Search Results

Search found 19966 results on 799 pages for 'wild thing'.

Page 670/799 | < Previous Page | 666 667 668 669 670 671 672 673 674 675 676 677  | Next Page >

  • Mapping individual buttons on ASP.NET MVC View to controller actions

    - by skb
    I have an application where I need the user to be able to update or delete rows of data from the database. The rows are displayed to the user using a foreach loop in the .aspx file of my view. Each row will have two text fields (txtName, txtDesc), an update button, and a delete button. What I'm not sure of, is how do I have the update button send the message to the controller for which row to update? I can see a couple way of doing this: Put each row within it's own form tag, then when the update button is clicked, it will submit the values for that row only (there will also be a hidden field with the rowId) and the controller class would take all the post values as parameters to the Update method on the controller. Somehow, have the button be scripted in a way to send back only the values for that row with a POST to the controller. Is there a way of doing this? One thing I am concerned about is if each row has different names for it's controls assigned by ASP.NET (txtName1, txtDesc1, txtName2, txtDesc2), then how will their values get mapped to the correct parameters of the Controller method?

    Read the article

  • Cost of logic in a query

    - by FrustratedWithFormsDesigner
    I have a query that looks something like this: select xmlelement("rootNode", (case when XH.ID is not null then xmlelement("xhID", XH.ID) else xmlelement("xhID", xmlattributes('true' AS "xsi:nil"), XH.ID) end), (case when XH.SER_NUM is not null then xmlelement("serialNumber", XH.SER_NUM) else xmlelement("serialNumber", xmlattributes('true' AS "xsi:nil"), XH.SER_NUM) end), /*repeat this pattern for many more columns from the same table...*/ FROM XH WHERE XH.ID = 'SOMETHINGOROTHER' It's ugly and I don't like it, and it is also the slowest executing query (there are others of similar form, but much smaller and they aren't causing any major problems - yet). Maintenance is relatively easy as this is mostly a generated query, but my concern now is for performance. I am wondering how much of an overhead there is for all of these case expressions. To see if there was any difference, I wrote another version of this query as: select xmlelement("rootNode", xmlforest(XH.ID, XH.SER_NUM,... (I know that this query does not produce exactly the same, thing, my plan was to move the logic to PL/SQL or XSL) I tried to get execution plans for both versions, but they are the same. I'm guessing that the logic does not get factored into the execution plan. My gut tells me the second version should execute faster, but I'd like some way to prove that (other than writing a PL/SQL test function with timing statements before and after the query and running that code over and over again to get a test sample). Is it possible to get a good idea of how much the case-when will cost? Also, I could write the case-when using the decode function instead. Would that perform better (than case-statements)?

    Read the article

  • ESXi with software iSCSI

    - by jharley
    Has anyone had any luck using the swiSCSI driver on ESXi? Following the instructions from VMWare.com I get to the point where I have the iSCSI HBA showing up but no LUNs/targets are showing up. The iSCSI target is running on Solaris 10 update 5 and works with other initiators fine. The ESXi initiator (from the logs) sees the targets but just logs in and out of them every 2 - 5 seconds. We're using unauthenticated discovery, and over and over in /var/log/messages I see: iSCSI: bus 0 target 0 trying to establish session 0xb203f90 to portal 0, address 10.1.100.9 port 3260 group 1 iSCSI: bus 0 target 0 establish session 0xb203f90 #4848 to port 0, address 10.1.100.9 port 3260 group 1, alias data/ESXi iSCSI: session 0xb203f90 dropping after receiving unexpected opcode 0x60 iSCSI: session 0xb203f90 to data/ESXi dropped iSCSI: session 0xb203f90 to data/ESXi waiting 2 seconds before next login attempt The only other thing that seems out of wack is that my 'Recent Tasks' pane keeps filling with 'Browse Diagnostic Manager' events and /var/log/vmware/hostd.log is filled with messages like this up to two times per second: [2008-09-19 16:05:57.901 'TaskManager' 196621 info] Task Created: haTask-ha-host-vim.DiagnosticManager.browser-776 [2008-09-19 16:05:57.094 'TaskManager' 196621 info] Task Completed: haTask-ha-host-vim.DiagnosticManager.browser-766 Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to call a method from another class that's been instantiated within the current class

    - by Pavan
    my screen has a few views like such __________________ | _____ | | | | | //viewX is a video screen | | | | | viewX | vY | | //viewY is a custom uiview i created. | |____| | //it contains a method which i would like to call that toggles |_________________| //the hidden property of this view. and when it hides, a little | | //button is replaced no the top right corner on top of viewX | viewZ | //the video layer | | |_________________| //viewZ is a view containing many square views - thumbnails. my question is, i dont know how to register for touch events so that it recognises any touch event on no matter which view the user touches the screen.. atm im handling the touch events for each view inside it. so all works well... however what im trying to do is that when the user taps anywhere else on the screen but on viewY, viewY should dissapear by calling that method in the viewY class. this viewY class is instantiated and has no xib file attached to it. the uiview is created progammatically in the viewY class. this whole class for viewY behviour is instantiated in viewX - the video view. my boss says add delegates.. although i have now clue how to do that... any help? is there anyway i can just make it really simple and be able to say REMOVE VIEW no matter which class im calling from? Also ive seen other people achieve this by using these funky arrows - ... <- etc.. although im not sure if thats what i need or how to implement such a thing. ah i think ive made my question quite complicated but i really mean it to be a simple one, and know it can be done in an easy way!

    Read the article

  • [Python] Tips for making a fraction calculator code more optimized (faster and using less memory)

    - by Logic Named Joe
    Hello Everyone, Basicly, what I need for the program to do is to act a as simple fraction calculator (for addition, subtraction, multiplication and division) for the a single line of input, for example: -input: 1/7 + 3/5 -output: 26/35 My initial code: import sys def euclid(numA, numB): while numB != 0: numRem = numA % numB numA = numB numB = numRem return numA for wejscie in sys.stdin: wyjscie = wejscie.split(' ') a, b = [int(x) for x in wyjscie[0].split("/")] c, d = [int(x) for x in wyjscie[2].split("/")] if wyjscie[1] == '+': licz = a * d + b * c mian= b * d nwd = euclid(licz, mian) konA = licz/nwd konB = mian/nwd wynik = str(konA) + '/' + str(konB) print(wynik) elif wyjscie[1] == '-': licz= a * d - b * c mian= b * d nwd = euclid(licz, mian) konA = licz/nwd konB = mian/nwd wynik = str(konA) + '/' + str(konB) print(wynik) elif wyjscie[1] == '*': licz= a * c mian= b * d nwd = euclid(licz, mian) konA = licz/nwd konB = mian/nwd wynik = str(konA) + '/' + str(konB) print(wynik) else: licz= a * d mian= b * c nwd = euclid(licz, mian) konA = licz/nwd konB = mian/nwd wynik = str(konA) + '/' + str(konB) print(wynik) Which I reduced to: import sys def euclid(numA, numB): while numB != 0: numRem = numA % numB numA = numB numB = numRem return numA for wejscie in sys.stdin: wyjscie = wejscie.split(' ') a, b = [int(x) for x in wyjscie[0].split("/")] c, d = [int(x) for x in wyjscie[2].split("/")] if wyjscie[1] == '+': print("/".join([str((a * d + b * c)/euclid(a * d + b * c, b * d)),str((b * d)/euclid(a * d + b * c, b * d))])) elif wyjscie[1] == '-': print("/".join([str((a * d - b * c)/euclid(a * d - b * c, b * d)),str((b * d)/euclid(a * d - b * c, b * d))])) elif wyjscie[1] == '*': print("/".join([str((a * c)/euclid(a * c, b * d)),str((b * d)/euclid(a * c, b * d))])) else: print("/".join([str((a * d)/euclid(a * d, b * c)),str((b * c)/euclid(a * d, b * c))])) Any advice on how to improve this futher is welcome. Edit: one more thing that I forgot to mention - the code can not make use of any libraries apart from sys.

    Read the article

  • Cannot change font size /type in plots

    - by Sameet Nabar
    I recently had to re-install my operating system (Ubuntu). The only thing I did differently is that I installed Matlab on a separate partition, not the main Ubuntu partition. After re-installing, the fonts in my plots are no longer configurable. For example, if I ask the title font to be bold, it doesn't happen. I ran the sample code below on my computer and then on my colleague's computer and the 2 results are attached. This cannot be a problem with the code; rather in the settings of Matlab. Could somebody please tell me what settings I need to change? Thanks in advance for your help. Regards, Sameet. x1=-pi:.1:pi; x2=-pi:pi/10:pi; y1=sin(x1); y2=tan(sin(x2)) - sin(tan(x2)); [AX,H1,H2]=plotyy(x1,y1,x2,y2); xlabel ('Time (hh:mm)'); ylabel (AX(1), 'Plot1'); ylabel (AX(2), 'Plot2'); axes(AX(2)) set(H1,'linestyle','none','marker','.'); set(H2,'linestyle','none','marker','.'); title('Plot Title','FontWeight','bold'); set(gcf, 'Visible', 'off'); [legh, objh] = legend([H1 H2],'Plot1', 'Plot2','location','Best'); set(legend,'FontSize',8); print -dpng Trial.png; Bad image: http://imageshack.us/photo/my-images/708/trial1u.png/ Good image: http://imageshack.us/photo/my-images/87/trial2.png/

    Read the article

  • Adding a validator to the gridview textbox, created in edit-mode of a bound field

    - by user181218
    Hi,take a look at this sample code: (question bellow) <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server" AllowPaging="True" AllowSorting="True" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource2" AutoGenerateColumns="False" onrowupdated="GridView1_RowUpdated" DataKeyNames="Product_Id"> <Columns> <asp:ImageField DataImageUrlField="Image_Name" HeaderText="Image_Name" ReadOnly="True" > <ItemStyle Width="50px" Height="50px" Wrap="true"/> </asp:ImageField> <asp:BoundField DataField="Product_Id" HeaderText="Product_Id" InsertVisible="False" ReadOnly="True" SortExpression="Product_Id"> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="Product_Name" HeaderText="Product_Name" SortExpression="Product_Name" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Category_Name" HeaderText="Category_Name" SortExpression="Category_Name" ReadOnly="true" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Description" HeaderText="Description" SortExpression="Description" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Size" HeaderText="Size" SortExpression="Size" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Price" HeaderText="Price" SortExpression="Price" /> <asp:CommandField ShowEditButton="True" /> <asp:CommandField ShowDeleteButton="True" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> Assume I initialize an SqlDataSource, add a parameter and so on. The thing is, that when a user clicks edit we get a textbox to edit the colnumn value. I want to validate the data enter by the user before the update is performed and the new data is propagated back to the server.How? 10x a lot!

    Read the article

  • validation controls are not validating on enabling on client side using java script, plz guide

    - by haansi
    Hi, As per requirement I disabled all validation controls in page on PageLoad event in server side. On clicking submit button I want to activate them and validate the page and if the page is ok submit other wise not. I am able to enable all validaters but one thing that I am unable to understand is that they do not validate the page. I set alerts and check they are being enabled but they do not validate the page and let the page submit. I am sorry I couldn't get where I am wrong, may be there need to call some validation method as well or I should prevent default behavior of button. please guide me. Below is my script: <script type="text/javascript"> function NextClicked() { var _ddlStatus = document.getElementById("<%=ddlEmpStatus.ClientID%>"); var _selectedIndex = _ddlStatus.selectedIndex; if (_selectedIndex == 0) { alert("Nothing selected"); }<br/> else<br/> if (_selectedIndex == 1) { for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { Page_Validators[i].Enabled = true; } } } </script> thanks in anticipation.

    Read the article

  • What's the state of PHP unit testing frameworks in 2010?

    - by Pekka
    As far as I can see, PHPUnit is the only serious product in the field at the moment. It is widely used, is integrated into Continuous Integration suites like phpUnderControl, and well regarded. The thing is, I don't really like working with PHPUnit. I find it hard to set up (PEAR is the only officially supported installation method, and I hate PEAR), sometimes complicated to work with and, correct me if I'm wrong, lacking executability from a web page context (i.e. no CLI, which would really be nice when developing a web app.) The only competition to I can see is Simpletest, which looks very nice but hasn't seen a new release for almost two years, which tends to rule it out for me - Unit Testing is quite a static field, true, but as I will be deploying those tests alongside web applications, I would like to see active development on the project, at least for security updates and such. There is a SO question that pretty much confirms what I'm saying: Simple test vs PHPunit Seeing that that is almost two years old as well, though, I think it's time to ask again: Does anybody know any other serious feature-complete unit testing frameworks? Am I wrong in my criticism of PHPUnit? Is there still development going on for SimpleTest?

    Read the article

  • I need help solving a rather weird error in a WCF service.

    - by Moulde
    Hi.. I have a solution that contains three projects. A main project with my MVC app, a silverlight application and a (silverlight enabled) WCF service project. In my silverlight project i have made a Service Reference to my WCF service. And i pretty much got that working. In my WCF service i have a method that returns an Book object, which got some random fields like title, date etc. In the book class, i have a ICollection field that contains a list of events. The book class is generated using entity framework 4.0, and Lazy Loading is enabled. If i in my getBook(int id) method return a book with the events field not initialized, it works as a charm. But if i initialize the field, i'm getting this error. The server did not provide a meaningful reply; this might be caused by a contract mismatch, a premature session shutdown or an internal server error. I have a few ideas why that is happening, and while writing this i just got another one. The wcf service somehow threw away the reference to the event class. That would be very weird since i have a reference between my main mvc app (with the models) and my WCF service. Since i have enabled lazy loading in EF 4.0, i suspect that it may be the thing generating the error. But i'm not sure why that would be, because i'm not in any way accessing that field. I could understand that i may not be able to access the events field after i recive the object in my silverlight application since the connection between the book object and the entity framework is like broken. Did i mention that Lazy Loading is enabled on my EF instance? And there is no inner exception in the thrown exception. Thanks in advance. Malte Baden Hansen

    Read the article

  • Check if DateTime in specific range

    - by katit
    Need to check if DateTime is in specific range. I think I need to calculate knowing YEAR first and last date of DST time in this year. How would I figure "Sunday of week 2 of March" date? From 1/1/2007 12:00:00 AM to 12/31/9999 12:00:00 AM Begins at 2:00 AM on Sunday of week 2 of March Ends at 2:00 AM on Sunday of week 1 of November For example, I need to check if 11/21/2011 is between Sunday of week 2 in March and Sunday of week 1 of November - answer should be NO If I pass 8/8/2011 - answer should be yes. Basically, I need to write function to check if my date belongs to daylight savings time. My only idea so far is to write loops to find 2nd week for example. So, I would loop from Day 1 in March until I hit Sunday second time. Same thing I would loop (increment days by 1) from day 1 of November until I hit Sunday first time. In another words, I need function to check if input data is in Daylight Savings time period. Time period defined by constraint above. P.S. I can't use TimeZoneInfo since it's in Silverlight P.P.S I can't use DateTime.IsDaylightSavingsTime as I don't have times with kind "local"

    Read the article

  • Fastest way to learn Flex and Java EE?

    - by LostWebNewbie
    Ok so me and my 2 friends have to make a webapp and well we think it's a good opportunity to learn JEE and Flex. The thing is we have very little knowledge about them and we have only 3 months to do it (it doesn't have to be super complicated). So my question is: what, in your opinion, would be the fastest way to learn them both? I guess we need to know some JSP, Serlvets, JPA (??), Flex, maybe JavaScript+CSS? Anything else like EJB? Should we also learn Spring (or Struts)? Obviously reading books would be a good idea, but I bet we won't make the deadline if we try to read all the books... @Edit: I know the basics of JSP/Servlets (read Head First JSP&Servlets) but I made only 1 project so far (a semi-decent hangman with JSP/Serlvets and JPA for persistance) that's about it. Flex - I'm just starting, I know really the basics of mxml and as3. As for why: 1) because we need to do a project for the uni and well I was thinking bout becoming a web dev (yup - jee+flex) after graduation, this is the perfect opportunity to learn them.

    Read the article

  • em1: watchdog timeout -- resetting virtualbox

    - by lightmanhk
    everyone. I try to configure network adapter of my freebsd on virtualbox machine. At first setting up, I got it right. However, after a couple of reboots, my VM gives me a error message: says "em1:Watchdog timeout -- resetting" I tried to google it, and there is no solution that works for me. The following is my network adapter of my VM: Apapter1: NAT Adapter2: Host-only Adapter vboxnet0 On my Virtualbox setting: Host-only networks: Adapter: IPv4 address: 192.168.56.10 IPv4 network mask: 255.255.255.0 On my FreeBSD VM /etc/rc.conf ifconfig_em0="DHCP" ifconfig_em1="inet 192.168.56.11 netmask 255.255.255.0" Moreover, strange thing is that, for example, if timeout error message show at ttyv0 , when I log in at different ttyv[1-9], the error message will not be shown. but in ttyv0, it still gives me the message. And, in term of functionality of em1, it does work. I have no clue about this problem. Hoping any one can give me a solution or suggestion. That will be great! Thanks a lot. Freebsd version: 9.0-RELEASE FreeBSD 9.0-RELEASE i386 Virtual box: 4.1.2 r73507

    Read the article

  • problem in case of window service

    - by prateeksaluja20
    Hello friends, i made a windows service & add project installer.in which only contain this code. System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(@"C:\Windows\system32\notepad.exe"); inside the timer tick event & interval is 60 sec.i just wanted to try to run Windows service. 1st-serviceProcessInstaller1 i have been changed its account setting as local system. 2nd-serviceInstaller1 in this case i have been changed its start up type as Automatic. then i create a setup add another project then right click add project output then add primary output then press ok. then go to Right click on project-view-custom Action-right click on Install-Add custom Action-select Application folder & add primary output.the same thing done for all the remaining options like commit,rollback,uninstall. after that i build the setup it build succesfully then i install the setup it installed properly into program file n create one .exe file n one Instalfile. but problem is that when i search the service into "services.msc" the service is not there. means service is not showing there.i tried but not getting the ans.plz help me to solve this problem.

    Read the article

  • SQL Duplicates Issue

    - by jeff
    I have two tables : Product and ProductRateDetail. The parent table is Product. I have duplicate records in the product table which need to be unique. There are entries in the ProductRateDetail table which correspond to duplicate records in the product table. Somehow I need to update the ProductRateDetail table to match the original (older) ID from the Product table and then remove the duplicates from the product table. I would do this manually but there are 100's of records. I.e. something like UPDATE tbl_productRateDetail SET productID = (originalID from tbl_product) then something like DELETE from tbl_product WHERE duplicate ID and only delete the recently added ID data example: (sorry can't work out this formatting thing) select * from dbo.Product where ProductCode = '10003' tbl_product ProductID ProductTypeID ProductDescription ProductCode ProductSize 365 1 BEND DOUBLE FLANGED 10003 80mmX90deg 1354 1 BEND DOUBLE FLANGED 10003 80mmX90deg SELECT * FROM [MSTS2].[dbo].[ProductRateDetail] WHERE ProductID in (365,1354) tbl_productratedetail ProductRateDetailID ProductRateID ProductID UnitRate 365 1 365 16.87 1032 5 365 16.87 2187 10 365 16.87 2689 11 365 16.87 3191 12 365 16.87 7354 21 1354 21.30 7917 22 1354 21.30 8480 23 1354 21.30 9328 25 1354 21.30 9890 26 1354 21.30 10452 27 1354 21.30 Please help!

    Read the article

  • Flex 3 (Action Script): How to access a function from a loaded swf-file ?

    - by Trantec
    Hi, i load in ActionScript a swf file. So far no Problem, but I didn't found a way to access one of it's functions, the best thing would be if I could access the main function in the mxml part of the swf. Here is the code of the main-mxml file that belongs to the swf that should load and access another swf: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" initialize="basket();"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.controls.SWFLoader; private function basket(): void { var swfLoader: SWFLoader = new SWFLoader(); swfLoader.addEventListener( Event.COMPLETE, handleSWFLoaded ); try { swfLoader.load( "../../data/InternalSWF.swf" ); } catch (error: Error) { trace( "Couldn't load file !" ); } } private function handleSWFLoaded( event: Event ): void { var swfApp:* = event.target.content; // This both ways don't work... //if (swfApp.hasOwnProperty("initApp")) { // var initApp:Function = (swfApp["initApp"] as Function); // initApp(); //} // swfApp.initApp(); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Text id="output" width="100%" textAlign="center" /> </mx:Application> The if-Statement "if (swfApp.hasOwnProperty("initApp")) {" is never true and the call "swfApp.initApp()" says that this function does not exist. In the original version I added event listeners for HTTPStatusEvent.HTTP_STATUS, IOErrorEvent.IO_ERROR and SecurityErrorEvent.SECURITY_ERROR. But except for HTTP_STATUS = 0 none of them are called. Is the whole idea of how i try to do this wrong ?

    Read the article

  • Does running IIS7 in classic mode affect MVC output caching?

    - by Bob
    I have a need to run an application in classic mode for backwards compatibility with a specific application, and am trying to understand what kind of impact that will have on the performance of an MVC application that is running on the site. If we put a few static file maps (for .js, .css, .png, etc) above the ASP.NET wildcard map to reduce the amount of processing by the ASP.NET handler, will we be approaching the integrated mode in terms of performance? The thing i'm primarily concerned with is any effect this might have on output caching. I understand that integrated mode might (?) allow for the output cache to handle non ASP.NET content, but that isn't really a concern. We're more interested in ensuring that the MVC application has full use of the output cache. Empirically i've found that the two configurations operate on par when things go well, but if the page references resources that are not available, the integrated mode tends to fail much more quickly than the classic mode (e.g. 500 ms vs 10 seconds), reducing 'hang time' on the page load. Thanks for any feedback.

    Read the article

  • Do vs. Run vs. Execute vs. Perform verbs

    - by coffeeaddict
    Before anyone starts to go nuts and red flag this post saying this is "Subjective" which drives me absolutely nuts because everyone has their own intent why they are posting something others feel are subjective. Subjective is subjective to each person, how about that! So with that let me tell you a couple things so that this post does not get flagged by flag happy moderators: 1) There are community guidlines on specific keywords recommended by certain organizations or people (e.g. Microsoft, Lance Hunt, etc.) 2) I want to know what others are using the most and why. Why they feel this verb reads better than others 3) Books even talk about this verb issue (Uncle Bob, etc.), so it's not subjective Now to my actual question: a) What list of verbs are you using for method names? What's your personal or team standard? b) I debate whether to use Do vs. Run vs. Execute vs. Perform and am wondering if any of these are no longer recommended or some that people just don't really use and I should just scratch them. Basically any one of those verbs mean the same thing...to invoke some process (method call). This is outside of CRUDs. For example: ExecutePayPalWorkflow(); that could be also any one of these names instead: DoPayPalWorkflow(); RunPayPalWorkflow(); PerformPayPalWorkflow(); or does it not really matter...because any of those verbs pretty much are understandable as to "what" shows your intent by the other words that follow it "PayPalWorkflow" This discussion can go for any language. I just put the two main tags C# and Java here which is good enough for me to get some solid answers or experiences.

    Read the article

  • Android 2.1 How to get Phone Numbers of contacts.

    - by Brandon Delany
    Hi, I am new to Android and have been working on an app that needs to get all of the user's contact's phone numbers. Apparently the code I have does not work with the 2.1 SDK. So far here is the code I am using: String[] projection = new String[] { Phone.NUMBER }; Cursor c = managedQuery( Phone.CONTENT_URI, projection, null, null, null ); int colIndex = -1; try { colIndex = c.getColumnIndexOrThrow( Phone.NUMBER ); } catch( Exception e ) { print( e.getMessage() ); } print( "Column Index = " + colIndex ); //count is equal to 3 for( int i = 0; i < count; i++ ){ try { print( c.getString( 2 ) ); //the 2 used to be colIndex } catch ( Exception e ) { print( e.getMessage() ); } } It seems that no matter what I pass into c.getString() it keeps telling me that I passed in -1. But I even hardcoded the 2, and it says the same thing. Any help would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • No "redefinition of default parameter error" for class template member function?

    - by STingRaySC
    Why does the following give no compilation error?: // T.h template<class T> class X { public: void foo(int a = 42); }; // Main.cpp #include "T.h" #include <iostream> template<class T> void X<T>::foo(int a = 13) { std::cout << a << std::endl; } int main() { X<int> x; x.foo(); // prints 42 } It seems as though the 13 is just silently ignored by the compiler. Why is this? The cooky thing is that if the template declaration is in Main.cpp instead of a header file, I do indeed get the default parameter redefinition error. Now I know the compiler will complain about this if it were just an ordinary (non-template) function. What does the standard have to say about default parameters in class template member functions or function templates?

    Read the article

  • tcp/ip accept not returning, but client does

    - by paquetp
    server: vxworks 6.3 calls the usual socket, bind, listen, then: for (;;) { client = accept(sfd,NULL,NULL); // pass client to worker thread } client: .NET 2.0 TcpClient constructor to connect to server that takes the string hostname and int port, like: TcpClient client = new TcpClient(server_ip, port); This is working fine when the server is compiled and executed in windows (native c++). intermittently, the constructor to TcpClient will return the instance, without throwing any exception, but the accept call in vxWorks does not return with the client fd. tcpstatShow indicates no accept occurred. What could possibly make the TcpClient constructor (which calls 'Connect') return the instance, while the accept call on the server not return? It seems to be related to what the system is doing in the background - it seems more likely to get this symptom to occur when the server is busy persisting data to flash or an NFS share when the client attempts to connect, but can happen when it isn't also. I've tried adjusting priority of the thread running accept I've looked at the size of the queue in 'listen'. There's enough. The total number of file descriptors available should be enough (haven't validated this yet though, first thing in the morning)

    Read the article

  • Database class is not correctly connecting to my database.

    - by blerh
    I'm just venturing into the world of OOP so forgive me if this is a n00bish question. This is what I have on index.php: $dbObj = new Database(); $rsObj = new RS($dbObj); This is the Database class: class Database { private $dbHost; private $dbUser; private $dbPasswd; private $dbName; private $sqlCount; function __construct() { $this->dbHost = 'localhost'; $this->dbUser = 'root'; $this->dbPasswd = ''; $this->dbName = 'whatever'; $this->sqlCount = 0; } function connect() { $this->link = mysql_connect($this->db_host, $this->db_user, $this->db_passwd); if(!$this->link) $this->error(mysql_error()); $this->selection = mysql_select_db($this->db_name, $this->link); if(!$this->selection) $this->error(mysql_error()); } } I've shortened it to just the connect() method to simplify things. This is the RS class: class RS { private $username; private $password; function __construct($dbObj) { // We need to get an account from the db $dbObj->connect(); } } As you can probably see, I need to access and use the database class in my RS class. But I get this error when I load the page: Warning: mysql_connect() [function.mysql-connect]: Access denied for user 'ODBC'@'localhost' (using password: NO) in C:\xampp\htdocs\includes\database.class.php on line 22 The thing is I have NO idea where it got the idea that it needs to use ODBC as a user... I've read up on doing this stuff and from what I can gather I am doing it correctly. Could anyone lend me a hand? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • looking for advise on importing excel into mysql with php

    - by Ole Media
    Alright, see if I can pick your brains from you all. I'm currently working on a project where all the information comes from different clients, the only thing in common is that the received data is done with excel. The excel spread sheet that they present is just a bunch of references and codes, and the problem than I'm facing is that I need the references and codes to be entered in certain format in order for the website to work. The perfect situation will be to go to each client and teach how I would need the data, but I can't do that because of the large number of clients, and more importantly I will be interrupting their work flow. Each client has its own codes and reference model and they are not willing to change their process The good news is that there is a standard pattern for the codes, but I'm talking close to 200 thousand codes with a bunch of combination. They way that we are currently solving the problem is that we have a person who checks each excel sheet received, runs a few macros, and manually fixes those codes in which the macro was not able to fix. The person that is doing this, is already burn out and frustrated and I would like to automatize this process with php. Suggestions?

    Read the article

  • What is the appropriate granularity in building a ViewModel?

    - by JasCav
    I am working on a new project, and, after seeing some of the difficulties of previous projects that didn't provide enough separation of view from their models (specifically using MVC - the models and views began to bleed into each other a bit), I wanted to use MVVM. I understand the basic concept, and I'm excited to start using it. However, one thing that escapes me a bit - what data should be contained in the ViewModel? For example, if I am creating a ViewModel that will encompass two pieces of data so they can be edited in a form, do I capture it like this: public PersonAddressViewModel { public Person Person { get; set; } public Address Address { get; set; } } or like this: public PersonAddressViewModel { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } public string StreetName { get; set; } // ...etc } To me, the first feels more correct for what we're attempting to do. If we were doing more fine grain forms (maybe all we were capturing was FirstName, LastName, and StreetAddress) then it might make more sense to go down to that level. But, I feel like the first is correct since we're capturing ALL Person data in the form and ALL Address data. It seems like it doesn't make sense (and a lot of extra work) to split things apart like that. Appreciate any insight.

    Read the article

  • Can JMX operations take interfaces as parameters?

    - by Thor84no
    I'm having problems with an MBean that takes a Map<String, Object> as a parameter. If I try to execute it via JMX using a proxy object, I get an Exception: Caused by: javax.management.ReflectionException at org.jboss.mx.server.AbstractMBeanInvoker.invoke(AbstractMBeanInvoker.java:231) at org.jboss.mx.server.MBeanServerImpl.invoke(MBeanServerImpl.java:668) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) Caused by: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Unable to find operation updateProperties(java.util.HashMap) It appears that it attempts to use the actual implementation class rather than the interface, and doesn't check if this is a child of the required interface. The same thing happens for extended classes (for example declare HashMap, pass in LinkedHashMap). Does this mean it's impossible to use an interface for such methods? At the moment I'm getting around it by changing the method signature to accept a HashMap, but it seems odd that I wouldn't be able to use interfaces (or extended classes) in my MBeans. Edit: The proxy object is being created by an in-house utility class called JmxInvocationHandler. The (hopefully) relevant parts of it are as follows: public class JmxInvocationHandler implements InvocationHandler { ... public static <T> T createMBean(final Class<T> iface, SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { T newProxyInstance = (T) Proxy.newProxyInstance(iface.getClassLoader(), new Class[] { iface }, (InvocationHandler) new JmxInvocationHandler(properties, mbean, shHostID)); return newProxyInstance; } ... private JmxInvocationHandler(SFSTestProperties properties, String mbean, int shHostID) { this.mbeanName = mbean + MBEAN_SUFFIX + shHostID; msConfig = new MsConfiguration(properties.getHost(0), properties.getMSAdminPort(), properties.getMSUser(), properties.getMSPassword()); } ... public Object invoke(Object proxy, Method method, Object[] args) throws Throwable { if (management == null) { management = ManagementClientStore.getInstance().getManagementClient(msConfig.getHost(), msConfig.getAdminPort(), msConfig.getUser(), msConfig.getPassword(), false); } final Object result = management.methodCall(mbeanName, method.getName(), args == null? new Object[] {} : args); return result; } }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 666 667 668 669 670 671 672 673 674 675 676 677  | Next Page >