetClientSizeTuple() # visible area of the canvas if not self.board.area > size: # canvas is too small to need to scroll return start = self.board.GetViewStart() # user's starting "viewport" scroll = (-1, -1) # -1 means no change if moving: if self.shape.edges[EDGE_RIGHT] > start[0] + size[0] - 50: scroll = (start[0] + 5, -1) if self.shape.edges[EDGE_BOTTOM] > start[1] + size[1] - 50: scroll = (-1, start[1] + 5) # snip others else: if x > start[0] + size[0] - 50: scroll = (start[0] + 5, -1) if y > start[1] + size[1] - 50: scroll = (-1, start[1] + 5) # snip others self.board.Scroll(*scroll) This code actually works pretty well. If we're moving a shape, then we need to know its edges to calculate when they're coming close to the canvas edge. If we're resizing just a single point, then we just use the x/y coords of that point to see if it's close to the edge. The problem I'm having is a little tricky to describe - basically, if you move a shape to the left, and stop moving it, if you positioned the shape within the 50px from the canvas, then the next time you go to move the shape, the code that says "ok, is this shape close to the end?" gets triggered, and the canvas scrolls to the left, even if you're moving the shape to the right. Can anyone think on how to stop this? I created a youtube video to demonstrate the issue. At about 0:54, I move a polygon to the left of the canvas and position it there. The next time I move it, the canvas scrolls to the left even though I'm moving it right Another thing I'd like to add, but I'm stuck on is the scroll gaining momentum the longer a shape is scrolling? So, with a large canvas, you're not moving a shape for ages, moving 5px at a time, when you need to cover a 2000px distance. Any suggestions there? Thanks all - sorry for the super long question!

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  • Forms bound to updateable ADO recordsets are not updateable when the source includes a JOIN

    - by Art
    I'm developing an application in Access 2007. It uses an .accdb front end connecting to an SQL Server 2005 backend. I use forms that are bound to ADO recordsets at runtime. For the sake of efficiency, the recordsets usually contain only one record, and are queried out on the server: Public Sub SetUpFormRecordset(cn As ADODB.Connection, rstIn As ADODB.Recordset, rstSource As String) Dim cmd As ADODB.Command Dim I As Long Set cmd = New ADODB.Command cn.Errors.Clear ' Recordsets based on command object Execute method are Read Only! With cmd Set .ActiveConnection = cn .CommandType = adCmdText .CommandText = rstSource End With With rstIn .CursorType = adOpenKeyset .LockType = adLockPessimistic 'Check the locktype after opening; optimistic locking is worthless on a bound End With ' form, and ADO might open optimistically without firing an error! rstIn.Open cmd, , adOpenKeyset, adLockPessimistic 'This should run the query on the server and return an updatable recordset With cn If .Errors.Count <> 0 Then For Each errADO In .Errors Call HandleADOErrors(.Errors(I)) I = I + 1 Next errADO End If End With End Sub rstSource (the string containg the TSQL on which the recordset is based) is assembled by the calling routine, in this case from the Open event of the form being bound: Private Sub Form_Open(Cancel As Integer) Dim rst As ADODB.Recordset Dim strSource As String, DefaultSource as String Dim lngID As Long lngID = Forms!MyParent.CurrentID strSource = "SELECT TOP (100) PERCENT dbo.Customers.CustomerID, dbo.Customers.LegacyID, dbo.Customers.Active, dbo.Customers.TypeID, dbo.Customers.Category, " & _ "dbo.Customers.Source, dbo.Customers.CustomerName, dbo.Customers.CustAddrID, dbo.Customers.Email, dbo.Customers.TaxExempt, dbo.Customers.SalesTaxCode, " & _ "dbo.Customers.SalesTax2Code, dbo.Customers.CreditLimit, dbo.Customers.CreationDate, dbo.Customers.FirstOrder, dbo.Customers.LastOrder, " & _ "dbo.Customers.nOrders, dbo.Customers.Concurrency, dbo.Customers.LegacyLN, dbo.Addresses.AddrType, dbo.Addresses.AddrLine1, dbo.Addresses.AddrLine2, " & _ "dbo.Addresses.City, dbo.Addresses.State, dbo.Addresses.Country, dbo.Addresses.PostalCode, dbo.Addresses.PhoneLandline, dbo.Addresses.Concurrency " & _ "FROM dbo.Customers INNER JOIN " & _ "dbo.Addresses ON dbo.Customers.CustAddrID = dbo.Addresses.AddrID " strSource = strSource & "WHERE dbo.Customers.CustomerID= " & lngID With Me 'Default is Set up for editing one record If Not Nz(.RecordSource, vbNullString) = vbNullString Then If .Dirty Then .Dirty = False 'Save any changes on the form .RecordSource = vbNullString End If If rst Is Nothing Then 'Might not be first time through DefaultSource = .RecordSource Else rst.Close Set rst = Nothing End If End With Set rst = New ADODB.Recordset Call setupformrecordset(dbconn, rst, strSource) 'dbconn is a global variable With Me Set .Recordset = rst End With End Sub The recordset that is returned from setupformrecordset is fully updateable, and its .Supports property shows this. It can be edited and updated in code. The entire form, however, is read only, even though it's .AllowEdits and .AllowAdditions properties are both true. Even the fields from the right hand side (the 'many' side) cannot be edited. Removing the INNER JOIN clause from the TSQL (restricting strSource to one table) makes the form fully editable. I've verified that the TSQL includes priimary key fields from both tables, and each table includes a timestamp field for concurrency. I tried changing the .CursorType and .CursorLocation properties of the recordset to no avail. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Forcing a transaction to rollback on validation errors in Seam

    - by Chris Williams
    Quick version: We're looking for a way to force a transaction to rollback when specific situations occur during the execution of a method on a backing bean but we'd like the rollback to happen without having to show the user a generic 500 error page. Instead, we'd like the user to see the form she just submitted and a FacesMessage that indicates what the problem was. Long version: We've got a few backing beans that use components to perform a few related operations in the database (using JPA/Hibernate). During the process, an error can occur after some of the database operations have happened. This could be for a few different reasons but for this question, let's assume there's been a validation error that is detected after some DB writes have happened that weren't detectible before the writes occurred. When this happens, we'd like to make sure all of the db changes up to this point will be rolled back. Seam can deal with this because if you throw a RuntimeException out of the current FacesRequest, Seam will rollback the current transaction. The problem with this is that the user is shown a generic error page. In our case, we'd actually like the user to be shown the page she was on with a descriptive message about what went wrong, and have the opportunity to correct the bad input that caused the problem. The solution we've come up with is to throw an Exception from the component that discovers the validation problem with the annotation: @ApplicationException( rollback = true ) Then our backing bean can catch this exception, assume the component that threw it has published the appropriate FacesMessage, and simply return null to take the user back to the input page with the error displayed. The ApplicationException annotation tells Seam to rollback the transaction and we're not showing the user a generic error page. This worked well for the first place we used it that happened to only be doing inserts. The second place we tried to use it, we have to delete something during the process. In this second case, everything works if there's no validation error. If a validation error does happen, the rollback Exception is thrown and the transaction is marked for rollback. Even if no database modifications have happened to be rolled back, when the user fixes the bad data and re-submits the page, we're getting: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Removing a detached instance The detached instance is lazily loaded from another object (there's a many to one relationship). That parent object is loaded when the backing bean is instantiated. Because the transaction was rolled back after the validation error, the object is now detached. Our next step was to change this page from conversation scope to page scope. When we did this, Seam can't even render the page after the validation error because our page has to hit the DB to render and the transaction has been marked for rollback. So my question is: how are other people dealing with handling errors cleanly and properly managing transactions at the same time? Better yet, I'd love to be able to use everything we have now if someone can spot something I'm doing wrong that would be relatively easy to fix. I've read the Seam Framework article on Unified error page and exception handling but this is geared more towards more generic errors your application might encounter.

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  • How to deploy a visual studio custom tool?

    - by Aen Sidhe
    Hello. I have a my own custom tool for Visual Studio 2008 SP1. It consists of 5 assemblies: 3 assemblies with code that used heavily in my other projects, 1 assembly-wrapper above VS2008 SDK and assembly with the tool. If I'd debug my tool from visual studio, using "Run external program" option with command line "C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\Common7\IDE\devenv.exe" and arguments "/ranu /rootsuffix Exp" all work perfectly. After that I trying to deploy it to my working VS copy, not to experimental hive doing: gacutil /i Asm1.dll for all my assemblies and doing RegAsm Asm1.dll only for assembly with custom tool. Neither of utils prints any error, all work as planned, even registry keys appeared. But my tool don't work even after PC restart. What did I do wrong? Wrapper looks like that: [ComVisible(true)] public abstract class CustomToolBase : IVsSingleFileGenerator, IObjectWithSite { #region IVsSingleFileGenerator Members int IVsSingleFileGenerator.DefaultExtension(out string pbstrDefaultExtension) { pbstrDefaultExtension = ".cs"; return 0; } int IVsSingleFileGenerator.Generate(string wszInputFilePath, string bstrInputFileContents, string wszDefaultNamespace, IntPtr[] rgbOutputFileContents, out uint pcbOutput, IVsGeneratorProgress pGenerateProgress) { GenerationEventArgs gea = new GenerationEventArgs( bstrInputFileContents, wszInputFilePath, wszDefaultNamespace, new ServiceProvider(Site as Microsoft.VisualStudio.OLE.Interop.IServiceProvider) .GetService(typeof(ProjectItem)) as ProjectItem, new GenerationProgressFacade(pGenerateProgress) ); if (OnGenerateCode != null) { OnGenerateCode(this, gea); } byte[] bytes = gea.GetOutputCodeBytes(); int outputLength = bytes.Length; rgbOutputFileContents[0] = Marshal.AllocCoTaskMem(outputLength); Marshal.Copy(bytes, 0, rgbOutputFileContents[0], outputLength); pcbOutput = (uint)outputLength; return VSConstants.S_OK; } #endregion #region IObjectWithSite Members void IObjectWithSite.GetSite(ref Guid riid, out IntPtr ppvSite) { IntPtr pUnk = Marshal.GetIUnknownForObject(Site); IntPtr intPointer = IntPtr.Zero; Marshal.QueryInterface(pUnk, ref riid, out intPointer); ppvSite = intPointer; } void IObjectWithSite.SetSite(object pUnkSite) { Site = pUnkSite; } #endregion #region Public Members public object Site { get; private set; } public event EventHandler<GenerationEventArgs> OnGenerateCode; [ComRegisterFunction] public static void Register(Type type) { using (var parent = Registry.LocalMachine.OpenSubKey(@"Software\Microsoft\VisualStudio\9.0", true)) foreach (CustomToolRegistrationAttribute ourData in type.GetCustomAttributes(typeof(CustomToolRegistrationAttribute), false)) ourData.Register(x => parent.CreateSubKey(x), (x, name, value) => x.SetValue(name, value)); } [ComUnregisterFunction] public static void Unregister(Type type) { using (var parent = Registry.LocalMachine.OpenSubKey(@"Software\Microsoft\VisualStudio\9.0", true)) foreach (CustomToolRegistrationAttribute ourData in type.GetCustomAttributes(typeof(CustomToolRegistrationAttribute), false)) ourData.Unregister(x => parent.DeleteSubKey(x, false)); } #endregion } My tool code: [ComVisible(true)] [Guid("55A6C192-D29F-4e22-84DA-DBAF314ED5C3")] [CustomToolRegistration(ToolName, typeof(TransportGeneratorTool))] [ProvideObject(typeof(TransportGeneratorTool))] public class TransportGeneratorTool : CustomToolBase { private const string ToolName = "TransportGeneratorTool"; public TransportGeneratorTool() { OnGenerateCode += GenerateCode; } private static void GenerateCode(object s, GenerationEventArgs e) { try { var serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof (Parser.System)); using (var reader = new StringReader(e.InputText)) using (var writer = new StringWriter(e.OutputCode)) { Generator.System = (Parser.System) serializer.Deserialize(reader); Generator.System.Namespace = e.Namespace; Generator.GenerateSource(writer); } } catch (Exception ex) { e.Progress.GenerateError(ex.ToString()); } } } Resulting registry keys: Windows Registry Editor Version 5.00 [HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\VisualStudio\9.0\Generators] [HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\VisualStudio\9.0\Generators\{FAE04EC1-301F-11D3-BF4B-00C04F79EFBC}] [HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\VisualStudio\9.0\Generators\{FAE04EC1-301F-11D3-BF4B-00C04F79EFBC}\TransportGeneratorTool] @="TransportGeneratorTool" "CLSID"="{55a6c192-d29f-4e22-84da-dbaf314ed5c3}" "GeneratesDesignTimeSource"=dword:00000001 "GeneratesSharedDesignTimeSource"=dword:00000001

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  • Javascript Closures - What are the negatives?

    - by vol7ron
    Question: There seem to be many benefits to Closures, but what are the negatives (memory leakage? obfuscation problems? bandwidth increasage?)? Additionally, is my understanding of Closures correct? Finally, once closures are created, can they be destroyed? I've been reading a little bit about Javascript Closures. I hope someone a little more knowledgeable will guide my assertions, correcting me where wrong. Benefits of Closures: Encapsulate the variables to a local scope, by using an internal function. The anonymity of the function is insignificant. What I've found helpful is to do some basic testing, regarding local/global scope: <script type="text/javascript"> var global_text = ""; var global_count = 0; var global_num1 = 10; var global_num2 = 20; var global_num3 = 30; function outerFunc() { var local_count = local_count || 0; alert("global_num1: " + global_num1); // global_num1: undefined var global_num1 = global_num1 || 0; alert("global_num1: " + global_num1); // global_num1: 0 alert("global_num2: " + global_num2); // global_num2: 20 global_num2 = global_num2 || 0; // (notice) no definition with 'var' alert("global_num2: " + global_num2); // global_num2: 20 global_num2 = 0; alert("local_count: " + local_count); // local_count: 0 function output() { global_num3++; alert("local_count: " + local_count + "\n" + "global_count: " + global_count + "\n" + "global_text: " + global_text ); local_count++; } local_count++; global_count++; return output; } var myFunc = outerFunc(); myFunc(); /* Outputs: ********************** * local_count: 1 * global_count: 1 * global_text: **********************/ global_text = "global"; myFunc(); /* Outputs: ********************** * local_count: 2 * global_count: 1 * global_text: global **********************/ var local_count = 100; myFunc(); /* Outputs: ********************** * local_count: 3 * global_count: 1 * global_text: global **********************/ alert("global_num1: " + global_num1); // global_num1: 10 alert("global_num2: " + global_num2); // global_num2: 0 alert("global_num3: " + global_num3); // global_num3: 33 </script> Interesting things I took out of it: The alerts in outerFunc are only called once, which is when the outerFunc call is assigned to myFunc (myFunc = outerFunc()). This assignment seems to keep the outerFunc open, in what I would like to call a persistent state. Everytime myFunc is called, the return is executed. In this case, the return is the internal function. Something really interesting is the localization that occurs when defining local variables. Notice the difference in the first alert between global_num1 and global_num2, even before the variable is trying to be created, global_num1 is considered undefined because the 'var' was used to signify a local variable to that function. -- This has been talked about before, in the order of operation for the Javascript engine, it's just nice to see this put to work. Globals can still be used, but local variables will override them. Notice before the third myFunc call, a global variable called local_count is created, but it as no effect on the internal function, which has a variable that goes by the same name. Conversely, each function call has the ability to modify global variables, as noticed by global_var3. Post Thoughts: Even though the code is straightforward, it is cluttered by alerts for you guys, so you can plug and play. I know there are other examples of closures, many of which use anonymous functions in combination with looping structures, but I think this is good for a 101-starter course to see the effects. The one thing I'm concerned with is the negative impact closures will have on memory. Because it keeps the function environment open, it is also keeping those variables stored in memory, which may/may not have performance implications, especially regarding DOM traversals and garbage collection. I'm also not sure what kind of role this will play in terms of memory leakage and I'm not sure if the closure can be removed from memory by a simple "delete myFunc;." Hope this helps someone, vol7ron

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  • Faster method for Matrix vector product for large matrix in C or C++ for use in GMRES

    - by user35959
    I have a large, dense matrix A, and I aim to find the solution to the linear system Ax=b using an iterative method (in MATLAB was the plan using its built in GMRES). For more than 10,000 rows, this is too much for my computer to store in memory, but I know that the entries in A are constructed by two known vectors x and y of length N and the entries satisfy: A(i,j) = .5*(x[i]-x[j])^2+([y[i]-y[j])^2 * log(x[i]-x[j])^2+([y[i]-y[j]^2). MATLAB's GMRES command accepts as input a function call that can compute the matrix vector product A*x, which allows me to handle larger matrices than I can store in memory. To write the matrix-vecotr product function, I first tried this in matlab by going row by row and using some vectorization, but I avoid spawning the entire array A (since it would be too large). This was fairly slow unfortnately in my application for GMRES. My plan was to write a mex file for MATLAB to, which is in C, and ideally should be significantly faster than the matlab code. I'm rather new to C, so this went rather poorly and my naive attempt at writing the code in C was slower than my partially vectorized attempt in Matlab. #include <math.h> #include "mex.h" void Aproduct(double *x, double *ctrs_x, double *ctrs_y, double *b, mwSize n) { mwSize i; mwSize j; double val; for (i=0; i<n; i++) { for (j=0; j<i; j++) { val = pow(ctrs_x[i]-ctrs_x[j],2)+pow(ctrs_y[i]-ctrs_y[j],2); b[i] = b[i] + .5* val * log(val) * x[j]; } for (j=i+1; j<n; j++) { val = pow(ctrs_x[i]-ctrs_x[j],2)+pow(ctrs_y[i]-ctrs_y[j],2); b[i] = b[i] + .5* val * log(val) * x[j]; } } } The above is the computational portion of the code for the matlab mex file (which is slightly modified C, if I understand correctly). Please note that I skip the case i=j, since in that case the variable val will be a 0*log(0), which should be interpreted as 0 for me, so I just skip it. Is there a more efficient or faster way to write this? When I call this C function via the mex file in matlab, it is quite slow, slower even than the matlab method I used. This surprises me since I suspected that C code should be much faster than matlab. The alternative matlab method which is partially vectorized that I am comparing it with is function Ax = Aprod(x,ctrs) n = length(x); Ax = zeros(n,1); for j=1:(n-3) v = .5*((ctrs(j,1)-ctrs(:,1)).^2+(ctrs(j,2)-ctrs(:,2)).^2).*log((ctrs(j,1)-ctrs(:,1)).^2+(ctrs(j,2)-ctrs(:,2)).^2); v(j)=0; Ax(j) = dot(v,x(1:n-3); end (the n-3 is because there is actually 3 extra components, but they are dealt with separately,so I excluded that code). This is partly vectorized and only needs one for loop, so it makes some sense that it is faster. However, I was hoping I could go even faster with C+mex file. Any suggestions or help would be greatly appreciated! Thanks! EDIT: I should be more clear. I am open to any faster method that can help me use GMRES to invert this matrix that I am interested in, which requires a faster way of doing the matrix vector product without explicitly loading the array into memory. Thanks!

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  • Log a user in to an ASP.net application using Windows Authentication without using Windows Authentic

    - by Rising Star
    I have an ASP.net application I'm developing authentication for. I am using an existing cookie-based log on system to log users in to the system. The application runs as an anonymous account and then checks the cookie when the user wants to do something restricted. This is working fine. However, there is one caveat: I've been told that for each page that connects to our SQL server, I need to make it so that the user connects using an Active Directory account. because the system I'm using is cookie based, the user isn't logged in to Active Directory. Therefore, I use impersonation to connect to the server as a specific account. However, the powers that be here don't like impersonation; they say that it clutters up the code. I agree, but I've found no way around this. It seems that the only way that a user can be logged in to an ASP.net application is by either connecting with Internet Explorer from a machine where the user is logged in with their Active Directory account or by typing an Active Directory username and password. Neither of these two are workable in my application. I think it would be nice if I could make it so that when a user logs in and receives the cookie (which actually comes from a separate log on application, by the way), there could be some code run which tells the application to perform all network operations as the user's Active Directory account, just as if they had typed an Active Directory username and password. It seems like this ought to be possible somehow, but the solution evades me. How can I make this work? Update To those who have responded so far, I apologize for the confusion I have caused. The responses I've received indicate that you've misunderstood the question, so please allow me to clarify. I have no control over the requirement that users must perform network operations (such as SQL queries) using Active Directory accounts. I've been told several times (online and in meat-space) that this is an unusual requirement and possibly bad practice. I also have no control over the requirement that users must log in using the existing cookie-based log on application. I understand that in an ideal MS ecosystem, I would simply dis-allow anonymous access in my IIS settings and users would log in using Windows Authentication. This is not the case. The current system is that as far as IIS is concerned, the user logs in anonymously (even though they supply credentials which result in the issuance of a cookie) and we must programmatically check the cookie to see if the user has access to any restricted resources. In times past, we have simply used a single SQL account to perform all queries. My direct supervisor (who has many years of experience with this sort of thing) wants to change this. He says that if each user has his own AD account to perform SQL queries, it gives us more of a trail to follow if someone tries to do something wrong. The closest thing I've managed to come up with is using WIF to give the user a claim to a specific Active Directory account, but I still have to use impersonation because even still, the ASP.net process presents anonymous credentials to the SQL server. It boils down to this: Can I log users in with Active Directory accounts in my ASP.net application without having the users manually enter their AD credentials? (Windows Authentication)

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  • (static initialization order?!) problems with factory pattern

    - by smerlin
    Why does following code raise an exception (in createObjects call to map::at) alternativly the code (and its output) can be viewed here intererestingly the code works as expected if the commented lines are uncommented with both microsoft and gcc compiler (see here), this even works with initMap as ordinary static variable instead of static getter. The only reason for this i can think of is that the order of initialization of the static registerHelper_ object (factory_helper_)and the std::map object (initMap) are wrong, however i cant see how that could happen, because the map object is constructed on first usage and thats in factory_helper_ constructor, so everything should be alright shouldnt it ? I am even more suprised that those doNothing() lines fix the issue, because that call to doNothing() would happen after the critical section (which currently fails) is passed anyway. EDIT: debugging showed, that without the call to factory_helper_.doNothing(), the constructor of factory_helper_ is never called. #include <iostream> #include <string> #include <map> #define FACTORY_CLASS(classtype) \ extern const char classtype##_name_[] = #classtype; \ class classtype : FactoryBase<classtype,classtype##_name_> namespace detail_ { class registerHelperBase { public: registerHelperBase(){} protected: static std::map<std::string, void * (*)(void)>& getInitMap() { static std::map<std::string, void * (*)(void)>* initMap = 0; if(!initMap) initMap= new std::map<std::string, void * (*)(void)>(); return *initMap; } }; template<class TParent, const char* ClassName> class registerHelper_ : registerHelperBase { static registerHelper_ help_; public: //void doNothing(){} registerHelper_(){ getInitMap()[std::string(ClassName)]=&TParent::factory_init_; } }; template<class TParent, const char* ClassName> registerHelper_<TParent,ClassName> registerHelper_<TParent,ClassName>::help_; } class Factory : detail_::registerHelperBase { private: Factory(); public: static void* createObject(const std::string& objclassname) { return getInitMap().at(objclassname)(); } }; template <class TClass, const char* ClassName> class FactoryBase { private: static detail_::registerHelper_<FactoryBase<TClass,ClassName>,ClassName> factory_helper_; static void* factory_init_(){ return new TClass();} public: friend class detail_::registerHelper_<FactoryBase<TClass,ClassName>,ClassName>; FactoryBase(){ //factory_helper_.doNothing(); } virtual ~FactoryBase(){}; }; template <class TClass, const char* ClassName> detail_::registerHelper_<FactoryBase<TClass,ClassName>,ClassName> FactoryBase<TClass,ClassName>::factory_helper_; FACTORY_CLASS(Test) { public: Test(){} }; int main(int argc, char** argv) { try { Test* test = (Test*) Factory::createObject("Test"); } catch(const std::exception& ex) { std::cerr << "caught std::exception: "<< ex.what() << std::endl; } #ifdef _MSC_VER system("pause"); #endif return 0; }

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  • Random Complete System Unresponsiveness Running Mathematical Functions

    - by Computer Guru
    I have a program that loads a file (anywhere from 10MB to 5GB) a chunk at a time (ReadFile), and for each chunk performs a set of mathematical operations (basically calculates the hash). After calculating the hash, it stores info about the chunk in an STL map (basically <chunkID, hash>) and then writes the chunk itself to another file (WriteFile). That's all it does. This program will cause certain PCs to choke and die. The mouse begins to stutter, the task manager takes 2 min to show, ctrl+alt+del is unresponsive, running programs are slow.... the works. I've done literally everything I can think of to optimize the program, and have triple-checked all objects. What I've done: Tried different (less intensive) hashing algorithms. Switched all allocations to nedmalloc instead of the default new operator Switched from stl::map to unordered_set, found the performance to still be abysmal, so I switched again to Google's dense_hash_map. Converted all objects to store pointers to objects instead of the objects themselves. Caching all Read and Write operations. Instead of reading a 16k chunk of the file and performing the math on it, I read 4MB into a buffer and read 16k chunks from there instead. Same for all write operations - they are coalesced into 4MB blocks before being written to disk. Run extensive profiling with Visual Studio 2010, AMD Code Analyst, and perfmon. Set the thread priority to THREAD_MODE_BACKGROUND_BEGIN Set the thread priority to THREAD_PRIORITY_IDLE Added a Sleep(100) call after every loop. Even after all this, the application still results in a system-wide hang on certain machines under certain circumstances. Perfmon and Process Explorer show minimal CPU usage (with the sleep), no constant reads/writes from disk, few hard pagefaults (and only ~30k pagefaults in the lifetime of the application on a 5GB input file), little virtual memory (never more than 150MB), no leaked handles, no memory leaks. The machines I've tested it on run Windows XP - Windows 7, x86 and x64 versions included. None have less than 2GB RAM, though the problem is always exacerbated under lower memory conditions. I'm at a loss as to what to do next. I don't know what's causing it - I'm torn between CPU or Memory as the culprit. CPU because without the sleep and under different thread priorities the system performances changes noticeably. Memory because there's a huge difference in how often the issue occurs when using unordered_set vs Google's dense_hash_map. What's really weird? Obviously, the NT kernel design is supposed to prevent this sort of behavior from ever occurring (a user-mode application driving the system to this sort of extreme poor performance!?)..... but when I compile the code and run it on OS X or Linux (it's fairly standard C++ throughout) it performs excellently even on poor machines with little RAM and weaker CPUs. What am I supposed to do next? How do I know what the hell it is that Windows is doing behind the scenes that's killing system performance, when all the indicators are that the application itself isn't doing anything extreme? Any advice would be most welcome.

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  • Passing unknown amounts of variables using through a string string and eval and multiple functions a

    - by user300797
    I'm not sure how best to describe this problem... In short, I want to use object literal to allow me to pass a random amount of variables in any order to a function. Whilst this is not big deal in theory, in my code, this object literal is passed to a second function call on_change. on_change works comparing an element inner HTML to a string. if it is the same, it sets a time out of to call the function again (this is sort of/almost recursive, but the function dose actually get to end before it is called again). if the elements inner HTML is different from the string, then the third parameter is executed. this will either be a function or a string. either way it will execute. I have tested this function plenty and used it for a while now. how ever, it cannot seem to get the object literal to flow through the function calls... var params = { xpos:'false'}; on_change('window_3_cont_buffer','',' if(Window_manager.windows[3].window_cont_buffer.getElementsByTagName(\'content\')[0].getElementsByTagName(\'p\')[0].innerHTML == \'ERROR\'){ alert(Window_manager.windows[3].window_cont_buffer.getElementsByTagName(\'content\')[0].getElementsByTagName(\'p\')[1].innerHTML); return false; } else { Window_manager.windows[3].load_xml(\'location/view.php?location_ID=3\', \'\', ' + params + ' ); } '); I call this as part of the form submission. after this line, I then call a function to load some content via ajax, which works fine and will trigger the code from the on_change function. I have tested load_xml function it is able to call alert(param.xpos) and get the correct response. I can even added in a check for being undefined so that rest of the times I cam load_xml I don't get swamped with alerts. The load_xml function first set up the on_change function, then calls the function to load the content to a hidden div. Once the AJAX request has updated that DIV, the on_change function should now call the parse_xml function. This pulls out the information from the xml file. How ever... The idea of this object literal param is that it can tell this parse_xml function to ignore certain things. on_change("window_" + this.id + "_cont_buffer", "", "Window_manager.windows[" + this.id + "].parse_xml('" + param + "')"); this is part of load_xml. it works perfectly fine, even with the param bit in there. except, parse_xml dose not seem to be able to use that parameter. I have been able to get it to a point where parse_xml can alert(param) and give [object object] which I would of thought meant that the object litteral had been passed through, but when I try and call alert(param.xpos) I get undefined. I know this is a pig of a problem, and I could get around it by just having the function take a zillion boolean parameters, but its just not practical or elegant. I'm sure you will need to ask me plenty more questions before I can solve this. I will post more complete code, I just cut it down to what is actually going on. Thanks

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