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  • Internet Explorer buggy when accessing a custom weblogic provider

    - by James
    I've created a custom Weblogic Security Authentication Provider on version 10.3 that includes a custom login module to validate users. As part of the provider, I've implemented the ServletAuthenticationFilter and added one filter. The filter acts as a common log on page for all the applications within the domain. When we access any secured URLs by entering them in the address bar, this works fine in IE and Firefox. But when we bookmark the link in IE an odd thing happens. If I click the bookmark, you will see our log on page, then after you've successfully logged into the system the basic auth page will display, even though the user is already authenticated. This never happens in Firefox, only IE. It's also intermittent. 1 time out of 5 IE will correctly redirect and not show the basic auth window. Firefox and Opera will correctly redirect everytime. We've captured the response headers and compared the success and failures, they are identical. final boolean isAuthenticated = authenticateUser(userName, password, req); // Send user on to the original URL if (isAuthenticated) { res.sendRedirect(targetURL); return; } As you can see, once the user is authenticated I do a redirect to the original URL. Is there a step I'm missing? The authenticateUser() method is taken verbatim from an example in Oracle's documents. private boolean authenticateUser(final String userName, final String password, HttpServletRequest request) { boolean results; try { ServletAuthentication.login(new CallbackHandler() { @Override public void handle(Callback[] callbacks) throws IOException, UnsupportedCallbackException { for (Callback callback : callbacks) { if (callback instanceof NameCallback) { NameCallback nameCallback = (NameCallback) callback; nameCallback.setName(userName); } if (callback instanceof PasswordCallback) { PasswordCallback passwordCallback = (PasswordCallback) callback; passwordCallback.setPassword(password.toCharArray()); } } } }, request); results = true; } catch (LoginException e) { results = false; } return results; I am asking the question here because I don't know if the issue is with the Weblogic config or the code. If this question is more suited to ServerFault please let me know and I will post there. It is odd that it works everytime in Firefox and Opera but not in Internet Explorer. I wish that not using Internet Explorer was an option but it is currently the company standard. Any help or direction would be appreciated. I have tested against IE 6 & 8 and deployed the custom provider on 3 different environments and I can still reproduce the bug.

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  • properies profile when writing word file

    - by avani-nature
    Hai frnds i am new to php i am having following problems in my coding... 1.Actually i am opening word document with com object and storing it in textarea. 2.when content gets opened in textarea i am editing that content and saving the document 3.actually when i edited that file and done save after that if i open word document then file properties-custom the old content getting removed i wannt to retain that even if i edited the word document..please do the needful i am using below code <?php $filename = 'C:/xampp/htdocs/mts/sites/default/files/a.doc'; //echo $filename; if(isset($_REQUEST['Save'])){ $somecontent = stripslashes($_POST['somecontent']); // Let's make sure the file exists and is writable first. if (is_writable($filename)) { // In our example we're opening $filename in append mode. // The file pointer is at the bottom of the file hence // that's where $somecontent will go when we fwrite() it. if (!$handle = fopen($filename, 'w')) { echo "Cannot open file ($filename)"; exit; } // Write $somecontent to our opened fi<form action="" method="get"></form>le. if (fwrite($handle, $somecontent) === FALSE) { echo "Cannot write to file ($filename)"; exit; } echo "Success, wrote ($somecontent) to file ($filename) <a href=".$_SERVER['PHP_SELF']."> - Continue - "; fclose($handle); } else { echo "The file $filename is not writable"; } } else{ // get contents of a file into a string $handle = fopen($filename, "r"); $somecontent = fread($handle, filesize($filename)); $word = new COM("word.application") or die ("Could not initialise MS Word object."); $word->Documents->Open(realpath("$filename")); // Extract content. $somecontent = (string) $word->ActiveDocument->Content; //echo $somecontent; $word->ActiveDocument->Close(false); $word->Quit(); $word = null; unset($word); fclose($handle); } ?> <h6>Edit file --------><? $filenam=explode("/",$filename);$filename=$filename[7]; echo $filename ;?></h6> <form name="form1" method="post" action=""> <p> <textarea name="somecontent" cols="100" rows="20"><? echo $somecontent ;?></textarea> </p> <div style='padding-left:250px;'><input type="submit" name="Save" value="Save"></div> </p> </form> <? } ?>

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  • How do I get the next token in a Cstring if I want to use it as an int? (c++)

    - by Van
    My objective is to take directions from a user and eventually a text file to move a robot. The catch is that I must use Cstrings(such as char word[];) rather than the std::string and tokenize them for use. the code looks like this: void Navigator::manualDrive() { char uinput[1]; char delim[] = " "; char *token; cout << "Enter your directions below: \n"; cin.ignore(); cin.getline (uinput, 256); token=strtok(uinput, delim); if(token == "forward") { int inches; inches=token+1; travel(inches); } } I've never used Cstrings I've never tokenized anything before, and I don't know how to write this. Our T.A.'s expect us to google and find all the answers because they are aware we've never been taught these methods. Everyone in my lab is having much more trouble than usual. I don't know the code to write but I know what I want my program to do. I want it to execute like this: 1) Ask for directions. 2) cin.getline the users input 3) tokenize the inputed string 4) if the first word token == "forward" move to the next token and find out how many inches to move forward then move forward 5) else if the first token == "turn" move to the next token. if the next token == "left" move to the next token and find out how many degrees to turn left I will have to do this for forward x, backward x, turn left x, turn right x, and stop(where x is in inches or degrees). I already wrote functions that tell the robot how to move forward an inch and turn in degrees. I just need to know how to convert the inputted strings to all lowercase letters and move from token to token and convert or extract the numbers from the string to use them as integers. If all is not clear you can read my lab write up at this link: http://www.cs.utk.edu/~cs102/robot_labs/Lab9.html If anything is unclear please let me know, and I will clarify as best I can.

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  • transforming binary data using ssis and sql server 2008

    - by Rick
    Hello All - I have a task to import/transform and extract zipped binary files that contain both text data as well as embeded binary data. Within the data is data that is relational in nature and needs to be processed into a defined database structure. Currently I have a C# single threaded app that essentially grabs all the files from the directory (currently there is 13K files of varying sizes) and extracts the data on a single thread line by line inserts to the database. As you could imagine this is a very slow process and unacceptable. There are several different parsing routines used depending on the header record in the file. There are potentially upto a million rows per file when all the data is extracted to the row level of detail. Follow on task is to parse those rows into their appropriate tables based on is content. i.e. the textual content has to be parsed further into "buckets" of like data in the database. That about sums up the big picture. Now for the problem task list. How do i iterate through a packet of data using SSIS? In the app the file is decompressed and then is parsed using streams data type and byte arrays and is routed to the required parsing routine based on the header data of each packet. There is bit swapping involved as well. Should i wrap up the app code into a script task(s) and let it do the custom processing? The data is seperated by year and the sql server tables is partitioned by year as well. I need to be able to "catch" bad file data as well and process by hand most likely. Should i simply load the zipped file to sql as a blob and parse the file with T-SQL? Would that be multi threaded if done that way? Not sure how to do the parsing in tsql that is involved here. Which do you think would be faster? Potentially the data that is currently processed via files could come to us via a socket. Can SSIS collect that data in real time? How would i go about setting that up? Processing these new files from the directorys will become a daily task. I can manage the data once i get it to sql server. Getting it there in a timely fashion seems to be the long pole in the tent for me. I would appreciate any comments or suggestions from the group. Rick

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  • Anyone have experience calling Rake from MSBuild for code gen and other benefits? How did it go? Wha

    - by Charlie Flowers
    While programming in C# using Visual Studio 2008, I often wish for "automatic" code generation. If possible, I'd like to achieve it by making my MSBuild solution file call out to Rake, which would call Ruby code for the code generation, having the resulting generated files automatically appear in my solution. Here's one business example (of many possible examples I could name) where this kind of automatic code generation would be helpful. In a recent project I had an interface with some properties that contained dollar amounts. I wanted a second interface and a third interface that had the same properties as the first interface, except they were "qualified" with a business unit name. Something like this: public interface IQuarterlyResults { double TotalRevenue { get; set; } double NetProfit { get; set; } } public interface IConsumerQuarterlyResults { double ConsumerTotalRevenue { get; set; } double ConsumerNetProfit { get; set; } } public interface ICorporateQuarterResults { double CorporateTotalRevenue { get; set; } double CorporateNetProfit { get; set; } } In this example, there is a "Consumer Business Unit" and a "Corporate Business Unit". Every property on IQuarterlyResults becomes a property called "Corporate" + [property name] on ICorporateQuarterlyResults, and likewise for IConsumerQuarterlyResults. Why make interfaces for these, rather than merely having an instance of IQuarterlyResults for Consumer and another instance for Corporate? Because, when working with the calculator object I was building, the user had to deal with 100's of properties, and it is much less confusing if he can deal with "fully qualified" property names such as "ConsumerNetProfit". But let's not get bogged down in this example. It is only an example and not the main question. The main question is this: I love using Ruby and ERB for code generation, and I love using Rake to manage dependencies between tasks. To solve the problem above, what I'd like to do is have MSBuild call out to Rake, and have Rake / Ruby read the list of properties on the "core" interface and then generate the code to make all the dependent interfaces and their properties. This would get triggered every time I do a build, because I'd put it into the MSBuild file for the VS.NET solution. Has anyone tried anything like this? How did it work out for you? What insights can you share about pros, cons, tips for success, etc.? Thanks!

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  • embedded Italic, bold fonts don't look the same in flex as in Windows...

    - by Mark
    ...unless they're something like "Times New Roman" or some other established font with a fully designed italic and bold, presumably in seperate files. Let me explain what I mean (though why no one has commented on this before I have no idea.) Numerous, numerous fonts do not have a seperate file for italic and bold, and in fact to the best of my knowledge don't even have italic and bold defined as such. But if you install them on windows (for example) and then use them in an app, You can still make use of italic and bold with those fonts. For italic, and oblique angle is just given to it, presumably by Windows, and it looks the same in all Windows apps, and the bold is just given a heavier weight. OK, well here's the problem: if you embed a font like that in a Flex app, as a "SystemFont" the italic and bold will not look the same as they do in Windows. Specifically, the oblique angle is invariably much less than in Windows (i.e the italic slant is much less) and the bold version is not bold enough. I vaguely recall thinking that there was some flex mechanism to assign custom oblique angles for italic (and weight for bold) but now can't recall what it is. Does anyone know the correct established way to do this. The following is actually a seperate (but related) font question (in case anyone is expert in all this.) Its rather a lengthy question and can be skipped, but its something that's plagued me for a long time. I mention above embedding as a "SystemFont", so iow something like this: package fonts { import flash.display.Sprite; public class FLW_Script_I extends Sprite { [Embed(systemFont='FLW Script', fontName='FLW Script', fontStyle='italic', fntWeight='normal', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype')] public var wrFont:Class; } } The other alternative to SystemFont for embedding, is "Source" followed by the name of an actual font file. If you try to embed one of the aformentioned single file fonts as a Source file (as opposed to SystemFont) and specify fontStyle='italic', then the mxmlc compiler will return an error and say there is no italic info in the font file. So up to now I have only been embedding these fonts as "SystemFont". The problem is, flex uses two different font compilers internally for Source embedding and SystemFont embedding. For source font embeds it uses the "Batik" compiler and for SystemFont, the JRE (Java Runtime) font compiler. Well actually the Batik is considered a superior compiler and generally produces better looking fonts. And also if you mix normal fonts compiled with Batik and italic compiled with JRE, sometimes the line spacing is different for the two, and it doesn't look right. So does anyone have an idea how to get mxmlc to do italic and bold for these single file fonts when embedding as "Source". Would there be a way using C++ or whatever to construct an "italic" font file from the SystemFont for such a font in windows.

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  • Instagram API and Zend/Loader.php

    - by Jaemin Kim
    I want to use Instagram API and I found this code. <html> <head></head> <body> <h1>Popular on Instagram</h1> <?php // load Zend classes require_once 'Zend/Loader.php'; Zend_Loader::loadClass('Zend_Http_Client'); // define consumer key and secret // available from Instagram API console $CLIENT_ID = 'YOUR-CLIENT-ID'; $CLIENT_SECRET = 'YOUR-CLIENT-SECRET'; try { // initialize client $client = new Zend_Http_Client('https://api.instagram.com/v1/media/popular'); $client->setParameterGet('client_id', $CLIENT_ID); // get popular images // transmit request and decode response $response = $client->request(); $result = json_decode($response->getBody()); // display images $data = $result->data; if (count($data) > 0) { echo '<ul>'; foreach ($data as $item) { echo '<li style="display: inline-block; padding: 25px"><a href="' . $item->link . '"><img src="' . $item->images->thumbnail->url . '" /></a> <br/>'; echo 'By: <em>' . $item->user->username . '</em> <br/>'; echo 'Date: ' . date ('d M Y h:i:s', $item->created_time) . '<br/>'; echo $item->comments->count . ' comment(s). ' . $item->likes->count . ' likes. </li>'; } echo '</ul>'; } } catch (Exception $e) { echo 'ERROR: ' . $e->getMessage() . print_r($client); exit; } ?> </body> </html> In here, I found Zender/Load.php, and I've never heard about that. Is it okay to go http://www.zend.com/en/products/guard/downloads here, and download Zend for linux?? And for another question, is this code available to use Instagram API?? For last, could you let me know that is there any simple code to use Instagram API? Thank you.

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  • Two seperate tm structs mirroring each other

    - by BSchlinker
    Here is my current situation: I have two tm structs, both set to the current time I make a change to the hour in one of the structs The change is occurring in the other struct magically.... How do I prevent this from occurring? I need to be able to compare and know the number of seconds between two different times -- the current time and a time in the future. I've been using difftime and mktime to determine this. I recognize that I don't technically need two tm structs (the other struct could just be a time_t loaded with raw time) but I'm still interested in understanding why this occurs. void Tracker::monitor(char* buffer){ // time handling time_t systemtime, scheduletime, currenttime; struct tm * dispatchtime; struct tm * uiuctime; double remainingtime; // let's get two structs operating with current time dispatchtime = dispatchtime_tm(); uiuctime = uiuctime_tm(); // set the scheduled parameters dispatchtime->tm_hour = 5; dispatchtime->tm_min = 05; dispatchtime->tm_sec = 14; uiuctime->tm_hour = 0; // both of these will now print the same time! (0:05:14) // what's linking them?? // print the scheduled time printf ("Current Time : %2d:%02d:%02d\n", uiuctime->tm_hour, uiuctime->tm_min, uiuctime->tm_sec); printf ("Scheduled Time : %2d:%02d:%02d\n", dispatchtime->tm_hour, dispatchtime->tm_min, dispatchtime->tm_sec); } struct tm* Tracker::uiuctime_tm(){ time_t uiucTime; struct tm *ts_uiuc; // give currentTime the current time time(&uiucTime); // change the time zone to UIUC putenv("TZ=CST6CDT"); tzset(); // get the localtime for the tz selected ts_uiuc = localtime(&uiucTime); // set back the current timezone unsetenv("TZ"); tzset(); // set back our results return ts_uiuc; } struct tm* Tracker::dispatchtime_tm(){ time_t currentTime; struct tm *ts_dispatch; // give currentTime the current time time(&currentTime); // get the localtime for the tz selected ts_dispatch = localtime(&currentTime); // set back our results return ts_dispatch; }

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  • Shortening jQuery Code by Replacing Variable

    - by Jerry
    I have a form with a bunch of dropdown options that I'm dressing up by allowing the option to be selected by clicking links and (in the future, images) instead of using the actual dropdown. There are a lot of dropdowns and most all will repeat the same basic idea, and some will literally repeat just with different variables. Here's the HTML for one of those. <tr class="box1"> <td> <select id="cimy_uef_7"> <option value="Boy">Boy</option> <option value="Girl">Girl</option> </select> </td> </tr> Then the corresponding fancier links to click that will select the corresponding option in the dropdown. <div id="genderBox1"> <div class="gender"><a class="boy" href="">Boy</a></div> <div class="gender"><a class="girl" href="">Girl</a></div> </div> So, when you click the link "Boy" it will select the corresponding dropdown value "Boy" There are going to be multiple Box#, so I can just repeat the jQuery each time with the new variables, but there's surely a shorter way. Here's the jQuery that makes it work. //Box1 Gender var Gender1 = $('select#cimy_uef_7'); var Boy1 = $("#genderBox1 .gender a.boy"); var Girl1 = $("#genderBox1 .gender a.girl"); //On Page Load - Check Gender Box 1 Selection and addClass to corresponding div a if ( $(Gender1).val() == "Boy" ) { $(Boy1).addClass("selected"); } else { $(Boy1).removeClass("selected"); } if ( $(Gender1).val() == "Girl" ) { $(Girl1).addClass("selected"); } else { $(Girl1).removeClass("selected"); } //On Click - Change Gender Box 1 select based on image click $(Boy1).click(function(event) { event.preventDefault(); $(this).addClass("selected"); $(Gender1).val("Boy"); $(Girl1).removeClass("selected"); }); $(Girl1).click(function(event) { event.preventDefault(); $(this).addClass("selected"); $(Gender1).val("Girl"); $(Boy1).removeClass("selected"); }); My thought for shortening it was to just have a list of variables for each box and cycle through the numbers- 1,2,3,4 and have the jQuery grab the same # for each variable, but I can't figure out a way to do it. Let me know if there's anything else I can provide to make the question better. This is my best idea for shortening this code, as I'm still very much a beginner at jQuery, but I'm positive there are much better ideas out there, so feel free to recommend a better path if you see it :)

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  • How to Sync CI (Hudson) Activity into an existing automated Build Process (phing, svn)?

    - by maraspin
    OUR CURRENT BUILD PROCESS We're a small team of developers (2 to 4 people depending on project) who currently use Phing to deploy code to a staging environment, before going live. We keep our code in a SVN repo, where the trunk holds current active development and, at certain times, we do make branches that we test and then (if successful), tag and export to the staging env. If everything goes well there too, we finally deploy'em in production servers. Actions are highly automated, but always triggered by human intervention. THE DOUBT We'd now like to introduce Continuous Integration (with Hudson) in the process; unfortunately we have a few doubts about activity syncing, since we're afraid that CI could somewhat interfere with our build process and cause certain problems. Considering that an automated CI cycle has a certain frequency of automatically executed actions, we see 2 possible cases for "integration", each with its own problems: Case A: each CI cycle produces a new branch with its own name; we do use such a name to manually (through phing as it happens now) export the code from the SVN to the staging env. The problem I see here is that (unless specific countermeasures are taken - IE deletion) the number of branches we have can easily grow out of control (let's suppose we commit often, so that we have a fresh new build/branch every N minutes). Case B: each CI cycle creates a new branch named 'current', which is then tagged with a unique name only when we manually decide to export it to staging; the current branch, at any case is then deleted, as soon as the next CI cycle starts up. The problem we see here is that a new cycle could kick in while someone is tagging/exporting the 'current' branch to staging thus creating an inconsistent build (but maybe here I'm just too pessimist, since I confess I don't know whether SVN offers some built-in protection against this). With all this being said, I was wondering if anyone with similar experiences could be so kind to give us some hints on the subject, since none of the approaches depicted above looks completely satisfing to us. Is there something important we just completely left off in the overall picture? Thanks for your attention & (in advance) for your help!

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  • Merge Mutliple Excel Workbooks

    - by IRHM
    I wonder whether someone may be able to help me please. I'm trying to use the code below to allow the user to select multiple Excel Workbooks, amalgamating the data into one 'Summary' sheet. Sub Merge() Dim DestWB As Workbook, WB As Workbook, WS As Worksheet, SourceSheet As String Set DestWB = ActiveWorkbook SourceSheet = "Input" startrow = 7 FileNames = Application.GetOpenFilename( _ filefilter:="Excel Files (*.xls*),*.xls*", _ Title:="Select the workbooks to merge.", MultiSelect:=True) If IsArray(FileNames) = False Then If FileNames = False Then Exit Sub End If End If For n = LBound(FileNames) To UBound(FileNames) Set WB = Workbooks.Open(Filename:=FileNames(n), ReadOnly:=True) For Each WS In WB.Worksheets If WS.Name = SourceSheet Then With WS If .UsedRange.Cells.Count > 1 Then dr = DestWB.Worksheets("Input").Range("C" & Rows.Count).End(xlUp).Row + 1 lastrow = .Range("C" & Rows.Count).End(xlUp).Row For j = lastrow To startrow Step -1 Select Case .Range("E" & j).Value Case "Manager", "Lead", "Technical", "Analyst" 'do nothing Case Else .Rows(j).EntireRow.Delete End Select Next lastrow = .Range("C" & Rows.Count).End(xlUp).Row If lastrow >= startrow Then .Range("B" & startrow & ":AD" & lastrow).Copy DestWB.Worksheets("Input").Cells(dr, "B").PasteSpecial xlValues .Range("AF" & startrow & ":AQ" & lastrow).Copy DestWB.Worksheets("Input").Cells(dr, "AF").PasteSpecial xlValues .Range("AS" & startrow & ":AS" & lastrow).Copy DestWB.Worksheets("Input").Cells(dr, "AS").PasteSpecial xlValues End If End If End With Exit For End If Next WS WB.Close savechanges:=False Next n End Sub The code works fine except for one issue which I've been trying to solve for the last few weeks. The following line of code looks in column E of the Source file, and if any of the entries match the values shown in the code it copies that row of data to paste into the Destination file. If Range("E" & j) <> "Manager" And Range("E" & j) <> "Lead" And Range("E" & j) <> "Technical" And Range("E" & j) <> "Analyst" Then Rows(j).Delete The problem I have is that if none of these values are found in the Source file, I receive the following error: Run time error '1004': Delete method of range class failed and in Debug mode it highlights this part of the line as the source of the error, but I've no idea why. Rows(j).Delete I just wondered whether someone may be able to look at this please and let me know where I'm going wrong, or perhaps even suggest a more efficient process of allowing the user to merge the workbooks. Many thanks and kind regards

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  • Starting company and getting a good deal

    - by Dan
    Hi, I'm having the possibility to start a small company with someone else. I'm a software programmer and been working on a field where there isn't much competition, at least in the platform I'm developing, which is the one with highest market share. This other person comes from marketing so he would find / provide clients and be in charge of the business side. So initially it would be me, the tech guy with the knowledge to develop our product and products based on my development, and this person who would become CEO (basically a 50/50 share). The idea is getting a product on our own, but also perform projects for others in order to get some cash. The problem is that his idea is doing this without initial capital. He tells me that he could get some customers from past business (which is mostly true as he has been in the business for some time) and then with the money obtained from such development, we could hire some freelance developers and build our own platform. I've already discussed with him that I don't find this the best way, provided that we need to compete against other companies some of who are VC funded and have many developers working fulltime. But most of all, I'm thinking of whether this is a fair deal to do, provided that this person is not providing anything other than clients, and I'd be the one having to do the work and dedicate time, thus also taking most of the risks. In all fairness, I'd expect him to put some initial capital, given that initially I'm putting some of my code which in some way is money given the time I've dedicated to it. So the question here is, does this seem fair to you? Is this the way it is usually done? My only concern here is that I don't have previous experience with such deals, and I ignore whether this is the usual thing to do in other cases. Certainly having a marketing person helps a lot. As you probably know being a programmer doesn't make me the most indicated person for marketing ;-) but at the same time I'm not sure if this could be a good deal or I'd just be making a pretty inconvenient deal. Hope I made my point clear, but feel free to let me know if more details are needed. Thanks in advance

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  • How and why do I set up a C# build machine?

    - by mmr
    Hi all, I'm working with a small (4 person) development team on a C# project. I've proposed setting up a build machine which will do nightly builds and tests of the project, because I understand that this is a Good Thing. Trouble is, we don't have a whole lot of budget here, so I have to justify the expense to the powers that be. So I want to know: What kind of tools/licenses will I need? Right now, we use Visual Studio and Smart Assembly to build, and Perforce for source control. Will I need something else, or is there an equivalent of a cron job for running automated scripts? What, exactly, will this get me, other than an indication of a broken build? Should I set up test projects in this solution (sln file) that will be run by these scripts, so I can have particular functions tested? We have, at the moment, two such tests, because we haven't had the time (or frankly, the experience) to make good unit tests. What kind of hardware will I need for this? Once a build has been finished and tested, is it a common practice to put that build up on an ftp site or have some other way for internal access? The idea is that this machine makes the build, and we all go to it, but can make debug builds if we have to. How often should we make this kind of build? How is space managed? If we make nightly builds, should we keep around all the old builds, or start to ditch them after about a week or so? Is there anything else I'm not seeing here? I realize that this is a very large topic, and I'm just starting out. I couldn't find a duplicate of this question here, and if there's a book out there I should just get, please let me know. EDIT: I finally got it to work! Hudson is completely fantastic, and FxCop is showing that some features we thought were implemented were actually incomplete. We also had to change the installer type from Old-And-Busted vdproj to New Hotness WiX. Basically, for those who are paying attention, if you can run your build from the command line, then you can put it into hudson. Making the build run from the command line via MSBuild is a useful exercise in itself, because it forces your tools to be current.

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  • Best practices managing JavaScript on a single-page app

    - by seanmonstar
    With a single page app, where I change the hash and load and change only the content of the page, I'm trying to decide on how to manage the JavaScript that each "page" might need. I've already got a History module monitoring the location hash which could look like domain.com/#/company/about, and a Page class that will use XHR to get the content and insert it into the content area. function onHashChange(hash) { var skipCache = false; if(hash in noCacheList) { skipCache = true; } new Page(hash, skipCache).insert(); } // Page.js var _pageCache = {}; function Page(url, skipCache) { if(!skipCache && (url in _pageCache)) { return _pageCache[url]; } this.url = url; this.load(); } The cache should let pages that have already been loaded skip the XHR. I also am storing the content into a documentFragment, and then pulling the current content out of the document when I insert the new Page, so I the browser will only have to build the DOM for the fragment once. Skipping the cache could be desired if the page has time sensitive data. Here's what I need help deciding on: It's very likely that any of the pages that get loaded will have some of their own JavaScript to control the page. Like if the page will use Tabs, needs a slide show, has some sort of animation, has an ajax form, or what-have-you. What exactly is the best way to go around loading that JavaScript into the page? Include the script tags in the documentFragment I get back from the XHR? What if I need to skip the cache, and re-download the fragment. I feel the exact same JavaScript being called a second time might cause conflicts, like redeclaring the same variables. Would the better way be to attach the scripts to the head when grabbing the new Page? That would require the original page know all the assets that every other page might need. And besides knowing the best way to include everything, won't I need to worry about memory management, and possible leaks of loading so many different JavaScript bits into a single page instance?

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  • Good style for handling constructor failure of critical object

    - by mtlphil
    I'm trying to decide between two ways of instantiating an object & handling any constructor exceptions for an object that is critical to my program, i.e. if construction fails the program can't continue. I have a class SimpleMIDIOut that wraps basic Win32 MIDI functions. It will open a MIDI device in the constructor and close it in the destructor. It will throw an exception inherited from std::exception in the constructor if the MIDI device cannot be opened. Which of the following ways of catching constructor exceptions for this object would be more in line with C++ best practices Method 1 - Stack allocated object, only in scope inside try block #include <iostream> #include "simplemidiout.h" int main() { try { SimpleMIDIOut myOut; //constructor will throw if MIDI device cannot be opened myOut.PlayNote(60,100); //..... //myOut goes out of scope outside this block //so basically the whole program has to be inside //this block. //On the plus side, it's on the stack so //destructor that handles object cleanup //is called automatically, more inline with RAII idiom? } catch(const std::exception& e) { std::cout << e.what() << std::endl; std::cin.ignore(); return 1; } std::cin.ignore(); return 0; } Method 2 - Pointer to object, heap allocated, nicer structured code? #include <iostream> #include "simplemidiout.h" int main() { SimpleMIDIOut *myOut; try { myOut = new SimpleMIDIOut(); } catch(const std::exception& e) { std::cout << e.what() << std::endl; delete myOut; return 1; } myOut->PlayNote(60,100); std::cin.ignore(); delete myOut; return 0; } I like the look of the code in Method 2 better, don't have to jam my whole program into a try block, but Method 1 creates the object on the stack so C++ manages the object's life time, which is more in tune with RAII philosophy isn't it? I'm still a novice at this so any feedback on the above is much appreciated. If there's an even better way to check for/handle constructor failure in a siatuation like this please let me know.

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  • LINQ Query returns false when it should be true.

    - by deliriousDev
    I have the following LINQ query written by a former developer and it isn't working when it should. public bool IsAvailable(Appointment appointment) { var appointments = _appointmentRepository.Get; var shifts = _scheduleRepository.Get; var city = _customerRepository.Find(appointment.CustomerId).City ?? appointment.Customer.City; const int durationHour = 1; DateTime scheduledEndDate = appointment.ScheduledTime.Add(new TimeSpan(durationHour, 0, 0)); var inWorkingHours = shifts .Where(x => //Check if any available working hours x.Employee.City == city && x.ShiftStart <= appointment.ScheduledTime && x.ShiftEnd >= scheduledEndDate && //check if not booked yet !appointments .Where(a => (appointment.Id == 0 || a.Id != appointment.Id) && a.Employee.Id == x.Employee.Id && ( (a.ScheduledTime <= appointment.ScheduledTime && appointment.ScheduledTime <= EntityFunctions.AddHours(a.ScheduledTime, durationHour)) || (a.ScheduledTime <= scheduledEndDate && scheduledEndDate <= EntityFunctions.AddHours(a.ScheduledTime, durationHour)) )) .Select(a => a.Employee.Id) .Contains(x.Employee.Id) ); if (inWorkingHours.Any()) { var assignedEmployee = inWorkingHours.FirstOrDefault().Employee; appointment.EmployeeId = assignedEmployee.Id; appointment.Employee = assignedEmployee; return true; } return false; } The query is suppose to handle the following scenarios Given An Appointment With A ScheduledTime Between A ShiftStart and ShiftEnd time But Does not match any employees in same city - (Return true, Assign as "Unassigned") Given An Appointment With A ScheduledTime Between A ShiftStart and ShiftEnd time AND Employee for that shift is in the same city as the customer (Return True AND Assign to the employee) If the customer is NOT in the same city as an employee we assign the appointment as "Unassigned" as along as the scheduledTime is within an of the employees shift start/end times If the customer is in the same city as an employee we assign the appointment to one of the employees (firstOrdefault) and occupy that timeslot. Appointments CAN NOT overlap (Assigned Ones). Unassigned can't overlap each other. This query use to work (I've been told). But now it doesn't and I have tried refactoring it and various other paths with no luck. I am now on week two and just don't know where the issue in the query is or how to write it. Let me know if I need to post anything further. I have verified appointments, shifts, city all populate with valid data so the issue doesn't appear to be with null or missing data.

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  • JSONArray does not work when I am getting the JSON string from the server

    - by Taehoon A Kim
    I've looked up some answers but am not sure why mine is failing exactly... The code looks something like this HttpResponse httpResponse = httpClient.execute(httpPost); HttpEntity httpEntity = httpResponse.getEntity(); String json = EntityUtils.toString(httpEntity); //Convert to JsonArray JSONArray jsonArray = new JSONArray(json); Log.i(DEBUG_TAG, Integer.toString(jsonArray.length())); for (int i = 0; i < jsonArray.length(); i++) { JSONObject jsonObject = jsonArray.getJSONObject(i); Log.i(DEBUG_TAG, jsonObject.getString(KEY_ID)); // creating new HashMap HashMap<String, String> map = new HashMap<String, String>(); // adding each child node to HashMap key => value map.put(KEY_ID, jsonObject.getString(KEY_ID)); map.put(KEY_TITLE, jsonObject.getString(KEY_TITLE)); map.put(KEY_ARTIST, jsonObject.getString(KEY_ARTIST)); map.put(KEY_DURATION, jsonObject.getString(KEY_DURATION)); map.put(KEY_VOTECOUNT, jsonObject.getString(KEY_VOTECOUNT)); map.put(KEY_THUMB_URL, jsonObject.getString(KEY_THUMB_URL)); map.put(KEY_GENRE, jsonObject.getString(KEY_GENRE)); //Adding map to ArrayList if (Integer.parseInt(jsonObject.getString(KEY_VOTECOUNT)) == -1){ //If VoteCount is -1 then add to header headerList.add(map); }else { songsList.add(map); } } } catch (UnsupportedEncodingException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } When I run logcat on String json, it seems to show correct info which is kind of like this... { "userdata": [ { "id": "8", "title": "Baby One More Time", "artist": "Britney Spears", "duration": "03:24:00", "votes": "0", "thumb_url": "http://api.androidhive.info/music/images/dido.png", "genre": null }, { "id": "2", "title": "As Long As You Love Me", "artist": "Justin Bieber", "duration": "05:26:00", "votes": "0", "thumb_url": "http://api.androidhive.info/music/images/enrique.png", "genre": "Rock" } ] } and the logcat on JSONArray jsonArray = new JSONArray(json); tells me that jsonArray.length() 10-31 22:57:28.433: W/CustomizedListView(26945): error! Invalid index 0, size is 0 Please let me know Thank you,

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  • Gradual memory leak in loop over contents of QTMovie

    - by Benji XVI
    I have a simple foundation tool that exports every frame of a movie as a .tiff file. Here is the relevant code: NSString* movieLoc = [NSString stringWithCString:argv[1]]; QTMovie *sourceMovie = [QTMovie movieWithFile:movieLoc error:nil]; int i=0; while (QTTimeCompare([sourceMovie currentTime], [sourceMovie duration]) != NSOrderedSame) { // save image of movie to disk NSAutoreleasePool *arp = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSString *filePath = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"/somelocation_%d.tiff", i++]; NSData *currentImageData = [[sourceMovie currentFrameImage] TIFFRepresentation]; [currentImageData writeToFile:filePath atomically:NO]; NSLog(@"%@", filePath); [sourceMovie stepForward]; [arp release]; } [pool drain]; return 0; As you can see, in order to prevent very large memory buildups with the various transparently-autoreleased variables in the loop, we create, and flush, an autoreleasepool with every run through the loop. However, over the course of stepping through a movie, the amount of memory used by the program still gradually increases. Instruments is not detecting any memory leaks per se, but the object trace shows certain General Data blocks to be increasing in size. [Edited out reference to slowdown as it doesn't seem to be as much of a problem as I thought.] Edit: let's knock out some parts of the code inside the loop & see what we find out... Test 1 while (banana) { NSAutoreleasePool *arp = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSString *filePath = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"/somelocation_%d.tiff", i++]; NSLog(@"%@", filePath); [sourceMovie stepForward]; [arp release]; } Here we simply loop over the whole movie, creating the filename and logging it. Memory characteristics: remains at 15MB usage for the duration. Test 2 while (banana) { NSAutoreleasePool *arp = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSImage *image = [sourceMovie currentFrameImage]; [sourceMovie stepForward]; [arp release]; } Here we add back in the creation of the NSImage from the current frame. Memory characteristics: gradually increasing memory usage. RSIZE is at 60MB by frame 200; 75MB by f300. Test 3 while (banana) { NSAutoreleasePool *arp = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSImage *image = [sourceMovie currentFrameImage]; NSData *imageData = [image TIFFRepresentation]; [sourceMovie stepForward]; [arp release]; } We've added back in the creation of an NSData object from the NSImage. Memory characteristics: Memory usage is again increasing: 62MB at f200; 75MB at f300. In other words, largely identical. It looks like a memory leak in the underlying system QTMovie uses to do currentFrameImage, to me.

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  • What to name column in database table that holds versioning number

    - by rwmnau
    I'm trying to figure out what to call the column in my database table that holds an INT to specific "record version". I'm currently using "RecordOrder", but I don't like that, because people think higher=newer, but the way I'm using it, lower=newer (with "1" being the current record, "2" being the second most current, "3" older still, and so on). I've considered "RecordVersion", but I'm afraid that would have the same problem. Any other suggestions? "RecordAge"? I'm doing this because when I insert into the table, instead of having to find out what version is next, then run the risk of having that number stolen from me before I write, I just insert insert with a "RecordOrder" of 0. There's a trigger on the table AFTER INSERT that increments all the "RecordOrder" numbers for that key by 1, so the record I just inserted becomes "1", and all others are increased by 1. That way, you can get a person's current record by selection RecordOrder=1, instead of getting the MAX(RecordOrder) and then selecting that. PS - I'm also open to criticism about why this is a terrible idea and I should be incrementing this index instead. This just seemed to make lookups much easier, but if it's a bad idea, please enlighten me! Some details about the data, as an example: I have the following database table: CREATE TABLE AmountDue ( CustomerNumber INT, AmountDue DECIMAL(14,2), RecordOrder SMALLINT, RecordCreated DATETIME ) A subset of my data looks like this: CustomerNumber Amountdue RecordOrder RecordCreated 100 0 1 2009-12-19 05:10:10.123 100 10.05 2 2009-12-15 06:12:10.123 100 100.00 3 2009-12-14 14:19:10.123 101 5.00 1 2009-11-14 05:16:10.123 In this example, there are three rows for customer 100 - they owed $100, then $10.05, and now they owe nothing. Let me know if I need to clarify it some more. UPDATE: The "RecordOrder" and "RecordCreated" columns are not available to the user - they're only there for internal use, and to help figure out which is the current customer record. Also, I could use it to return an appropriately-ordered customer history, though I could just as easily do that with the date. I can accomplish the same thing as an incrementing "Record Version" with just the RecordCreated date, I suppose, but that removes the convenience of knowing that RecordOrder=1 is the current record, and I'm back to doing a sub-query with MAX or MIN on the DateTime to determine the most recent record.

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  • asp.net mvc How to test controllers correctly

    - by Simon G
    Hi, I'm having difficulty testing controllers. Original my controller for testing looked something like this: SomethingController CreateSomethingController() { var somethingData = FakeSomethingData.CreateFakeData(); var fakeRepository = FakeRepository.Create(); var controller = new SomethingController(fakeRepository); return controller; } This works fine for the majority of testing until I got the Request.IsAjaxRequest() part of code. So then I had to mock up the HttpContext and HttpRequestBase. So my code then changed to look like: public class FakeHttpContext : HttpContextBase { bool _isAjaxRequest; public FakeHttpContext( bool isAjaxRequest = false ) { _isAjaxRequest = isAjaxRequest; } public override HttpRequestBase Request { get { string ajaxRequestHeader = ""; if ( _isAjaxRequest ) ajaxRequestHeader = "XMLHttpRequest"; var request = new Mock<HttpRequestBase>(); request.SetupGet( x => x.Headers ).Returns( new WebHeaderCollection { {"X-Requested-With", ajaxRequestHeader} } ); request.SetupGet( x => x["X-Requested-With"] ).Returns( ajaxRequestHeader ); return request.Object; } } private IPrincipal _user; public override IPrincipal User { get { if ( _user == null ) { _user = new FakePrincipal(); } return _user; } set { _user = value; } } } SomethingController CreateSomethingController() { var somethingData = FakeSomethingData.CreateFakeData(); var fakeRepository = FakeRepository.Create(); var controller = new SomethingController(fakeRepository); ControllerContext controllerContext = new ControllerContext( new FakeHttpContext( isAjaxRequest ), new RouteData(), controller ); controller.ControllerContext = controllerContext; return controller; } Now its got to that stage in my controller where I call Url.Route and Url is null. So it looks like I need to start mocking up routes for my controller. I seem to be spending more time googling on how to fake/mock objects and then debugging to make sure my fakes are correct than actual writing the test code. Is there an easier way in to test a controller? I've looked at the TestControllerBuilder from MvcContrib which helps with some of the issues but doesn't seem to do everything. Is there anything else available that will do the job and will let me concentrate on writing the tests rather than writing mocks? Thanks

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  • Jquery $.post and PHP - Prevent the ability to use script outside of main website.

    - by Tim
    I have a PHP script setup using Jquery $.post which would return a response or do an action within the targeted .php file within $.post. Eg. My page has a form where you type in your Name. Once you hit the submit form button, $.post is called and sends the entered Name field value into "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" If a user was to visit "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" directly and somehow POST the data to the script, the script would return a response / do an action, based on the submitted POST data. The problem is, I don't want others to be able to periodically "call" an action or request a response from my website without using the website directly. Theoretically, right now you could determine what Name values my website allows without even visiting it, or you could call an action without going through the website, by simply visiting "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" So, what measures can I take to prevent this from happening? So far my idea is to ensure that it is a $_POST and not a $_GET - so they cannot manually enter it into the browser, but they could still post data to the script... Another measure is to apply a session key that expires, and is only valid for X amount of visits until they revisit the website. ~ Or, just have a daily "code" that changes and they'd need to grab this code from the website each day to keep their direct access to the script working (eg. I pass the daily "code" into each post request. I then check that code matches in the ajax php script.) However, even with these meaures, they will STILL have access to the scripts so long as they know how to POST the data, and also get the new code each day. Also, having a daily code requirement will cause issues when visiting the site at midnight (12:00am) as the code will change and the script will break for someone who is on the website trying to call the script, with the invalid code being passed still. I have attempted using .htaccess however using: order allow,deny deny from all Prevents legitimate access, and I'd have to add an exception so the website's IP is allowed to access it.. which is a hassle to update I think. Although, if it's the only legitimate solution I guess I'll have to. If I need to be more clear please let me know.

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  • Need some constructive criticism on my SSE/Assembly attempt

    - by Brett
    Hello, I'm working on converting a bit of code to SSE, and while I have the correct output it turns out to be slower than standard c++ code. The bit of code that I need to do this for is: float ox = p2x - (px * c - py * s)*m; float oy = p2y - (px * s - py * c)*m; What I've got for SSE code is: void assemblycalc(vector4 &p, vector4 &sc, float &m, vector4 &xy) { vector4 r; __m128 scale = _mm_set1_ps(m); __asm { mov eax, p //Load into CPU reg mov ebx, sc movups xmm0, [eax] //move vectors to SSE regs movups xmm1, [ebx] mulps xmm0, xmm1 //Multiply the Elements movaps xmm2, xmm0 //make a copy of the array shufps xmm2, xmm0, 0x1B //shuffle the array subps xmm0, xmm2 //subtract the elements mulps xmm0, scale //multiply the vector by the scale mov ecx, xy //load the variable into cpu reg movups xmm3, [ecx] //move the vector to the SSE regs subps xmm3, xmm0 //subtract xmm3 - xmm0 movups [r], xmm3 //Save the retun vector, and use elements 0 and 3 } } Since its very difficult to read the code, I'll explain what I did: loaded vector4 , xmm0 _ p = [px , py , px , py ] mult. by vector4, xmm1 _ cs = [c , c , s , s ] _____________mult---------------------------- result,______ xmm0 = [px*c, py*c, px*s, py*s] reuse result, xmm0 = [px*c, py*c, px*s, py*s] shuffle result, xmm2 = [py*s, px*s, py*c, px*c] ___________subtract---------------------------- result, xmm0 = [px*c-py*s, py*c-px*s, px*s-py*c, py*s-px*c] reuse result, xmm0 = [px*c-py*s, py*c-px*s, px*s-py*c, py*s-px*c] load m vector4, scale = [m, m, m, m] ______________mult---------------------------- result, xmm0 = [(px*c-py*s)*m, (py*c-px*s)*m, (px*s-py*c)*m, (py*s-px*c)*m] load xy vector4, xmm3 = [p2x, p2x, p2y, p2y] reuse, xmm0 = [(px*c-py*s)*m, (py*c-px*s)*m, (px*s-py*c)*m, (py*s-px*c)*m] ___________subtract---------------------------- result, xmm3 = [p2x-(px*c-py*s)*m, p2x-(py*c-px*s)*m, p2y-(px*s-py*c)*m, p2y-(py*s-px*c)*m] then ox = xmm3[0] and oy = xmm3[3], so I essentially don't use xmm3[1] or xmm3[4] I apologize for the difficulty reading this, but I'm hoping someone might be able to provide some guidance for me, as the standard c++ code runs in 0.001444ms and the SSE code runs in 0.00198ms. Let me know if there is anything I can do to further explain/clean this up a bit. The reason I'm trying to use SSE is because I run this calculation millions of times, and it is a part of what is slowing down my current code. Thanks in advance for any help! Brett

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  • Why does Scala apply thunks automatically, sometimes?

    - by Anonymouse
    At just after 2:40 in ShadowofCatron's Scala Tutorial 3 video, it's pointed out that the parentheses following the name of a thunk are optional. "Buh?" said my functional programming brain, since the value of a function and the value it evaluates to when applied are completely different things. So I wrote the following to try this out. My thought process is described in the comments. object Main { var counter: Int = 10 def f(): Int = { counter = counter + 1; counter } def runThunk(t: () => Int): Int = { t() } def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { val a = f() // I expect this to mean "apply f to no args" println(a) // and apparently it does val b = f // I expect this to mean "the value f", a function value println(b) // but it's the value it evaluates to when applied to no args println(b) // and the evaluation happens immediately, not in the call runThunk(b) // This is an error: it's not println doing something funny runThunk(f) // Not an error: seems to be val doing something funny } }   To be clear about the problem, this Scheme program (and the console dump which follows) shows what I expected the Scala program to do. (define counter (list 10)) (define f (lambda () (set-car! counter (+ (car counter) 1)) (car counter))) (define runThunk (lambda (t) (t))) (define main (lambda args (let ((a (f)) (b f)) (display a) (newline) (display b) (newline) (display b) (newline) (runThunk b) (runThunk f)))) > (main) 11 #<procedure:f> #<procedure:f> 13   After coming to this site to ask about this, I came across this answer which told me how to fix the above Scala program: val b = f _ // Hey Scala, I mean f, not f() But the underscore 'hint' is only needed sometimes. When I call runThunk(f), no hint is required. But when I 'alias' f to b with a val then apply it, it doesn't work: the evaluation happens in the val; and even lazy val works this way, so it's not the point of evaluation causing this behaviour.   That all leaves me with the question: Why does Scala sometimes automatically apply thunks when evaluating them? Is it, as I suspect, type inference? And if so, shouldn't a type system stay out of the language's semantics? Is this a good idea? Do Scala programmers apply thunks rather than refer to their values so much more often that making the parens optional is better overall? Examples written using Scala 2.8.0RC3, DrScheme 4.0.1 in R5RS.

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  • General ORM design question

    - by Calvin
    Suppose you have 2 classes, Person and Rabbit. A person can do a number of things to a rabbit, s/he can either feed it, buy it and become its owner, or give it away. A rabbit can have none or at most 1 owner at a time. And if it is not fed for a while, it may die. Class Person { Void Feed(Rabbit r); Void Buy(Rabbit r); Void Giveaway(Person p, Rabbit r); Rabbit[] rabbits; } Class Rabbit { Bool IsAlive(); Person pwner; } There are a couple of observations from the domain model: Person and Rabbit can have references to each other Any actions on 1 object can also change the state of the other object Even if no explicit actions are invoked, there can still be a change of state in the objects (e.g. Rabbit can be starved to death, and that causes it to be removed from the Person.rabbits array) As DDD is concerned, I think the correct approach is to synchronize all calls that may change the states in the domain model. For instance, if a Person buys a Rabbit, s/he would need to acquire a lock in Person to make a change to the rabbits array AND also another lock in Rabbit to change its owner before releasing the first one. This would prevent a race condition where 2 Persons claim to be the owner of the little Rabbit. The other approach is to let the database to handle all these synchronizations. Who makes the first call wins, but then the DB needs to have some kind of business logics to figure out if it is a valid transaction (e.g. if a Rabbit already has an owner, it cannot change its owner unless the Person gives it away). There are both pros/cons in either approach, and I’d expect the “best” solution would be somewhere in-between. How would you do it in real life? What’s your take and experience? Also, is it a valid concern that there can be another race condition the domain model has committed its change but before it is fully committed in the database? And for the 3rd observation (i.e. state change due to time factor). How will you do it?

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  • Dynamic Multiple Choice (Like a Wizard) - How would you design it? (e.g. Schema, AI model, etc.)

    - by henry74
    This question can probably be broken up into multiple questions, but here goes... In essence, I'd like to allow users to type in what they would like to do and provide a wizard-like interface to ask for information which is missing to complete a requested query. For example, let's say a user types: "What is the weather like in Springfield?" We recognize the user is interested in weather, but it could be Springfield, Il or Springfield in another state. A follow-up question would be: What Springfield did you want weather for? 1 - Springfield, Il 2 - Springfield, Wi You can probably think of a million examples where a request is missing key data or its ambiguous. Make the assumption the gist of what the user wants can be understood, but there are missing pieces of data required to complete the request. Perhaps you can take it as far back as asking what the user wants to do and "leading" them to a query. This is not AI in the sense of taking any input and truly understanding it. I'm not referring to having some way to hold a conversation with a user. It's about inferring what a user wants, checking to see if there is an applicable service to be provided, identifying the inputs needed and overlaying that on top of what's missing from the request, then asking the user for the remaining information. That's it! :-) How would you want to store the information about services? How would you go about determining what was missing from the input data? My thoughts: Use regex expressions to identify clear pieces of information. These will be matched to the parameters of a service. Figure out which parameters do not have matching data and look up the associated question for those parameters. Ask those questions and capture answers. Re-run the service passing in the newly captured data. These would be more free-form questions. For multiple choice, identify the ambiguity and search for potential matches ranked in order of likelihood (add in user history/preferences to help decide). Provide the top 3 as choices. Thoughts appreciated. Cheers, Henry

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