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• OpenVPN IPv6 over IPv4 tunnel

  - by user66779

  Today I installed OpenVPN 2.3rc2 on both my windows 7 client machine and centos 6 server. This new version of OpenVPN provides full compatibility for IPv6. The Problem: I am currently able to connect to the server (through the IPv4 tunnel) and ping the IPv6 address which is assigned to my client and I can also ping the tun0 interface on the server. However, I cannot browse to any IPv6 websites. My vps provider has given me this: 2607:f840:0044:0022:0000:0000:0000:0000/64 is routed to this server (2607:f840:0:3f:0:0:0:eda). This is ifconfig after setup with OpenVPN running: eth0 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr 00:16:3E:12:77:54 inet addr:208.111.39.160 Bcast:208.111.39.255 Mask:255.255.255.0 inet6 addr: 2607:f740:0:3f::eda/64 Scope:Global inet6 addr: fe80::216:3eff:fe12:7754/64 Scope:Link UP BROADCAST RUNNING MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:2317253 errors:0 dropped:7263 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:1977414 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:1000 RX bytes:1696120096 (1.5 GiB) TX bytes:1735352992 (1.6 GiB) Interrupt:29 lo Link encap:Local Loopback inet addr:127.0.0.1 Mask:255.0.0.0 inet6 addr: ::1/128 Scope:Host UP LOOPBACK RUNNING MTU:16436 Metric:1 RX packets:0 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:0 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:0 (0.0 b) TX bytes:0 (0.0 b) tun0 Link encap:UNSPEC HWaddr 00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00-00 inet addr:10.8.0.1 P-t-P:10.8.0.2 Mask:255.255.255.255 inet6 addr: 2607:f740:44:22::1/64 Scope:Global UP POINTOPOINT RUNNING NOARP MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:739567 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:1218240 errors:0 dropped:1542 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:100 RX bytes:46512557 (44.3 MiB) TX bytes:1559930874 (1.4 GiB) So OpenVPN is sucessfully creating a tun0 interface and assigning clients IPv6 addresses using 2607:f840:44:22::/64. The first client to connect is getting 2607:f840:44:22::1000 and the second 2607:f840:44:22::1001, and so on... plus 1 each time. After connecting as the first client, I can ping from my windows client machine 2607:f740:44:22::1 and 2607:f740:44:22::1000. However, I have no access to IPv6 websites. I believe the problem is that the tun0 IPv6 addressees are not being forwarded to the eth0 interface. This is the firewall running on the server: #!/bin/sh # # iptables configuration script # # Flush all current rules from iptables # iptables -F iptables -t nat -F # # Allow SSH connections on tcp port 22 # iptables -A INPUT -i eth0 -p tcp --dport 22 -j ACCEPT iptables -A OUTPUT -o eth0 -p tcp --sport 22 -j ACCEPT # # Set access for localhost # iptables -A INPUT -i lo -j ACCEPT # # Accept connections on 1195 for vpn access from client # iptables -A INPUT -i eth0 -p udp --dport 1195 -m state --state NEW,ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT iptables -A OUTPUT -o eth0 -p udp --sport 1195 -m state --state ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT # # Apply forwarding for OpenVPN Tunneling # iptables -A FORWARD -m state --state RELATED,ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -s 10.8.0.0/24 -j ACCEPT iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING -o eth0 -j SNAT --to 209.111.39.160 iptables -A FORWARD -j REJECT # # Enable forwarding # echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward # # Set default policies for INPUT, FORWARD and OUTPUT chains # iptables -P INPUT ACCEPT iptables -P FORWARD ACCEPT iptables -P OUTPUT ACCEPT # # IPv6 # IP6TABLES=/sbin/ip6tables $IP6TABLES -F INPUT $IP6TABLES -F FORWARD $IP6TABLES -F OUTPUT echo -n "1" >/proc/sys/net/ipv6/conf/all/forwarding echo -n "1" >/proc/sys/net/ipv6/conf/all/proxy_ndp echo -n "0" >/proc/sys/net/ipv6/conf/all/autoconf echo -n "0" >/proc/sys/net/ipv6/conf/all/accept_ra $IP6TABLES -A INPUT -i eth0 -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT $IP6TABLES -A INPUT -i eth0 -p tcp --dport 22 -j ACCEPT $IP6TABLES -A INPUT -i eth0 -p icmpv6 -j ACCEPT $IP6TABLES -P INPUT ACCEPT $IP6TABLES -P FORWARD ACCEPT $IP6TABLES -P OUTPUT ACCEPT Server.conf: server-ipv6 2607:f840:44:22::/64 server 10.8.0.0 255.255.255.0 port 1195 proto udp dev tun ca ca.crt cert server.crt key server.key dh dh2048.pem ifconfig-pool-persist ipp.txt push "redirect-gateway def1 bypass-dhcp" push "dhcp-option DNS 208.67.222.222" push "dhcp-option DNS 208.67.220.220" keepalive 10 60 tls-auth ta.key 0 cipher AES-256-CBC comp-lzo user nobody group nobody persist-key persist-tun status openvpn-status.log log-append openvpn.log verb 5 Client.conf: client dev tun nobind keepalive 10 60 hand-window 15 remote 209.111.39.160 1195 udp persist-key persist-tun ca ca.crt key client1.key cert client1.crt remote-cert-tls server tls-auth ta.key 1 comp-lzo verb 3 cipher AES-256-CBC I'm not sure where I am going wrong, it could be the firewall, or something missing from server or client.conf. This version of OpenVPN was only released yesterday, and there's little info on the internet about how to setup an IPv6 over IPv4 vpn tunnel. I've read the manual for this new version of OpenVPN (parts pertaining to IPv6) and it provides very little info too. Thanks for any help.

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• how to set objectForKey to UISwitch to access switch for save selected option

  - by Rkm

  SystemUIViewcontroller has button event. Tap on Button fire InfoTableviewController. InfoTableview has UISwitch. How to set objectForKey to Info to access UIswitch ViewDidload of System... - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.Infoarray = [NSMutableArray array]; Info *info = [[Info alloc]initWithNibName:@"Info" bundle:nil]; [self.Infoarray addObject:[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:info, @"viewController", nil]]; } SystemUIviewcontroller button event... -(IBAction) Info_Button_Clicked:(id) sender { Info *info = [[Info alloc]initWithNibName:@"Info" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:info animated:YES]; [info release]; } Here for Info TableviewController... - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.Soundarray = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: @"Sounds", @"labelKey", self.SoundsswitchCtl, @"viewKey", nil],nil]; } // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { UITableViewCell *cell = nil; if ([indexPath section] == 0) { static NSString *kDisplayCell_ID = @"DisplayCellID"; cell = [self.tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier: kDisplayCell_ID]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier: kDisplayCell_ID] autorelease]; cell.selectionStyle = UITableViewCellSelectionStyleNone; } else { // the cell is being recycled, remove old embedded controls UIView *viewToRemove = nil; viewToRemove = [cell.contentView viewWithTag:1]; if (viewToRemove) [viewToRemove removeFromSuperview]; } cell.textLabel.text = [[self.Soundarray objectAtIndex: indexPath.row] valueForKey:@"labelKey"]; UIControl *control = [[self.Soundarray objectAtIndex: indexPath.row] valueForKey:@"viewKey"]; [cell.contentView addSubview:control]; return cell; } } - (UISwitch *)SoundsswitchCtl { if (SoundsswitchCtl == nil) { CGRect frame = CGRectMake(198.0, 12.0, 94.0, 27.0); SoundsswitchCtl = [[UISwitch alloc] initWithFrame:frame]; [SoundsswitchCtl addTarget:self action:@selector(switch_Sounds:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; // in case the parent view draws with a custom color or gradient, use a transparent color SoundsswitchCtl.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; [SoundsswitchCtl setAccessibilityLabel:NSLocalizedString(@"StandardSwitch", @"")]; SoundsswitchCtl.tag = 1; // tag this view for later so we can remove it from recycled table cells } return SoundsswitchCtl; }

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• jquery mouse events masked by img in IE8 - all other platforms/browsers work fine

  - by Bruce

  Using the jQuery mouse events for mouseenter, mouseleave or hover all work swimmingly on all Mac or Windows browsers except for IE8/Windows. I am using mouseenter and mouseleave to test for hot rectangles (absolutely positioned and dimensioned divs that have no content) over an image used as hotspots to make visible the navigation buttons when different regions of the main enclosing rectangle (image) are touched by the cursor. Windows/IE jQuery never sends notifications (mouseenter our mouseleave) as the cursor enters or exits one of the target divs. If I turn off the visibility of the image everything works as expected (like it does in every other browser), so the image is effectively blocking all messages (the intention was for the image to be a background and all the divs float above it, where they can be clicked on). I understand that there's a z-index gotcha (so explicitly specifying z-index for each absolute positioned div does not work), but unclear as to how to nest or order multiple divs to allow a single set of jQuery rules to support all browsers. The image tag seems to trump all other divs and always appear in front of them... BTW: I could not use i m g as a tag in this text so it is spelled image in the following, so the input editor does not think that I am trying to pull a fast one on stackoverflow... How used? "mainview" is the background image, "zoneleft" and "zoneright" are the active areas where when the cursor enters the nav buttons "leftarrow" and rightarrow" are supposed to appear. Javascript $("div#zoneleft").bind("mouseenter",function () // enters left zone see left arrow { arrowVisibility("left"); document.getElementById("leftarrow").style.display="block"; }).bind("mouseleave",function () { document.getElementById("leftarrow").style.visibility="hidden"; document.getElementById("rightarrow").style.visibility="hidden"; }); HTML <div id="zoneleft" style="position:absolute; top:44px; left:0px; width:355px; height:372px; z-index:40;"> <div id="leftarrow" style="position:absolute; top:158px; left:0px; z-index:50;"><img src="images/newleft.png" width="59" height="56"/></div></div> <div id="zoneright" style="position:absolute; top:44px; left:355px; width:355px; height:372px; z-index:40;"> <div id="rightarrow" style="position:absolute; top:158px; left:296px; z-index:50;"> (tag named changed so that I could include it here) <image src="images/newright.png" width="59" height="56" /></div></div> </div><!-- navbuttons --> <image id="mainview" style="z-index:-1;" src="images/projectPhotos/photo1.jpg" width:710px; height:372px; /> (tag named changed so that I could include it here) </div><!--photo-->

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• How to design service that can provide interface as JAX-WS web service, or via JMS, or as local meth

  - by kevinegham

  Using a typical JEE framework, how do I develop and deploy a service that can be called as a web service (with a WSDL interface), be invoked via JMS messages, or called directly from another service in the same container? Here's some more context: Currently I am responsible for a service (let's call it Service X) with the following properties: Interface definition is a human readable document kept up-to-date manually. Accepts HTTP form-encoded requests to a single URL. Sends plain old XML responses (no schema). Uses Apache to accept requests + a proprietary application server (not servlet or EJB based) containing all logic which runs in a seperate tier. Makes heavy use of a relational database. Called both by internal applications written in a variety of languages and also by a small number of third-parties. I want to (or at least, have been told to!): Switch to a well-known (pref. open source) JEE stack such as JBoss, Glassfish, etc. Split Service X into Service A and Service B so that we can take Service B down for maintenance without affecting Service A. Note that Service B will depend on (i.e. need to make requests to) Service A. Make both services easier for third parties to integrate with by providing at least a WS-I style interface (WSDL + SOAP + XML + HTTP) and probably a JMS interface too. In future we might consider a more lightweight API too (REST + JSON? Google Protocol Buffers?) but that's a nice to have. Additional consideration are: On a smaller deployment, Service A and Service B will likely to running on the same machine and it would seem rather silly for them to use HTTP or a message bus to communicate; better if they could run in the same container and make method calls to each other. Backwards compatibility with the existing ad-hoc Service X interface is not required, and we're not planning on re-using too much of the existing code for the new services. I'm happy with either contract-first (WSDL I guess) or (annotated) code-first development. Apologies if my terminology is a bit hazy - I'm pretty experienced with Java and web programming in general, but am finding it quite hard to get up to speed with all this enterprise / SOA stuff - it seems I have a lot to learn! I'm also not very used to using a framework rather than simply writing code that calls some packages to do things. I've got as far as downloading Glassfish, knocking up a simple WSDL file and using wsimport + a little dummy code to turn that into a WAR file which I've deployed.

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• Display problem after deletion in linked list in C

  - by LuckySlevin

  Hi, actually this was another problem but it changed so I decided to open a new question. My code is typedef struct inner_list { int count; char word[100]; inner_list*next; } inner_list; typedef struct outer_list { char word [100]; inner_list * head; int count; outer_list * next; } outer_list; void delnode(outer_list **head,char num[100])//thanks to both Nir Levy and Jeremy P. { outer_list *temp, *m; m=temp=*head; /*FIX #1*/ while(temp!=NULL) { if(strcmp(temp->word,num)==0) { if(temp==*head) { delinner(temp->head); /* FIX#2 */ *head=temp->next; free(temp); return; } else { delinner(temp->head); /* FIX#2 */ m->next=temp->next; free(temp); return; } } else { m=temp; temp= temp->next; } } printf(" ELEMENT %s NOT FOUND ", num); } void delinner(inner_list *head) { /* FIX#2 */ inner_list *temp; temp=head; while(temp!=NULL) { head=temp->next; free(temp); temp=head; } } void delnode2(outer_list *up,inner_list **head,char num[100]) { inner_list *temp2,*temp, *m; outer_list *p; p = up; while(p!=NULL){m=temp=temp2=p->head; while(temp!=NULL) { if(strcmp(temp->word,num)==0) { if(temp==(*head)) { *head=temp->next; free(temp); return; } else { m->next=temp->next; free(temp); return; } } else { m=temp; temp= temp->next; } } p=p->next; } printf(" ELEMENT %s NOT FOUND ", num); } void print_node(outer_list *parent_node) { while(parent_node!=NULL){ printf("%s\t%d\t", parent_node->word, parent_node->count); inner_list *child_node = parent_node->head; printf("list: "); if(child_node ==NULL){printf("BUARADA");} while (child_node != NULL) { printf("%s-%d", child_node->word,child_node->count); child_node = child_node->next; if (child_node != NULL) { printf("->"); } } printf("\n"); parent_node = parent_node->next; } } While deleting an element from outer list I am also trying the delete the same element from inner_list too. For example: - Let's say aaa is an element of outer_list linked list and let's point it with outer_list *p - This aaa can also be in an inner_list linked list too. (it can be in p-head or another innerlist.) Now, the tricky part again. I tried to apply the same rules with outer_list deletion but whenever i delete the head element of inner_list it gives an error. Where is the wrong thing in print_node or delnode2?

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• List/Grid Toggle for Photo Gallery with Shadowbox

  - by InfamouslyBubbly

  so I'm new to this site, and new to jquery, and javascript as a whole really, but I have very good comprehension of HTML and CSS. For a class in school, I'm making a photo gallery webpage using the Shadowbox plugin. I have that part all down, but one of the requirements is to add some sort of user option that the user can change that will get saved in a cookie. (I haven't gotten to the cookie part yet) For my option, I decided to add a toggle that will switch the view of the page from a grid view (default) with images, to a list view of just the captions of the images. I figured out how to do that, but decided it could probably done in a much simpler fashion with the use of loops. Here is the HTML I have: <body> <div id="preferences"> <h1>My Photo Gallery</h1> <ul id="options"> <li><a href="#" id="list"><img src="media/listview.png" alt="List view"/></a></li> <li><a href="#" id="grid"><img src="media/gridview.png" alt="List view"/></a></li> </ul> </div> <div id="gallery"> <a rel="shadowbox[Gallery]" class="l1 img" href="media/img1.jpg" title="Black and White Leopard Pattern"><img src="media/thumb1.jpg" alt="Black and White Leopard Pattern"/></a> <a rel="shadowbox[Gallery]" class="l2 img" href="media/img2.jpg" title="Snow Leopard Pattern"><img src="media/thumb2.jpg" alt="Snow Leopard Pattern"/></a> <a rel="shadowbox[Gallery]" class="l3 img" href="media/img3.jpg" title="Colorful Triangle Pattern"><img src="media/thumb3.jpg" alt="Colurful Triangle Pattern"/></a> <a rel="shadowbox[Gallery]" class="l4 img" href="media/img4.jpg" title="Tie Dye Zebra Stripe Pattern"><img src="media/thumb4.jpg" alt="Tie Dye Zebra Stripe Pattern"/></a> <a rel="shadowbox[Gallery]" class="l5 img" href="media/img5.jpg" title="Blue Knitted Pattern"><img src="media/thumb5.jpg" alt="Blue Knitted Pattern"/></a> <a rel="shadowbox[Gallery]" class="l6 img" href="media/img6.jpg" title="Black and White Damask Pattern"><img src="media/thumb6.jpg" alt="Black and White Damask Pattern"/></a> <a rel="shadowbox[Gallery]" class="l7 img" href="media/img7.jpg" title="Wooden Panel Pattern"><img src="media/thumb7.jpg" alt="Wooden Panel Pattern"/></a> <a rel="shadowbox[Gallery]" class="l8 img" href="media/img8.jpg" title="Brick Pattern"><img src="media/thumb8.jpg" alt="Brick Pattern"/></a> <a rel="shadowbox[Gallery]" class="l9 img" href="media/img9.jpg" title="Watercolor Pattern"><img src="media/thumb9.jpg" alt="Watercolor Pattern"/></a> <a rel="shadowbox[Gallery]" class="l10 img" href="media/img10.jpg" title="Orange Stripe Pattern"><img src="media/thumb10.jpg" alt="Orange Stripe Pattern"/></a> <a rel="shadowbox[Gallery]" class="l11 img" href="media/img11.jpg" title="Blue Scales Pattern"><img src="media/thumb11.jpg" alt="Blue Scales Pattern"/></a> <a rel="shadowbox[Gallery]" class="l12 img" href="media/img12.jpg" title="Woven Pattern"><img src="media/thumb12.jpg" alt="Woven Pattern"/></a> </div> </body> So here is the sample that works (for the list portion anyways), but seems excessive in terms of code since I'd have to repeat for each image: $(document).ready(function(){ $( "#list" ).click(function() { $( "a.l1" ).removeClass( "img" ); $( "a.l1" ).addClass( "lst" ); $( "a.l1" ).text( $( "a.l1" ).attr( "title" ); //repeat for l1 through l12 (that`s the letter L not a 1) }); $( "#grid" ).click(function() { $( "a.l1" ).removeClass( "lst" ); $( "a.l1" ).addClass( "grid" ); //actually have no idea at all how to get this back to the original img tag other than maybe .innerHTML??? //repeat for l1 through l12 (again, that`s the letter L not a 1) }); }): And here is kinda how I'd like it (Y'know, except in a way that works) $(document).ready(function(){ var i = 1; var selcur = $( "'a.l" + i + "'" ); var title = selcur.attr( "title" ); var image = '<img src="media/thumb' + i + '.jpg" alt="' + title + '"/>'; $( "#list" ).click(function() { while (1<=12) { selcur.addClass("lst"); selcur.removeClass("img"); selcur.text( title ); i++; } i = 1; }); $( "#grid" ).click(function() { while (1<=12) { selcur.removeClass("lst"); selcur.addClass("img"); selcur.text( image ); i++; } i = 1; }); }); Please tell me how I am going about this wrong, keep in mind again I'm new to this, I appreciate any and all responses! Is there a better way to do this? I really want to keep it simple.

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• TestNG - Factories and Dataproviders

  - by Tim K

  Background Story I'm working at a software firm developing a test automation framework to replace our old spaghetti tangled system. Since our system requires a login for almost everything we do, I decided it would be best to use @BeforeMethod, @DataProvider, and @Factory to setup my tests. However, I've run into some issues. Sample Test Case Lets say the software system is a baseball team roster. We want to test to make sure a user can search for a team member by name. (Note: I'm aware that BeforeMethods don't run in any given order -- assume that's been taken care of for now.) @BeforeMethod public void setupSelenium() { // login with username & password // acknowledge announcements // navigate to search page } @Test(dataProvider="players") public void testSearch(String playerName, String searchTerm) { // search for "searchTerm" // browse through results // pass if we find playerName // fail (Didn't find the player) } This test case assumes the following: The user has already logged on (in a BeforeMethod, most likely) The user has already navigated to the search page (trivial, before method) The parameters to the test are associated with the aforementioned login The Problems So lets try and figure out how to handle the parameters for the test case. Idea #1 This method allows us to associate dataproviders with usernames, and lets us use multiple users for any specific test case! @Test(dataProvider="players") public void testSearch(String user, String pass, String name, String search) { // login with user/pass // acknowledge announcements // navigate to search page // ... } ...but there's lots of repetition, as we have to make EVERY function accept two extra parameters. Not to mention, we're also testing the acknowledge announcements feature, which we don't actually want to test. Idea #2 So lets use the factory to initialize things properly! class BaseTestCase { public BaseTestCase(String user, String password, Object[][] data); } class SomeTest { @Factory public void ... } With this, we end up having to write one factory per test case... Although, it does let us have multiple users per test-case. Conclusion I'm about fresh out of ideas. There was another idea I had where I was loading data from an XML file, and then calling the methods from a program... but its getting silly. Any ideas?

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• Can I retrieve objects from a complex query that limits results to fields from a single table?

  - by Sean Redmond

  I have a model whose rows I always want to sort based on the values in another associated model and I was thinking that the way to implement this would be to use set_dataset in the model. This is causing query results to be returned as hashes rather than objects, though, so none of the methods from the class can be used when iterating over the dataset. I basically have two classes class SortFields < Sequel::Model(:sort_fields) set_primary_key :objectid end class Items < Sequel::Model(:items) set_primary_key :objectid one_to_one :sort_fields, :class => SortFields, :key => :objectid end Some backstory: the data is imported from a legacy system into mysql. The values in sort_fields are calculated from multiple other associated tables (some one-to-many, some many-to-many) according to some complicated rules. The likely solution will be to just add the values in sort_fields to items (I want to keep the imported data separate from the calculated data, but I don't have to). First, though, I just want to understand how far you can go with a dataset and still get objects rather than hashes. If I set the dataset to sort on a field in items like so class Items < Sequel::Model(:items) set_primary_key :objectid one_to_one :sort_fields, :class => SortFields, :key => :objectid set_dataset(order(:sortnumber)) end then the expected clause is added to the generated SQL, e.g.: >> Items.limit(1).sql => "SELECT * FROM `items` ORDER BY `sortnumber` LIMIT 1" and queries still return objects: >> Items.limit(1).first.class => Items If I order it by the associated fields though... class Items < Sequel::Model(:items) set_primary_key :objectid one_to_one :sort_fields, :class => SortFields, :key => :objectid set_dataset( eager_graph(:sort_fields). order(:sort1, :sort2, :sort3) ) end ...I get hashes ?> Items.limit(1).first.class => Hash My first thought was that this happens because all fields from sort_fields are included in the results and maybe if selected only the fields from items I would get Items objects again: class Items < Sequel::Model(:items) set_primary_key :objectid one_to_one :sort_fields, :class => SortFields, :key => :objectid set_dataset( eager_graph(:sort_fields). select(:items.*). order(:sort1, :sort2, :sort3) ) end The generated SQL is what I would expect: >> Items.limit(1).sql => "SELECT `items`.* FROM `items` LEFT OUTER JOIN `sort_fields` ON (`sort_fields`.`objectid` = `items`.`objectid`) ORDER BY `sort1`, `sort2`, `sort3` LIMIT 1" It returns the same rows as the set_dataset(order(:sortnumber)) version but it still doesn't work: >> Items.limit(1).first.class => Hash Before I add the sort fields to the items table so that they can all live happily in the same model, is there a way to tell Sequel to return on object when it wants to return a hash?

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• How to handle very frequent updates to a Lucene index

  - by fsm

  I am trying to prototype an indexing/search application which uses very volatile indexing data sources (forums, social networks etc), here are some of the performance requirements, Very fast turn-around time (by this I mean that any new data (such as a new message on a forum) should be available in the search results very soon (less than a minute)) I need to discard old documents on a fairly regular basis to ensure that the search results are not dated. Last but not least, the search application needs to be responsive. (latency on the order of 100 milliseconds, and should support at least 10 qps) All of the requirements I have currently can be met w/o using Lucene (and that would let me satisfy all 1,2 and 3), but I am anticipating other requirements in the future (like search relevance etc) which Lucene makes easier to implement. However, since Lucene is designed for use cases far more complex than the one I'm currently working on, I'm having a hard time satisfying my performance requirements. Here are some questions, a. I read that the optimize() method in the IndexWriter class is expensive, and should not be used by applications that do frequent updates, what are the alternatives? b. In order to do incremental updates, I need to keep committing new data, and also keep refreshing the index reader to make sure it has the new data available. These are going to affect 1 and 3 above. Should I try duplicate indices? What are some common approaches to solving this problem? c. I know that Lucene provides a delete method, which lets you delete all documents that match a certain query, in my case, I need to delete all documents which are older than a certain age, now one option is to add a date field to every document and use that to delete documents later. Is it possible to do range queries on document ids (I can create my own id field since I think that the one created by lucene keeps changing) to delete documents? Is it any faster than comparing dates represented as strings? I know these are very open questions, so I am not looking for a detailed answer, I will try to treat all of your answers as suggestions and use them to inform my design. Thanks! Please let me know if you need any other information.

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• How would you structure your entity model for storing arbitrary key/value data with different data t

  - by Nathan Ridley

  I keep coming across scenarios where it will be useful to store a set of arbitrary data in a table using a per-row key/value model, rather than a rigid column/field model. The problem is, I want to store the values with their correct data type rather than converting everything to a string. This means I have to choose either a single table with multiple nullable columns, one for each data type, or a set of value tables, one for each data type. I'm also unsure as to whether I should use full third normal form and separate the keys into a separate table, referencing them via a foreign key from the value table(s), or if it would be better to keep things simple and store the string keys in the value table(s) and accept the duplication of strings. Old/bad: This solution makes adding additional values a pain in a fluid environment because the table needs to be modified regularly. MyTable ============================ ID Key1 Key2 Key3 int int string date ---------------------------- 1 Value1 Value2 Value3 2 Value4 Value5 Value6 Single Table Solution This solution allows simplicity via a single table. The querying code still needs to check for nulls to determine which data type the field is storing. A check constraint is probably also required to ensure only one of the value fields contains non-nulll data. DataValues ============================================================= ID RecordID Key IntValue StringValue DateValue int int string int string date ------------------------------------------------------------- 1 1 Key1 Value1 NULL NULL 2 1 Key2 NULL Value2 NULL 3 1 Key3 NULL NULL Value3 4 2 Key1 Value4 NULL NULL 5 2 Key2 NULL Value5 NULL 6 2 Key3 NULL NULL Value6 Multiple-Table Solution This solution allows for more concise purposing of each table, though the code needs to know the data type in advance as it needs to query a different table for each data type. Indexing is probably simpler and more efficient because there are less columns that need indexing. IntegerValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string int ------------------------------- 1 1 Key1 Value1 2 2 Key1 Value4 StringValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string string ------------------------------- 1 1 Key2 Value2 2 2 Key2 Value5 DateValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string date ------------------------------- 1 1 Key3 Value3 2 2 Key3 Value6 How do you approach this problem? Which solution is better? Also, should the key column be separated into a separate table and referenced via a foreign key or be should it be kept in the value table and bulk updated if for some reason the key name changes?

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• What does Apache need to support both mysqli and PDO?

  - by Nathan Long

  I'm considering changing some PHP code to use PDO for database access instead of mysqli (because the PDO syntax makes more sense to me and is database-agnostic). To do that, I'd need both methods to work while I'm making the changeover. My problem is this: so far, either one or the other method will crash Apache. Right now I'm using XAMPP in Windows XP, and PHP Version 5.2.8. Mysqli works fine, and so does this: $dbc = new PDO("mysql:host=$hostname;dbname=$dbname", $username, $password); echo 'Connected to database'; $sql = "SELECT * FROM `employee`"; But this line makes Apache crash: $dbc->query($sql); I don't want to redo my entire Apache or XAMPP installation, but I'd like for PDO to work. So I tried updating libmysql.dll from here, as oddvibes recommended here. That made my simple PDO query work, but then mysqli queries crashed Apache. (I also tried the suggestion after that one, to update php_pdo_mysql.dll and php_pdo.dll, to no effect.) Test Case I created this test script to compare PDO vs mysqli. With the old copy of libmysql.dll, it crashes if $use_pdo is true and doesn't if it's false. With the new copy of libmysql.dll, it's the opposite. if ($use_pdo){ $dbc = new PDO("mysql:host=$hostname;dbname=$dbname", $username, $password); echo 'Connected to database<br />'; $sql = "SELECT * FROM `employee`"; $dbc->query($sql); foreach ($dbc->query($sql) as $row){ echo $row['firstname'] . ' ' . $row['lastname'] . "<br>\n"; } } else { $dbc = @mysqli_connect($hostname, $username, $password, $dbname) OR die('Could not connect to MySQL: ' . mysqli_connect_error()); $sql = "SELECT * FROM `employee`"; $result = @mysqli_query($dbc, $sql) or die(mysqli_error($dbc)); while ($row = mysqli_fetch_array($result,MYSQLI_ASSOC)) { echo $row['firstname'] . ' ' . $row['lastname'] . "<br>\n"; } } What does Apache need in order to support both methods of database query?

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• Action Cache for root URL not working

  - by askegg

  Here's the setup. I have web site which is essentially a simple CMS. Here is the routes file: map.connect ':url', :controller => :pages, :action => :show map.root :controller => :pages, :action => :show, :url => "/" The page controller is thus: class PagesController < ApplicationController before_filter :verify_access, :except => [:show] # Cache show action if we are not logged in. caches_action :show, :layout => false, :unless => Proc.new { |controller| controller.logged_in? } def update @page = Page.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| expire_action :action => :show, :url => @page.url So when a visitor hits "/" it maps to :controller = "pages, :action = "show, :url = "/". This generates a cached version on first try, then returns the appropriate result there after. The log files show: Processing PagesController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2009-08-02 14:15:01) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"show", "url"=>"/", "controller"=>"pages"} Cached fragment hit: views/out.local// (0.1ms) Rendering template within layouts/application Filter chain halted as [#<ActionController::Filters::AroundFilter:0x23eb03c @identifier=nil, @method=#<Proc:0x01904858@/Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.3/lib/action_controller/caching/actions.rb:64>, @kind=:filter, @options={:only=>#<Set: {"show"}>, :if=>nil, :unless=>#<Proc:0x025137ac@/Users/askegg/Sites/out/app/controllers/pages_controller.rb:6>}>] did_not_yield. Completed in 2ms (View: 1, DB: 0) | 200 OK [http://out.local/] OK - all good so far. When I update the page, it should expire the cache (see above). The logs show: Page Load (0.2ms) SELECT * FROM "pages" WHERE ("pages"."id" = 3) Page Load (0.1ms) SELECT "pages".id FROM "pages" WHERE ("pages"."url" = '/' AND "pages".domain_id = 1 AND "pages".id <> 3) LIMIT 1 Expired fragment: views/out.local/index (0.1ms) Redirected to http://out.local/pages/3 Completed in 9ms (DB: 0) | 302 Found [http://out.local/pages/3] See the problem? Rails is clearing the cache named "index", but it sets it as "/". Naturally this results in the cache NOT being cleared, so visitors are now seeing the old version.

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• How to write my own global lock / unlock functions for PostgreSQL

  - by rafalmag

  I have postgresql (in perlu) function getTravelTime(integer, timestamp), which tries to select data for specified ID and timestamp. If there are no data or if data is old, it downloads them from external server (downloading time ~300ms). Multiple process use this database and this function. There is an error when two process do not find data and download them and try to do an insert to travel_time table (id and timestamp pair have to be unique). I thought about locks. Locking whole table would block all processes and allow only one to proceed. I need to lock only on id and timestamp. pg_advisory_lock seems to lock only in "current session". But my processes uses their own sessions. I tried to write my own lock/unlock functions. Am I doing it right? I use active waiting, how can I omit this? Maybe there is a way to use pg_advisory_lock() as global lock? My code: CREATE TABLE travel_time_locks ( id_key integer NOT NULL, time_key timestamp without time zone NOT NULL, UNIQUE (id_key, time_key) ); ------------ -- Function: mylock(integer, timestamp) DROP FUNCTION IF EXISTS mylock(integer, timestamp) CASCADE; -- Usage: SELECT mylock(1, '2010-03-28T19:45'); -- function tries to do a global lock similar to pg_advisory_lock(key, key) CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION mylock(id_input integer, time_input timestamp) RETURNS void AS $BODY$ DECLARE rows int; BEGIN LOOP BEGIN -- active waiting here !!!! :( INSERT INTO travel_time_locks (id_key, time_key) VALUES (id_input, time_input); EXCEPTION WHEN unique_violation THEN CONTINUE; END; EXIT; END LOOP; END; $BODY$ LANGUAGE 'plpgsql' VOLATILE COST 1; ------------ -- Function: myunlock(integer, timestamp) DROP FUNCTION IF EXISTS myunlock(integer, timestamp) CASCADE; -- Usage: SELECT myunlock(1, '2010-03-28T19:45'); -- function tries to do a global unlock similar to pg_advisory_unlock(key, key) CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION myunlock(id_input integer, time_input timestamp) RETURNS integer AS $BODY$ DECLARE BEGIN DELETE FROM ONLY travel_time_locks WHERE id_key=id_input AND time_key=time_input; RETURN 1; END; $BODY$ LANGUAGE 'plpgsql' VOLATILE COST 1;

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• Linux configurations that would affect Java memory usage?

  - by wmacura

  Hi, Background: I have a set of java background workers I start as part of my webapp. I develop locally on Ubuntu 10.10 and deploy to an Ubuntu 10.04LTS server (a media temple (ve) instance). They're both running the same JVM: Sun JVM 1.6.0_22-b04. As part of the initialization script each worker is started with explicit Xmx, Xms, and XX:MaxPermGen settings. Yet somehow locally all 10 workers use 250MB, while on the server they use more than 2.7GB. I don't know how to begin to track this down. I thought the Ubuntu (and thus, kernel) version might make a difference, but I tried an old 10.04 VM and it behaves as expected. I've noticed that the machine does not seem to ever use memory for buffer or cache (according to htop), which seems a bit strange, but perhaps normal for a server? (edited) Some info: (server) root@devel:/app/axir/target# uname -a Linux devel 2.6.18-028stab069.5 #1 SMP Tue May 18 17:26:16 MSD 2010 x86_64 GNU/Linux (local) wiktor@beastie:~$ uname -a Linux beastie 2.6.35-25-generic #44-Ubuntu SMP Fri Jan 21 17:40:44 UTC 2011 x86_64 GNU/Linux (edited) Comparing PS output: (ps -eo "ppid,pid,cmd,rss,sz,vsz") PPID PID CMD RSS SZ VSZ (local) 1588 1615 java -cp axir-distribution. 25484 234382 937528 1615 1631 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 83472 163059 652236 1615 1657 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 70624 89135 356540 1615 1658 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 37652 77625 310500 1615 1669 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 38096 77733 310932 1615 1675 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 37420 61395 245580 1615 1684 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 38000 77736 310944 1615 1703 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 39180 78060 312240 1615 1712 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 38488 93882 375528 1615 1719 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 38312 77874 311496 1615 1726 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 38656 77958 311832 1615 1727 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 78016 89429 357716 (server) 22522 23560 java -cp axir-distribution. 24860 285196 1140784 23560 23585 java -cp /app/axir/target/a 100764 161629 646516 23560 23667 java -cp /app/axir/target/a 72408 92682 370728 23560 23670 java -cp /app/axir/target/a 39948 97671 390684 23560 23674 java -cp /app/axir/target/a 40140 81586 326344 23560 23739 java -cp /app/axir/target/a 39688 81542 326168 They look very similar. In fact, the question now is why, if I add up the virtual memory usage on the server (3.2GB) does it more closely reflect 2.4GB of memory used (according to free), yet locally the virtual memory used adds up to a much more substantial 4.7GB but only actually uses ~250MB. It seems that perhaps memory isn't being shared as aggressively. (if that's even possible) Thank you for your help, Wiktor

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• Can I have a workspace that is both a git workspace and a svn workspace?

  - by Troy

  I have checked out now a local working copy of a codebase that lives in an svn repo. It's a big Java project that I use Eclipse to develop in. Eclipse of course builds everything on the fly, in it's own way with all the binaries ending up in [project root]/bin. That's perfectly fine with me, for development, but when the build runs on the build server, it looks quite a lot different (maven build, binaries end up in a different directory structure, etc). Sometimes I need to recreate the build server environment on my local development system to debug the build or what have you, so I usually end up downloading an entirely new working copy into a new workspace and running the build from there (prevents cluttering my development workspace with all the build artifacts and dirtying up the working copy). Of course sometimes I'm interested in running the full build on code that I don't want to check in yet, so I will manually copy over the "development" workspace onto the "build" workspace. Besides taking a lot of extra time copying a lot of files that I don't actually need (just overlaying the new over the old), this also screws up my svn metadata, meaning that I can't check in changes from that "build workspace" working copy, and I often end up having to re-download the code to get it back into a known state. So I'm thinking I make my svn working copy a local git repo, then "check out" the in-development code from the svn working copy/git master, into the local build workspace. Then I can build, revert my changes, have all the advantages of a version controlled working copy in the build workspace. Then if I need to make changes to the build, push those back into the git master (which is also a svn working copy), then check them into the main svn repo. |-------------| |main svn repo| <------- |---------------------| |-------------| |svn working copy | <------- |--------------------| | (svn dev workspace/ | | non-svn-versioned | | git master) | | build workspace | |---------------------| | (git working copy) | |--------------------| Just switching everything to git would obviously be better, but, big company, too many people using svn, too costly to change everything, etc. We're stuck with svn as the main repo for now. BTW, I know there is a maven plugin for Eclipse and everything, I'm mainly interested to know if there is a way to maintain a workspace that is both a git working copy and an svn working copy. Actually any distributed version control system would probably work (hg possibly?). Advice? How does everybody else handle this situation of having a to manage both a "development" build process and a "production" build process?

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• What is the proper way to change the UINavigationController transition effect

  - by Felipe Sabino

  I have seen lots of people asking on how to push/pop UINavigationControllers using other animations besides the default one, like flip or curl. The problem is that either the question/answer was relative old, which means the have some things like [UIView beginAnimations:] (example here) or they use two very different approaches. The first is to use UIView's transitionFromView:toView:duration:options:completion: selector before pushing the controller (with the animation flag set to NO), like the following: UIViewController *ctrl = [[UIViewController alloc] init]; [UIView transitionFromView:self.view toView:ctrl.view duration:1 options:UIViewAnimationOptionTransitionFlipFromTop completion:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:ctrl animated:NO]; Another one is to use CoreAnimation explicitly with a CATransaction like the following: // remember you will have to have the QuartzCore framework added to your project for this approach and also add <QuartzCore/QuartzCore.h> to the class this code is used CATransition* transition = [CATransition animation]; transition.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseIn]; transition.duration = 1.0f; transition.type = @"flip"; transition.subtype = @"fromTop"; [self.navigationController.view.layer removeAllAnimations]; [self.navigationController.view.layer addAnimation:transition forKey:kCATransition]; UIViewController *ctrl = [[UIViewController alloc] init]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:ctrl animated:NO]; There are pros and cons for both approaches. The first approach gives me a much cleaner code but restricts me from using animations like "suckEffect", "cube" and others. The second approach feels wrong just by looking at it. It starts by using undocumented transitions types (i.e. not present in the Common transition types documentation from CATransition Class Reference) which might get your app rejected from App Store (I mean might as I could not found any reference of apps being rejected because it was using this transactions, which I would also appreciate any clarification on this matter), but it gives you much more flexibility on your animations, as I can use other animation types such as "cameraIris", "rippleEffect" and so on. Regarding all that, do I really need to appeal for QuartzCore and CoreAnimation whenever I need a fancier UINavigationController transition? Is there any other way to accomplish the same effect using only UIKit? If not, will the use of string values like "flip" and "cube" instead of the pre-defined constants (kCATransitionFade, kCATransitionMoveIn, etc...) be an issue regarding my app approval in the App Store? Also, are there other pros and cons regarding both approaches that could help me deciding whether to choose each one of them?

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• Save/Load jFreechart TimeSeriesCollection chart from XML

  - by IMAnis_tn

  I'm working with this exemple wich put rondom dynamic data into a TimeSeriesCollection chart. My problem is that i can't find how to : 1- Make a track of the old data (of the last hour) when they pass the left boundary (because the data point move from the right to the left ) of the view area just by implementing a horizontal scroll bar. 2- Is XML a good choice to save my data into when i want to have all the history of the data? public class DynamicDataDemo extends ApplicationFrame { /** The time series data. */ private TimeSeries series; /** The most recent value added. */ private double lastValue = 100.0; public DynamicDataDemo(final String title) { super(title); this.series = new TimeSeries("Random Data", Millisecond.class); final TimeSeriesCollection dataset = new TimeSeriesCollection(this.series); final JFreeChart chart = createChart(dataset); final ChartPanel chartPanel = new ChartPanel(chart); final JPanel content = new JPanel(new BorderLayout()); content.add(chartPanel); chartPanel.setPreferredSize(new java.awt.Dimension(500, 270)); setContentPane(content); } private JFreeChart createChart(final XYDataset dataset) { final JFreeChart result = ChartFactory.createTimeSeriesChart( "Dynamic Data Demo", "Time", "Value", dataset, true, true, false ); final XYPlot plot = result.getXYPlot(); ValueAxis axis = plot.getDomainAxis(); axis.setAutoRange(true); axis.setFixedAutoRange(60000.0); // 60 seconds axis = plot.getRangeAxis(); axis.setRange(0.0, 200.0); return result; } public void go() { final double factor = 0.90 + 0.2 * Math.random(); this.lastValue = this.lastValue * factor; final Millisecond now = new Millisecond(); System.out.println("Now = " + now.toString()); this.series.add(new Millisecond(), this.lastValue); } public static void main(final String[] args) throws InterruptedException { final DynamicDataDemo demo = new DynamicDataDemo("Dynamic Data Demo"); demo.pack(); RefineryUtilities.centerFrameOnScreen(demo); demo.setVisible(true); while(true){ demo.go(); Thread.currentThread().sleep(1000); } } }

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• How do I properly register the Type Library of A VB.NET COM+ Component?

  - by k_Dank

  I am looking to upgrade legacy VB6 COM+ components to VB.NET components. I have seemingly upgraded one already, called EventPackage, which has one class, IEventListener. Another, TradeOrders, Implements EventPackage.IEventListener. When attempting to build TradeOrders, I get the following Errors/Warnings; Cannot load type library for reference "EventPackage". Library not registered. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8002801D (TYPE_E_LIBNOTREGISTERED)) The referenced component 'EventPackage' could not be found. Type 'EventPackage.IEventListener' is not defined. In the .vbproj, I notice this reference <COMReference Include="EventPackage"> <Guid>{0D76C094-21A6-4E04-802B-6E539F7102D7}</Guid> <Lcid>0</Lcid> <VersionMajor>2</VersionMajor> <VersionMinor>0</VersionMinor> <WrapperTool>tlbimp</WrapperTool> </COMReference> When I search the registry for this Guid, I find nothing. When using GUIDs for similar COM+ objects, I find them in HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT\CLSID\{...}\TypeLib ("..." being the GUID of the other component). When I go to the registry key name corresponding to EventPackage.IEventListener, I find that there is no \TypeLib subkey. As you might suspect, searching the reg for "0D76C094-21A6-4E04-802B-6E539F7102D7" yields no results. So I know this must be a registry problem, But I have tried seemingly every google result I have found. I have tried Regasm and regsvcs .exe's to no avail. Many pages just tell me that dragging the dll to the COM+ manager should automatically register the component. So how do I register the Type library? Details on how I made EventPackage COM+ component Ran the VB6-VB.NET wizard Then I added some lines to the assemblyinfo.vb file added Imports System.EnterpriseServices added Imports System.EnterpriseServices Imports System.Data.SqlClient <Assembly: CLSCompliant(True)> <Assembly: AssemblyKeyFileAttribute("...")> for a strong name <Assembly: Guid("...")> (Where "..." is the COM+ CLSID of the old component) I added the following to the class file IEventListener.VB Imports System.EnterpriseServices <ComClass("...")> _ (Where ... is the proper COM+ CLSID, that is the only argument) Inherits ServicedComponent changed the ID made by the Conversion wizard to the proper value (from <System.Runtime.InteropServices.ProgId("IEventListener_NET.IEventListener)> to <System.Runtime.InteropServices.ProgId("EventPackage.IEventListener")> _ Then I dragged the DLL into the COM+ manager in the proper COM+ application (although, the "Path" is not specified and only says mscoree.dll)

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• What is the most idiomatic way to emulating Perl's Test::More::done_testing?

  - by DVK

  I have to build unit tests for in environment with a very old version of Test::More (perl5.8 with $Test::More::VERSION being '0.80') which predates the addition of done_testing(). Upgrading to newer Test::More is out of the question for practical reasons. And I am trying to avoid using no_tests - it's generally a bad idea not catching when your unit test exits prematurely - say due to some logic not executing when you expected it to. What is the most idiomatic way of running a configurable amount of tests, assuming no no_tests or done_testing() is used? Details: My unit tests usually take the form of: use Test::More; my @test_set = ( [ "Test #1", $param1, $param2, ... ] ,[ "Test #1", $param1, $param2, ... ] # ,... ); foreach my $test (@test_set) { run_test($test); } sub run_test { # $expected_tests += count_tests($test); ok(test1($test)) || diag("Test1 failed"); # ... } The standard approach of use Test::More tests => 23; or BEGIN {plan tests => 23} does not work since both are obviously executed before @tests is known. My current approach involves making @tests global and defining it in the BEGIN {} block as follows: use Test::More; BEGIN { our @test_set = (); # Same set of tests as above my $expected_tests = 0; foreach my $test (@tests) { my $expected_tests += count_tests($test); } plan tests = $expected_tests; } our @test_set; # Must do!!! Since first "our" was in BEGIN's scope :( foreach my $test (@test_set) { run_test($test); } # Same sub run_test {} # Same I feel this can be done more idiomatically but not certain how to improve. Chief among the smells is the duplicate our @test_test declarations - in BEGIN{} and after it. Another approach is to emulate done_testing() by calling Test::More->builder->plan(tests=>$total_tests_calculated). I'm not sure if it's any better idiomatically-wise.

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• Add console.profile statements to JavaScript/jQuery code on the fly.

  - by novogeek

  Hi folks, We have a thick client app using jQuery heavily and want to profile the performance of the code using firebug's console.profile API. The problem is, I don't want to change the code to write the profile statements. Take this example: var search=function(){ this.init=function(){ console.log('init'); } this.ajax=function(){ console.log('ajax'); //make ajax call using $.ajax and do some DOM manipulations here.. } this.cache=function(){ console.log('cache'); } } var instance=new search(); instance.ajax(); I want to profile my instance.ajax method, but I dont want to add profile statements in the code, as that makes it difficult to maintain the code. I'm trying to override the methods using closures, like this: http://www.novogeek.com/post/2010/02/27/Overriding-jQueryJavaScript-functions-using-closures.aspx but am not very sure how I can achieve. Any pointers on this? I think this would help many big projects to profile the code easily without a big change in code. Here is the idea. Just run the below code in firebug console, to know what I'm trying to achieve. var search=function(){ this.init=function(){ console.log('init'); } this.ajax=function(){ console.log('ajax'); //make ajax call using $.ajax and do some DOM manipulations here.. } this.cache=function(){ console.log('cache'); } } var instance=new search(); $.each(instance, function(functionName, functionBody){ (function(){ var dup=functionBody functionBody=function(){ console.log('modifying the old function: ',functionName); console.profile(functionName); dup.apply(this,arguments); console.profileEnd(functionName); } })(); console.log(functionName, '::', functionBody()); }); Now what I need is, if i say instance.ajax(), I want the new ajax() method to be called, along with the console.profile statements. Hope I'm clear with the requirement. Please improvise the above code. Regards, Krishna, http://www.novogeek.com

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• Device drivers and Windows

  - by b-gen-jack-o-neill

  Hi, I am trying to complete the picture of how the PC and the OS interacts together. And I am at point, where I am little out of guess when it comes to device drivers. Please, don´t write things like its too complicated, or you don´t need to know when using high programming laguage and winapi functions. I want to know, it´s for study purposes. So, the very basic structure of how OS and PC (by PC I mean of course HW) is how I see it is that all other than direct CPU commands, which can CPU do on itself (arithmetic operation, its registers access and memory access) must pass thru OS. Mainly becouse from ring level 3 you cannot use in and out intructions which are used for acesing other HW. I know that there is MMIO,but it must be set by port comunication first. It was not like this all the time. Even I am bit young to remember MSDOS, I know you could access HW directly, becouse there ws no limitation, no ring mode. So you could to write string to diplay use wheather DOS function, or directly acess video card memory and write it by yourself. But as OS developed, there is no longer this possibility. But it is fine, since OS now handles all the HW comunication, and frankly it more convinient and much more safe (I would say the only option) in multitasking environment. So nowdays you instead of using int instructions to use BIOS mapped function or DOS function you call dll which internally than handles everything you don´t need to know about. I understand this. I also undrstand that device drivers is the piece of code that runs in ring level 0, so it can do all the HW interactions. But what I don´t understand is connection between OS and device driver. Let´s take a example - I want to make a sound card make a sound. So I call windows API to acess sound card, but what happens than? Does windows call device drivers to do so? But if it does call device driver, does it mean, that all device drivers which can be called by winAPI function, must have routines named in some specific way? I mean, when I have new sound card, must its drivers have functions named same as the old one? So Windows can actually call the same function from its perspective? But if Windows have predefined sets of functions requored by device drivers, that it cannot use new drivers that doesent existed before last version of OS came out. Please, help me understand this mess. I am really getting mad. Thanks.

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• How to update a TextView on ButtonClick with Spinner(s) values

  - by source.rar

  Hi, I am trying to populate a TextView based on the current selected options in 3 Spinner(s) but cant seem to figure out how to retrieve the selected values from the Spinners to invoke the update function with. Here is my current code (quite messy but I'm just learning Java :)), public class AgeFun extends Activity { private String[] dayNames; private String[] yearArray; private final static int START_YEAR = 1990; private static TextView textDisp; private Button calcButton; private static Spinner spinnerDay, spinnerYear, spinnerMonth; private static ArrayAdapter<?> monthAdapter, dayAdapter, yearAdapter; private int year, month, day; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); year = 2000; month = 1; day = 1; textDisp = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.textView1); calcButton = (Button) findViewById(R.id.button); calcButton.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { // Perform action on clicks AgeFun.updateAge(year, month, day); } }); // Month spinner spinnerMonth = (Spinner) findViewById(R.id.spinnerFirst); monthAdapter = ArrayAdapter.createFromResource( this, R.array.monthList, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item); monthAdapter.setDropDownViewResource(android.R.layout.simple_spinner_dropdown_item); spinnerMonth.setAdapter(monthAdapter); // Day spinner dayNames = new String[31]; for(int i =1; i <= 31; ++i) { dayNames[i-1] = Integer.toString(i); } spinnerDay = (Spinner) findViewById(R.id.spinnerSecond); dayAdapter = new ArrayAdapter<CharSequence>(this, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item, dayNames); spinnerDay.setAdapter(dayAdapter); // Year spinner yearArray = new String[40]; for(int i =0; i < 40; ++i) { yearArray[i] = Integer.toString(START_YEAR+i); } spinnerYear = (Spinner) findViewById(R.id.spinnerThird); yearAdapter = new ArrayAdapter<CharSequence>(this, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item, yearArray); spinnerYear.setAdapter(yearAdapter); updateAge(2000,1,1); } private static void updateAge(int year, int month, int day) { Date dob = new GregorianCalendar(year, month, day).getTime(); Date currDate = new Date(); long age = (currDate.getTime() - dob.getTime()) / (1000 * 60 * 60 * 24) / 365; textDisp.setText("Your are " + Long.toString(age) + " years old"); } } Any help with this would be great. TIA

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• Fastest way to copy a set (100+) of related SQLAlchemy objects and change attribute on each one

  - by rebus

  I am developing an app that keeps track of items going in and out of factory. For example, lets say you have 3 kinds of plastic coming in, they are mixed in various ratios and then sent out as a new product. So to keep track of this I've created following database structure: This is very simplified overview of my SQLAlchemy models: IN <- RATIO <- OUT <- REPORT ITEMS -> REPORT IN are products coming in, RATIO is various information on measurements, and OUT is a final product. REPORT is basically a header model which has a lot of REPORT ITEMS attached to it, which in turn relate it to OUT products. This would all work perfectly, but IN and RATION values can change. These changes ultimately change the OUT product which would mean the REPORT values would change. So in order to change an attribute on IN object for example I should copy that object with that attribute changed. I would think this is basically a question about database normalization, because i didn't want to duplicate all the IN, RATIO and OUT information by writing it in REPORT ITEMS table for example, but I've came across this problem (well not really a problem but rather a feature I'd like for a user to have). When the attribute on IN object is changed I want related objects (RATIO and OUT) automatically copied and related to a new IN object. So I was thinking something like: Take an existing instance of model IN that needs to change (call it old_in) Create a new one out of it with some attributes changed (call it new_in) Collect all the RATIO objects that are related to old_in Copy each RATIO and relate them to a new_in Collect all the OUT objects that are related to old RATIO Copy each OUT and relate them to a new RATIO Few questions pop to mind when i look at this problem: Should i just duplicate the data, does all this copying even make sense? If it does, should i rather do it in plain SQL? If no what would be the best approach to do it with Python and SQLAlchemy? Any general answer would suffice really, at least a pointer in right direction. I really want to free then end user for hassle of having create new ratios and out products.

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• Adding a clustered index to a SQL table: what dangers exist for a live production system?

  - by MoSlo

  Right, keep in mind i need to describe this by abstracting all possible confidential info: I've been put in charge of a 10-year old transactional system of which the majority business logic is implemented at database level (triggers, stored procedures etc). Win2000 server, MSSQL 2000 Enterprise. No immediate plans for replacing/updating the system are being considered :( The core process is a program that executes transactions - specifically, it executes a stored procedure with various parameters, lets call it sp_ProcessTrans. The program executes the stored procedure at asynchronous intervals. By itself, things work fine. But there are 30 instances of this program on remotely located workstations, all of them asynchronously executing sp_ProcessTrans and then retrieving data from the SQL server (execution is pretty regular - ranging 0 to 60 times a minute, depending on what items the program instance is responsible for) . Performance of the system has dropped considerably with 10 yrs of data growth: the reason is the deadlocks and specifically deadlock wait times. The deadlock is on the Employee table. I have discovered: In sp_ProcessTrans' execution, it selects from an Employee table 7 times (dont ask) The select is done on a field that is NOT the primary key No index exists on this field. Thus a table scan is performed. 7 times. per transaction So the reason for deadlocks is clear. I created a non-unique ordered clustered index on the field (field looks good, almost unique, NUM(7), very rarely changes). Immediate improvement in the test environment. The problem is that i cannot simulate the deadlocks in a test environment (I'd need 30 workstations; i'd need to simulate 'realistic' activity on those stations, so visualization is out). I need to know if i must schedule downtime. Creating an index shouldn't be a risky operation for MSSQL, but is there any danger (data corruption in transactions/select statements/extra wait time etc) to create this field index on the production database while the transactions are still taking place? (although i can select a time when transactions are fairly quiet through the 30 stations) Are there any hidden dangers i'm not seeing (not looking forward to needing to restore the DB if something goes wrong, restoring would take a lot of time with 10yrs of data).

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• Gap between Navbar and Jumbotron

  - by DDK

  I am building I suppose you could call a template for the site I am going to build however I am still pretty new to bootstrap and thus have trouble figuring which CSS rules are affecting elements etc. The problem I am having is I cannot get the Jumbotron unit to sit flush with the bottom of the navbar. I have found a few questions on here about the same problem but the solutions did not work. Here is my code </head> <body> <div class="row"> <div> <img src="http://placehold.it/1600x300" width="100%"> </div> <!-- Static navbar --> <div class="navbar navbar-default navbar-static-top" role="navigation"> <div class="container"> <div class="navbar-header"> <button type="button" class="navbar-toggle" data-toggle="collapse" data-target=".navbar-collapse"> <span class="sr-only">Toggle navigation</span> <span class="icon-bar"></span> <span class="icon-bar"></span> <span class="icon-bar"></span> </button> </div> <div class="navbar-collapse collapse"> <ul class="nav nav-justified" id="myNav"> <li class="active"><a href="#">Home</a></li> <li><a href="#about">About</a></li> <li><a href="#contact">Contact</a></li> <li><a href="#contact">Services</a></li> </ul> </div><!--/.nav-collapse --> </div> </div> <div class="jumbotron" id="openingtext"> This is where the opening sale text will go </div> <div class="container"> <!-- Example row of columns --> <div class="row"> <div class="col-md-4"> <h2>Heading</h2> <p>Donec id elit non mi porta gravida at eget metus. Fusce dapibus, tellus ac cursus commodo, tortor mauris condimentum nibh, ut fermentum massa justo sit amet risus. Etiam porta sem malesuada magna mollis euismod. Donec sed odio dui. </p> <p><a class="btn btn-default" href="#" role="button">View details &raquo;</a></p> </div> <div class="col-md-4"> <h2>Heading</h2> I would provide the css but as it is all being pulled from an unchanged version of bootstrap and my stylesheet.css has nothing relating to any of these ids etc it seems pointless to do so. I look forward to hearing your solutions guys and girls

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