Search Results

Search found 18900 results on 756 pages for 'custom controls'.

Page 673/756 | < Previous Page | 669 670 671 672 673 674 675 676 677 678 679 680  | Next Page >

  • Schema for element with Attributes and Child nodes

    - by Matthew
    I am trying to write xsd type schema for an element that has a custom type to include addition attributes to extend a base type. I am running into trouble getting the syntax right. <xs:element name="graphs"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="graph" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="unbounded" type="graphType"> <!-- child elements --> </xs:element> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> <xs:complexType name="graphType"> <xs:simpleContent> <xs:extension base="xs:string"> <xs:attribute name="title" type="xs:string"/> <xs:attribute name="type" type="xs:string"/> </xs:extension> </xs:simpleContent> </xs:complexType> I thought this would be something very common, but having read many tuts and forums, I cant seem to find an answer that works for me.

    Read the article

  • UITableView UITableViewCell dynamic UILabel Height storyboard

    - by Mikel Nelson
    This isn'an a question, just a results log on an issue I had with XCode 4.5 storyboards and dynamic height UITableCell with a UILabel. The issue was; the initial display of a cell would only show part of the resized UILabel contents, and that the visual UILabel was not resized. It would only display correctly after scrolling off the top of the Table and back down. I did the calculations in hieghtForRowAtIndexPath and sizeToFit the UILabel in rowAtIndexPath. The sizes where coming up ok in debug, but the device was not updating the display with the correct size and UILable.text value. I had created the dynamic UITableCell in a storyboard. However, I had set the width and height to a nominal value (290x44). It turns out, this was causing my issues. I set the width and height to zero (0) in the story board, and everything started working correctly. (i.e. the UILabels displayed at the correct size with full content). I was unable to find anything online on this issue, except for some references to creating the custom table cell with a frame of zero. Turns out, that was really the answer (for me).

    Read the article

  • NSNotification vs. Delegate Protocols?

    - by jr
    I have an iPhone application which basically is getting information from an API (in XML, but maybe JSON eventually). The result objects are typically displayed in view controllers (tables mainly). Here is the architecture right now. I have NSOperation classes which fetch the different objects from the remote server. Each of these NSOperation classes, will take a custom delegate method which will fire back the resulting objects as they are parsed, and then finally a method when no more results are available. So, the protocol for the delegates will be something like: (void) ObjectTypeResult:(ObjectType *)result; (void) ObjectTypeNoMoreResults; I think the solution works well, but I do end up with a bunch of delegate protocols around and then my view controllers have to implement all these delegate methods. I don't think its that bad, but I'm always on the lookout for a better design. So, I'm thinking about using NSNotifications to remove the use of the delegates. I could include the object in the userInfo part of the notification and just post objects as received, and then a final event when no more are available. Then I could just have one method in each view controller to receive all the data, even when using multiple objects in one controller.† So, can someone share with me some pros/cons of each approach. Should I consider refactoring my code to use Events rather then the delegates? Is one better then the other in certain situations? In my scenario I'm really not looking to receive notifications in multiple places, so maybe the protocol based delegates are the way to go. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Can't seem to get .Union to work (merging 2 array's together, exclude duplicates)

    - by D. Veloper
    I want to combine two array's, excluding duplicates. I am using a custom class: public class ArcContact : IEquatable<ArcContact> { public String Text; public Boolean Equals(ArcContact other) { if (Object.ReferenceEquals(other, null)) return false; if (Object.ReferenceEquals(this, other)) return true; return Text.Equals(other.Text); } public override Int32 GetHashCode() { return Text == null ? 0 : Text.GetHashCode(); } } I implemented and the needed IEquatable interface as mentioned in this msdn section. I only want to check the Text property of the ArcContact class and make sure an Array of ArcContact have an unique Text. Here I pasted the code that I use, as you can see I have method with two parameters, array's to combine and below that the code I got from the previous mentioned msdn section. internal static class ArcBizz { internal static ArcContact[] MergeDuplicateContacts(ArcContact[] contacts1, ArcContact[] contacts2) { return (ArcContact[])contacts1.Union(contacts2); } internal static IEnumerable<T> Union<T>(this IEnumerable<T> a, IEnumerable<T> b); } What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • What can a company possibly gain by making Android phones hard to root?

    - by Chinmay Kanchi
    As someone who recently got a HTC Hero, I had to jump through several hoops to get root access on the phone to install custom firmware. Now, Android is open-source and fairly easy to build and hack on an emulator. It seems to be against the spirit of open-source to lock down a phone so you can't hack the phone itself. Now, often, there are understandable (though not always justifiable) reasons for locking a device down. For example, it might have proprietary software on it or you might want to retain control of the platform. However, Android by its open-source nature makes such concerns moot. Everyone and their dog has access to the userland code, and HTC is forced by the GPL to release kernel sources for each of their devices. So, I fail to see any motivation for alienating the hackers, when there is no possible benefit (in my mind) to be had from doing this. Any idea why a company would want to do this? Is it just short-sightedness or am I missing possible commercial implications of this?

    Read the article

  • Approaches for cross server content sharing?

    - by Anonymity
    I've currently been tasked with finding a best solution to serving up content on our new site from another one of our other sites. Several approaches suggested to me, that I've looked into include using SharePoint's Lists Web Service to grab the list through javascript - which results in XSS and is not an option. Another suggestion was to build a server side custom web service and use SharePoint Request Forms to get the information - this is something I've only very briefly looked at. It's been suggested that I try permitting the requesting site in the HTTP headers of the serving site since I have access to both. This ultimately resulted in a semi-working solution that had major security holes. (I had to include username/password in the request to appease AD Authentication). This was done by allowing Access-Control-Allow-Origin: * The most direct approach I could think of was to simply build in the webpart in our new environment to have the authors manually update this content the same as they would on the other site. Are any one of the suggestions here more valid than another? Which would be the best approach? Are there other suggestions I may be overlooking? I'm also not sure if WebCrawling or Content Scrapping really holds water here...

    Read the article

  • MVC2 Modelbinder for List of derived objects

    - by user250773
    I want a list of different (derived) object types working with the Default Modelbinder in Asp.net MVC 2. I have the following ViewModel: public class ItemFormModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "Required Field")] public string Name { get; set; } public string Description { get; set; } [ScaffoldColumn(true)] //public List<Core.Object> Objects { get; set; } public ArrayList Objects { get; set; } } And the list contains objects of diffent derived types, e.g. public class TextObject : Core.Object { public string Text { get; set; } } public class BoolObject : Core.Object { public bool Value { get; set; } } It doesn't matter if I use the List or the ArrayList implementation, everything get's nicely scaffolded in the form, but the modelbinder doesn't resolve the derived object type properties for me when posting back to the ActionResult. What could be a good solution for the Viewmodel structure to get a list of different object types handled? Having an extra list for every object type (e.g. List, List etc.) seems to be not a good solution for me, since this is a lot of overhead both in building the viewmodel and mapping it back to the domain model. Thinking about the other approach of binding all properties in a custom model binder, how can I make use the data annotations approach here (validating required attributes etc.) without a lot of overhead?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC 2 user input to SQL 2008 Database problems

    - by Rob
    After my publish in VS2010 the entire website loads and pulls data from the database perfectly. I can even create new users through the site with the correct key code, given out to who needs access. I have two connection strings in my web.config file The first: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="EveModelContainer" connectionString="metadata=res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.csdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.ssdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.msl;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The second: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****;MultipleActiveResultSets=True" /> The first one is the one that is needed to post data with the main application, EveModelContainer. Everything else is pulled using the standard ApplicationServices connection. Do you see anything wrong with my connectionstring? I'm at a complete loss here. The site works perfectly on my friends server and not on mine... Could it be a provider issue? And if I go to iis 7's manager console, and click .net users I get a pop up message saying the custom provider isn't a trusted provider do I want to allow it to run at a higher trust level. I'm at the point where I think its either my string or this trusted provider error... but I have no clue how to add to the trusted provider list... Thank you in advance!!!

    Read the article

  • Unit testing code which uses Umbraco v4 API

    - by Jason Evans
    I'm trying to write a suite of integration tests, where I have custom code which uses the Umbraco API. The Umbraco database lives in a SQL Server CE 4.0 database (*.sdf file) and I've managed to get that association working fine. My problem looks to be dependancies in the Umbraco code. For example, I would like to create a new user for my tests, so I try: var user = User.MakeNew("developer", "developer", "mypassword", "[email protected]", adminUserType); Now as you can see, I have pass a user type which is an object. I've tried two separate ways to create the user type, both of which fail due to a null object exception: var adminUserType = UserType.GetUserType(1); var adminUserType2 = new UserType(1); The problem is that in each case the UserType code calls it's Cache method which uses the HttpRuntime class, which naturally is null. My question is this: Can someone suggest a way of writing integration tests against Umbraco code? Will I have to end up using a mocking framework such as TypeMock or JustMock?

    Read the article

  • Silverlight 4 XAML Collections

    - by mattduffield
    Hello, I have authored some custom classes that I would like to create using XAML: <Grid Width="300" Height="300"> <l:DashboardTable> <l:DashboardTable.DashboardTableQuery> <dq:DashboardTableQuery ConnectionString="Data Source=bunkerhill;Initial Catalog=emgov_data;User Id=emgovadmin;Password=p@$$word;" Query="select datename(month, cr_tb_DateDue) AS Month, sum(cr_tb_AmountTransaction) AS Total from cr_tb_transactionbill where Year(cr_tb_DateDue) = 2005 and Month(cr_tb_DateDue) IN (1,2,3,4) group by datename(month, cr_tb_DateDue)" > <dq:DashboardTableQuery.DataColumns> <dq:DataColumn ColumnName="Month" ColumnOrder="0" Label="Month" /> <dq:DataColumn ColumnName="Total" ColumnOrder="1" Label="Total" /> </dq:DashboardTableQuery.DataColumns> </dq:DashboardTableQuery> </l:DashboardTable.DashboardTableQuery> </l:DashboardTable> </Grid> The problem is that I get a XamlParseException when I try to run this XAML. I have determined it is when it gets to the dq:DataColumn element. It seems like this is only happening when I have a property that then has a collection and then several items in the collection that I am getting this issue. Has any encountered anything similar? I am try to achieve this all in XAML declaratively.

    Read the article

  • Why does the '#weight' property sometimes not have any effect in Drupal forms?

    - by Adrian
    Hello, I'm trying to create a node form for a custom type. I have organic groups and taxonomy both enabled, but want their elements to come out in a non-standard order. So I've implemented hook_form_alter and set the #weight property of the og_nodeapi subarray to -1000, but it still goes after taxonomy and menu. I even tried changing the subarray to a fieldset (to force it to actually be rendered), but no dice. I also tried setting $form['taxonomy']['#weight'] = 1000 (I have two vocabs so it's already being rendered as a fieldset) but that didn't work either. I set the weight of my module very high and confirmed in the system table that it is indeed the highest module on the site - so I'm all out of ideas. Any suggestions? Update: While I'm not exactly sure how, I did manage to get the taxonomy fieldset to sink below everything else, but now I have a related problem that's hopefully more manageable to understand. Within the taxonomy fieldset, I have two items (a tags and a multi-select), and I wanted to add some instructions in hook_form_alter as follows: $form['taxonomy']['instructions'] = array( '#value' => "These are the instructions", '#weight' => -1, ); You guessed it, this appears after the terms inserted by the taxonomy module. However, if I change this to a fieldset: $form['taxonomy']['instructions'] = array( '#type' => 'fieldset', // <-- here '#title' => 'Instructions', // <-- and here for good measure '#value' => "These are the instructions", '#weight' => -1, ); then it magically floats to the top as I'd intended. I also tried textarea (this also worked) and explicitly saying markup (this did not). So basically, changing the type from "markup" (the default IIRC) to "fieldset" has the effect of no longer ignoring its weight.

    Read the article

  • How do I detect proximity of the mouse pointer to a line in Flex?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    I'm working on a charting UI in Flex. One of the features I want to implement is "snapping" of the mousepointer to the data points in the diagram. I. e., if the user hovers the mouse pointer over a line diagram and gets close to the data point, I want the pointer to move to the exact coordinates and show a marker, like this: Currently, the lines are drawn on a Shape, using the Graphics API. The Shape is a child DisplayObject of a custom UIComponent subclass with the exact same dimensions. This means, I already get mouseOver events on the parent of the diagram's canvas. Now I need a way to detect if the pointer is close to one of the data points. I. e. I need an answer to the question "Which data points lie within a radius of x pixels from my current position and which of them is closest?" upon each move of the mouse. I can think of the following possibilities: draw the lines not as simple lines in the graphics API, but as more advanced objects that can have their own mouseOver events. However, I want the snapping to trigger before the mouse is actually over the line. check the original data for possible candidates upon each mouse movement. Using binary search, I might be able to reduce the number of items I have to compare sufficently. prepare some kind of new data structure from the raw data that makes the above search more efficient. I don't know how that would look like. I'm guessing this is a pretty standard problem for a number of applications, but probably the actual code usually is inside of some framework. Is there anything I can read about this topic?

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to replace values in a queryset before sending it to your template?

    - by Issy
    Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

    Read the article

  • C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

    - by zinking
    there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

    Read the article

  • Creating a Linq->HQL provider

    - by Mike Q
    Hi all, I have a client application that connects to a server. The server uses hibernate for persistence and querying so it has a set of annotated hibernate objects for persistence. The client sends HQL queries to the server and gets responses back. The client has an auto-generated set of objects that match the server hibernate objects for query results and basic persistence. I would like to support using Linq to query as well as Hql as it makes the queries typesafe and quicker to build (no more typos in HQL string queries). I've looked around at the following but I can't see how to get them to fit with what I have. NHibernate's Linq provider - requires using NHibernate ISession and ISessionFactory, which I don't have LinqExtender - requires a lot of annotations on the objects and extending a base type, too invasive What I really want is something that will generate give me a nice easy to process structure to build the HQL queries from. I've read most of a 15 page article written by one of the C# developers on how to create custom providers and it's pretty fraught, mainly because of the complexity of the expression tree. Can anyone suggest an approach for implementing Linq - HQL translation? Perhaps a library that will the cleanup of the expression tree into something more SQL/HQLish. I would like to support select/from/where/group by/order by/joins. Not too worried about subqueries.

    Read the article

  • Desktop-like UI implementations for Java web applications?

    - by localshred
    At work we're discussing upgrading our view layer for our web application. We're currently running an old and "modified" version of FreeMarker Classic, which is a pain to work with. One of our developers suggested using a Component UI style architecture similar to desktop style environments. Essentially, this would mean that you would build custom HTML components as Java Classes that the controller would render into the Document view. This would completely take away the need to write HTML into a view layer. The Components would generate the view layer for you. For instance, the following rendered HTML: <h1>I am a title</h1> <p>I am a paragraph.</p> Would be generated by doing something like: String titleString = "I am a title"; html.elements.Heading heading = new html.elements.Heading(Heading.H1, titleString); String paraString = "I am a paragraph."; html.elements.Paragraph paragraph = new html.elements.Paragraph(paraString); PrintWriter somePrintWriter = new PrintWriter(); Document document = new Document(); document.addElement(heading); document.addElement(paragraph); document.compose(somePrintWriter); The above code is just an example, don't critique the names or style, I just wrote it for a quick demonstration of what we may be trying to accomplish. I'm trying to determine if this has been done before in Java, and if so if there are any links I can be pointed to. I've been researching it as much as I can, but haven't found any implementations that completely remove the template layer (such as JSP or JSF). Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Setting left/top position not working in IE

    - by Brian
    Hello, In a custom ASP.NET AJAX control, i have this to do some repositioning. var dims = Sys.UI.DomElement.getBounds(control); this.get_element().style.position = "absolute"; //Sys.UI.DomElement.setLocation(this.get_element(), dims.x, (dims.y + dims.height)); this.get_element().style.left = dims.x; this.get_element().style.top = (dims.y + dims.height); getBounds simply returns the x/y and width/height. I use this to set the left/top, but in IE, it's doubling; say the coordinates are 500, 20; when it sets this on the element, its actually setting to 1000, 40. Any ideas why? In firefox, this works correctly. this.get_element() returns the correct element and all, but it's not setting correctly, even though event logging says it's the correct coordinates. When using setLocation too, it doesn't work in either... What else in my code may be affecting it? JQuery isn't an option here too. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • how to merge ecommerce transaction data between two databases

    - by yamspog
    We currently run an ecommerce solution for a leisure and travel company. Everytime we have a release, we must bring the ecommerce site down as we update database schema and the data access code. We are using a custom built ORM where each data entity is responsible for their own CRUD operations. This is accomplished by dynamically generating the SQL based on attributes in the data entity. For example, the data entity for an address would be... [tableName="address"] public class address : dataEntity { [column="address1"] public string address1; [column="city"] public string city; } So, if we add a new column to the database, we must update the schema of the database and also update the data entity. As you can expect, the business people are not too happy about this outage as it puts a crimp in their cash-flow. The operations people are not happy as they have to deal with a high-pressure time when database and applications are upgraded. The programmers are upset as they are constantly getting in trouble for the legacy system that they inherited. Do any of you smart people out there have some suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Running a Model::find in for loop in cakephp v1.3

    - by Gaurav Sharma
    Hi all, How can I achieve the following result in cakephp: In my application a Topic is related to category, category is related to city and city is finally related to state in other words: topic belongs to category, category belongs to city , city belongs to state.. Now in the Topic controller's index action I want to find out all the topics and it's city and state. How can I do this. I can easily do this using a custom query ($this-Model-query() function ) but then I will be facing pagination difficulties. I tried doing like this function index() { $this->Topic->recursive = 0; $topics = $this->paginate(); for($i=0; $i<count($topics);$i++) { $topics[$i]['City'] = $this->Topic->Category->City->find('all', array('conditions' => array('City.id' => $topics[$i]['Category']['city_id']))); } $this->set(compact('messages')); } The method that I have adopted is not a good one (running query in a loop) Using the recursive property and setting it to highest value (2) will degrade performance and is not going to yield me state information. How shall I solve this ? Please help Thanks

    Read the article

  • F# numeric associations

    - by b1g3ar5
    I have a numeric association for a custom type as follows: let DiffNumerics = { new INumeric<Diff> with member op.Zero = C 0.0 member op.One = C 1.0 member op.Add(a,b) = a + b member op.Subtract(a,b) = a - b member op.Multiply(a,b) = a * b member ops.Negate(a) = Diff.negate a member ops.Abs(a) = Diff.abs a member ops.Equals(a, b) = ((=) a b) member ops.Compare(a, b) = Diff.compare a b member ops.Sign(a) = int (Diff.sign a).Val member ops.ToString(x,fmt,fmtprovider) = failwith "not implemented" member ops.Parse(s,numstyle,fmtprovider) = failwith "not implemented" } GlobalAssociations.RegisterNumericAssociation(DiffNumerics) It works fine in f# interactive, but crashes when I run, because .ElementOps is not filled correctly for a matrix of these types. Any ideas why this might be? EDIT: In fsi, the code let A = dmatrix [[Diff.C 1.;Diff.C 2.;Diff.C 3.];[Diff.C 4.;Diff.C 5.;Diff.C 6.]] let B = matrix [[1.;2.;3.];[4.;5.;6.]] gives: > A.ElementOps;; val it : INumeric<Diff> = FSI_0003.NewAD+DiffNumerics@258 > B.ElementOps;; val it : INumeric<float> = Microsoft.FSharp.Math.Instances+FloatNumerics@115 > in the debugger A.ElementOps shows: '(A).ElementOps' threw an exception of type 'System.NotSupportedException' and, for the B matrix: Microsoft.FSharp.Math.Instances+FloatNumerics@115 So somehow the DiffNumerics isn't making it to the compiled program.

    Read the article

  • Digitally sign MS Office (Word, Excel, etc..) and PDF files on the server

    - by Sébastien Nussbaumer
    I need to digitally sign MS Office and PDF files that are stored on a server. I really mean a digital signature that is integrated in the document, according to each specific file formats. This is the process I had in mind : Create a hash of the file's content Send the hash to a custom written java applet in the browser The user encrypts the hash with his/her private key (on an usb token via PKCS#11 for example), thus effectively signing the file. The applet then sends the signature to the server On the server I would then incorporate the signature in the file's (MS Office and PDF files can do that without changing the file's content, probably by just setting some metadata field) What is cool is that you never have to download and upload the complete file to the server again. What is even cooler, the customer doesn't need Office or PDF Writer to sign the files. Parts 2, 3 and 4 are OK for me, my company bought all the JAVA technology I need for that for a previous project I worked on. Problem : I can't seem to find any documentation/examples to do parts 1 and 5 for Office files . Are my google skills failing me this time ? Do you have any pointers to documentation or examples for doing that for MS Office files ? The underlying technology isn't that important to me : I can use Java, .Net, COM, any working technology is OK ! Note : I'm 95% sure I can nail points 1 and 5 for PDF files using iText Thanks ** Edit : If I can't do that with hashes and must download the complete file to the client, it's also possible. But then I still need the documentation to be able to sign Office file... in java this time (from an applet)

    Read the article

  • How to define a batching routing service in WCF

    - by mattx
    I have designed a custom silverlight wcf channel that I want to leverage to selectively batch calls from the client to the server and possibly to cache on the client and short circuit calls. So far I'm just using this channel as a transport and sending the generic WCF messages that result to the WCF router service example here http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc500646.aspx?pr=blog to prototype this on the server side. So my scenario looks like this: IFooClient-MyTransportChannel-IRouterService-IFooService-Return I now need to be able to send more than one message per call through the router and carve them up and service them on the server side. Since this is just an experiment and I'm taking baby steps I will dispatch and service all the messages right away on the server side and return the batch of results. Immediately I noticed that simply making the router interface take Message[] instead of Message doesn't work due to serialization problems. I guess this makes sense. I'm not sure soap envelopes can contain other soap envelopes etc. Is there a simple way to take a collection of WCF Message objects and send them to a single method on a service where they can be split up and forwarded as appropriate? If not I'd love suggestions on how I should approach this. I want to have minimal work to do on the router service side so the goal should be to get as close to being able to "slice and forward" as possible.

    Read the article

  • JQuery: how to store records id for data from ajax query in dynamicly created html elements

    - by grapkulec
    Probably question title is rather cryptic but I will try to explain myself here so please bare with me :) Let's assume this configuration: server-side is PHP application responding for requests with data (list of items, single item details, etc.) in json format client-side is JQuery application sending ajax request to that PHP app and creating html content corresponding with received data So, for example: client requests "list of all animals with names staring with 'A'", gets the json response from server, and for every "animal" creates some html gizmo like div with animal description or something like that. It doesn't really matter what html element it will be but it has to point exactly to specific record by "containing" id of that record. And here is my dilemma: is it good solution to use "id" property for that? So it would be like: <div id="10" class="animal"> <p> This is animal of very mysterious kind... </p> </div> <div id="11" class="animal"> <p> And this one is very common to our country... </p> </div> where id="10" is of course indication that this is representation of record with id = 10. Or maybe I should store this record id in some custom made tag like <record_id>10</record_id> and leave an "id" strictly for what it was meant to be (css selector)? I need that record id for further stuff like updating database with some user input or deleting some of "animals" or creating new ones or anything that will be needed. All manipulations will be done with JQuery and ajax requests and responses will be visualized also with dynamic creation of html interface. I'm sure that somebody had to deal with that kind of stuff before so I would be grateful for some tips on that topic.

    Read the article

  • JSF, writeAttribute("value", str, null) fails with strings obtained through ValueExpression.getValue

    - by Roma
    Hello, I'm having a somewhat weird problem with custom JSF component. Here's my renderer code: public class Test extends Renderer { public void encodeBegin(final FacesContext context, final UIComponent component) throws IOException { ResponseWriter writer = context.getResponseWriter(); writer.startElement("textarea", component); String clientId = component.getClientId(context); if (clientId != null) writer.writeAttribute("name", clientId, null); ValueExpression exp = component.getValueExpression("value"); if (exp != null && exp.getValue(context.getELContext()) != null) { String val = (String) exp.getValue(context.getELContext()); System.out.println("Value: " + val); writer.writeAttribute("value", val, null); } writer.endElement("textarea"); writer.flush(); } } The code generates: <textarea name="j_id2:j_id12:j_id19" value=""></textarea> Property binding contains "test" and as it should be, "Value: test" is successfully printed to console. Now, if I change the code to: public void encodeBegin(final FacesContext context, final UIComponent component) throws IOException { ResponseWriter writer = context.getResponseWriter(); writer.startElement("textarea", component); String clientId = component.getClientId(context); if (clientId != null) writer.writeAttribute("name", clientId, null); ValueExpression exp = component.getValueExpression("value"); if (exp != null && exp.getValue(context.getELContext()) != null) { String val = (String) exp.getValue(context.getELContext()); String str = "new string"; System.out.println("Value1: " + val + ", Value2: " + str); writer.writeAttribute("value", str, null); } writer.endElement("textarea"); writer.flush(); } generated html is: <textarea name="j_id2:j_id12:j_id19" value="new string"></textarea> and console output is "Value1: test, Value2: new string" What's going on here? This doesn't make sense. Why would writeAttribute differentiate between the two strings? Additional info: The component extends UIComponentBase I am using it with facelets

    Read the article

  • Python: Does one of these examples waste more memory?

    - by orokusaki
    In a Django view function which uses manual transaction committing, I have: context = RequestContext(request, data) transaction.commit() return render_to_response('basic.html', data, context) # Returns a Django ``HttpResponse`` object which is similar to a dictionary. I think it is a better idea to do this: context = RequestContext(request, data) response = render_to_response('basic.html', data, context) transaction.commit() return response If the page isn't rendered correctly in the second version, the transaction is rolled back. This seems like the logical way of doing it albeit there won't likely be many exceptions at that point in the function when the application is in production. But... I fear that this might cost more and this will be replete through a number of functions since the application is heavy with custom transaction handling, so now is the time to figure out. If the HttpResponse instance is in memory already (at the point of render_to_response()), then what does another reference cost? When the function ends, doesn't the reference (response variable) go away so that when Django is done converting the HttpResponse into a string for output Python can immediately garbage collect it? Is there any reason I would want to use the first version (other than "It's 1 less line of code.")?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 669 670 671 672 673 674 675 676 677 678 679 680  | Next Page >