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• Some ASP.NET and Access

  - by Fazleh

  Good Day all, I have a big problem but i think its minor for you guys in Stackoverflow. I am creating a web application that has two main parts. The Payment part and Requisition part. It backbone is using access and the script is in ASP.NET. I managed to sort out most of the application. But I have been having a few problems. I have pasted the link to the project in http://www.mediafire.com/download/p09fefreifidud3/Inyatsi.rar so it will be easy for someone to see what I am blabbing about. Now for my problems: The AddRequisition.aspx/AddPayment.aspx: both have a reference number. I wanted it to be unique number(but not a primary key). I wanted it to be in the following format: DDMMYY(TransactionNo)(UserID) eg: 24061101PK. I have tried and tried but have not been able to sort it out. The AmountINWords gets the value from Amount. It converts the Amount into words. Thats not all. It picks what currncy was picked in the CurrencyPaidIn and pust the respective currency inside. eg. 123.45 USD becomes One Hundred and twenty three dollars and forty five cents. I tried using queries but as you will see that went all wrong. Those are the only two things that I cant seem to get my head around. I do know that there are some things that are not conventional ASP.NET and some text boxes are not the right size. I was thinking of sorting out those after I get those two fixed because they are simple to do. I really need some help with this application please. If someone can just have a look at the code and add a few things here and there. Thanks in advance. Faz

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• Refetching a previously visited page

  - by user613665

  All, I am having a field day with page refetching. Any help or pointer will be greatly appreciated!! The behavior is a bit specific to mobile browser. Problem: I have two pages and created a shortcut link to pg#1 in the home page. Through a form submit button, user is taken from pg#1 to pg#2. All that is working fine. Now once I am on pg#2. I will leave the browser and click the shortcut later. The browser will stay on pg#2 and won't go to pg#1 even though the path in URLS is different between the two views. It is almost like Django decides that since I have already visited view#1, it doesn't need to fetch it again. This problem or behavior doesn't happen if I move the same code that handle the two views and the templates to a bare bone test project. Setup: I am using django-registration, context session. I am not using any HTML caching tag. I already have DEBUG turned on in my settings.py. Are there other ways that I can tell what the server is doing. Thanks in advance. pdxMobile Update: Here is the code snippets. def sendmsg(request): if request.method =='POST': messages.add_message(request, messages.INFO, "Hello world") return redirect ('rcvmsg') return render_to_response('sendMsg.html',RequestContext(request)) def rcvmsg(request): '''view that receives the msg.''' printMsg ='Didnt get a message' if messages: thisMsg = messages.get_messages(request) for rcvMsg in thisMsg: printMsg = rcvMsg return render_to_response('rcvMsg.html',{'print_msg':printMsg},RequestContext(request)) URL: url(r'^rcvMsg/','mydomain.mainApp.views.rcvmsg',name='rcvmsg'), (r'^sendMsg/code','mydomain.mainApp.views.sendmsg'),

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• What is the point of having a key_t if what will be the key to access shared memory is the return value of shmget()?

  - by devoured elysium

  When using shared memory, why should we care about creating a key key_t ftok(const char *path, int id); in the following bit of code? key_t key; int shmid; key = ftok("/home/beej/somefile3", 'R'); shmid = shmget(key, 1024, 0644 | IPC_CREAT); From what I've come to understand, what is needed to access a given shared memory is the shmid, not the key. Or am I wrong? If what we need is the shmid, what is the point in not just creating a random key every time? Edit @link text one can read: What about this key nonsense? How do we create one? Well, since the type key_t is actually just a long, you can use any number you want. But what if you hard-code the number and some other unrelated program hardcodes the same number but wants another queue? The solution is to use the ftok() function which generates a key from two arguments. Reading this, it gives me the impression that what one needs to attach to a shared-memory block is the key. But this isn't true, is it? Thanks

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• entering datas of php page to database

  - by Rahima farzana.S

  I have a php form with two text boxes and i want to enter the text box values into the database. I have created the table (with two columns namely webmeasurementsuite id and webmeasurements id) I used the following syntax for creating table: CREATE TABLE `radio` ( `webmeasurementsuite id` INT NOT NULL, `webmeasurements id` INT NOT NULL ); Utilising the tutorial in the following link, I wrote the php coding but unfortunately the datas are not getting entered into the database. I am getting an error in the insert sql syntax. I checked it but i am not able to trace out the error.Can anyone correct me? I got the coding from http://www.webune.com/forums/php-how-to-enter-data-into-database-with-php-scripts.html $sql = "INSERT INTO $db_table(webmeasurementsuite id,webmeasurements id) values ('".mysql_real_escape_string(stripslashes($_REQUEST['webmeasurementsuite id']))."','".mysql_real_escape_string(stripslashes($_REQUEST['webmeasurements id']))."')"; echo$sql; My error is as follows: INSERT INTO radio(webmeasurementsuite id,webmeasurements id) values ('','')ERROR: You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'id,webmeasurements id) values ('','')' at line 1

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• I need to move a dived CSS module into the center of the page...

  - by JackMcE

  I'm building a website for someone and they wanted the text and bulk of the information to be centered on the page. Problem is I can get everything contained in a tag and then assign the class, but I can't get the whole thing to center. It always hangs to the left even if I apply centering to the div class. I guess you could say that it is stuck on the left side of the page when I want everything to be centered. I would just make everything format larger but they want some space left in the background for the color and maybe some imagery later on. They haven't made up their minds. If you want to take a look here is the link where I'm building or testing stuff. I know the header and such needs to be re proportioned to fit with everything, but just as a frame of reference. Don't worry about the header, just know that I want the white text information area with the purple border to stay the same size, but just move to the center and if some one could tell me how to do that I would appreciate it greatly.

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• How can I set/store cookie when anchor clicked

  - by Unaverage Guy

  I am trying to use Cookie so that a default style OR a specific style is applied in reference to the anchor tag clicked, even when the browser is closed/reopen. So if the user clicked the second link, close or refresh the browser and reopen, than the style should still be active, if it is their first time the default should apply. This is a little over my turf. Here is the HTML: <a id="default" href="#/">Default Style</a> <a id="style2" href="#/">Style 2</a> <a id="style3" href="#/">Style 3</a> <ol> <li><span>Hello World</span></li> </ol> JQuery: (Compliments of StackOverflow) <script type="text/javascript"> $('#default').on('click',function(){ $('ol li span').removeClass(function() { return $(this).attr('class'); }).addClass('default'); }); $('#style2').click(function(){ $('ol li span').removeClass(function() { return $(this).attr('class'); }).addClass('style2'); }); $('#style3').click(function(){ $('ol li span').removeClass(function() { return $(this).attr('class'); }).addClass('style3'); }); </script> CSS: <style type="text/css"> .default{ color: #333; } .style2{ color: #999; } .style3{ color: #800; } </style>

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• Can I use a UINavigationController as the detail view of a UISplitViewController?

  - by B Sweigard

  I'm running into a problem with an iPad app where I would like to have UINavigationControllers in both of the views within a UISplitView. I've looked through other similar questions here, but most link to a tutorial online that doesn't completely solve the problem. Here's a 2-minute walkthrough to re-create the problem I'm having: Create a New Project in XCode, starting from the Split View-based Application template. Add the following NSLog statement as the first line within the DetailViewController's willHideViewController method: NSLog(@"toolbar: %@", toolbar); If you run the application now, the log will show that the DetailViewController's toolbar is alive and well. Now... Open MainWindow.xib and expand the SplitViewController. Drag a Navigation Controller from the library on top of the DetailViewController. Expand the new Navigation Controller and change the class of the UIViewController within to a DetailViewController. Ctrl-drag from the SplitViewController to the DetailViewController and assign it as the delegate. Save MainWindow.xib and run the app again. At this point, the detail view has a navigation bar and an empty toolbar. If you view the logs, you should find that the toolbar is null. Why is this? Am I missing some sort of connection in Interface Builder? Is the navigation bar the problem for some reason? Unlike the tutorial at http://www.cimgf.com/2010/05/24/fixing-the-uisplitviewcontroller-template/, I would like to keep both the navigation bar and the toolbar (preferably with the toolbar at the top when in portrait and not visible when in landscape), so that I still have a functional "Back" button when the iPad is in portrait orientation. Does anyone have any suggestions for fixing this problem? An example project with this sort of set-up would be ideal.

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• UnknownHostException again!

  - by Nitesh Panchal

  Hello, I posted one question previously and all of them answered that there is some problem with DNS but i changed my DNS to many addressed and now i have the most reliable, google DNS :- 8.8.8.8 Still i get the same UnknownHostException. What can be the problem? This is my code :- DocumentBuilderFactory dbf = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); DocumentBuilder db = dbf.newDocumentBuilder(); Document doc = db.parse("http://rss.news.yahoo.com/rss/india"); Infact if i pass address as something very common like :- http://google.com i still get the same error. Please help me :(. I have my submissions tomorrow. Thanks in advance :) EDIT : If i type the same address in my mozilla, it works great. So, i am sure that there is no DNS problem. 2nd EDIT :- I found this link http://www.ehow.com/how_4747553_fix-unknownhostexception-java-applications-ubuntu.html But when i run the command sudo apt-get install lib32nss-mdns i get package not found. Somebody even mentioned :- -Djava.net.preferIPv4Stack=true But where do i write this statement of Djava? I am using Netbeans 6.8 to run my web application

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• Is this Leftist Tree piece of code from Wikipedia correct?

  - by they changed my name

  Link public Node merge(Node x, Node y) { if(x == null) return y; if(y == null) return x; // if this was a max height biased leftist tree, then the // next line would be: if(x.element < y.element) if(x.element.compareTo(y.element) > 0) { // x.element > y.element Node temp = x; x = y; y = temp; } x.rightChild = merge(x.rightChild, y); if(x.leftChild == null) { // left child doesn't exist, so move right child to the left side x.leftChild = x.rightChild; x.rightChild = null; x.s = 1; } else { // left child does exist, so compare s-values if(x.leftChild.s < x.rightChild.s) { Node temp = x.leftChild; x.leftChild = x.rightChild; x.rightChild = temp; } // since we know the right child has the lower s-value, we can just // add one to its s-value x.s = x.rightChild.s + 1; } return x; } What makes me ask this question is: if(x.element.compareTo(y.element) > 0) { // x.element > y.element Node temp = x; x = y; y = temp; } Isn't that just not gonna work, since the references are only switched inside the method?

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• Error with `Thread.Sleep` during automatic testing on TeamCity 5

  - by yeyeyerman

  Hello, I'm having some problems executing the tests of the application I'm developing. All the tests execute normally with ReSharper and in NCover. However, the execution of one of these tests in TeamCity is generating an error. This test initializes two objects, the object under test and a simulator of a real object. Both objects will communicate throug a serial link in a representation of the real scenario. ObjectSimulator r_simulator = new ObjectSimulator(...); ObjectDriver r_driver = new ObjectDriver(...); Assert.IsTrue(r_driver.Connect() == ErrorCode.Success); The simulator just do the following in the constructor public class ObjectSimulator { ... public ObjectSimulator() { // serial port configuration m_port = new SerialPort(); m_port.DataReceived += DataReceivedEvent; } ... } The main object has two threads. The main thread of the application and a timer to refresh a watchdog timer in the real object. public ErrorCode Connect() { ... StartSynchroTimer(); Thread.Sleep(4); // to check if the timer is working properly ... } The problem seems to be comming from the Thread.Sleep() call, as when I remove it everything works. The ObjectSimulator somehow doesn't execute the DataReceived event callback. How can I resolve this issue?

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• How to call back (like onActivityResult) after launching activity from browser by clicking url?

  - by kimilhee

  I succeded to call activity from browser link with tag like this. <a href="myapp://launch.myapp.com/activity2?var1=linkClicked">my app</a> of cource I added actvity setting in AndroidManifest.xml like this. <activity android:name=".Activity2" > <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.VIEW"></action> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT"></category> <category android:name="android.intent.category.BROWSABLE"></category> <data android:host="launch.myapp.com" android:scheme="myapp" android:pathPrefix="/activity2"></data> </intent-filter> </activity> I want to call back from the activity2 with a value. Is there any way to receive some value from the activity that was launched by the browser like above? In other words I want do something like onActivityResult in the browser and get a value from the activity and set the value on the web page which has launched the activity.

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• The page at [ Page URL ] could not be reached. (Urgent)

  - by Danial Sabagh

  I want to add the like button on my website, but it does not work because whenever I click on Like button it says: The page at could not be reached. You can also check the url to see the error: My Facebook page Here is what I did to use the code: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:fb="http://ogp.me/ns/fb#"> <head> <meta property="og:title" content="ALEXA BEAUTY" /> <meta property="og:type" content="company" /> <meta property="og:url" content="http://alexasalon.co.uk/" /> <meta property="og:image" content="http://alexasalon.co.uk/images/logo.png" /> <meta property="og:site_name" content="ALEXA BEAUTY" /> <meta property="fb:admins" content="100002556535323" /> </head> <body> <div id="fb-root"></div> <script>(function(d, s, id) { var js, fjs = d.getElementsByTagName(s)[0]; if (d.getElementById(id)) {return;} js = d.createElement(s); js.id = id; js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js#xfbml=1&appId=220687968005095"; fjs.parentNode.insertBefore(js, fjs); }(document, 'script', 'facebook-jssdk'));</script> <div> <fb:like href="http://www.facebook.com/pages/Alexa-Beauty/205401152839187" send="true" width="450" show_faces="false" font="lucida grande"></fb:like> </div> Is the code wrong? Is the page URL correct? I checked the website on Object Debugger and seems there is no error, check link please. I really do not know what is wrong? Does anyone know?!

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• Can't seem to get my like/dislike to work in PHP

  - by user300371

  My table is comment_likedislike. It has the comment_counterid, comment_counter, comment_id(which is from another table) fields. And I have an url (LIKE) that when clicked would link to this code and get the comment_id and like_id. I want to do a count where if it is the first 'like', it would store a new comment_counter in the comment_likedislike table. But if there is already a 'like' for the comment in the table, it would just update the comment_counter to +1. Problem: When I run this code, it doesn't UPDATE(1st statement) but INSERT(2nd if statement) no matter if there is a like for the comment or not. I don't think the code is checking if the comment_id is in the table already. I am a novice php programmer. Thanks! if (isset($_GET['comment_id']) && isset($_GET['like_id'])) { $query5="SELECT * FROM comment_likedislike "; $data5=mysqli_query ($dbc, $query5); while ($row5= mysqli_fetch_array($data5)){ $comment_id2=$row5['comment_id']; } if ($comment_id2 == $_GET['comment_id']){ $counter=$row5['comment_counter']; $counter++; $query= "UPDATE comment_likedislike SET comment_counter ='$counter' WHERE comment_id= '".$_GET['comment_id']."' "; mysqli_query($dbc, $query); } if ($comment_id2 != $_GET['comment_id']) { $counter2=1; $query9 = "INSERT INTO comment_likedislike (comment_counter, comment_id) VALUES ('$counter2', '".$_GET['comment_id']."' )"; mysqli_query($dbc, $query9); } }

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• actionscript find and convert text to url

  - by gravesit

  I have this script that grabs a twitter feed and displays in a little widget. What I want to do is look at the text for a url and convert that url to a link. public class Main extends MovieClip { private var twitterXML:XML; // This holds the xml data public function Main() { // This is Untold Entertainment's Twitter id. Did you grab yours? var myTwitterID= "username"; // Fire the loadTwitterXML method, passing it the url to your Twitter info: loadTwitterXML("http://twitter.com/statuses/user_timeline/" + myTwitterID + ".xml"); } private function loadTwitterXML(URL:String):void { var urlLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); // When all the junk has been pulled in from the url, we'll fire finishedLoadingXML: urlLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, finishLoadingXML); urlLoader.load(new URLRequest(URL)); } private function finishLoadingXML(e:Event = null):void { // All the junk has been pulled in from the xml! Hooray! // Remove the eventListener as a bit of housecleaning: e.target.removeEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, finishLoadingXML); // Populate the xml object with the xml data: twitterXML = new XML(e.target.data); showTwitterStatus(); } private function addTextToField(text:String,field:TextField):void{ /*Regular expressions for replacement, g: replace all, i: no lower/upper case difference Finds all strings starting with "http://", followed by any number of characters niether space nor new line.*/ var reg:RegExp=/(\b(https?|ftp|file):\/\/[-A-Z0-9+&@#\/%?=~_|!:,.;]*[-A-Z0-9+&@#\/%=~_|])/ig; //Replaces Note: "$&" stands for the replaced string. text.replace(reg,"<a href=\"$&\">$&</a>"); field.htmlText=text; } private function showTwitterStatus():void { // Uncomment this line if you want to see all the fun stuff Twitter sends you: //trace(twitterXML); // Prep the text field to hold our latest Twitter update: twitter_txt.wordWrap = true; twitter_txt.autoSize = TextFieldAutoSize.LEFT; // Populate the text field with the first element in the status.text nodes: addTextToField(twitterXML.status.text[0], twitter_txt); }

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• Destroy? Delete? What's going on here? Rails 2.3.5

  - by Steve

  I am new to rails. My rails version is 2.3.5. I found usage like: In controller, a destroy method is defined and in view, you can use :action = "delete" to fire that method. Isn't the action name has to be the same as the method name? Why delete is mapped to destroy? Again, in my controller, I define a method called destroy to delete a record. In a view, I have <%= link_to "remove", :action = 'destroy', :id = myrecord %. But it never works in practice. Every time I press the remove link, it redirects me to the show view, showing the record's content. I am pretty sure that my destroy method is: def destroy @myobject = MyObject.find(params[:id]) @myobject.destroy @redirect_to :action = 'index' end If I change the method name from destroy to something like remove_me and change the action name to remove_me in the view, everything works as expected. In the above two wired problems, I am sure there is no tricky rountting set in my configuration. All in all, seems the destroy and delete are mysterious keywords in rails. Anyone can explain this to me? Thank you very much.

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• how to set custom tab in jquery ui and use with rails

  - by Katyal

  I'm using jqueryUI for tabs on a page. I initialize it like below: $("#tabs").tabs(); <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li><a href="#tabs-4">Part A</a></li> <li><a href="#tabs-2">Part B</a></li> <li><a href="#tabs-5">Part C</a></li> </ul> <div id="tabs-4"> ..... </div> <div id="tabs-2"> .... </div> <div id="tabs-5"> .... </div> </div> I have 2 questions. How do I set the tab to be custom. say I want second tab to be shown first. $('#tabs').tabs(2) does not work. i got that from this link Let say I click on a button inside tab1. Clicking on the button takes control back to an action and then control comes back to this page. When the control comes back...then is it possible to set a custom tab?. For example. in tab 1 I click something...go back to the action...and then I want to come back to tab 2.

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• How to emulate a BEFORE DELETE trigger in SQL Server 2005

  - by Mark

  Let's say I have three tables, [ONE], [ONE_TWO], and [TWO]. [ONE_TWO] is a many-to-many join table with only [ONE_ID and [TWO_ID] columns. There are foreign keys set up to link [ONE] to [ONE_TWO] and [TWO] to [ONE_TWO]. The FKs use the ON DELETE CASCADE option so that if either a [ONE] or [TWO] record is deleted, the associated [ONE_TWO] records will be automatically deleted as well. I want to have a trigger on the [TWO] table such that when a [TWO] record is deleted, it executes a stored procedure that takes a [ONE_ID] as a parameter, passing the [ONE_ID] values that were linked to the [TWO_ID] before the delete occurred: DECLARE @Statement NVARCHAR(max) SET @Statement = '' SELECT @Statement = @Statement + N'EXEC [MyProc] ''' + CAST([one_two].[one_id] AS VARCHAR(36)) + '''; ' FROM deleted JOIN [one_two] ON deleted.[two_id] = [one_two].[two_id] EXEC (@Statement) Clearly, I need a BEFORE DELETE trigger, but there is no such thing in SQL Server 2005. I can't use an INSTEAD OF trigger because of the cascading FK. I get the impression that if I use a FOR DELETE trigger, when I join [deleted] to [ONE_TWO] to find the list of [ONE_ID] values, the FK cascade will have already deleted the associated [ONE_TWO] records so I will never find any [ONE_ID] values. Is this true? If so, how can I achieve my objective? I'm thinking that I'd need to change the FK joining [TWO] to [ONE_TWO] to not use cascades and to do the delete from [ONE_TWO] manually in the trigger just before I manually delete the [TWO] records. But I'd rather not go through all that if there is a simpler way.

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• C vs C++ function questions

  - by james

  I am learning C, and after starting out learning C++ as my first compiled language, I decided to "go back to basics" and learn C. There are two questions that I have concerning the ways each language deals with functions. Firstly, why does C "not care" about the scope that functions are defined in, whereas C++ does? For example, int main() { donothing(); return 0; } void donothing() { } the above will not compile in a C++ compiler, whereas it will compile in a C compiler. Why is this? Isn't C++ mostly just an extension on C, and should be mostly "backward compatible"? Secondly, the book that I found (Link to pdf) does not seem to state a return type for the main function. I check around and found other books and websites and these also commonly do not specify return types for the main function. If I try to compile a program that does not specify a return type for main, it compiles fine (although with some warnings) in a C compiler, but it doesn't compile in a C++ compiler. Again, why is that? Is it better style to always specify the return type as an integer rather than leaving it out? Thanks for any help, and just as a side note, if anyone can suggest a better book that I should buy that would be great!

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• How to iterate & retrieve values from NSArray of NSArrays of NSDictionaries

  - by chinjazz

  I'm stumpped on how iterate and get values for an Array of Arrays of NSDictionaries (different classes/entities). Here's what I'm currently doing: 1) Constructing two separate arrays of NSDictionaries (different entities) 2) Combining both arrays with: NSMutableArray *combinedArrayofDicts = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithObjects: sizesArrayOfDicts, wishListArrayOfDicts , nil]; 3) Then archive combinedArrayofDicts : NSData *dataToSend = [NSKeyedArchiver archivedDataWithRootObject:combinedArrayofDicts]; 4) Transmit over GameKit [self.session sendDataToAllPiers:dataToSend withDataMode: GKSendDataReliable error:nil]; 5) How would I manage traversing thru this array on the receiving end? I want to fetch values by for each class which is key'ed by classname: Here's how it looks via NSLog (2 Sizes Dicts, and 1 Wishlist Dict) Printing description of receivedArray: <__NSArrayM 0xbc65eb0>( <__NSArrayM 0xbc651f0>( { classname = Sizes; displayOrder = 0; share = 1; sizeType = Neck; value = "13\" or 33 (cm)"; }, { classname = Sizes; displayOrder = 0; share = 1; sizeType = Sleeve; value = "34\" or 86 (cm)"; } ) , <__NSArrayM 0xbc65e80>( { classname = Wishlist; detail = ""; displayOrder = 0; imageString = ""; latitude = "30.33216666666667"; link = "http://maps.google.com/maps?q=loc:30.332,-81.41"; longitude = "-81.40949999999999"; name = bass; share = 1; store = ""; } ) ) (lldb) In my for loop I'm issuing this: NSString *value = [dict objectForKey:@"classname"]; and get an exception: * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '-[__NSArrayM objectForKey:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0xbc651f0' Is this frowned upon as far as mixing object types in arrays of arrays?

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• Container of Generic Types in java

  - by Cyker

  I have a generic class Foo<T> and parameterized types Foo<String> and Foo<Integer>. Now I want to put different parameterized types into a single ArrayList. What is the correct way of doing this? Candidate 1: public class MMM { public static void main(String[] args) { Foo<String> fooString = new Foo<String>(); Foo<Integer> fooInteger = new Foo<Integer>(); ArrayList<Foo<?> > list = new ArrayList<Foo<?> >(); list.add(fooString); list.add(fooInteger); for (Foo<?> foo : list) { // Do something on foo. } } } class Foo<T> {} Candidate 2: public class MMM { public static void main(String[] args) { Foo<String> fooString = new Foo<String>(); Foo<Integer> fooInteger = new Foo<Integer>(); ArrayList<Foo> list = new ArrayList<Foo>(); list.add(fooString); list.add(fooInteger); for (Foo foo : list) { // Do something on foo. } } } class Foo<T> {} In a word, it is related to the difference between Foo<?> and the raw type Foo. Update: Grep What is the difference between the unbounded wildcard parameterized type and the raw type? on this link may be helpful.

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• SQL inner join from field defined table?

  - by Wolftousen

  I have a, currently, a total of 6 tables that are part of this question. The primary table, tableA, contains columns that all the entries in the other 5 tables have in common. The other 5 tables have columns which define the entry in tableA in more detail. For example: TableA ID|Name|Volumn|Weight|Description 0 |T1 |0.4 |0.1 |Random text 1 |R1 |5.3 |25 |Random text TableB ID|Color|Shape 0 |Blue |Sphere TableC ID|Direction|Velocity 1 |North |3.4 (column names are just examples don't take them for what they mean...) The ID field in Table A is unique to all other tables (i.e. TableB will have 0, but TableC will not, nor any other Tables). What I would like to do is select all the fields from TableA and the corresponding (according to ID field) detail Table (TableB-F). What I have currently done and not tested is added a field to TableA so it looks like this: TableA ID|Name|Volumn|Weight|Description|Table 0 |T1 |0.4 |0.1 |Random text|TableB 1 |R1 |5.3 |25 |Random text|TableC I have a few questions about this: 1.Is it proper to do such a thing to TableA, as foreign keys wont work in this situation since they all need to link to different tables? 2.If this is proper, would the SQL query look like this (ID would be input by the user)? SELECT * FROM TableA AS a INNER JOIN a.Table AS t ON a.ID = ID; 3.Is there a better way to do this? Thanks for the help.

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• Retrieving the first picture with a HTML parser

  - by justin01

  Hey guys, (Not a native english speaker) I'm doing a personal project in PHP in which I use the Simple HTML Parser to parse the HTML of a given URL and retrieve the first image in a DIV that have a specific ID or class (maincontent, content, main, wrapper, etc. - it's all in an array) and ignore ads. The goal is to take this image and make a thumbnail with it, pretty much like on Digg and others. I thought everything was working fine until I tried my script with the website Snopes ("http://www.snopes.com/photos/animals/luckycoyote.asp" <- this page more exactly). The source of the first image it gets is: " graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg ". So far, to correct this problem I created a little function that gets the domain name of the given URL and insert it before the IMG's source attribute. So for sites like Snopes.com, it gives me: "http://www.snopes.com/graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg" ... while the real URL for this image is "http://www.snopes.com*/photos/animals/graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg*" (or, more precisely: " http://graphics1.snopes.com/photos/animals/graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg " - note the subdomain here). So my main question is: how can I externally/dynamically retrieve the full URL address of an image ("absolute path") when I am only given the "relative path"? I'm pretty sure this is possible, since when I paste the link in Facebook's "What are you doing?" field for example, it gives me the correct path to the image while on the website, the source of the image is only (example) "image/photo/example.jpg". Thank you for your time.

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• Filling array with numbers

  - by Ockonal

  Hello, I have such situation: There is 8 div-blocks with ids like 'rateN_wrapper' where is 'N' is the number of div: <div id="rate1_wrapper"> <a href="#" id="0_1">...</a> <a href="#" id="0_2">...</a> <a href="#" id="0_3">...</a> </div> <div id="rate2_wrapper"> <a href="#" id="1_1">...</a> <a href="#" id="1_2">...</a> <a href="#" id="1_3">...</a> </div> ... var ratings = new Array(); for (i=0; i < 8; i++) { ratings[i] = -1; // Default is unrated } for (i=0; i < 8; i++) { $('#rate' + i + '_wrapper a').click(function() { ratings[i] = parseInt( $(this).attr('id').split('_')[1] ); console.debug(ratings); }); } My work is to fill array in need place with clicked link's id (parsed). But it's always changes only latest element of array (8). Why?

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• How can I use SCM on linked files in VS2008 projects?

  - by Tom Bushell

  Background: I'm using Visual-SVN V. 1.7.5 with VS2008. I'm fairly new to SVN. I have a Solution that uses source files that will be shared with other Solutions. I've put these files in a folder called "Shared", and added them to my Solution using "Add - Existing Item... - Add As Link" which works fine as far as VS2008 is concerned. But when I try to add the linked files to SVN using the "Add to Suversion" menu item on the file's context menu, I get a warning: "...not added to Subversion because it is out of working copy. Please setup working copy root using Visual SVN - Set Working Copy Root menu". I tried this, but this seems to change the root directory of the whole solution - not what I want to do. Googling and searching SO indicates that I may want to set up some SVN Externals. I tried to follow the examples, using the command line for the first time with Visual-SVN. But I just got a bunch of error messages I didn't understand. Questions: Are Externals the way to go here? If so, can someone provide some detailed, step-by-step help on how to do this with Visual-SVN?

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• Unordered list appears higher than div

  - by LordArmadillo

  I am trying to create a simple page, which I normally can without any trouble. However, the unordered list appears higher up the page than the div. I do know a solution for this, however I cannot remember it. The page goes like this: <style> ul.menu { list-style-type: none; margin:150; margin-bottom:30px; padding:0; display: block; width: 708px; margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto; } li.menu { float:left; display: block; width: 118px; } a.menu:link,a.menu:visited { color:black; display:block; border:1px solid black; background-color:#FFFF00; width:118px; text-align:center; text-decoration:none; font-family:"Courier New", Courier, monospace } a.menu:hover { background-color:#FFBB11; } </style> <div id="head"> My images here & such</div> <ul class="menu"> <li class="menu"> <a class="menu">Main</a> </li> </ul> Normally I welcome suggestions to change my code, but I have a deadline today! So, quick & simple help would be appreciated! Thanks! LordArmadillo

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