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  • C++ ulong to class method pointer and back

    - by Simone Margaritelli
    Hi guys, I'm using a hash table (source code by Google Inc) to store some method pointers defined as: typedef Object *(Executor::*expression_delegate_t)( vframe_t *, Node * ); Where obviously "Executor" is the class. The function prototype to insert some value to the hash table is: hash_item_t *ht_insert( hash_table_t *ht, ulong key, ulong data ); So basically i'm doing the insert double casting the method pointer: ht_insert( table, ASSIGN, reinterpret_cast<ulong>( (void *)&Executor::onAssign ) ); Where table is defined as a 'hash_table_t *' inside the declaration of the Executor class, ASSIGN is an unsigned long value, and 'onAssign' is the method I have to map. Now, Executor::onAssign is stored as an unsigned long value, its address in memory I think, and I need to cast back the ulong to a method pointer. But this code: hash_item_t* item = ht_find( table, ASSIGN ); expression_delegate_t delegate = reinterpret_cast < expression_delegate_t > (item->data); Gives me the following compilation error : src/executor.cpp:45: error: invalid cast from type ‘ulong’ to type ‘Object* (Executor::*)(vframe_t*, Node*)’ I'm using GCC v4.4.3 on a x86 GNU/Linux machine. Any hints?

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  • Entity Framework Decorator Pattern

    - by Anthony Compton
    In my line of business we have Products. These products can be modified by a user by adding Modifications to them. Modifications can do things such as alter the price and alter properties of the Product. This, to me, seems to fit the Decorator pattern perfectly. Now, envision a database in which Products exist in one table and Modifications exist in another table and the database is hooked up to my app through the Entity Framework. How would I go about getting the Product objects and the Modification objects to implement the same interface so that I could use them interchangeably? For instance, the kind of things I would like to be able to do: Given a Modification object, call .GetNumThings(), which would then return the number of things in the original object, plus or minus the number of things added by the modification. This question may be stemming from a pretty serious lack of exposure to the nitty-gritty of EF (all of my experience so far has been pretty straight-forward LOB Silverlight apps), and if that's the case, please feel free to tell me to RTFM. Thanks in advance!

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  • NUll exception in filling a querystring by mocing framework

    - by user564101
    There is a simple controller that a querystring is read in constructor of it. public class ProductController : Controller { parivate string productName; public ProductController() { productName = Request.QueryString["productname"]; } public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["Message"] = productName; return View(); } } Also I have a function in unit test that create an instance of this Controller and I fill the querystring by a Mock object like below. [TestClass] public class ProductControllerTest { [TestMethod] public void test() { // Arrange var querystring = new System.Collections.Specialized.NameValueCollection { { "productname", "sampleproduct"} }; var mock = new Mock<ControllerContext>(); mock.SetupGet(p => p.HttpContext.Request.QueryString).Returns(querystring); var controller = new ProductController(); controller.ControllerContext = mock.Object; // Act var result = controller.Index() as ViewResult; // Assert Assert.AreEqual("Index", result.ViewName); } } Unfortunately Request.QueryString["productname"] is null in constructor of ProductController when I run test unit. Is ther any way to fill a querystrin by a mocking and get it in constructor of a control?

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  • How do software events work internally?

    - by Duddle
    Hello! I am a student of Computer Science and have learned many of the basic concepts of what is going on "under the hood" while a computer program is running. But recently I realized that I do not understand how software events work efficiently. In hardware, this is easy: instead of the processor "busy waiting" to see if something happened, the component sends an interrupt request. But how does this work in, for example, a mouse-over event? My guess is as follows: if the mouse sends a signal ("moved"), the operating system calculates its new position p, then checks what program is being drawn on the screen, tells that program position p, then the program itself checks what object is at p, checks if any event handlers are associated with said object and finally fires them. That sounds terribly inefficient to me, since a tiny mouse movement equates to a lot of cpu context switches (which I learned are relatively expensive). And then there are dozens of background applications that may want to do stuff of their own as well. Where is my intuition failing me? I realize that even "slow" 500MHz processors do 500 million operations per second, but still it seems too much work for such a simple event. Thanks in advance!

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  • How can I prevent infinite recursion when using events to bind UI elements to fields?

    - by Billy ONeal
    The following seems to be a relatively common pattern (to me, not to the community at large) to bind a string variable to the contents of a TextBox. class MyBackEndClass { public event EventHandler DataChanged; string _Data; public string Data { get { return _Data; } set { _Data = value; //Fire the DataChanged event } } } class SomeForm : // Form stuff { MyBackEndClass mbe; TextBox someTextBox; SomeForm() { someTextBox.TextChanged += HandleTextBox(); mbe.DataChanged += HandleData(); } void HandleTextBox(Object sender, EventArgs e) { mbe.Data = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } void HandleData(Object sender, EventArgs e) { someTextBox.Text = ((MyBackEndClass) sender).Data; } } The problem is that changing the TextBox fires the changes the data value in the backend, which causes the textbox to change, etc. That runs forever. Is there a better design pattern (other than resorting to a nasty boolean flag) that handles this case correctly? EDIT: To be clear, in the real design the backend class is used to synchronize changes between multiple forms. Therefore I can't just use the SomeTextBox.Text property directly. Billy3

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  • Codeigniter PHP - loading a view at an anchor point

    - by James Billings
    I have a form at the bottom of a long page, if a user fills out the form but it doesn't validate the page is reloaded in the typical codeigniter fashion: $this->load->view('template',$data); however because the form is way down at the bottom of the page I need the page to load down there like you do with HTML anchors. Does anyone know how to do this in codeigniter? I can't use the codeigniter redirect(); function because it loses the object and the validation errors are gone. Other frameworks I've used like Yii you can call the redirect function like: $this->redirect(); which solves the problem because you keep the object. I've tried using: $this->index() within the controller which works fine as a redirect but the validation errors are in another method which is where the current page is loaded from: $this->item($labs) but when I use this it get stuck in a loop Any ideas? I've seen this question a lot on the net but no clear answers. I'm researching using codeigniter "flash data" but think it's a bit overkill. cheers.

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  • Returning objects in php

    - by user220201
    I see similar questions asked but I seem to have problem with more basic stuff than were asked. How to declare a variable in php? My specific problem is I have a function that reads a DB table and returns the record (only one) as an object. class User{ public $uid; public $name; public $status; } function GetUserInfo($uid) { // Query DB $userObj = new User(); // convert the result into the User object. var_dump($userObj); return $userObj; } // In another file I call the above function. .... $newuser = GetUserInfo($uid); var_dump($newuser); What is the problem here, I cannot understand. Essentially the var_dump() in the function GetUserInfo() works fine. The var_dump() outside after the call to GetUserInfo() does not work. Thanks for any help. S

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  • Returning JSON or XML for Exceptions in Jersey

    - by Dominic
    My goal is to have an error bean returned on a 404 with a descriptive message when a object is not found, and return the same MIME type that was requested. I have a look up resource, which will return the specified object in XML or JSON based on the URI (I have setup the com.sun.jersey.config.property.resourceConfigClass servlet parameter so I dont need the Accept header. My JAXBContextResolver has the ErrorBean.class in its list of types, and the correct JAXBContext is returned for this class because I can see in the logs). eg: http://foobar.com/rest/locations/1.json @GET @Path("{id}") @Produces({MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON, MediaType.APPLICATION_XML}) public Location getCustomer(@PathParam("id") int cId) { //look up location from datastore .... if (location == null) { throw new NotFoundException("Location" + cId + " is not found"); } } And my NotFoundException looks like this: public class NotFoundException extends WebApplicationException { public NotFoundException(String message) { super(Response.status(Response.Status.NOT_FOUND). entity(new ErrorBean( message, Response.Status.NOT_FOUND.getStatusCode() ) .build()); } } The ErrorBean is as follows: @XmlRootElement(name = "error") public class ErrorBean { private String errorMsg; private int errorCode; //no-arg constructor, property constructor, getter and setters ... } However, I'm always getting a 204 No Content response when I try this. I have hacked around, and if I return a string and specify the mime type this works fine: public NotFoundException(String message) { super(Response.status(Response.Status.NOT_FOUND). entity(message).type("text/plain").build()); } I have also tried returning an ErrorBean as a resource. This works fine: {"errorCode":404,"errorMsg":"Location 1 is not found!"}

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  • Writing a generic function that can take a Writer as well as an OutputStream

    - by ebruchez
    I wrote a couple of functions that look like this: def myWrite(os: OutputStream) = {} def myWrite(w: Writer) = {} Now both are very similar and I thought I would try to write a single parametrized version of the function. I started with a type with the two methods that are common in the Java OutputStream and Writer: type Writable[T] = { def close() : Unit def write(cbuf: Array[T], off: Int, len: Int): Unit } One issue is that OutputStream writes Byte and Writer writes Char, so I parametrized the type with T. Then I write my function: def myWrite[T, A[T] <: Writable[T]](out: A[T]) = {} and try to use it: val w = new java.io.StringWriter() myWrite(w) Result: <console>:9: error: type mismatch; found : java.io.StringWriter required: ?A[ ?T ] Note that implicit conversions are not applicable because they are ambiguous: both method any2ArrowAssoc in object Predef of type [A](x: A)ArrowAssoc[A] and method any2Ensuring in object Predef of type [A](x: A)Ensuring[A] are possible conversion functions from java.io.StringWriter to ?A[ ?T ] myWrite(w) I tried a few other combinations of types and parameters, to no avail so far. My question is whether there is a way of achieving this at all, and if so how. (Note that the implementation of myWrite will need, internally, to know the type T that parametrizes the write() method, because it needs to create a buffer as in new ArrayT.)

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  • how to fill missing values from a list

    - by Stephane
    I have an object containing a date and a count. public class Stat { public DateTime Stamp {get; set;} public int Count {get; set ;} } I have a Serie object that holds a list of thoses Stat plus some more info such as name and so on... public class Serie { public string Name { get; set; } public List<Stat> Data { get; set; } ... } Consider that I have a List of Serie but the series don't all contain the same Stamps. I need to fill in the missing stamps in all series with a default value. I thought of an extension method with signature like this (please provide better name if you find one :) ) : public static IEnumerable<Serie> Equalize(this IEnumerable<ChartSerie> series, int defaultCount) this question seems to treat the same problem, but when querying directly the DB. of course I could loop through the dates and create another list. But is there any more elegant way to achieve this? i.e.: Serie A: 01.05.2010 1 03.05.2010 3 Serie B: 01.05.2010 5 02.05.2010 6 I should get : Serie A : 01.05.2010 1 02.05.2010 0 03.05.2010 3 Serie B: 01.05.2010 5 02.05.2010 6 03.05.2010 0

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  • csharp get value datatemplate element

    - by To-me
    Hello, Here is my code <ListBox x:Name="myList" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" SelectionChanged="editElement"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate x:Name="ElementItemTemplate"> <StackPanel Name="stackPanelElementItem" Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label Name="SelectedItemlabel" Content="{Binding}" /> <Button Name="buttonDelElement" Click="btnDelElement">Delete</Button> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> private void btnDelElement(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ListBoxItem lbi2 = (ListBoxItem)(lstCursus.ItemContainerGenerator.ContainerFromItem(myList.Items.CurrentItem)); String selectedItem = lbi2.Content.ToString(); MessageBox.Show("Selected Item " + selectedItem + " ."); private void editCursus(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Selected Item " + selectedItem + " ."); /* some code to edit selected item using linq */ } My issue, SelectionChange doesn't work anymore and when I click on buttonDelElement, Selected Item doesn't change immediately. Please, any ideas?

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  • Issue with changing an attribute with jquery

    - by rshivers
    Hello, I'm having an issue with changing the attribute for an id and can't seem to figure out what I'm doing wrong. I guess it doesn't help that I'm new to this also. I have a function that tests to make sure that I am pulling the correct id from the row in my form that I have dynamically created. It goes something like this: myFunction() { var id = $(id).attr("id"); alert("This is my id " + id); } This works with no problem and when I click the button assigned to alert me of my id it will give give me the id of the dynamic row in my form. The issue is now when I try to change the id with this: changeId() { var newId = $(id).attr("id", "x"); alert("This is my new id " + newId); } What happens in this case is that it will alert saying "This is my new id [object Object]" instead of giving me the new id. Any suggestions? I'd really appreciate any help with this.

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  • Jquery- Get the value of first td in table

    - by Jerry
    Hello. I am trying to get the value of first td in each tr when a users clicks "click". The result below will output aa ,ee or ii. I was thinking about using clesest('tr')..but it always output "Object object". Not sure what to do on this one. Thanks. My html is <table> <tr> <td>aa</td> <td>bb</td> <td>cc</td> <td>dd</td> <td><a href="#" class="hit">click</a></td> </tr> <tr> <td>ee</td> <td>ff</td> <td>gg</td> <td>hh</td> <td><a href="#" class="hit">click</a></td> </tr> <tr> <td>ii</td> <td>jj</td> <td>kk</td> <td>ll</td> <td><a href="#" class="hit">click</a></td> </tr> </table> Jquery $(".hit").click(function(){ var value=$(this).// not sure what to do here alert(value) ; });

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  • Ways to make (relatively) safe assumptions about the type of concrete subclasses?

    - by Kylotan
    I have an interface (defined as a abstract base class) that looks like this: class AbstractInterface { public: bool IsRelatedTo(const AbstractInterface& other) const = 0; } And I have an implementation of this (constructors etc omitted): class ConcreteThing { public: bool IsRelatedTo(const AbstractInterface& other) const { return m_ImplObject.has_relationship_to(other.m_ImplObject); } private: ImplementationObject m_ImplObject; } The AbstractInterface forms an interface in Project A, and the ConcreteThing lives in Project B as an implementation of that interface. This is so that code in Project A can access data from Project B without having a direct dependency on it - Project B just has to implement the correct interface. Obviously the line in the body of the IsRelatedTo function cannot compile - that instance of ConcreteThing has an m_ImplObject member, but it can't assume that all AbstractInterfaces do, including the other argument. In my system, I can actually assume that all implementations of AbstractInterface are instances of ConcreteThing (or subclasses thereof), but I'd prefer not to be casting the object to the concrete type in order to get at the private member, or encoding that assumption in a way that will crash without a diagnostic later if this assumption ceases to hold true. I cannot modify ImplementationObject, but I can modify AbstractInterface and ConcreteThing. I also cannot use the standard RTTI mechanism for checking a type prior to casting, or use dynamic_cast for a similar purpose. I have a feeling that I might be able to overload IsRelatedTo with a ConcreteThing argument, but I'm not sure how to call it via the base IsRelatedTo(AbstractInterface) method. It wouldn't get called automatically as it's not a strict reimplementation of that method. Is there a pattern for doing what I want here, allowing me to implement the IsRelatedTo function via ImplementationObject::has_relationship_to(ImplementationObject), without risky casts? (Also, I couldn't think of a good question title - please change it if you have a better one.)

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  • Python Beautiful Soup .content Property

    - by Robert Birch
    What does BeautifulSoup's .content do? I am working through crummy.com's tutorial and I don't really understand what .content does. I have looked at the forums and I have not seen any answers. Looking at the code below.... from BeautifulSoup import BeautifulSoup import re doc = ['<html><head><title>Page title</title></head>', '<body><p id="firstpara" align="center">This is paragraph <b>one</b>.', '<p id="secondpara" align="blah">This is paragraph <b>two</b>.', '</html>'] soup = BeautifulSoup(''.join(doc)) print soup.contents[0].contents[0].contents[0].contents[0].name I would expect the last line of the code to print out 'body' instead of... File "pe_ratio.py", line 29, in <module> print soup.contents[0].contents[0].contents[0].contents[0].name File "C:\Python27\lib\BeautifulSoup.py", line 473, in __getattr__ raise AttributeError, "'%s' object has no attribute '%s'" % (self.__class__.__name__, attr) AttributeError: 'NavigableString' object has no attribute 'name' Is .content only concerned with html, head and title? If, so why is that? Thanks for the help in advance.

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  • How to get the value of an XML element using Linq even when empty.

    - by Yeodave
    Please excuse my stupidity, I tend to find the traversing XML overly complicated. I am using ASP.NET in VB. I have an XML document which contains all the details of staff in my company... <staff> <staffName>Test Staff</staffName> <staffTitle>Slave</staffTitle> <staffDepartmentName>Finance</staffDepartmentName> <staffOffice>London</staffOffice> <staffEmail>[email protected]</staffEmail> <staffPhone>0207 123 456</staffPhone> <staffNotes>Working hours Mon to Thurs 9.15 - 5.15</staffNotes> <staffBio></staffBio> </staff> As you can see, some nodes do not always contain data for ever member of staff; only Directors have biographies. I access the values like this... For Each staff In ( _ From matches In myXMLFile.Descendants("staff").Descendants("staffName") _ Where matches.Nodes(0).ToString.ToLower.Contains(LCase(search)) _ Order By matches.Value _ Select matches) staffName = staff.Descendants("staffName").Nodes(0).ToString) staffTitle = staff.Descendants("staffTitle").Nodes(0).ToString) staffOffice = staff.Descendants("staffOffice").Nodes(0).ToString) staffEmail = staff.Descendants("staffEmail").Nodes(0).ToString) staffPhone = staff.Descendants("staffPhone").Nodes(0).ToString) staffNotes = staff.Descendants("staffNotes").Nodes(0).ToString) staffBio = staff.Descendants("staffBio").Nodes(0).ToString) ' Do something with that data... Next Once it gets to staffBio I get an error saying "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." obviously because that node does not exist. My question is how can I assign the value to a variable even when it is empty without having to do a conditional check before each assignment?

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  • Rails nested association issue

    - by Ben Langfeld
    Ok, so I'm new to both Ruby and Rails and I'm trying to do what I believe is called a nested association (please correct me if this is the wrong terminology). I currently have a User model and a Domains model and I have many to many associations setup (using has_many :through) between the two, and this works fine. I now want to extend this to allow for a single role per domain per user (eg User1 is a member of Domain1 and has the role "Admin"). I have setup a Roles model with a single field (name:string) and have created three roles. I have also added a role_id column to the join table (memberships). I expected (and this is probably the issue) to be able to just use user1 = User.find(1) user1.domains.first => <some domain object> user1.domains.first.role => <some role object> but this returns a method not defined error. Can anyone tell me what I'm failing to grasp here? My model classes can be seen at http://gist.github.com/388200

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  • Why use Intent.URI_INTENT_SCHEME

    - by hks
    while reading Android docs about Widgets I stumbled upon this piece of code whose purpose is to launch a service for retrieving a factory for StackView items. // Set up the intent that starts the StackViewService, which will // provide the views for this collection. Intent intent = new Intent(context, StackWidgetService.class); // Add the app widget ID to the intent extras. intent.putExtra(AppWidgetManager.EXTRA_APPWIDGET_ID, appWidgetIds[i]); intent.setData(Uri.parse(intent.toUri(Intent.URI_INTENT_SCHEME))); // Instantiate the RemoteViews object for the App Widget layout. RemoteViews rv = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.widget_layout); // Set up the RemoteViews object to use a RemoteViews adapter. // This adapter connects // to a RemoteViewsService through the specified intent. // This is how you populate the data. rv.setRemoteAdapter(appWidgetIds[i], R.id.stack_view, intent); You can find it here I have a problem understanding why do you need to call intent.setData(Uri.parse(intent.toUri(Intent.URI_INTENT_SCHEME))); I understand that it gives URI a prefix intent://, but is it necessary here?

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  • C++: Static variable inside a constructor, are there any drawbacks or side effects?

    - by doc
    What I want to do: run some prerequisite code whenever instance of the class is going to be used inside a program. This code will check for requiremts etc. and should be run only once. I found that this can be achieved using another object as static variable inside a constructor. Here's an example for a better picture: class Prerequisites { public: Prerequisites() { std::cout << "checking requirements of C, "; std::cout << "registering C in dictionary, etc." << std::endl; } }; class C { public: C() { static Prerequisites prerequisites; std::cout << "normal initialization of C object" << std::endl; } }; What bothers me is that I haven't seen similar use of static variables so far. Are there any drawbacks or side-effects or am I missing something? Or maybe there is a better solution? Any suggestions are welcome.

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  • Code producing System.NullReferenceException error for Membership.GetUser(). This is VB.Net (ASP.Net 4)

    - by Derrek
    I have a Default.aspx page that is not static. I have added functionality with datalist and sqldatasources. When a user logins he/she will see items like saved workouts, saved equipment, total replys, etc... This is based on getting the currently logged in user UserID. Quite simply this works great when the user is logged in. However, I do not want to force a user to login to view the Default page because it does have functionality on it that does not require login. When a user is not logged in of course I receive the [System.NullReferenceException] error. I understand the error well but I do not know how to code to fix it. That is where I need help. I will admit I am more designer than developer. However, I do know the exception error I am receivving is caused by me not setting a value in my code when a user is not logged in. I do not know how to do that and have for a week made unsuccessful attempts at writing the code. Both sets of code below compile for VB.Net/ASP.Net 4/Visual Studio 2010 without errors. However, I still get the System.NullReferenceException error if not logged in. I know it can be done but I do not know the right syntax. If you can help please insert you code in mine or write it out. JUST TELLING ME WHERE TO GO TO FIND AN ANSWER WON'T HELP. I HAVE DONE THAT FOR 7 STRAIGHT DAYS. I APPRECIATE OUR HELP. Partial Class _Default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub SqlDataSource4_Selecting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As SqlDataSourceCommandEventArgs) Handles SqlDataSource4.Selecting Dim MemUser As MembershipUser MemUser = Membership.GetUser() If Not MemUser Is DBNull.Value Then UserID.Text = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() e.Command.Parameters("@UserId").Value = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() End If End Sub -------------------------------------ORIGINAL CODE------------------------------- Partial Class _Default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub SqlDataSource4_Selecting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As SqlDataSourceCommandEventArgs) Handles SqlDataSource4.Selecting Dim MemUser As MembershipUser MemUser = Membership.GetUser() UserID.Text = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() e.Command.Parameters("@UserId").Value = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() End Sub

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  • Finding out inside which iframe a script is executing

    - by juandopazo
    I have a page with several iframes. One of this iframes has a page from a different domain. Inside this iframe there's another iframe with a page from the parent domain. my page from mydomain.com -> an iframe -> iframe "#foo" from another-domain.com> -> iframe "#bar" from mydomain.com -> another iframe I need to get a reference to the "#foo" node inside the main page. The security model should allow me to do that because "#bar" has the same domain as the main page. So what I'm doing is iterating through the window.top array and comparing each element to the window object which is currently the "#bar" window object. My test code looks like: for (var i = 0; i < top.length; i++) { for (var j = 0; j < top[i].length; j++) { if (top[i][j] == window) { alert("The iframe number " + i + " contains me"); } } } This works fine in all browsers, but Internet Explorer 6 throws a security error when accesing top[i][j]. Any ideas on how to solve this on IE6? Thanks!

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  • Question about singleton property

    - by Jack
    I'm reading the java tutorial for enums located here and have a question: http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.5.0/docs/guide/language/enums.html#Card The part i'm confused about is as follows: "The Card class, above, contains a static factory that returns a deck, but there is no way to get an individual card from its rank and suit. Merely exposing the constructor would destroy the singleton property (that only a single instance of each card is allowed to exist). Here is how to write a static factory that preserves the singleton property, using a nested EnumMap: " Now as I understand, changing the original private "Card" constructor to public would allow us to instantiate an unlimited number of copies of a "Card" object with a given suit+rank. The solution as proposed was to create an EnumMap which would store four Maps (one for each suit), which themselves contained 13 Card objects with the rank as their keys. And so now if you wanted to retrieve a specific Card object from the deck, you would just call the "valueOf" method. My question now is, what's the prevent you with calling the valueOf method as many times as you like? Wouldn't that lead to the same problem as making the original private constructor public? Thanks.

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  • ( Sql Server 2005 C#.Net ) - I want just the insert query for a temp table.

    - by John Stephen
    Hi..I am using C#.Net and Sql Server ( Windows Application ). I had created a temporary table. When a button is clicked, temporary table (#tmp_emp_details) is created. I am having another button called "insert Values" and also 5 textboxes. The values that are entered in the textbox are used and whenever com.ExecuteNonQuery(); line comes, it throws an error message called "Invalid object name '#tbl_emp_answer'.". Below is the set of code..Please give me a solution. Code for insert (in insert value button): private void btninsertvalues_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { username = txtusername.Text; examloginid = txtexamloginid.Text; question = txtquestion.Text; answer = txtanswer.Text; useranswer = txtanswer.Text; SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection("Data Source=.;Initial Catalog=tempdb;Integrated Security=True;"); SqlCommand com = new SqlCommand("Insert into #tbl_emp_answer values('"+username+"','"+examloginid+"','"+question+"','"+answer+"','"+useranswer+"')", con); con.Open(); com.ExecuteNonQuery(); con.Close(); }

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  • Windows Form UserControl design time properties

    - by Raffaeu
    I am struggling with a UserControl. I have a UserControl that represent a Pager and it has a Presenter object property exposed in this way: [Browsable(false)] [DesignSerializationAttribute(DesignSerializationAttribute.Hidden)] public object Presenter { get; set; } The code itself works as I can drag and drop a control into a Windows From without having Visual Studio initializing this property. Now, because in the Load event of this control I call a method of the Presenter that at run-time is null ... I have introduced this additional code: public override void OnLoad(...) { if (this.DesignMode) { base.OnLoad(e); return; } presenter.OnViewReady(); } Now, every time I open a Window that contains this UserControl, Visual Studio modifies the Windows designer code. So, as soon as I open it, VS ask me if I want to save it ... and of course, if I add a control to the Window, it doesn't keep the changes ... As soon as I remove the UserControl Pager the problem disappears ... How should I tackle that in the proper way? I just don't want that the presenter property is initialized at design time as it is injected at runtime ...

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  • INotifyPropertyChanged event listener within respective class not firing on client side (silverlight)

    - by Rob
    I'm trying to work out if there's a simple way to internalize the handling of a property change event on a Custom Entity as I need to perform some bubbling of the changes to a child collection within the class when the Background Property is changed via a XAML binding: public class MyClass : INotifyPropertyChanged { [Key] public int MyClassId { get; set; } [DataMember] public ObservableCollection<ChildMyClass> MyChildren { get; set; } public string _backgroundColor; [DataMember] public string BackgroundColor { get { return this._backgroundColor; } set { this._backgroundColor = value; if (this.PropertyChanged != null) { this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("BackgroundColor")); } } } public MyClass() { this.BackgroundColor = "#FFFFFFFF"; this.PropertyChanged += MyClass_PropertyChanged; } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; void MyClass_PropertyChanged(object sender, System.ComponentModel.PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { //Do something here - fires client side but not server side } } I can listen to the event by externalizing it without any problems but it's an ugly way to handle something that want to set and forget inside my class e.g.: public class SomeOtherClass { public SomeOtherClass() { MyClass mc = new MyClass(); mc.PropertyChanged += MyClass_PropertyChanged; } void MyClass_PropertyChanged(object sender, System.ComponentModel.PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { MyClass mc = (MyClass)sender; mc.UpdateChildren(); } }

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