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• WPF In-Memory Image Display

  - by Aren B

  Im trying to build an Item Template for my list-view and im bound to a list of Entities. The entity I have has a System.Drawing.Image that I'd like to display, but so far I cannot for the life of me figure out how to bind it to the <Image> block. Every example and documentation I can find on the internet pertains to Images accessible via an uri i.e. File on HDD or On Website <DataTemplate x:Key="LogoPreviewItem"> <Border BorderBrush="Black" BorderThickness="1"> <DockPanel Width="150" Height="100"> <Image> <Image.Source> <!-- {Binding PreviewImage} is where the System.Drawing.Image is in this context --> </Image.Source> </Image> <Label DockPanel.Dock="Bottom" Content="{Binding CustomerName}" /> </DockPanel> </Border> </DataTemplate>

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• SFINAE failing with enum template parameter

  - by zeroes00

  Can someone explain the following behaviour (I'm using Visual Studio 2010). header: #pragma once #include <boost\utility\enable_if.hpp> using boost::enable_if_c; enum WeekDay {MONDAY, TUESDAY, WEDNESDAY, THURSDAY, FRIDAY, SATURDAY, SUNDAY}; template<WeekDay DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY==SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return false;} template<WeekDay DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY!=SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return true;} source: bool b = goToWork<MONDAY>(); compiler this gives error C2770: invalid explicit template argument(s) for 'enable_if_c<DAY!=6,bool>::type goToWork(void)' and error C2770: invalid explicit template argument(s) for 'enable_if_c<DAY==6,bool>::type goToWork(void)' But if I change the function template parameter from the enum type WeekDay to int, it compiles fine: template<int DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY==SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return false;} template<int DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY!=SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return true;} Also the normal function template specialization works fine, no surprises there: template<WeekDay DAY> bool goToWork() {return true;} template<> bool goToWork<SUNDAY>() {return false;} To make things even weirder, if I change the source file to use any other WeekDay than MONDAY or TUESDAY, i.e. bool b = goToWork<THURSDAY>(); the error changes to this: error C2440: 'specialization' : cannot convert from 'int' to 'const WeekDay' Conversion to enumeration type requires an explicit cast (static_cast, C-style cast or function-style cast)

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• My timer code is failing when IAR is configured to do max optimization

  - by Vishal

  Hi, I have used timer A in MSP430 with high compiler optimization, but found that my timer code is failing when high compiler optimization used. When none optimization is used code works fine. This code is used to achieve 1 ms timer tick. timeOutCNT is increamented in interrupt. Following is the code [Code] //Disable interrupt and clear CCR0 TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0; // timer interrupt flag disabled CCTL0 = CCIE; // CCR0 interrupt enabled CCR0 = 500; TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIE; //enable timer interrupt TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIFG; //enable timer interrupt TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL + MC_1 + ID_3; // SMCLK, upmode timeOutCNT = 0; //timeOutCNT is increased in timer interrupt while(timeOutCNT <= 1); //delay of 1 milisecond TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0x00; // timer interrupt flag disabled [/code] Can anybody help me here to resolve this issue? Is there any other way we can use timer A so it works fine in optimization modes? Or do I have used is wrongly to achieve 1 ms interrupt? Thanks in advanced. Vishal N

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• WordPerfect programmers refusing to use anything but assembler

  - by Totophil

  There is a version (popularised by Joel Spolsky) attributing the demise of WordPerfect to a refusal of its programmers to use anything but assembler that led to delay of the first WPwin release and as result eventually to losing the all important battle with Microsoft. There are a few references to programming work being done using assembler in the autobiographical book "Almost Perfect" by W. E. Pete Peterson who used to have a major influence at running the corporation. But these references go back to early 80's when WordPerfect was trying to gain a significant market share by defeating WordStar and not early nineties when the battle with MS took place. I am looking for a second independent source to confirm the assumption. Maybe someone who worked for WordPerfect Corporation at a time, who was close to the company, or had a chance to see the source could clarify the issue. Your help is much appreciated, thanks! Please note that this question is not about any other theories or reasons behind WordPerfect demise. I really just need to clarify whether they used assembler as a primary language for WPwin and (as a bonus really) whether there were discussions held within the corporation about assembler being the right choice. Concisely: Did WPCorp use assembler as a primary language for WPwin? Were discussions held at a time amongst WP Corp staff about assembler being the right choice (was it management or programmers decision)?

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• Community License Agreement for Commercial (SaaS) software?

  - by indomitablehef

  I've got a commercial SaaS application, an online collaboration/lean project mgmt tool. I want to offer a "Community Edition", with specific limitations on how the software can be used, for free. For example free for groups using it to manage open source projects free to K-12 teachers to use in the classroom free for authors collaborating on Lean/Kanban/AgileSoftwareDevelopment books and research papers. free for community conference organizers, user group organizers, etc. The license would grant use of the software with limitations. The software itself can enforce limitations on the number of users/projects. I'm looking for a license agreement / EULA that I can use to specify what uses the software can be used for (see above). It would restrict the users from using it in different ways, such as for commercial use, managing consulting projects, client work, etc. I've been combing the web for good examples of such agreements, and so far coming up short. Any ideas? To be clear, this would not be an open source license of any kind. It would cover the use of commercial software, for specific "community" uses, as we define them.

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• Can't Install libcurl PHP on Ubuntu Linux

  - by FranticPedantic

  I am trying to use the new facebook api and it requires libcurl PHP. I used sudo apt-get install php5-curl sudo apachectl -k restart And it didn't work. I get the same error and the phpinfo() page says nothing about libcurl. The source of this problem is probably that I built some of the tools from source (apache2, php), but then I got bored so installed a lot of the extensions with the package manager. But I'm not exactly how to go about diagnosing the point of failure. The apt-get install for curl definitely worked, and can be found in /usr/lib/php5/20060613/curl.so I think a lot of my confusion stems from not knowing which files go where, and what purpose they have. Any help would be appreciated, and please tell me if I need to provide more information. edit: The specific error I get is: Exception: Facebook needs the CURL PHP extension. from line if (!function_exists('curl_init')) { throw new Exception('Facebook needs the CURL PHP extension.'); } Ubuntu: 9.10 PHP: 5.2.13 Loaded Configuration File: /etc/php5/apache2/php.ini

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• FLEX: the custom component is still a Null Object when I invoke its method

  - by Patrick

  Hi, I've created a custom component in Flex, and I've created it from the main application with actionscript. Successively I invoke its "setName" method to pass a String. I get the following run-time error (occurring only if I use the setName method): TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. I guess I get it because I'm calling to newUser.setName method from main application before the component is completely created. How can I ask actionscript to "wait" until when the component is created to call the method ? Should I create an event listener in the main application waiting for it ? I would prefer to avoid it if possible. Here is the code: Main app ... newUser = new userComp(); //newUser.setName("name"); Component: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:VBox xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" width="100" height="200" > <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function setName(name:String):void { username.text = name; } public function setTags(Tags:String):void { } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:HBox id="tagsPopup" visible="false"> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag1" /> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag2" /> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag3" /> </mx:HBox> <mx:Image source="@Embed(source='../icons/userIcon.png')"/> <mx:Label id="username" text="Nickname" visible="false"/> </mx:VBox> thanks

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• Are there scenarios where the ViewModel needs to invoke methods on the View w.r.t. MVVM in WPF?

  - by Gishu

  As per the pattern, the ViewModel exposes Properties(with change notification) and Commands (to notify the VM of user actions) that the View binds to. The only communication that flows from the VM to the View is the property change notifications (so that the View can refresh itself with updated data). In MVP or PresentationModel form of the pattern (if I'm not mistaken), the View implements a plain vanilla interface (consisting of methods, properties and/or events). With MVVM, it feels methods on the IView have been outlawed (along with IView itself). One scenario I could think of was to set the focus to a certain control in the View. (When the user does ActionX, the focus should immediately be set to FieldY). In MVP, I'd write this as IView.ActivateField(NameConstant), which the presenter or PM would invoke. In MVVM, this seems to be a fringe case that needs a workaround / little bit of code-behind. The VM implements an ActiveField Property, which it sets to NameConstant. The view picks up the change notification event and in a code-behind event handler, activates the Name control. Is the above just an exception to the norm? Or are there other such scenarios, where the VM needs to invoke a method on the View ?

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• How do I disable the network connection from .Net without needing admin priveledges?

  - by Brad Mathews

  I may be SOL on this but I thought I would give throw it out for possible solutions. I am writing a computer access control service to help me control my kids' computer use. Plan on open sourcing it when I have it working. It is written in VB.Net and needs to work on XP through 7. I am running into all sorts of security and desktop access issues on Windows 7. The service needs to run as admin to execute the NetSh command to disable the network. But I cannot interact with the desktop from the service so I IPC to a UI to handle other stuff, but I still cannot detect from the service if the desktop is locked. Argghh! I could get it all working from a hidden windows form app if I could just lick the one piece that needs admin permissions: disabling the network. It does no good if a kid logs on and denies the popup asking if the program should run as administrator and he says no. Also windows 7 will not start a program set to run as admin using HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run Anyone know how to get this working? Or have an outside the box solution? Thanks! Brad

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• How to set the build.xml for the Groovy Antbuilder?

  - by Jan

  I want to execute a build.xml (Ant buildfile) from using GMaven (Maven Plugin for inline executing of Groovy in a POM). Since I have to execute the buildfile several times using the maven-antrun-plugin is not an option at the moment. I take a list of properties (environment and machine names) from an xml file and want to execute ant builds for each of those machines. I found the executeTarget method in the javadocs but not how to set the location of the buildfile. How can I do that - and is this enough? What I have looks as follows: <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.groovy.maven</groupId> <artifactId>gmaven-plugin</artifactId> <executions> <execution> <id>some ant builds</id> <phase>process-sources</phase> <goals> <goal>execute</goal> </goals> <configuration> <source> def ant = new AntBuilder() def machines = new XmlParser().parse(new File(project.build.outputDirectory + '/MachineList.xml')); machines.children().each { log.info('Creating machine description for ' + it.Id.text() + ' / ' + it.Environment.text()); ant.project.setProperty('Environment',it.Environment.text()); ant.project.setProperty('Machine',it.Id.text()); // What's missing? ant.project.executeTarget('Tailoring'); } log.info('Ant has finished.') </source> </configuration> </execution> </executions> </plugin>

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• using EventToCommand & PassEventArgsToCommand :: how to get sender, or better metaphor?

  - by JoeBrockhaus

  The point of what I'm doing is that there are a lot of things that need to happen in the viewmodel, but when the view has been loaded, not on constructor. I could wire up event handlers and send messages, but that just seems kinda sloppy to me. I'm implementing a base view and base viewmodel where this logic is contained so all my views get it by default, hopefully. Perhaps I can't even get what I'm wanting: the sender. I just figured this is what RoutedEventArgs.OriginalSource was supposed to be? [Edit] In the meantime, I've hooked up an EventHandler in the xaml.cs, and sure enough, OriginalSource is null there as well. So I guess really I need to know if it's possible to get a reference to the view/sender in the Command as well? [/Edit] My implementation requires that a helper class to my viewmodels which is responsible for creating 'windows' knows of the 'host' control that all the windows get added to. i'm open to suggestions for accomplishing this outside the scope of using eventtocommand. :) (the code for Unloaded is the same) #region ViewLoadedCommand private RelayCommand<RoutedEventArgs> _viewLoadedCommand = null; /// <summary> /// Command to handle the control's Loaded event. /// </summary> public RelayCommand<RoutedEventArgs> ViewLoadedCommand { get { // lazy-instantiate the RelayCommand on first usage if (_viewLoadedCommand == null) { _viewLoadedCommand = new RelayCommand<RoutedEventArgs>( e => this.OnViewLoadedCommand(e)); } return _viewLoadedCommand; } } #endregion ViewLoadedCommand #region View EventHandlers protected virtual void OnViewLoadedCommand(RoutedEventArgs e) { EventHandler handler = ViewLoaded; if (handler != null) { handler(this, e); } } #endregion

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• Dynamically Resizing an Iframe

  - by regex

  Hello All, I can see that this question has been asked several times, but none of the proposed solutions seem to work for the site I am building, so I am reopening the thread. I am attempting to size an iframe based on the height of it's content. Both the page that contains the iframe and it's source page exist on the same domain. I have tried the proposed solutions in each of the following threads: Resize iframe height according to content height in it Resizing an iframe based on content I believe that the solutions above are not working because of when the reference to body.clientHeight is made, the browser has not actually determined the height of the document. Here is the code I am using: var ifmBlue = document.getElementById("ifmBlue"); ifmBlue.onload = resizeIframe; function resizeIframe() { var ifmBlue = document.getElementById("ifmBluePill"); var ifmDiv = ifmBlue.contentDocument.getElementById("main"); var height = ifmDiv.clientHeight; ifmBlue.style.height = (ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.scrollHeight || ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.offsetHeight || ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.parentNode.clientHeight || height || 500) + 5 + 'px'; } If I debug the script using fire debug, the client height of the iframe.contentDocument's main div is 0. Additionally, body.offsetHieght, & body.scrollHeight are 0. However, after the script is finished running, if I inspect the DOM of the HTML iframe element (using fire debug) I can see that the body's clientHeight is 456 and the inner div's clientHeight is 742. This leads me to believe that these values are not yet set when iframe.onload is fired. So, per one of the threads above, I moved the code into the body.onload event handler of the iframe's source page. This solution also did not work. Any help you can provide is much appreciated. Thanks, CJ

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• A doubt on DOM parser used with Python

  - by fixxxer

  I'm using the following python code to search for a node in an XML file and changing the value of an attribute of one of it's children.Changes are happening correctly when the node is displayed using toxml().But, when it is written to a file, the attributes rearrange themselves(as seen in the Source and the Final XML below). Could anyone explain how and why this happen? Python code: #!/usr/bin/env python import xml from xml.dom.minidom import parse dom=parse("max.xml") #print "Please enter the store name:" for sku in dom.getElementsByTagName("node"): if sku.getAttribute("name") == "store": sku.childNodes[1].childNodes[5].setAttribute("value","Delhi,India") print sku.toxml() xml.dom.ext.PrettyPrint(dom, open("new.xml", "w")) a part of the Source XML: <node name='store' node_id='515' module='mpx.lib.node.simple_value.SimpleValue' config_builder='' inherant='false' description='Configurable Value'> <match> <property name='1' value='point'/> <property name='2' value='0'/> <property name='val' value='Store# 09204 Staten Island, NY'/> <property name='3' value='str'/> </match> </node> Final XML : <node config_builder="" description="Configurable Value" inherant="false" module="mpx.lib.node.simple_value.SimpleValue" name="store" node_id="515"> <match> <property name="1" value="point"/> <property name="2" value="0"/> <property name="val" value="Delhi,India"/> <property name="3" value="str"/> </match> </node>

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• How to get list of declared functions with their data from php file?

  - by ermac2014

  I need to get list of functions with their contents (not only the function name) from php file. I tried to use regex but it has lots of limitations. it doesn't parse all types of functions. for example it fails if the function has if and for loop statements. in details: I have around 100 include files. each file has number of declared functions. some files has functions duplicated in other files. so what I want is to get list of all functions from specific file then put this list inside an array then I will be using array unique in order to remove the duplicates. I read about tokenizer but I really have no idea how to make it grab the declared function with its data. all I have is this: function get_defined_functions_in_file($file) { $source = file_get_contents($file); $tokens = token_get_all($source); $functions = array(); $nextStringIsFunc = false; $inClass = false; $bracesCount = 0; foreach($tokens as $token) { switch($token[0]) { case T_CLASS: $inClass = true; break; case T_FUNCTION: if(!$inClass) $nextStringIsFunc = true; break; case T_STRING: if($nextStringIsFunc) { $nextStringIsFunc = false; $functions[] = $token[1]; } break; // Anonymous functions case '(': case ';': $nextStringIsFunc = false; break; // Exclude Classes case '{': if($inClass) $bracesCount++; break; case '}': if($inClass) { $bracesCount--; if($bracesCount === 0) $inClass = false; } break; } } return $functions; } unfortunately, this function lists only the function names.. what I need is to list the whole declared function with its structure.. so any ideas? thanks in advance..

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• Converting FoxPro Date type to SQL Server 2005 DateTime using SSIS

  - by Avrom

  Hi, When using SSIS in SQL Server 2005 to convert a FoxPro database to a SQL Server database, if the given FoxPro database has a date type, SSIS assumes it is an integer type. The only way to convert it to a dateTime type is to manually select this type. However, that is not practical to do for over 100 tables. Thus, I have been using a workaround in which I use DTS on SQL Server 2000 which converts it to a smallDateTime, then make a backup, then a restore into SQL Server 2005. This workaround is starting to be a little annoying. So, my question is: Is there anyway to setup SSIS so that whenever it encounters a date type to automatically assume it should be converted to a dateTime in SQL Server and apply that rule across the board? Update To be specific, if I use the import/export wizard in SSIS, I get the following error: Column information for the source and the destination data could not be retrieved, or the data types of source columns were not mapped correctly to those available on the destination provider. Followed by a list of a given table's date columns. If I manually set each one to a dateTime, it imports fine. But I do not wish to do this for a hundred tables.

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• aspnet_compiler -fixednames does not work?

  - by Terrence

  I am unable to get the -fixednames switch to create dlls for the cs code behind files. The files in the bin folder are compiled aspx pages, but the code behind files are all compiled into one large websitename.dll file. Here is my command with switches. aspnet_compiler -v / -p E:\Source\DotNet4\mysolution\website -f -d -fixednames E:\Source\DotNet4\CompiledWebSite This produces many files in the bin folder. website.dll and website.pdb (contains code behind) myform1.aspx.643c7876.dll (compiled aspx layout ui) I have tested this over and over to make sure I am not missing anything. The test is place a label on myform1.aspx, and in the codebehind populate the label with some text. Compile the website with the above switches and deploy the website. Make a change to the myform1 codebehind and change the label text. Compile and only deploy the myform1.aspx.643c7876.dll to the website. Result: label is still the same. Now deploy the website.dll and pdb and the label changes. Can anyone tell me how to get -fixednames to create sinle dlls for codebehind?

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• How to terminate a particular Azure worker role instance

  - by Oliver Bock

  Background I am trying to work out the best structure for an Azure application. Each of my worker roles will spin up multiple long-running jobs. Over time I can transfer jobs from one instance to another by switching them to a readonly mode on the source instance, spinning them up on the target instance, and then spinning the original down on the source instance. If I have too many jobs then I can tell Azure to spin up extra role instance, and use them for new jobs. Conversely if my load drops (e.g. during the night) then I can consolidate outstanding jobs to a few machines and tell Azure to give me fewer instances. The trouble is that (as I understand it) Azure provides no mechanism to allow me to decide which instance to stop. Thus I cannot know which servers to consolidate onto, and some of my jobs will die when their instance stops, causing delays for users while I restart those jobs on surviving instances. Idea 1: I decide which instance to stop, and return from its Run(). I then tell Azure to reduce my instance count by one, and hope it concludes that the broken instance is a good candidate. Has anyone tried anything like this? Idea 2: I predefine a whole bunch of different worker roles, with identical contents. I can individually stop and start them by switching their instance count from zero to one, and back again. I think this idea would work, but I don't like it because it seems to go against the natural Azure way of doing things, and because it involves me in a lot of extra bookkeeping to manage the extra worker roles. Idea 3: Live with it. Any better ideas?

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• Simulating O_NOFOLLOW (2): Is this other approach safe?

  - by Daniel Trebbien

  As a follow-up question to this one, I thought of another approach which builds off of @caf's answer for the case where I want to append to file name and create it if it does not exist. Here is what I came up with: Create a temporary directory with mode 0700 in a system temporary directory on the same filesystem as file name. Create an empty, temporary, regular file (temp_name) in the temporary directory (only serves as placeholder). Open file name for reading only, just to create it if it does not exist. The OS may follow name if it is a symbolic link; I don't care at this point. Make a hard link to name at temp_name (overwriting the placeholder file). If the link call fails, then exit. (Maybe someone has come along and removed the file at name, who knows?) Use lstat on temp_name (now a hard link). If S_ISLNK(lst.st_mode), then exit. open temp_name for writing, append (O_WRONLY | O_APPEND). Write everything out. Close the file descriptor. unlink the hard link. Remove the temporary directory. (All of this, by the way, is for an open source project that I am working on. You can view the source of my implementation of this approach here.) Is this procedure safe against symbolic link attacks? For example, is it possible for a malicious process to ensure that the inode for name represents a regular file for the duration of the lstat check, then make the inode a symbolic link with the temp_name hard link now pointing to the new, symbolic link? I am assuming that a malicious process cannot affect temp_name.

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• Custom basic authentication fails in IIS7

  - by manu08

  I have an ASP.NET MVC application, with some RESTful services that I'm trying to secure using custom basic authentication (they are authenticated against my own database). I have implemented this by writing an HTTPModule. I have one method attached to the HttpApplication.AuthenticateRequest event, which calls this method in the case of authentication failure: private static void RejectWith401(HttpApplication app) { app.Response.StatusCode = 401; app.Response.StatusDescription = "Access Denied"; app.CompleteRequest(); } This method is attached to the HttpApplication.EndRequest event: public void OnEndRequest(object source, EventArgs eventArgs) { var app = (HttpApplication) source; if (app.Response.StatusCode == 401) { string val = String.Format("Basic Realm=\"{0}\"", "MyCustomBasicAuthentication"); app.Response.AppendHeader("WWW-Authenticate", val); } } This code adds the "WWW-Authenticate" header which tells the browser to throw up the login dialog. This works perfectly when I debug locally using Visual Studio's web server. But it fails when I run it in IIS7. For IIS7 I have the built-in authentication modules all turned off, except anonymous. It still returns an HTTP 401 response, but it appears to be removing the WWW-Authenticate header. Any ideas?

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• Are licenses relevant for small code snippets?

  - by Martin

  When I'm about to write a short algorithm, I first check in the base class library I'm using whether the algorithm is implemented in it. If not, I often do a quick google search to see if someone has done it before (which is the case, 19 times out of 20). Most of the time, I find the exact code I need. Sometimes it's clear what license applies to the source code, sometimes not. It may be GPL, LGPL, BSD or whatever. Sometimes people have posted a code snippet on some random forum which solves my problem. It's clear to me that I can't reuse the code (copy/paste it into my code) without caring about the license if the code is in some way substantial. What is not clear to me is whether I can copy a code snippet containing 5 lines or so without doing a license violation. Can I copy/paste a 5-line code snippet without caring about the license? What about one-liner? What about 10 lines? Where do I draw the line (no pun intended)? My second problem is that if I have found a 10-line code snippet which does exactly what I need, but feel that I cannot copy it because it's GPL-licensed and my software isn't, I have already memorized how to implement it so when I go around implementing the same functionality, my code is almost identical to the GPL licensed code I saw a few minutes ago. (In other words, the code was copied to my brain and my brain after that copied it into my source code).

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• Flash CS4 compiler Error 1120 when embedding pngs into class instance variables.

  - by theolagendijk

  I have a Flash CS4 (Flash 9 ActionScript 3.0) project that compiles and runs perfectly on my machine. However it is part of a big batch of fla's that I want to compile on another (faster) machine. When I copy the project (the fla and all actionscripts and assets files) to the faster machine, it's Flash CS4 compiler gives me compiler error 1120 "Access of undefined property ButtonPause_PauseNormal". The property "PauseNormal" is an embedded png. The PNG is available. No transcoder errors. Here's the ActionScript for class "ButtonPause"; package nl.platipus.NissanESM.buttons { import flash.display.*; import flash.events.*; public class ButtonPause extends Sprite { [Embed(source="../../../../player/pause.png")] private var PauseNormal:Class; [Embed(source="../../../../player/pause_mo.png")] private var PauseMouseOver:Class; private var stateNormal:Bitmap; private var stateMouseOver:Bitmap; public function ButtonPause() { stateNormal = new PauseNormal(); stateNormal.width = 29; stateNormal.height = 14; stateNormal.alpha = 1; addChild(stateNormal); stateMouseOver = new PauseMouseOver(); stateMouseOver.width = 29; stateMouseOver.height = 14; stateMouseOver.alpha = 0; addChild(stateMouseOver); width = 29; height = 14; addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OVER, handleMouseOver); addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OUT, handleMouseOut ); } private function handleMouseOver(evt:MouseEvent):void { stateNormal.alpha = 0; stateMouseOver.alpha = 1; } private function handleMouseOut(evt:MouseEvent):void { stateNormal.alpha = 1; stateMouseOver.alpha = 0; } } } (Both machines run the exact same Flash CS4 Profesional Version 10.0.2 installation and both have the exact same publish settings and ActionScript 3.0 settings.) What's going on?

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• CF - How to get mouse position when ContextMenu pops up ??

  - by no9

  I have a problem i cannot solve. In my view (that shows a map) i created a contextMenu. When context menu is invoked i need to get the position where the user has clicked on the map. Here is my problem: In the view i already have onMouseDown event that gets me the coordinates where the user clicked. private void MapView_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { this.lastMouseDownX = e.X; this.lastMouseDownY = e.Y; } When the contextMenu is invoked i need the same data, but the problem is that contextMenu only has EventArgs that dont keep the data i need. Furthermore ... contextMenu is invoked when user presses and holds mouse for a second and when its invoked the code does not enter onMouseDown event ! It just goes into popup event on my context menu.... I tried putting this in my popup event, but the coordinates are not ok. Y coordinate is way off the chart. private void servicesContextMenu_Popup(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.lastMouseUpX = Control.MousePosition.X; this.lastMouseUpX = Control.MousePosition.Y; } I also tried this, but with no success ... the problem remains ... when contextMenu is invoked the code does not fire onMouseDown event. http://www.mofeel.net/58-microsoft-public-dotnet-framework-compactframework/19285.aspx Help?

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• Margin on the top in LaTex

  - by Tim

  I am now writing a thesis which is required to have 1 and half inches on the left or binding side, and 1 inch on the other three sides. I just have my print-out checked in the binding office and I was told the margins are not okay, especially the one on the top is not enough, a little less than 1 inch. See the figure below: I wonder which commands are responsible for the margins on the four sides, especially for the one on the top? I provide links to two files I believe that control the layout and format of the thesis:jhu12.clo and thesis.cls. Or instead of modifying the LaTex files, is thre some setting when printing the pdf file to control these margins on the print-out? Thanks and regards! EDIT: This is the print-out of command \layout It shows "one inch + \voffset" for the top (the NO. 2 item). But the staff at the binding office use his ruler to show it is less than 1 inch. How to adjust the margins in LaTex then? Thanks!

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• How to implement menuitems that depend on current selection in WPF MVVM explorer-like application

  - by Doug

  I am new to WPF and MVVM, and I am working on an application utilizing both. The application is similar to windows explorer, so consider an app with a main window with menu (ShellViewModel), a tree control (TreeViewModel), and a list control (ListViewModel). I want to implement menu items such as Edit - Delete, which deletes the currently selected item (which may be in the tree or in the list). I am using Josh Smith's RelayCommand, and binding the menuitem to a DeleteItemCommand in the ShellViewModel is easy. It seems like implementing the DeleteItemCommand, however, requires some fairly tight coupling between the ShellViewModel and the two child view models (TreeViewModel and ListViewModel) to keep track of the focus/selection and direct the action to the proper child for implementation. That seems wrong to me, and makes me think I'm missing something. Writing a focus manager and/or selection manager to do the bookkeeping does not seem too hard, and could be done without coupling the classes together. The windowing system is already keeping track of which view has the focus, and it seems like I'd be duplicating code. What I'm not sure about is how I would route the command from the ShellViewModel down to either the ListViewModel or the TreeViewModel to do the actual work without making a mess of the code. Some day, the application will be extended to include more than two children, and I want the shell to be as ignorant of the children as possible to make that extension as painless as possible. Looking at some sample WPF/MVVM applications (Karl Shifflett's CipherText, Josh Smith's MVVM Demo, etc.), I haven't seen any code that does this (or I didn't understand it). Regardless of whether you think my approach is way off base or I'm just missing a small nuance, please share your thoughts and help me get back on track. Thanks!

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• What java web application framework to use?

  - by frohiky

  One of the main products of my company is an Oracle Forms (and Reports) based application, that "needs" to be re-written in another technology. Why? Users want a more rich interface experience, and we want, preferably, to reduce costs with an open source application server. For this (HUGE) project, we intend to use a java web application framework, keep these points in mind: We have: hundreds of tables on our database (the ORM must be as flexible as possible); some logic which is (and will still be) based on PL/SQL procedures/functions/packages; a lot of CRUDs (the application itself is of an considerable size); a demand to work with/generate documents and workflows; an intranet based user environment; We want: to offer a RIA interface experience; use (if possible) an open source app server; a rapid (as possible) development framework; a somewhat mature framework with a "wise" roadmap (and a considerable community support); a MVC approach combined with JS or GWT widgets (e.g. Vaadin or SmartGWT); Well, in the past weeks I've read a lot of posts, Q&As on stackoverflow, and much more: Wicket, JSF, Tapestry, Grails, GWT, Struts2, Play, Spring, Seam, Echo, .... the list goes on! I've even researched about Alfresco..! The obvious question: Which one to use? At this time, any insight, recommendation, shared experience, advice will be more then welcome!

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