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• Design patterns and interview question

  - by user160758

  When I was learning to code, I read up on the design patterns like a good boy. Long after this, I started to actually understand them. Design discussions such as those on this site constantly try to make the rules more and more general, which is good. But there is a line, over which it becomes over-analysis starts to feed off itself and as such I think begins to obfuscate the original point - for example the "What's Alternative to Singleton" post and the links contained therein. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1300655/whats-alternative-to-singleton I say this having been asked in both interviews I’ve had over the last 2 weeks what a singleton is and what criticisms I have of it. I have used it a few times for items such as user data (simple key-value eg. last file opened by this user) and logging (very common i'm sure). I've never ever used it just to have what is essentially global application data, as this is clearly stupid. In the first interview, I reply that I have no criticisms of it. He seemed disappointed by this but as the job wasn’t really for me, I forgot about it. In the next one, I was asked again and, as I wanted this job, I thought about it on the spot and made some objections, similar to those contained in the post linked to above (I suggested use of a factory or dependency injection instead). He seemed happy with this. But my problem is that I have used the singleton without ever using it in this kind of stupid way, which I had to describe on the spot. Using it for global data and the like isn’t something I did then realised was stupid, or read was stupid so didn’t do, it was just something I knew was stupid from the start. Essentially I’m supposed to be able to think of ways of how to misuse a pattern in the interview? Which class of programmers can best answer this question? The best ones? The medium ones? I'm not sure.... And these were both bright guys. I read more than enough to get better at my job but had never actually bothered to seek out criticisms of the most simple of the design patterns like this one. Do people think such questions are valid and that I ought to know the objections off by heart? Or that it is reasonable to be able to work out what other people who are missing the point would do on the fly? Or do you think I’m at least partially right that the question is too unsubtle and that the questions ought to be better thought out in order to make sure only good candidates can answer. PS. Please don’t think I’m saying that I’m just so clever that I know everything automatically - I’ve learnt the hard way like everyone else. But avoiding global data is hardly revolutionary.

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• Generic Type constraint in .net

  - by Jose

  Okay I'm looking for some input, I'm pretty sure this is not currently supported in .NET 3.5 but here goes. I want to require a generic type passed into my class to have a constructor like this: new(IDictionary<string,object>) so the class would look like this public MyClass<T> where T : new(IDictionary<string,object>) { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { return new T(values); } } But the compiler doesn't support this, it doesn't really know what I'm asking. Some of you might ask, why do you want to do this? Well I'm working on a pet project of an ORM so I get values from the DB and then create the object and load the values. I thought it would be cleaner to allow the object just create itself with the values I give it. As far as I can tell I have two options: 1) Use reflection(which I'm trying to avoid) to grab the PropertyInfo[] array and then use that to load the values. 2) require T to support an interface like so: public interface ILoadValues { void LoadValues(IDictionary values); } and then do this public MyClass<T> where T:new(),ILoadValues { T CreateObject(IDictionary<string,object> values) { T obj = new T(); obj.LoadValues(values); return obj; } } The problem I have with the interface I guess is philosophical, I don't really want to expose a public method for people to load the values. Using the constructor the idea was that if I had an object like this namespace DataSource.Data { public class User { protected internal User(IDictionary<string,object> values) { //Initialize } } } As long as the MyClass<T> was in the same assembly the constructor would be available. I personally think that the Type constraint in my opinion should ask (Do I have access to this constructor? I do, great!) Anyways any input is welcome.

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• SQL Server 2008: If Multiple Values Set In Other Mutliple Values Set

  - by AJH

  In SQL, is there anyway to accomplish something like this? This is based off a report built in SQL Server Report Builder, where the user can specify multiple text values as a single report parameter. The query for the report grabs all of the values the user selected and stores them in a single variable. I need a way for the query to return only records that have associations to EVERY value the user specified. -- Assume there's a table of Elements with thousands of entries. -- Now we declare a list of properties for those Elements to be associated with. create table #masterTable ( ElementId int, Text varchar(10) ) insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (1, 'Red'); insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (1, 'Coarse'); insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (1, 'Dense'); insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (2, 'Red'); insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (2, 'Smooth'); insert into #masterTable (ElementId, Text) values (2, 'Hollow'); -- Element 1 is Red, Coarse, and Dense. Element 2 is Red, Smooth, and Hollow. -- The real table is actually much much larger than this; this is just an example. -- This is me trying to replicate how SQL Server Report Builder treats -- report parameters in its queries. The user selects one, some, all, -- or no properties from a list. The written query treats the user's -- selections as a single variable called @Properties. -- Example scenario 1: User only wants to see Elements that are BOTH Red and Dense. select e.* from Elements e where (@Properties) --ideally a set containing only Red and Dense in (select Text from #masterTable where ElementId = e.Id) --ideally a set containing only Red, Coarse, and Dense --Both Red and Dense are within Element 1's properties (Red, Coarse, Dense), so Element 1 gets returned, but not Element 2. -- Example scenario 2: User only wants to see Elements that are BOTH Red and Hollow. select e.* from Elements e where (@Properties) --ideally a set containing only Red and Hollow in (select Text from #masterTable where ElementId = e.Id) --Both Red and Hollow are within Element 2's properties (Red, Smooth, Hollow), so Element 2 gets returned, but not Element 1. --Example Scenario 3: User only picked the Red option. select e.* from Elements e where (@Properties) --ideally a set containing only Red in (select Text from #masterTable where ElementId = e.Id) --Red is within both Element 1 and Element 2's properties, so both Element 1 and Element 2 get returned. The above syntax doesn't actually work because SQL doesn't seem to allow multiple values on the left side of the "in" comparison. Error that returns: Subquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when the subquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used as an expression. Am I even on the right track here? Sorry if the example looks long-winded or confusing.

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• User Defined Exceptions with JMX

  - by Daniel

  I have exposed methods for remote management in my application server using JMX by creating an MXBean interface, and a class to implement it. Included in this interface are operations for setting attributes on my server, and for getting the current value of attributes. For example, take the following methods: public interface WordManagerMXBean { public void addWord(String word); public WordsObject getWords(); public void removeWord(String word); } The WordsObject is a custom, serializable class used to retrieve data about the state of the server. Then I also have a WordManager class that implements the above interface. I then create a JMX agent to manage my resource: MBeanServer mbs = ManagementFactory.getPlatformMBeanServer(); ObjectName wordManagerName = new ObjectName("com.example:type=WordManager"); mbs.registerMBean(wordManager, wordManagerName); I have created a client that invokes these methods, and this works as expected. However, I would like to extend this current configuration by adding user defined exceptions that can be sent back to my client. So I would like to change my interface to something like this: public interface WordManagerMXBean { public void addWord(String word) throws WordAlreadyExistsException; public WordsObject getWords(); public void removeWord(String word); } My WordAlreadyExistsException looks like this: public class WordAlreadyExistsException extends Exception implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = -9095552123119275304L; public WordAlreadyExistsException() { super(); } } When I call the addWord() method in my client, I would like to get back a WordAlreadyExistsException if the word already exists. However, when I do this, I get an error like this: java.rmi.UnmarshalException: Error unmarshaling return; nested exception is: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.example.WordAlreadyExistsException The WordAlreadyExistsException, the WordsObject and the WordManagerMXBean interface are all in a single jar file that is available to both the client and the server. If I call the getWords() method, the client has no difficulty handling the WordsObject. However, if a user defined exception, like the one above, is thrown, then the client gives the error shown above. Is it possible to configure JMX to handle this exception correctly in the client? Following some searching, I noticed that there is an MBeanException class that is used to wrap exceptions. I'm not sure if this wrapping is performed by the agent automatically, or if I'm supposed to do the wrapping myself. I tried both, but in either case I get the same error on the client. I have also tried this with both checked and unchecked exceptions, again the same error occurs. One solution to this is to simply pass back the error string inside a generic error, as all of the standard java exceptions work. But I'd prefer to get back the actual exception for processing by the client. Is it possible to handle user defined exceptions in JMX? If so, any ideas how?

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• Mock Object and Interface

  - by tunl

  I'm a newbie in Unit Test with Mock Object. I use EasyMock. I try to understand this example: import java.io.IOException; public interface ExchangeRate { double getRate(String inputCurrency, String outputCurrency) throws IOException; } import java.io.IOException; public class Currency { private String units; private long amount; private int cents; public Currency(double amount, String code) { this.units = code; setAmount(amount); } private void setAmount(double amount) { this.amount = new Double(amount).longValue(); this.cents = (int) ((amount * 100.0) % 100); } public Currency toEuros(ExchangeRate converter) { if ("EUR".equals(units)) return this; else { double input = amount + cents/100.0; double rate; try { rate = converter.getRate(units, "EUR"); double output = input * rate; return new Currency(output, "EUR"); } catch (IOException ex) { return null; } } } public boolean equals(Object o) { if (o instanceof Currency) { Currency other = (Currency) o; return this.units.equals(other.units) && this.amount == other.amount && this.cents == other.cents; } return false; } public String toString() { return amount + "." + Math.abs(cents) + " " + units; } } import junit.framework.TestCase; import org.easymock.EasyMock; import java.io.IOException; public class CurrencyTest extends TestCase { public void testToEuros() throws IOException { Currency testObject = new Currency(2.50, "USD"); Currency expected = new Currency(3.75, "EUR"); ExchangeRate mock = EasyMock.createMock(ExchangeRate.class); EasyMock.expect(mock.getRate("USD", "EUR")).andReturn(1.5); EasyMock.replay(mock); Currency actual = testObject.toEuros(mock); assertEquals(expected, actual); } } So, i wonder how to Currency use ExchangeRate in toEuros(..) method. rate = converter.getRate(units, "EUR"); The behavior of getRate(..) method is not specified because ExchangeRate is an interface.

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• Optimizing Vector elements swaps using CUDA

  - by Orion Nebula

  Hi all, Since I am new to cuda .. I need your kind help I have this long vector, for each group of 24 elements, I need to do the following: for the first 12 elements, the even numbered elements are multiplied by -1, for the second 12 elements, the odd numbered elements are multiplied by -1 then the following swap takes place: Graph: because I don't yet have enough points, I couldn't post the image so here it is: http://www.freeimagehosting.net/image.php?e4b88fb666.png I have written this piece of code, and wonder if you could help me further optimize it to solve for divergence or bank conflicts .. //subvector is a multiple of 24, Mds and Nds are shared memory _shared_ double Mds[subVector]; _shared_ double Nds[subVector]; int tx = threadIdx.x; int tx_mod = tx ^ 0x0001; int basex = __umul24(blockDim.x, blockIdx.x); Mds[tx] = M.elements[basex + tx]; __syncthreads(); // flip the signs if (tx < (tx/24)*24 + 12) { //if < 12 and even if ((tx & 0x0001)==0) Mds[tx] = -Mds[tx]; } else if (tx < (tx/24)*24 + 24) { //if >12 and < 24 and odd if ((tx & 0x0001)==1) Mds[tx] = -Mds[tx]; } __syncthreads(); if (tx < (tx/24)*24 + 6) { //for the first 6 elements .. swap with last six in the 24elements group (see graph) Nds[tx] = Mds[tx_mod + 18]; Mds [tx_mod + 18] = Mds [tx]; Mds[tx] = Nds[tx]; } else if (tx < (tx/24)*24 + 12) { // for the second 6 elements .. swp with next adjacent group (see graph) Nds[tx] = Mds[tx_mod + 6]; Mds [tx_mod + 6] = Mds [tx]; Mds[tx] = Nds[tx]; } __syncthreads(); Thanks in advance ..

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• Hibernate MappingException Unknown entity: $Proxy2

  - by slynn1324

  I'm using Hibernate annotations and have a VERY basic data object: import java.io.Serializable; import javax.persistence.Entity; import javax.persistence.Id; @Entity public class State implements Serializable { /** * */ private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id private String stateCode; private String stateFullName; public String getStateCode() { return stateCode; } public void setStateCode(String stateCode) { this.stateCode = stateCode; } public String getStateFullName() { return stateFullName; } public void setStateFullName(String stateFullName) { this.stateFullName = stateFullName; } } and am trying to run the following test case: public void testCreateState(){ Session s = HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession(); Transaction t = s.beginTransaction(); State state = new State(); state.setStateCode("NE"); state.setStateFullName("Nebraska"); s.save(s); t.commit(); } and get an org.hibernate.MappingException: Unknown entity: $Proxy2 at org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl.getEntityPersister(SessionFactoryImpl.java:628) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.getEntityPersister(SessionImpl.java:1366) at org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractSaveEventListener.saveWithGeneratedId(AbstractSaveEventListener.java:121) .... I haven't been able to find anything referencing the $Proxy part of the error - and am at a loss.. Any pointers to what I'm missing would be greatly appreciated. hibernate.cfg.xml <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class">org.hsqldb.jdbcDriver</property> <property name="connection.url">jdbc:hsqldb:hsql://localhost/xdb</property> <property name="connection.username">sa</property> <property name="connection.password"></property> <property name="current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.HSQLDialect</property> <property name="show_sql">true</property> <property name="hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">org.hibernate.transaction.JDBCTransactionFactory</property> <mapping class="com.test.domain.State"/> in HibernateUtil.java public static SessionFactory getSessionFactory(boolean testing ) { if ( sessionFactory == null ){ try { String configPath = HIBERNATE_CFG; AnnotationConfiguration config = new AnnotationConfiguration(); config.configure(configPath); sessionFactory = config.buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); throw new ExceptionInInitializerError(e); } } return sessionFactory; }

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• mysql: can't set max_allowed_package to anything grater than 16MB

  - by sas

  I'm not sure if this is the right place to post these kind of questions, if it's not so, please (politely) let me know... :-) I need to save files greater than 16MB on a mysql database from a php site... I've already changed the c:\xampp\mysql\bin\my.cnf and set max_allowed_packet to 16 MB, and everything worked fine then I set it to 32 MB but there´s no way I can handle a file bigger than 16 MB I get the following error: 'MySQL server has gone away' (the same error I had when max_allowed_packet was set to 1MB) there must be some other setting that doesn´t allow me to handle files bigger than 16MB maybe the php client, I guess, but I don't know where to edit it this is the code I'm running when file.txt is smaller than 16.776.192 bytes long, it works fine, but if file.txt has 16.777.216 bytes i get the aforementioned error oh, and the field download.content is a longblob... $file = 'file.txt'; $file_handle = fopen( $file, 'r' ); $content = fread( $file_handle, filesize( $file ) ); fclose( $file_handle ); db_execute( 'truncate table download', true ); $sql = "insert into download( code, title, name, description, original_name, mime_type, size, content, user_insert_id, date_insert, user_update_id, date_update ) values ( 'new file', 'new file', 'sas.jpg', 'new file', '$file', 'mime', " . filesize( $file ) . ", '" . addslashes( $content ) . "', 0, " . db_char_to_sql( now_char(), 'datetime' ) . ", 0, " . db_char_to_sql( now_char(), 'datetime' ) . " )"; db_execute( $sql, true ); (the db_execute funcion just opens the connections and executes the sql stuff) running on windows XP sp2 server version: 5.0.67-community PHP Version 4.4.9 mysql client API version: 3.23.49 using: ApacheFriends XAMPP (Basispaket) version 1.6.8 that comes with + Apache 2.2.9 + MySQL 5.0.67 (Community Server) + PHP 5.2.6 + PHP 4.4.9 + PEAR + phpMyAdmin 2.11.9.2 ... this is part of the content of c:\xampp\mysql\bin\my.cnf # The MySQL server [mysqld] port= 3306 socket= "C:/xampp/mysql/mysql.sock" basedir="C:/xampp/mysql" tmpdir="C:/xampp/tmp" datadir="C:/xampp/mysql/data" skip-locking key_buffer = 16M # max_allowed_packet = 1M max_allowed_packet = 32M table_cache = 128 sort_buffer_size = 512K net_buffer_length = 8K read_buffer_size = 256K read_rnd_buffer_size = 512K myisam_sort_buffer_size = 8M

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• How to tag photos in facebook-api?

  - by Camillo

  Hey, I wanted to ask if/how is it possible to tag a photo using the FB API (Graph or REST). I've managed to create an album and also to upload a photo in it, but I stuck on tagging. I've got the permissions and the correct session key. My code until now: try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); $token = $session['access_token'];//here I get the token from the $session array $album_id = $album[0]; //upload photo $file= 'images/hand.jpg'; $args = array( 'message' => 'Photo from application', ); $args[basename($file)] = '@' . realpath($file); $ch = curl_init(); $url = 'https://graph.facebook.com/'.$album_id.'/photos?access_token='.$token; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $args); $data = curl_exec($ch); //returns the id of the photo you just uploaded print_r(json_decode($data,true)); $search = array('{"id":', "}"); $delete = array("", ""); // picture id call with $picture $picture = str_replace($search, $delete, $data); //here should be the photos.addTag, but i don't know how to solve this //above code works, below i don't know what is the error / what's missing $json = 'https://api.facebook.com/method/photos.addTag?pid='.urlencode($picture).'&tag_text=Test&x=50&y=50&access_token='.urlencode($token); $ch = curl_init(); $url = $json; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_exec($ch); } catch(FacebookApiException $e){ echo "Error:" . print_r($e, true); } I really searched a long time, if you know something that might help me, please post it here :) Thanks for all your help, Camillo

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• Displaying a notification when bluetooth is disconnected - Android

  - by Ryan T

  I am trying to create a program that will display a notification to the user if a Blue tooth device suddenly comes out of range from my Android device. I currently have the following code but no notification is displayed. I was wondering if it was possible I shouldn't use ACTION_ACL_DISCONNECTED because I believe the bluetooth stack would be expecting packets that state a disconnect is requested. My requirements state that the bluetooth device will disconnect without warning. Thank you for any assistance! BluetoothNotification.java: //This is where the notification is created. import android.app.Activity; import android.app.Notification; import android.app.NotificationManager; import android.app.PendingIntent; import android.content.Context; import android.content.Intent; import android.os.Bundle; import android.app.Activity; import android.app.Notification; import android.app.NotificationManager; import android.app.PendingIntent; import android.content.Context; import android.content.Intent; import android.os.Bundle; public class BluetoothNotification extends Activity { public static final int NOTIFICATION_ID = 1; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); /** Define configuration for our notification */ int icon = R.drawable.logo; CharSequence tickerText = "This is a sample notification"; long when = System.currentTimeMillis(); Context context = getApplicationContext(); CharSequence contentTitle = "Sample notification"; CharSequence contentText = "This notification has been generated as a result of BT Disconnecting"; Intent notificationIntent = new Intent(this, BluetoothNotification.class); PendingIntent contentIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(this, 0, notificationIntent, 0); /** Initialize the Notification using the above configuration */ final Notification notification = new Notification(icon, tickerText, when); notification.setLatestEventInfo(context, contentTitle, contentText, contentIntent); /** Retrieve reference from NotificationManager */ String ns = Context.NOTIFICATION_SERVICE; final NotificationManager mNotificationManager = (NotificationManager) getSystemService(ns); mNotificationManager.notify(NOTIFICATION_ID, notification); finish(); } } Snippet from OnCreate: //Located in Controls.java IntentFilter filter1 = new IntentFilter(BluetoothDevice.ACTION_ACL_DISCONNECTED); this.registerReceiver(mReceiver, filter1); Snippet from Controls.java: private final BroadcastReceiver mReceiver = new BroadcastReceiver() { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { String action = intent.getAction(); BluetoothDevice device = intent.getParcelableExtra(BluetoothDevice.EXTRA_DEVICE); if (BluetoothDevice.ACTION_ACL_DISCONNECTED.equals(action)) { //Device has disconnected NotificationManager nm = (NotificationManager) getSystemService(NOTIFICATION_SERVICE); } } };

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• Finding the most frequent subtrees in a collection of (parse) trees

  - by peter.murray.rust

  I have a collection of trees whose nodes are labelled (but not uniquely). Specifically the trees are from a collection of parsed sentences (see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Treebank). I wish to extract the most common subtrees from the collection - performance is not (yet) an issue. I'd be grateful for algorithms (ideally Java) or pointers to tools which do this for treebanks. Note that order of child nodes is important. EDIT @mjv. We are working in a limited domain (chemistry) which has a stylised language so the varirty of the trees is not huge - probably similar to children's readers. Simple tree for "the cat sat on the mat". <sentence> <nounPhrase> <article/> <noun/> </nounPhrase> <verbPhrase> <verb/> <prepositionPhrase> <preposition/> <nounPhrase> <article/> <noun/> </nounPhrase> </prepositionPhrase> </verbPhrase> </sentence> Here the sentence contains two identical part-of-speech subtrees (the actual tokens "cat". "mat" are not important in matching). So the algorithm would need to detect this. Note that not all nounPhrases are identical - "the big black cat" could be: <nounPhrase> <article/> <adjective/> <adjective/> <noun/> </nounPhrase> The length of sentences will be longer - between 15 to 30 nodes. I would expect to get useful results from 1000 trees. If this does not take more than a day or so that's acceptable. Obviously the shorter the tree the more frequent, so nounPhrase will be very common. EDIT If this is to be solved by flattening the tree then I think it would be related to Longest Common Substring, not Longest Common Sequence. But note that I don't necessarily just want the longest - I want a list of all those long enough to be "interesting" (criterion yet to be decided).

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• remove data layer and put into it's own domain

  - by user334768

  I have a SL4 application that uses EF4 & RIA Services. DB is SQL 2008. All is working well. Now I want to put the Database and web services on one domain (A.com) with the web service exposing the same methods available in my working project. (one listed at top of message) Then put a Silverlight application (same one as above) on domain(B.com) and call the web services on A.com. I thought I had a fair understanding of RIA Services. Enough to get the above application working. Now when I say "working" I do mean on my local dev machine. I have yet to deployed as SL4 & .NET 4 application to my hosting site. But I don't think I understand it well enough. I normally create a new business app, add EF then create the RIA DomainService. Add any [Includes] I need, modify my linq queries and run application. And it works. Now I need to break off my data layer and put it on another hosting site (A.com) And put my UI and business logic on another hosting site (B.com) I think I need to do the following : On the Database & web service site: domain(A.com) create application, create EF4, create RIA Services and deploy. At this time, are the methods exposed available as a "WEB SERVICE" to other applications calling by http:// a.com/serviceName.svc address? I think I need to do the following : On the application site : domain(B.com) create a business application (later will need authentication and navigation). How can I create an EF when I don't have access to the database? (I know I do have access but I want know what happens here when I do not have access to the database, but only data provided by a web service) If I can not create an EF how do I create my RIA Service? I hope any one who takes time to help me understands what I'm asking. Sorry so long.

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• Click on notification starts activity twice

  - by Karussell

  I'm creating a notification from a service with the following code: NotificationManager notificationManager = (NotificationManager) ctx .getSystemService(Context.NOTIFICATION_SERVICE); CharSequence tickerText = "bla ..."; long when = System.currentTimeMillis(); Notification notification = new Notification(R.drawable.icon, tickerText, when); Intent notificationIntent = new Intent(ctx, SearchActivity.class). putExtra(SearchActivity.INTENT_SOURCE, MyNotificationService.class.getSimpleName()); PendingIntent contentIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(ctx, 0, notificationIntent, 0); notification.setLatestEventInfo(ctx, ctx.getString(R.string.app_name), tickerText, contentIntent); notification.flags |= Notification.FLAG_AUTO_CANCEL; notificationManager.notify(1, notification); The logs clearly says that the the method startActivity is called twice times: 04-02 23:48:06.923: INFO/ActivityManager(2466): Starting activity: Intent { act=android.intent.action.SEARCH cmp=com.xy/.SearchActivity bnds=[0,520][480,616] (has extras) } 04-02 23:48:06.923: WARN/ActivityManager(2466): startActivity called from non-Activity context; forcing Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK for: Intent { act=android.intent.action.SEARCH cmp=com.xy/.SearchActivity bnds=[0,520][480,616] (has extras) } 04-02 23:48:06.958: INFO/ActivityManager(2466): Starting activity: Intent { act=android.intent.action.SEARCH cmp=com.xy/.SearchActivity bnds=[0,0][480,96] (has extras) } 04-02 23:48:06.958: WARN/ActivityManager(2466): startActivity called from non-Activity context; forcing Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK for: Intent { act=android.intent.action.SEARCH cmp=com.xy/.SearchActivity bnds=[0,0][480,96] (has extras) } 04-02 23:48:07.087: INFO/notification(5028): onStartCmd: received start id 2: Intent { cmp=com.xy/.NotificationService } 04-02 23:48:07.310: INFO/notification(5028): onStartCmd: received start id 3: Intent { cmp=com.xy/.NotificationService } 04-02 23:48:07.392: INFO/ActivityManager(2466): Displayed activity com.xy/.SearchActivity: 462 ms (total 462 ms) 04-02 23:48:07.392: INFO/ActivityManager(2466): Displayed activity com.xy/.SearchActivity: 318 ms (total 318 ms) Why are they started twice? There are two identical questions on stackoverflow: here and here. But they do not explain what the initial issue could be and they do not work for me. E.g. changing to launchMode singleTop is not appropriated for me and it should work without changing launchMode according to the official docs (see Invoking the search dialog). Nevertheless I also tried to add the following flags to notificationIntent Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_CLEAR_TOP | PendingIntent.FLAG_UPDATE_CURRENT but the problem remains the same.

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• C++ using cdb_read returns extra characters on some reads

  - by Moe Be

  Hi All, I am using the following function to loop through a couple of open CDB hash tables. Sometimes the value for a given key is returned along with an additional character (specifically a CTRL-P (a DLE character/0x16/0o020)). I have checked the cdb key/value pairs with a couple of different utilities and none of them show any additional characters appended to the values. I get the character if I use cdb_read() or cdb_getdata() (the commented out code below). If I had to guess I would say I am doing something wrong with the buffer I create to get the result from the cdb functions. Any advice or assistance is greatly appreciated. char* HashReducer::getValueFromDb(const string &id, vector <struct cdb *> &myHashFiles) { unsigned char hex_value[BUFSIZ]; size_t hex_len; //construct a real hex (not ascii-hex) value to use for database lookups atoh(id,hex_value,&hex_len); char *value = NULL; vector <struct cdb *>::iterator my_iter = myHashFiles.begin(); vector <struct cdb *>::iterator my_end = myHashFiles.end(); try { //while there are more databases to search and we have not found a match for(; my_iter != my_end && !value ; my_iter++) { //cerr << "\n looking for this MD5:" << id << " hex(" << hex_value << ") \n"; if (cdb_find(*my_iter, hex_value, hex_len)){ //cerr << "\n\nI found the key " << id << " and it is " << cdb_datalen(*my_iter) << " long\n\n"; value = (char *)malloc(cdb_datalen(*my_iter)); cdb_read(*my_iter,value,cdb_datalen(*my_iter),cdb_datapos(*my_iter)); //value = (char *)cdb_getdata(*my_iter); //cerr << "\n\nThe value is:" << value << " len is:" << strlen(value)<< "\n\n"; }; } } catch (...){} return value; }

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• div popup inside td

  - by sims

  I have a table with a bunch of cells. (No way! Amazing! :P) Some of the cells have a small div that when you put your mouse over, it gets bigger so you can read all the text. This works well and all. However, since html elements that come later in the document have a higher z-index, when the div gets bigger it is underneath the other divs in the other cells. Some html code: <table> <tr> <td> limited info <div style="position: relative;"> <div style="position: absolute; top: 0; left: 0; width: 1em; height: 1em;" onmouseover="tooltipshow(this)" onmouseout="tooltiphide(this)"> informative long text is here </div> </div> </td> <td> some short info <div style="position: relative;"> <div style="position: absolute; top: 0; left: 0; width: 1em; height: 1em;" onmouseover="tooltipshow(this)" onmouseout="tooltiphide(this)"> longer explanation about what is really going on that covers the div up there ^^^. darn! </div> </div> </td> </tr> </table> Some js code: function tooltipshow(obj) { obj.style.width = '30em'; obj.style.zIndex = '100'; } function tooltiphide(obj) { obj.style.width = '1em'; obj.style.zIndex = '20'; } It doesn't matter if I set z-index dynamically to something higher onmouseover. It's like z-index has no affect. I think it has something to do with the table. I've tested this in FF3. When I'm feeling particularly macho, I'll test it in IE.

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• How to salvage SQL server 2008 query from KILLED/ROLLBACK state without waiting half a day?

  - by littlegreen

  I have a stored procedure that inserts batches of millions of rows, emerging from a certain query, into an SQL database. It has one parameter selecting the batch; when this parameter is omitted, it will gather a list of batches and recursively call itself, in order to iterate over batches. In (pseudo-)code, it looks something like this: CREATE PROCEDURE spProcedure AS BEGIN IF @code = 0 BEGIN ... WHILE @@Fetch_Status=0 BEGIN EXEC spProcedure @code FETCH NEXT ... INTO @code END END ELSE BEGIN -- Disable indexes ... INSERT INTO table SELECT (...) -- Enable indexes ... Now it can happen that this procedure is slow, for whatever reason: it can't get a lock, one of the indexes it uses is misdefined or disabled. In that case, I want to be able kill the procedure, truncate and recreate the resulting table, and try again. However, when I try and kill the procedure, the process frequently oozes into a KILLED/ROLLBACK state from which there seems to be no return. From Google I have learned to do an sp_lock, find the spid, and then kill it with KILL <spid>. But when I try to kill it, it tells me SPID 75: transaction rollback in progress. Estimated rollback completion: 0%. Estimated time remaining: 554 seconds. I did find a forum message hinting that another spid should be killed before the other one can start a rollback. But that didn't work for me either, plus I do not understand, why that would be the case... could it be because I am recursively calling my own stored procedure? (But it should be having the same spid, right?) In any case, my process is just sitting there, being dead, not responding to kills, and locking the table. This is very frustrating, as I want to go on developing my queries, not waiting hours on my server sitting dead while pretending to be finishing a supposed rollback. Is there some way in which I can tell the server not to store any rollback information for my query? Or not to allow any other queries to interfere with the rollback, so that it will not take so long? Or how to rewrite my query in a better way, or how kill the process successfully without restarting the server?

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• Deserialization error in a new environment

  - by cerhart

  I have a web application that calls a third-party web service. When I run it locally, I have no problems, but when I move it to my production environment, I get the following error: There is an error in XML document (2, 428). Stack: at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle, XmlDeserializationEvents events) at System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer.Deserialize(XmlReader xmlReader, String encodingStyle) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.ReadResponse(SoapClientMessage message, WebResponse response, Stream responseStream, Boolean asyncCall) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(String methodName, Object[] parameters) at RMXClasses.RMXContactService.ContactService.getActiveSessions(String user, String pass) in C:\Users\hp\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\ReklamStore\RMXClasses\Web References\RMXContactService\Reference.cs:line 257 at I have used the same web config file from the production environment but it still works locally. My local machine is a running vista home edition and the production environment is windows server 2003. The application is written in asp.net 3.5, wierdly under the asp.net config tab in iis, 3.5 doesn't show up in the drop down list, although that version of the framework is installed. The error is not being thrown in my code, it happens during serialization. I called the method on the proxy, I have checked the arguments and they are OK. I have also logged the SOAP request and response, and they both look OK as well. I am really at a loss here. Any ideas? SOAP log: This is the soap response that the program seems to have trouble parsing only on server 2003. On my machine the soap is identical, and yet it parses with no problems. SoapResponse BeforeDeserialize; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:ns1="urn:ContactService" xmlns:ns2="http://api.yieldmanager.com/types" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"><SOAP-ENV:Body><ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse> <sessions SOAP-ENC:arrayType="ns2:session[1]" xsi:type="ns2:array_of_session"> <item xsi:type="ns2:session"> <token xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx1ae12517584b</token> <creation_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</creation_time> <modification_time xsi:type="xsd:dateTime">2009-09-25T05:51:19Z</modification_time> <ip_address xsi:type="xsd:string">xxxxxxxxxx</ip_address> <contact_id xsi:type="xsd:long">xxxxxx</contact_id></item></sessions> </ns1:getActiveSessionsResponse></SOAP-ENV:Body></SOAP-ENV:Envelope>

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• PHP Regex: How to match anything except a pattern between two tags

  - by Ryan

  Hello, I am attempting to match a string which is composed of HTML. Basically it is an image gallery so there is a lot of similarity in the string. There are a lot of <dl> tags in the string, but I am looking to match the last <dl>(.?)+</dl> combo that comes before a </div>. The way I've devised to do this is to make sure that there aren't any <dl's inside the <dl></dl> combo I'm matching. I don't care what else is there, including other tags and line breaks. I decided I had to do it with regular expressions because I can't predict how long this substring will be or anything that's inside it. Here is my current regex that only returns me an array with two NULL indicies: preg_match_all('/<dl((?!<dl).)+<\/dl>(?=<\/div>)/', $foo, $bar) As you can see I use negative lookahead to try and see if there is another <dl> within this one. I've also tried negative lookbehind here with the same results. I've also tried using +? instead of just + to no avail. Keep in mind that there's no pattern <dl><dl></dl> or anything, but that my regex is either matching the first <dl> and the last </dl> or nothing at all. Now I realize . won't match line breaks but I've tried anything I could imagine there and it still either provides me with the NULL indicies or nearly the whole string (from the very first occurance of <dl to </dl></div>, which includes several other occurances of <dl>, exactly what I didn't want). I honestly don't know what I'm doing incorrectly. Thanks for your help! I've spent over an hour just trying to straighten out this one problem and it's about driven me to pulling my hair out.

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• .Net Remote Log Querying

  - by jlafay

  I have a Win Service that I'm working on that consists of the service, WF Service (using WorkflowServiceHost), a Workflow (WorkflowApplication) that queries/processes data from a SQL Server DB, and a Comm Marshall class that handles data flow between the service and the WF. The WF does a lot of heavy data processing and the original app (early VB6) logged all the processing and displayed the results on the screen of the host machine. Critical events will be committed to eventlog because I strongly believe that should be common practice because admins naturally will look there and because it already has support for remote viewing. The workflow will also need to write logging events as it processes and iterates according to our business logic. Such as: records queried, records returned, processed records, etc. The data is very critical and we need to log actions as they occur. The logs are currently kept as text files on disk and I think that is ok. Ideally I would like to record log events in XML so it's easier to query and because it is less costly than a DB, especially since our DB servers do a lot of heavy processing anyways. Since we are replacing essentially a VB6 application with a robust windows service (taking advantage of WF 4.0), it has been requested that a remote client also be created. It receives callbacks from the service after subscribing to it and being added to a collection of subscribers. Basic statistics and summaries are updated client side after receiving basic monitoring data of what is going on with the service. We would like to also provide a way to provide details when we need to examine what is going on further because this is a long running data processing service and issues need to be addressed immediately. What is the best way to implement some type of query from the client that is sent to the service and returned to the client? Would it be efficient to implement another method to expose on the service and then have that pass that off to some querying class/object to examine the XML files by whichever specification and then return it to the client? That's the main concern. I don't want the service to processing to bottleneck much while this occurs. It seems that WF already auto-magically threads well for the most part but I want to make sure this is the right way to go about it. Any suggestions/recommendations on how to architect and implement a small log querying framework for a remote service would be awesome.

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• Spring 3 MVC - Form Failure Causes Exception When Reloading JSP

  - by jboyd

  Using Spring 3 MVC, please bear with the long code example, it's quite simple, but I want to make sure all relevant information is posted. Basically here is the use case: There is a registration page, a user can login, OR fill out a registration form. The login form is a simple HTML form, the registration form is a more complicated, Spring bound form that uses a RegistrationFormData bean. Here is the relevant code: UserController.java ... @RequestMapping(value = "/login", method = RequestMethod.GET) public String login(Model model) { model.addAttribute("registrationInfo", new ProfileAdminFormData()); return "login"; } ... @RequestMapping(value = "/login.do", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String doLogin( @RequestParam(value = "userName") String userName, @RequestParam(value = "password") String password, Model model) { logger.info("login.do : userName=" + userName + ", password=" + password); try { getUser().login(userName, password); } catch (UserNotFoundException ex) { logger.error(ex); model.addAttribute("loginError", ex.getWebViewableErrorMessage()); return "login"; } return "redirect:/"; } ... @RequestMapping(value = "/register.do") public String register( @ModelAttribute(value = "registrationInfo") ProfileAdminFormData profileAdminFormData, BindingResult result, Model model) { //todo: redirect if (new RegistrationValidator(profileAdminFormData, result).validate()) { try { User().register(profileAdminFormData); return "index"; } catch (UserException ex) { logger.error(ex); model.addAttribute("registrationErrorMessage", ex.getWebViewableErrorMessage()); return "login"; } } return "login"; } and the JSP: ... <form:form commandName="registrationInfo" action="register.do"> ... So the problem here is that when login fails I get an exception because there is no bean "registrationInfo" in the model attributes. What I need is that regardless of the path through this controller that the "registrationInfo" bean is not null, that way if login fails, as opposed to registration, that bean is still in the model. As you can see I create the registrationInfo object explicitly in my controller in the method bound to "/login", which is what I thought was going to be kind of a setup method" Something doesn't feel right about the "/login" method which sets up the page, but I needed to that in order to get the page to render at all without throwing an exception because there is no "registrationInfo" model attribute, as needed by the form in the JSP

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• Problem setting row backgrounds in Android Listview

  - by zchtodd

  I have an application in which I'd like one row at a time to have a certain color. This seems to work about 95% of the time, but sometimes instead of having just one row with this color, it will allow multiple rows to have the color. Specifically, a row is set to have the "special" color when it is tapped. In rare instances, the last row tapped will retain the color despite a call to setBackgroundColor attempting to make it otherwise. private OnItemClickListener mDirectoryListener = new OnItemClickListener(){ public void onItemClick(AdapterView parent, View view, int pos, long id){ if (stdir.getStationCount() == pos) { stdir.moreStations(); return; } if (playingView != null) playingView.setBackgroundColor(Color.DKGRAY); view.setBackgroundColor(Color.MAGENTA); playingView = view; playStation(pos); } }; I have confirmed with print statements that the code setting the row to gray is always called. Can anyone imagine a reason why this code might intermittently fail? If there is a pattern or condition that causes it, I can't tell. I thought it might have something to do with the activity lifecycle setting the "playingView" variable back to null, but I can't reliably reproduce the problem by switching activities or locking the phone. private class DirectoryAdapter extends ArrayAdapter { private ArrayList<Station> items; public DirectoryAdapter(Context c, int resLayoutId, ArrayList<Station> stations){ super(c, resLayoutId, stations); this.items = stations; } public int getCount(){ return items.size() + 1; } public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent){ View v = convertView; LayoutInflater vi = (LayoutInflater)getContext().getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); if (position == this.items.size()) { v = vi.inflate(R.layout.morerow, null); return v; } Station station = this.items.get(position); v = vi.inflate(R.layout.songrow, null); if (station.playing) v.setBackgroundColor(Color.MAGENTA); else if (station.visited) v.setBackgroundColor(Color.DKGRAY); else v.setBackgroundColor(Color.BLACK); TextView title = (TextView)v.findViewById(R.id.title); title.setText(station.name); return v; } };

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• Across process marhalling problem with an array of points

  - by ElMagn

  Hi All, We have what we think is a marshalling problem with a renderer object when called across process boundaries. The renderer is an ATL COM server with a COM object that implements the IPoints interface defined below: typedef [uuid(B0E01719-005A-427c-B9DD-B42A18E969AE)] struct Point { double X; double Y; } Point; [ object, uuid(3BFECFE3-B4FB-4f14-8257-6E065D02E3B3), helpstring("IPoints Interface"), dual, ] interface IPoints : IDispatch { HRESULT DrawPolyLine([in] long hDC, [in] short count, [in, size_is(count)] Point * points ); // many more like DrawLine } The count parameter represents the number of points and the points parameter represents an array of the actual points. We have two process running, a graphical display process (GDP) and a tabular (grid) display process (TDP). A factory in the GDP, written in C#, creates the renderer and the clients of the renderer in the GDP. When the clients call into the renderer, everything displays correctly. The renderer is created at start up BTW. There is another factory in the TDP, written in VB6, that calls into the factory in the GDP to create the clients. When the clients call into the renderer, only the first point in the array is marshaled correctly, all the other points are garbage. Seems that the rendering works only when the client creation is started from the same process as the renderer. Now, i am not sure what the solution to this problem is. It seems that if we can guarantee that the clients are always created from a thread in the same GDP process as the renderer then the points are marshaled correctly. We tried using a background thread from the Thread Pool in C# and it indeed worked. The problem is that Windows Forms created from the clients stopped working because accessing the form's controls from a thread other than the thread that created the control is not allowed. We might change the calls to access the forms but we have quite a few of them and are trying to look into a different solution that might involve making changes to the renderer. The other problem is that the renderer is legacy code and we can't just change the interface. I am wondering what can we do to the renderer's interface that would help with marshalling from across process calls. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated. Regards, ElMagn

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• Asp.net Mvc - Kigg: Maintain User object in HttpContext.Items between requests.

  - by Pickels

  Hallo, first I want to say that I hope this doesn't look like I am lazy but I have some trouble understanding a piece of code from the following project. http://kigg.codeplex.com/ I was going through the source code and I noticed something that would be usefull for my own little project I am making. In their BaseController they have the following code: private static readonly Type CurrentUserKey = typeof(IUser); public IUser CurrentUser { get { if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(CurrentUserName)) { IUser user = HttpContext.Items[CurrentUserKey] as IUser; if (user == null) { user = AccountRepository.FindByClaim(CurrentUserName); if (user != null) { HttpContext.Items[CurrentUserKey] = user; } } return user; } return null; } } This isn't an exact copy of the code I adjusted it a little to my needs. This part of the code I still understand. They store their IUser in HttpContext.Items. I guess they do it so that they don't have to call the database eachtime they need the User object. The part that I don't understand is how they maintain this object in between requests. If I understand correctly the HttpContext.Items is a per request cache storage. So after some more digging I found the following code. internal static IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object> GetInstances(HttpContextBase httpContext) { IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object> instances; if (httpContext.Items.Contains(Key)) { instances = (IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object>) httpContext.Items[Key]; } else { lock (httpContext.Items) { if (httpContext.Items.Contains(Key)) { instances = (IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object>) httpContext.Items[Key]; } else { instances = new Dictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object>(); httpContext.Items.Add(Key, instances); } } } return instances; } This is the part where some magic happens that I don't understand. I think they use Unity to do some dependency injection on each request? In my project I am using Ninject and I am wondering how I can get the same result. I guess InRequestScope in Ninject is the same as UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager? I am also wondering which class/method they are binding to which interface? Since the HttpContext.Items get destroyed each request how do they prevent losing their user object? Anyway it's kinda a long question so I am gradefull for any push in the right direction. Kind regards, Pickels

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• Creating multiple heads in remote repository

  - by Jab

  We are looking to move our team (~10 developers) from SVN to mercurial. We are trying to figure out how to manage our workflow. In particular, we are trying to see if creating remote heads is the right solution. We currently have a very large repository with multiple, related projects. They share a lot of code, but pieces of the project are deployed by different teams (3 teams) independent of other portions of the code-base. So each team is working on concurrent large features. The way we currently handles this in SVN are branches. Team1 has a branch for Feature1, same deal for the other teams. When Team1 finishes their change, it gets merged into the trunk and deployed out. The other teams follow suite when their project is complete, merging of course. So my initial thought are using Named Branches for these situations. Team1 makes a Feature1 branch off of the default branch in Hg. Now, here is the question. Should the team PUSH that branch, in it's current/half-state to the repository. This will create a second head in the core repo. My initial reaction was "NO!" as it seems like a bad idea. Handling multiple heads on our repository just sounds awful, but there are some advantages... First, the teams want to setup Continuous Integration to build this branch during their development cycle(months long). This will only work if the CI can pull this branch from the repo. This is something we do now with SVN, copy a CI build and change the branch. Easy. Second, it makes it easier for any team member to jump onto the branch and start working. Without pushing to the core repo, they would have to receive a push from a developer on that team with the changeset information. It is also possible to lose local commits to hardware failure. The chances increase a lot if it's a branch by a single developer who has followed the "don't push until finished" approach. And lastly is just for ease of use. The developers can easily just commit and push on their branch at any time without consequence(as they do today, in their SVN branches). Is there a better way to handle this scenario that I may be missing? I just want a veteran's opinion before moving forward with the strategy. For bug fixes we like the general workflow of mecurial, anonymous branches that only consist of 1-2 commits. The simplicity is great for those cases. By the way, I've read this , great article which seems to favor Named branches.

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• PHP array pointer craziness

  - by JMan

  I'm trying to create a "GetCurrentLevel" method that takes a point value as an input and returns what "Level" that corresponds to. I'm storing the Level = Points mapping in an array, but the array pointer is not moving logically when I use it a foreach loop. I've added echo statements for debugging. Here's my class definition: class Levels extends Model { protected $_map = array ( 'None' => 0, 'Bronze' => 50, 'Silver' => 200, 'Gold' => 500 ); public function __construct() { parent::__construct(); } public function GetCurrentLevel($points) { foreach ($this->_map as $name => $threshold) { echo "Level Name: $name<br/>"; echo "Level Threshold: $threshold<br/>"; echo "Current Level: " . key($this->_map) . "<br/>"; echo "Current Threshold: " . current($this->_map) . "<br/>"; if ($points < $threshold) /* Threshold is now above the points, so need to go back one level */ { $previousThreshold = prev($this->_map); echo "Previous Threshold: $previousThreshold<br/>"; echo "Final Level: " . key($this->_map) . "<br/>"; return key($this->_map); } echo "Go to next level <br/>"; } } And here is what I see when I call GetCurrentLevel(60): Level Name: None Level Threshold: 0 Current Level: Bronze //* Looks like foreach immediately moves the array pointer *// Current Threshold: 50 Go to next level Level Name: Bronze Level Threshold: 50 Current Level: Bronze //* WTF? Why hasn't the array pointer moved? *// Current Threshold: 50 Go to next level Level Name: Silver Level Threshold: 200 Current Level: Bronze //* WTF? Why hasn't the array pointer moved? *// Current Threshold: 50 Previous Threshold: 0 Final Level: None But the "Final Level" should be 'Bronze' since 60 points is above the 50 points needed for a Bronze medal, but below the 200 points needed for a Silver medal. Sorry for the long post. Thanks for your help!

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