Search Results

Search found 21356 results on 855 pages for 'check digit'.

Page 677/855 | < Previous Page | 673 674 675 676 677 678 679 680 681 682 683 684  | Next Page >

  • Credit card system implementation?

    - by Mark
    My site is going to have a credit system that basically works a lot like a credit card. Each user has an unlimited credit limit, but at the end of each week, they have to pay it off. For example, a user might make several purchases between March 1st and 7th, and then at the end of March 7th, they would be emailed an invoice that lists all their purchases during the week and a total that is due by the 14th. If they don't pay it off, their account is simply deactivated until they do. I'm just trying to wrap my head around how to implement this. I have a list of all their purchases, that's not a problem, but I'm just trying to figure out what to do with it. On the end of the 7th day, I could set up a cronjob to generate an invoice, which would basically have an id, and due date, and then I would need another many-to-many table to link all the purchases to the invoice. Then when a user adds money to their account, I guess it's applied against their current outstanding invoice? And what if they don't pay off their invoice by the time a new invoice rolls around, so now they have 2 outstanding ones, how do I know which to apply it against? Or do I make the cronjob check for any previous outstanding invoices, cancel them, and add a new item to the new invoice as "balance forward (+interest)"? How would you apply the money against an invoice? Would each payment have to be linked to an invoice, or could I just deposit it to their account credit, and then somehow figure out whats been paid and what hasn't? What if they pay in advance, before their invoice has been generated? Do I deduct it from their credit from the invoice upon generation, or at the end of the week when its due? There are so many ways to do this... Can anyone describe what approach they would take?

    Read the article

  • a selector which has this selector together with a class selector

    - by Woho87
    Here is an analogy of my problem(a selector which has this selector together with a class selector): Let say that I selects all yellow(classes) div elements in a arbitrary HTML document. And I want each to check if the attribute is yes = 1. If the attribute 'yes' equals '1', then I want the child with class 'blue' have the attribute 'no' equals '1'; $('div .yellow').each(function(){ if($(this).attr('yes') == 1){ $(this '.blue:first-child').attr('no', 1);//This line needs to be fixed } }); I know that the line this.getElementsByClassName('blue')[0] fixes this problem. But in my real problem (not this analogy) I want to use addClass and removeClass which only functions with jQuery objects. It is to cumbersome to use other functions than addClass and removeClass. UPDATE: Here is a code snippet from my real problem. I got some problem with "this" in javascript. I want a invited button to have the className visible when I click on it. The button lies within a div element with className 'box'. I know that there are problem with 'this' on the code snippet. But I want the button and not the box to change to visible $('.Box').each(function(){ if($(this).attr('hasButton') != 1){ var invite = document.createElement('div'); invite.className = 'invite invisible'; invite.innerHTML = 'invite'; $(this).attr('hasButton', 1); this.appendChild(invite); invite.addEventListener('mouseover', function(event){ $('.invite', this).removeClass('invisible');//this line is not functioning $('.invite', this).addClass('visible');//neither this }, false); } });

    Read the article

  • Linking session state between servlets and EJBs?

    - by wilth
    Hello, I have servlets (in a web module) that access stateless EJB beans (in an EJB module). The EJB module is built using SEAM. Users can have different roles and the EJB services check this using Seam's Identity. I also use a customized Authenticator (although this might not be relevant here). I noticed problems with this approach and I'm suspecting that the session context in the servlets is not "linked" with the session context in the EJB beans. What I think happens is something like: User Joe access servlet A and is assigned Session W1. Servlet A calls a login function on an EJB, using the EJB session E1. Later, user Mary accesses servlet A and is assigned Session W2. When calling the EJBs, however, the EJB session E1 is used and therefore Mary is authenticated as Joe. What also happens is that when Joe is calling the servlet twice in rapid succession, the same session W1 is used, but two different sessions E1 and E2 in the business layer, causing errors. I might be wrong in my suspicion, but maybe I'm actually expecting these "sessions" to be linked together while they in fact are not. If this is true, is there any way of achieving this? I could - of course - use stateful beans and save the authentication information in the beans, but this would break the "Identity" concept of Seam (and in general, it would be preferable to be able to use the Session context in my EJB beans). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

    Read the article

  • How to completely wipe a previous ClickOnce installation?

    - by Dabblernl
    I have a curious problem: My app is distributed through ClickOnce. I recently installed three new clients on a new location. They worked. After an update however, all old clients worked fine, but the three new clients did not. As my code is swallowing an exception somewhere I have been unable thusfar to pinpoint where the error lies. When I XCopy the latest version of the app to the desktop of the three new client computers the program works fine. So, I thought uninstalling and reinstalling the program from the download location should fix the problem, but it does not! I can think of two explanations: The new location has some firewall/virusscanner in place that doesn't like the latest version of my app when it is run from a standard ClickOnce directory, but it allows execution from the desktop. Some old settings (the app uses user scoped and app scoped settings) remain in effect after the uninstall. When I find and check the user.config file for the app however, I find no incorrect setttings there. Thusfar, I have been unable to reproduce the error on any other machine. How can I solve this!?

    Read the article

  • MPMoviePlayerController - streaming works on 3GS, not on anything pre-3GS

    - by Canada Dev
    I am having some serious issues and annoyances with MPMoviePlayerController. In my app you can watch trailers for some movies in .mov format. I have tested with a friend and had users report that it does not work on their device, which are all 3G. I have tested on my own, a 3GS and playback works fine. I have tried on a 1st gen iPhone and it doesn't work. So I am lead to believe it's a memory issue, and that it's simply stopping the playback and returning to the previous screen. Below is the code I use to launch the player, which is straight out of the MoviePlayer example from Apple. MPMoviePlayerController *mp = [[MPMoviePlayerController alloc] initWithContentURL:[NSURL URLWithString:trailerURL]]; if (mp) { self.moviePlayer = mp; [mp release]; [self.moviePlayer play]; } I have tried to check the NSError from the notifications, but the only thing I get is "An unknown playback error occurred" for both the localizedDescription and localizedRecoverySuggestion, making it impossible to figure out exactly why it's not working. I have seen many examples of people who just have issues with the movie player, but it's starting to annoy me that it sometimes seem to work fine and other times it just doesn't (again, appearing like a memory issue). Thanks for any help/feedback provided

    Read the article

  • Write a compiler for a language that looks ahead and multiple files?

    - by acidzombie24
    In my language I can use a class variable in my method when the definition appears below the method. It can also call methods below my method and etc. There are no 'headers'. Take this C# example. class A { public void callMethods() { print(); B b; b.notYetSeen(); public void print() { Console.Write("v = {0}", v); } int v=9; } class B { public void notYetSeen() { Console.Write("notYetSeen()\n"); } } How should I compile that? what i was thinking is: pass1: convert everything to an AST pass2: go through all classes and build a list of define classes/variable/etc pass3: go through code and check if there's any errors such as undefined variable, wrong use etc and create my output But it seems like for this to work I have to do pass 1 and 2 for ALL files before doing pass3. Also it feels like a lot of work to do until I find a syntax error (other than the obvious that can be done at parse time such as forgetting to close a brace or writing 0xLETTERS instead of a hex value). My gut says there is some other way. Note: I am using bison/flex to generate my compiler.

    Read the article

  • Thin and Bundler on Windows Rails

    - by Bob
    Trying to get Thin working with Bundle on Windows, I know, major PITA but anyways, I'm new to Thin and Bundle gem, I'm on Ruby 1.8.6 and Rails 2.3.5 and trying to get someone else's app running on my laptop, the app uses Thin and Bundle gem to install gems required. I noticed that bundle created a .bundle folder under My Documents folder and put all the gems there for the app. When I tried "thin run", it reported 'thin' is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file. I check the environment path and it doesn't point to the .bundle folder at all and I found there is a thin.bat in C:\Documents and Settings\Bob\.bundle\ruby\1.8\bin When I tried "C:\Documents and Settings\Bob.bundle\ruby\1.8\bin\thin" start, it gave me another error c:/ruby/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems.rb:777:in `report_activate_error': Could not find RubyGem thin (>= 0) (Gem::LoadError) from c:/ruby/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems.rb:211:in `activate' from c:/ruby/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems.rb:1056:in `gem' from C:/Documents and Settings/Bob/.bundle/ruby/1.8/bin/thin:18 I get the same error if I added "C:\Documents and Settings\Bob.bundle \ruby\1.8\bin" to the env path. Anyone know I can get this working?

    Read the article

  • Should I be relying on WebTests for data validation?

    - by Alexander Kahoun
    I have a suite of web tests created for a web service. I use it for testing a particular input method that updates a SQL Database. The web service doesn't have a way to retrieve the data, that's not its purpose, only to update it. I have a validator that validates the response XML that the web service generates for each request. All that works fine. It was suggested by a teammate that I add data validation so that I check the database to see the data after the initial response validator runs and compare it with what was in the input request. We have a number of services and libraries that are separate from the web service I'm testing that I can use to get the data and compare it. The problem is that when I run the web test the data validation always fails even when the request succeeds. I've tried putting the thread to sleep between the response validation and the data validation but to no avail; It always gets the data from before the response validation. I can set a break point and visually see that the data has been updated in the DB, funny thing is when I step through it in debug with the breakpoint it does validate successfully. Before I get too much more into this issue I have to ask; Is this the purpose of web tests? Should I be able to validate data through service calls in this manner or am I asking too much of a web test and the response validation is as far as I should go?

    Read the article

  • Add fields to Django ModelForm that aren't in the model

    - by Cyclic
    I have a model that looks like: class MySchedule(models.Model): start_datetime=models.DateTimeField() name=models.CharField('Name',max_length=75) With it comes its ModelForm: class MyScheduleForm(forms.ModelForm): startdate=forms.DateField() starthour=forms.ChoiceField(choices=((6,"6am"),(7,"7am"),(8,"8am"),(9,"9am"),(10,"10am"),(11,"11am"), (12,"noon"),(13,"1pm"),(14,"2pm"),(15,"3pm"),(16,"4pm"),(17,"5pm"), (18,"6pm" startminute=forms.ChoiceField(choices=((0,":00"),(15,":15"),(30,":30"),(45,":45")))),(19,"7pm"),(20,"8pm"),(21,"9pm"),(22,"10pm"),(23,"11pm"))) class Meta: model=MySchedule def clean(self): starttime=time(int(self.cleaned_data.get('starthour')),int(self.cleaned_data.get('startminute'))) return self.cleaned_data try: self.instance.start_datetime=datetime.combine(self.cleaned_data.get("startdate"),starttime) except TypeError: raise forms.ValidationError("There's a problem with your start or end date") Basically, I'm trying to break the DateTime field in the model into 3 more easily usable form fields -- a date picker, an hour dropdown, and a minute dropdown. Then, once I've gotten the three inputs, I reassemble them into a DateTime and save it to the model. A few questions: 1) Is this totally the wrong way to go about doing it? I don't want to create fields in the model for hours, minutes, etc, since that's all basically just intermediary data, so I'd like a way to break the DateTime field into sub-fields. 2) The difficulty I'm running into is when the startdate field is blank -- it seems like it never gets checked for non-blankness, and just ends up throwing up a TypeError later when the program expects a date and gets None. Where does Django check for blank inputs, and raise the error that eventually goes back to the form? Is this my responsibility? If so, how do I do it, since it doesn't evaluate clean_startdate() since startdate isn't in the model. 3) Is there some better way to do this with inheritance? Perhaps inherit the MyScheduleForm in BetterScheduleForm and add the fields there? How would I do this? (I've been playing around with it for over an hours and can't seem to get it) Thanks! [Edit:] Left off the return self.cleaned_data -- lost it in the copy/paste originally

    Read the article

  • How to effectively use WorkbookBeforeClose event correctly?

    - by Ahmad
    On a daily basis, a person needs to check that specific workbooks have been correctly updated with Bloomberg and Reuters market data ie. all data has pulled through and that the 'numbers look correct'. In the past, people were not checking the 'numbers' which led to inaccurate uploads to other systems etc. The idea is that 'something' needs to be developed to prevent the use from closing/saving the workbook unless he/she has checked that the updates are correct/accurate. The numbers look correct action is purely an intuitive exercise, thus will not be coded in any way. The simple solution was to prompt users prior to closing the specific workbook to verify that the data has been checked. Using VSTO SE for Excel 2007, an Add-in was created which hooks into the WorkbookBeforeClose event which is initialised in the add-in ThisAddIn_Startup private void wb_BeforeClose(Xl.Workbook wb, ref bool cancel) { //.... snip ... if (list.Contains(wb.Name)) { DailogResult result = MessageBox.Show("some message", "sometitle", MessageBoxButtons.YesNo); if (result != DialogResult.Yes) { cancel = true; // i think this prevents the whole application from closing } } } I have found the following ThisApplication.WorkbookBeforeSave vs ThisWorkbook.Application.WorkbookBeforeSave which recommends that one should use the ThisApplication.WorkbookBeforeClose event which I think is what I am doing since will span all files opened. The issue I have with the approach is that assuming that I have several files open, some of which are in my list, the event prevents Excel from closing all files sequentially. It now requires each file to be closed individually. Am I using the event correctly and is this effective & efficient use of the event? Should I use the Application level event or document level event? Is there a way to prevent the above behaviour? Any other suggestions are welcomed VS 2005 with VSTO SE

    Read the article

  • Change UIButton Background Image more than once per second

    - by beta.services
    I am currently working with the iPhone SDK. I have a NSTimer that changes the background image of a UIButton. Once this is complete, it will trigger the same action again (reset the NSTimer) for a predetermined number of times. My problem is that if my NSTimer is set to execute more than once per second. (0.75, say) The background image wont change. I am using NSLog to check that the event fires. But the button image will just remain in its original state. Is there any way to change the background image more often than once per second? This is my timer : [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval: tmpLvlSpeed target: self selector: @selector(simPressRed:) userInfo: nil repeats: NO]; And the code to change the image: [btnRed setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"btn_red.png"] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; if tmpLvlSpeed is less than 1.0, the button image will never change. Even though the simPressRed function will still fire. Any clues? Is there an update cycle I can modify?

    Read the article

  • Strage character encoding problem with Eclipse / Spring / Tomcat 6

    - by Czar
    Hi, I have been trying things all da but can't get a proper solution. My problem is: I am developing a Spring MVC based app in my local Tomcat. My MYSQl database has UTF-8 encoding set, all content in there displays properly when using phpMyAdmin. Also the output in LOG files using log4j in catalina.out works fine. My JSP pages are configured by <!-- encoding --> <%@ page contentType="text/html; charset=UTF-8" %> <%@ page pageEncoding="UTF-8" %> Also showing data on my JSP works fine. I can also send data from my Controller without any DB intereference using special chars, e.g. String str = "UTF-8 Test: Ä Ö Ü ß è é â"; logger.debug(str); mav.addObject("utftest", str); That displays correctly in log and on jsp page in browser. BUT: When having special chars directly in my JSP file, e.g. for text in headers, this does not work. FF and Google Chrome display strange chars but report the page to be UTF-8. When switching to Latin, the chars just get more and more strange. Same problem when showing text tokens from my messages.properties file, although Eclipse says when right-clicking that UTF-8 will be used. I am a little it lost and don't know where to check now. Summary: DB storage is fine DB output on JSP is fine Output on JSP directly form controller is fine even reading in form forms is fine .properties files and JSP text is not fine !!! Any ideas? I really appreciate and tips.

    Read the article

  • Frame Accurate Browser Launchable Video Player ... ?

    - by cliftonc
    I have a requirement where I need to enable playback (full screen) of a h.264 MPEG4 (thanks for the correction!) video from a local network, launchable from a browser link on a Windows workstation, and be frame accurate. By frame accurate I mean that I need to be able to scrub through the video in the same way you would with a vtr, stop at a frame, and then move backwards and forwards frame by frame (it is for a very specific compliance requirement where have to be able to check every frame if there is something that is potentially against broadcasting guidelines). The application itself is used to capture notes while viewing the material, so the end model is for a dual monitor workstation, with a web form in one, the video playing full screen in the second (no issue launching the video and manually having to move it to the second screen), and then the user controls the video via keyboard shortcuts or a jog shuttle. I have looked at QT, but the java bindings seem to be dead or nearly so, flash isn't frame accurate, VLC given its streaming heritage seems to be only able to move forward by a frame and not backwards, and all I have left are commercial offerings that in my experience are difficult and expensive to change. Any ideas of where I should look or alternative options? Any advice appreciated!

    Read the article

  • understanding valgrind output

    - by sbsp
    Hi, i made a post earlier asking about checking for memory leaks etc, i did say i wasnt to familiar with the terminal in linux but someone said to me it was easy with valgrind i have managed to get it running etc but not to sure what the output means. Glancing over, all looks good to me but would like to run it past you experience folk for confirmation if possible. THe output is as follows ^C==2420== ==2420== HEAP SUMMARY: ==2420== in use at exit: 2,240 bytes in 81 blocks ==2420== total heap usage: 82 allocs, 1 frees, 2,592 bytes allocated ==2420== ==2420== LEAK SUMMARY: ==2420== definitely lost: 0 bytes in 0 blocks ==2420== indirectly lost: 0 bytes in 0 blocks ==2420== possibly lost: 0 bytes in 0 blocks ==2420== still reachable: 2,240 bytes in 81 blocks ==2420== suppressed: 0 bytes in 0 blocks ==2420== Reachable blocks (those to which a pointer was found) are not shown. ==2420== To see them, rerun with: --leak-check=full --show-reachable=yes ==2420== ==2420== For counts of detected and suppressed errors, rerun with: -v ==2420== ERROR SUMMARY: 0 errors from 0 contexts (suppressed: 13 from 8) Is all good here? the only thing concerning me is the still reachable part. Is that ok? Thanks everyone

    Read the article

  • Invalidating Memcached Keys on save() in Django

    - by Zack
    I've got a view in Django that uses memcached to cache data for the more highly trafficked views that rely on a relatively static set of data. The key word is relatively: I need invalidate the memcached key for that particular URL's data when it's changed in the database. To be as clear as possible, here's the meat an' potatoes of the view (Person is a model, cache is django.core.cache.cache): def person_detail(request, slug): if request.is_ajax(): cache_key = "%s_ABOUT_%s" % settings.SITE_PREFIX, slug # Check the cache to see if we've already got this result made. json_dict = cache.get(cache_key) # Was it a cache hit? if json_dict is None: # That's a negative Ghost Rider person = get_object_or_404(Person, display = True, slug = slug) json_dict = { 'name' : person.name, 'bio' : person.bio_html, 'image' : person.image.extra_thumbnails['large'].absolute_url, } cache.set(cache_key) # json_dict will now exist, whether it's from the cache or not response = HttpResponse() response['Content-Type'] = 'text/javascript' response.write(simpljson.dumps(json_dict)) # Make sure it's all properly formatted for JS by using simplejson return response else: # This is where the fully templated response is generated What I want to do is get at that cache_key variable in it's "unformatted" form, but I'm not sure how to do this--if it can be done at all. Just in case there's already something to do this, here's what I want to do with it (this is from the Person model's hypothetical save method) def save(self): # If this is an update, the key will be cached, otherwise it won't, let's see if we can't find me try: old_self = Person.objects.get(pk=self.id) cache_key = # Voodoo magic to get that variable old_key = cache_key.format(settings.SITE_PREFIX, old_self.slug) # Generate the key currently cached cache.delete(old_key) # Hit it with both barrels of rock salt # Turns out this doesn't already exist, let's make that first request even faster by making this cache right now except DoesNotExist: # I haven't gotten to this yet. super(Person, self).save() I'm thinking about making a view class for this sorta stuff, and having functions in it like remove_cache or generate_cache since I do this sorta stuff a lot. Would that be a better idea? If so, how would I call the views in the URLconf if they're in a class?

    Read the article

  • Java, LinkedList of Strings. Insert in alphabetical order

    - by user69514
    I have a simple linked list. The node contains a string (value) and an int (count). In the linkedlist when I insert I need to insert the new Node in alphabetical order. If there is a node with the same value in the list, then I simply increment the count of the node. I think I got my method really screwed up. public void addToList(Node node){ //check if list is empty, if so insert at head if(count == 0 ){ head = node; head.setNext(null); count++; } else{ Node temp = head; for(int i=0; i<count; i++){ //if value is greater, insert after if(node.getItem().getValue().compareTo(temp.getItem().getValue()) > 0){ node.setNext(temp.getNext()); temp.setNext(node); } //if value is equal just increment the counter else if(node.getItem().getValue().compareTo(temp.getItem().getValue()) == 0){ temp.getItem().setCount(temp.getItem().getCount() + 1); } //else insert before else{ node.setNext(temp); } } } }

    Read the article

  • .NET load assembly error metabase config

    - by peter
    Hi, Yesterday I found out that the mailroot directory had moved to a different location on the C drive. I don't know how this happened as no configs were changed, using IIS7 with IIS6 SMTP service on Windows 2008 R2 web edition. I wanted to restore it to the default c:\inetpub\mailroot location. So I opened system32/inetsrv/MetaBase.xml, and in the node was the problem, BadMailDirectory, DropDirectory etc were all pointing to the wrong location... I changed them back to the default c:\inetpub\mailroot. Later I discovered an ASP.NET application was throwing this error: An error occurred in the Microsoft .NET Framework while trying to load assembly id 1. The server may be running out of resources, or the assembly may not be trusted with PERMISSION_SET = EXTERNAL_ACCESS or UNSAFE. Run the query again, or check documentation to see how to solve the assembly trust issues. For more information about this error: System.IO.FileNotFoundException: Could not load file or assembly 'microsoft.sqlserver.types, Version=10.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=89845dcd8080cc91' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. I figured it had to do with my changes to the mailroot locations, so I gave ASP.NET access to the mailroot directory and it was working.... My question is, how is this possible? Why does APS.NET require access to the mailroot directory to load assemblies? Thanks

    Read the article

  • WordPress Conditional: Only show if current page title is equal to post meta

    - by Wade D Ouellet
    Hey, I am calling a bunch of posts under a certain post type in WordPress which works but I am trying to add a conditional that will check first if those post's custom meta field (labeled "disc") is equal to the current post's title. Here is what I have but this conditional does not seem to work: <?php $pages = get_posts('numberposts=9999&post_type=song&post_status=publish&order=ASC&orderby=date'); $i = 1; foreach( $pages as $page ) { $content = $page->post_title; if( empty($content) ) continue; $content = apply_filters('the_content', $content); ?> <?php if(get_post_meta($page->ID, "p30-disc", true)=="the_title()") { ?> <tbody class="vevent"> <?php if ($i%2===0) { ?><tr class="gigpress-row gigpress-alt"> <?php } else { ?><tr class="gigpress-row"><?php } ?> <td><?php echo $page->post_title ?></td> <td><?php echo get_post_meta($page->ID, "p30-length", true); ?></td> <td><a href="http://itunes.com/<?php echo get_post_meta($page->ID, "p30-itunes-song", true); ?>">BUY</a></td> </tr> <tr class="gigpress-info"> <td colspan="3"><?php echo $page->post_content ?></td> </tr> </tbody> <?php $i++; } } ?> When I simply echo "get_post_meta($page-ID, "p30-disc", true)" or "the_title()" it spits out their proper values, which are equal, so obviously something is just wrong with that conditional. Thanks, Wade

    Read the article

  • Mac OS X: Getting detailed process information (specifically its launch arguments) for arbitrary run

    - by Jasarien
    I am trying to detect when particular applications are launched. Currently I am using NSWorkspace, registering for the "did launch application" notification. I also use the runningApplications method to get apps that are currently running when my app starts. For most apps, the name of the app bundle is enough. I have a plist of "known apps" that I cross check with the name of that passed in the notification. This works fine until you come across an app that acts as a proxy for launching another application using command line arguments. Example: The newly released Portal on the Mac doesn't have a dedicated app bundle. Steam can create a shortcut, which serves as nothing more than to launch the hl2_osx app with the -game argument and portal as it's parameter. Since more Source based games are heading to the Mac, I imagine they'll use the same method to launch, effectively running the hl2_osx app with the -game argument. Is there a nice way to get a list of the arguments (and their parameters) using a Cocoa API? NSProcessInfo comes close, offering an `-arguments' method, but only provides information for its own process... NSRunningApplication offers the ability to get information about arbitrary apps using a PID, but no command line args... Is there anything that fills the gap between the two? I'm trying not to go down the route of spawning an NSTask to run ps -p [pid] and parsing the output... I'd prefer something more high level.

    Read the article

  • After Navigate2 Method returns S_OK Stuck at READYSTATE of READYSTATE_LOADING

    - by Stone Free
    I am working on a MFC Document View architecture application which has multiple documents and views and a tabbed window interface. I have been tasked with making an automatic switch to another tab on the press of the OK button in one of the other tabs. When the other tab is clicked on it uses a C++ wrapper over IWebBrowser2 to navigate to a specific web page. When this is done manually by clicking on the tab everything is fine and the webpage within the view loads successfully. In my first attempt at doing this the tab successfully switched in response to a call to AfxGetMainWnd()->SendMessageToDescendants(SOME_MESSAGE, ...); however by sending this windows message at the wrong point the application would crash once control returned because the chain of events caused the (modeless) dialog (*) that sent the message, to no longer exist. I then found the correct place to make the call, but now when the other tab is activated, it no longer displays the webpage as it should. To debug this problem I added code to check the READYSTATE in both the situation where it works and the situation where it does not. When the page fails to load (despite the call to Navigate2 returning S_OK), the READYSTATE just stays at READYSTATE_LOADING. Unfortunately now I am to many edits away from when I had it partially working. I have added TRACE statements to the most obvious events such as OnSetFocus, CView::OnActivateView but all traces come out in the same order despite the behaviour being different * hosted in the view

    Read the article

  • (C#) Get index of current foreach iteration

    - by Graphain
    Hi, Is there some rare language construct I haven't encountered (like the few I've learned recently, some on Stack Overflow) in C# to get a value representing the current iteration of a foreach loop? For instance, I currently do something like this depending on the circumstances: int i=0; foreach (Object o in collection) { ... i++; } Answers: @bryansh: I am setting the class of an element in a view page based on the position in the list. I guess I could add a method that gets the CSSClass for the Objects I am iterating through but that almost feels like a violation of the interface of that class. @Brad Wilson: I really like that - I've often thought about something like that when using the ternary operator but never really given it enough thought. As a bit of food for thought it would be nice if you could do something similar to somehow add (generically to all IEnumerable objects) a handle on the enumerator to increment the value that an extension method returns i.e. inject a method into the IEnumerable interface that returns an iterationindex. Of course this would be blatant hacks and witchcraft... Cool though... @crucible: Awesome I totally forgot to check the LINQ methods. Hmm appears to be a terrible library implementation though. I don't see why people are downvoting you though. You'd expect the method to either use some sort of HashTable of indices or even another SQL call, not an O(N) iteration... (@Jonathan Holland yes you are right, expecting SQL was wrong) @Joseph Daigle: The difficulty is that I assume the foreach casting/retrieval is optimised more than my own code would be. @Jonathan Holland: Ah, cheers for explaining how it works and ha at firing someone for using it.

    Read the article

  • sqlite is required for merb?

    - by mayank
    I have a question regarding merb dependency with sqlite. I am going to install merb on my m/c and I don't have sqlite installed on my m/c . I tried this command "gem install merb" and saw following error. If there any way to install merb with mysql please tell me. Building native extensions. This could take a while... ERROR: Error installing merb: ERROR: Failed to build gem native extension. /usr/bin/ruby1.8 extconf.rb checking for sqlite3.h... no * extconf.rb failed * Could not create Makefile due to some reason, probably lack of necessary libraries and/or headers. Check the mkmf.log file for more details. You may need configuration options. Provided configuration options: --with-opt-dir --without-opt-dir --with-opt-include --without-opt-include=${opt-dir}/include --with-opt-lib --without-opt-lib=${opt-dir}/lib --with-make-prog --without-make-prog --srcdir=. --curdir --ruby=/usr/bin/ruby1.8 --with-sqlite3-dir --without-sqlite3-dir --with-sqlite3-include --without-sqlite3-include=${sqlite3-dir}/include --with-sqlite3-lib --without-sqlite3-lib=${sqlite3-dir}/lib Gem files will remain installed in /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/do_sqlite3-0.10.2 for inspection. Results logged to /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/do_sqlite3-0.10.2/ext/do_sqlite3/gem_make.out

    Read the article

  • Java design: too many getters

    - by dege
    After writing a few lesser programs when learning Java the way I've designed the programs is with Model-View-Control. With using MVC I have a plethora of getter methods in the model for the view to use. It feels that while I gain on using MVC, for every new value added I have to add two new methods in the model which quickly get all cluttered with getter & setters. So I was thinking, maybe I should use the notifyObserver method that takes an argument. But wouldn't feel very smart to send every value by itself either so I figured, maybe if I send a kind of container with all the values, preferably only those that actually changed. What this would accomplish would be that instead of having a whole lot of getter methods I could just have one method in the model which put all relevant values in the container. Then in the view I would have a method called from the update which extracted the values from the container and assigning them to the correct fields. I have two questions concerning this. First: is this actually a viable way to do this. Would you recommend me doing something along these lines? Secondly: if I do use this plan and I don't want to keep sending fields that didn't actually change. How would I handle that without having to have if statements to check if the value is not null for every single value?

    Read the article

  • Wrong Ruby Float and BigDecimal subtraction result

    - by SamChandra
    I am running: [~/ruby/rails/sas]$ ruby --version ruby 1.8.7 (2009-06-08 patchlevel 173) [universal-darwin10.0] on Mac Snow Leopard 10.6.3 Can anyone help to explain why the Float and BigDecimal subtraction can be this wrong. [~/ruby/rails/sas]$ console Loading development environment (Rails 2.1.1) >> num = 30.0 => 30.0 >> num.class => Float >> ex = 28.04.to_d => #<BigDecimal:105367e40,'0.284E2',8(8)> >> ex.class => BigDecimal >> num - ex => 1.6 >> _.class => Float >> I was hoping that the result should be 1.96, I know that perhaps doing an arithmetic operation using 2 different data types are not recommended, but this behavior is so strange. It seems to be wise that from now on, I have to check the variables data type before doing any arithmetic operation. Hopefully somebody can give me an insight on what was happening.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate: Dirty Checking and Only Update of Dirty Attributes?

    - by jens
    Hello Experts, in "good old JDBC days" I wrote a lot of SQL Queries that did very targeted updates of only the "attributes/members" that were actually changed: For Example having an object with the following members: public String name; public String address; public Date date; If only date was changed in some Business Method I would only issue an SQL UPDATE for the date member. ==It seems however (thats my "impression" of hibernate) that when working with a standard Hibernate mapping (mapping the full class), even updates of only one single member lead to a full update of the object in SQL Statements generated by Hibernate. My Questions are: 1.) Is this observation correct, that hibernate DOES NOT intelligently check (in a fully mapped class), what member(s) where changed and then only issue updates for the specific changed members, but rather always will update (in the generated SQL Update Statement) all mapped members (of a class), even if they were not changed (in case the object is dirty due to one member being dirty...) 2.) What can I do to make Hibernate only update those members, that have been changed? I am searching for a solution to have hibernate only update the member that actually changed. (I know hibernate does some big work on doing dirty-checking, but as far as I know this dirtychecking is only relevant to identify if the object as whole is dirty, not what single member is dirty.) Thank you very much! Jens

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 673 674 675 676 677 678 679 680 681 682 683 684  | Next Page >