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  • Are unspecified and undefined behavior required to be consistent between compiles?

    - by sharptooth
    Let's pretend my program contains a specific construct the C++ Standard states to be unspecified behavior. This basically means the implementation has to do something reasonable but is allowed not to document it. But is the implementation required to produce the same behavior every time it compiles a specific construct with unspecified behavior or is it allowed to produce different behavior in different compiles? What about undefined behavior? Let's pretend my program contains a construct that is UB according to the Standard. The implementation is allowed to exhibit any behavior. But can this behavior differ between compiles of the same program on the same compiler with same settings in the same environment? In other words, if I dereference a null pointer on line 78 in file X.cpp and the implementation formats the drive in such case does it mean that it will do the same after the program is recompiled?

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  • How do I left pad a database column in FrontBase?

    - by PleaseStand
    I have a table of items (let's call it WIDGET) that each have their own eight-digit barcode numbers stored in a VARCHAR field (let's call it BARCODE; the table's primary key is in a separate integer field ID). My problem is that some personnel have omitted the leading zeros instead of entering the entire number while others have not. All new data is being entered with all eight digits present, but I would like to update all the existing records (several hundred in all) to eight digits for the sake of consistency. 1 → 00000001 234 → 00000234 5678 → 00005678 00009012 → 00009012 I know FrontBase supports all of SQL-92, but SQL-92 has no function specifically for left-padding strings. I already came up with a solution, but I am posting this question to see if anyone can think of a better way of doing this than I did.

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  • Replacing characters in Ruby string according to some rule

    - by Kyle Kaitan
    In Ruby, I have a string of identical characters -- let's say they're all exclamation points, as in !!!!. I would like to replace the characters at certain indices with '*' if the integer corresponding to that index meets some criteria. For example, let's say I want to replace all the characters whose indices are even numbers and are greater than 3. In the string !!!!!!!! (8 characters long), that results in !!!!*!*! (indices 4 and 6 have been replaced). What's the most compact way to do this?

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  • Sending some byte at time

    - by user1417815
    I'm trying to figure out way to send some amount of text from the string ech time until it reach the end of the string, example: const char* the_string = "hello world, i'm happy to meet you all. Let be friends or maybe more, but nothing less" Output: hello world Output: , i'm happy to meet you all. Output: Let be friends or maybe more Output: , but nothing less stop: no more bytes to send. the problem i have searched google, but didn't understand the examples, i spent 4 days trying find a good way, also that sendt 5 bytes at time, but in case there is less, then send them until you are at the end of the string. please help me out guys, i will accept a C or C++ way, as long it works and well explained.

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  • How to use Joomla to allow users to create/update data on my site?

    - by gromo
    Right now Im using an extension called chronoforms but Im open to anything that works. I can make forms just fine, and it saves the submitted data to a table. Where I am stuck is, how do I then allow my front end users who filled out and submitted the form to go back, view their old answers, change them, and resubmit them or resave them. In order to do this I think I would need to be able to retrieve their last answers from the table on which it is stored, replug the last specific data record for that user only back into the original form on the front end and let the user change and resubmit it? Unless there is a better way to allow the user to change their answers to a form and resave them? If anyone knows how to do this, or if there is a better way I should be going about doing this, (perhaps there is another extension that handles this kind of thing) please let me know. Thanks!

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  • Can we execute methods / code in XCode just like in Visual Studio?

    - by balexandre
    Visual Studio is one of the best developer IDE of all times, and now was improved with multithreading debugging and much more. My question is regarding XCode and the ability to execute code just like we do in Visual Studio. Let's assume an object in a view and I want to run, let's say: [pickerView setHidden:YES]; in a breakpoint just to see if in that break point I could actually hide the object. I can't find any place for this in the XCode Debugger Am I missing something or I can't execute code that is not in the files already? like in Visual Studio Watch List or Immediate Window

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  • Looking for Haskell `group` alternative in F#

    - by Heather
    Haskell group descripted there: http://www.haskell.org/ghc/docs/latest/html/libraries/base/Data-List.html#v:group example : group "Mississippi" = ["M","i","ss","i","ss","i","pp","i"] Is there simple F# way of doing it? I can implement something alike let rec sameCounter (data : list<float>) el same (ss : list<float * int>) = if data.Length > (el + 1) then if data.[el] = data.[el + 1] then sameCounter data (el + 1) <| same + 1 <| ss else if same > 0 then sameCounter data (el + 1) <| 0 <| (data.[el], same) :: ss else sameCounter data (el + 1) <| 0 <| ss else ss let group d = sameCounter d 0 0 [] but it's a bit ugly way I think, is there better variant?

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  • How does SET works with property in C#?

    - by Richard77
    Hello, I'd like to know how set works in a property when it does more than just setting the value of a private member variable. Let's say I've a private member in my class (private int myInt). For instance, I can make sure that the the value returned is not negative get { if(myInt < 0) myInt = 0; return myInt; } With SET, all I can do is affecting the private variable like so set { myInt = value; } I didn't see in any book how I can do more than that. How about if I wan't to do some operation before affecting the value to myInt? Let's say: If the value is negative, affect 0 to myInt. set { //Check if the value is non-negative, otherwise affect the 0 to myInt } Thanks for helping

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  • PHP Detect Pages Genre/Category

    - by Alexwhin
    Hey, I was wondering if their was any sort of way to detect a pages genre/category. Possibly their is a way to find keywords or something? Unfortunately I don't have any idea so far, so I don't have any code to show you. But if anybody has any ideas at all, let me know. Thanks! EDIT @Nican Perhaps their is a way to set, let's say 10 category's (Entertainment, Funny, Tech). Then creating keywords for these category's (Funny = Laughter, Funny, Joke etc). Then searching through a webpage (maybe using a cUrl) for these keywords and assigning it to the right category. Hope that makes sense.

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  • Handling macro redefinition without modifying .h files ... C / C++ language

    - by user310119
    Background: Let assume that I have two header files a.h and b.h. a.h contains: #define VAR 1 b.h contains: #define VAR 2 Note: The name of both of the macro is same. Let say I have some file myFile.c which includes both of the header files i.e. a.h and b.h. When I try to access VAR, I get a redefinition error of VAR. In order to resolve this problem, I inserted #ifndef VAR statement in both a.h and b.h files to prevent this error. a.h file becomes #ifndef VAR #define VAR 1 #endif b.h file becomes #ifndef VAR #define VAR 2 #endif Note: The header file can contain multiple macros, not just one macro. Problem: Let's assume that a.h and b.h files are obtained from third party library. These files don't contain #ifndef VAR statement. I am not allowed to change their header files. Can I resolve macro 'VAR' redefinition error in myFile.c or myFile.cpp file which uses VAR macro? I know I #undef VAR can be used to undefine a macro VAR. How can I selectively include VAR later in my program? i.e. on line 10 of myFile.c code I should be able to refer to VAR definition from a.h file, on line 15 of my code I should be able to refer to VAR from b.h file and on line 18 again I should be able to refer to VAR from a.h file. In short, am I able to do macro polymorphism ? Given a name of header file, it should refer to macro definition present in that file. I thought of using namespace trick to resolve an issue. Define first header file in namespace first and second header file in namespace second. I tried defining two namespaces. First namespace contains #include a.h and second namespace contains b.h. However, namespace trick does not work with macro. When I tried to access firstns::VAR, compiler reports an error message. Can you please suggest some way?

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  • Make array from $_POST values

    - by cbarg
    Let's start telling that I'm passing an x amount of variables via post from a form. Let's name them menu_category_1, menu_category_2, ..., menu_category_x, plus, maybe, menu_category_new (I'm using an if empty to check this last one variable). To make things easier I'm also sending the parameter $key (amount of variables starting from 0). Now I need to set them into a new variable $menu_category (array), which is going to be imploded and then update my database. How do I set up that new $menu_category variable to be an array containing all my variables named in the beginning? I was thinking of using a for loop but I can't come up with something useful. Thanks!!!

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  • Clojure: find repetition

    - by demi
    Let we have a list of integers: 1, 2, 5, 13, 6, 5, 7 and I want to find the first number has a duplicate before it and return a vector of two indices, In my sample, it's 5 at [2, 5]. What I did so far is loop, but can I do it more elegant, short way? (defn get-cycle [xs] (loop [[x & xs_rest] xs, indices {}, i 0] (if (nil? x) [0 i] ; Sequence is over before we found a duplicate. (if-let [x_index (indices x)] [x_index i] (recur xs_rest (assoc indices x i) (inc i)))))) No need to return number itself, because I can get it by index and, second, it may be not always there.

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  • rails - REST or create another method

    - by user1304740
    Let's assume we have two models linked with a 1-to-many relationship (like clients and invoices - a client can have many invoices). In a view of a 'client' (let's say the 'show' view), there is a form to capture an 'invoice'. I found 2 approaches: This form should be handled by the 'invoice' controller (method create), having client_id passed as a parameter This form should be handled by a new method in 'client' controller, probably a PUT method defined in routes.rb. Is there a 'Rails way', or both of them are good? Is there a preffered way? Thanks!

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  • How can I start a new glutMainLoop() after exiting one?

    - by angaran
    I've written a PERL script using OpenGL. It calls glutMainLoop() to let the user view some stuff, then the user closes the window but I want to let him continue using the script and reopening a new window and seeing some other stuff. Is that possible? I've found that it is possible to execute this instruction: glutSetOption(GLUT_ACTION_ON_WINDOW_CLOSE,GLUT_ACTION_GLUTMAINLOOP_RETURNS); to return to the code after the window is closed. But then if I call again a glut* function it tells me that I can't call it without calling glutInit and if I call glutInit it tells me that I can't just call it again! Is there some trick?

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  • Select value from database and store into a temporary variable

    - by user1616230
    I want to select a stored value from database and then put it into a temporary variable. For example, I have a column called category, one value under it is m, so I want to select this m value from the database, let's say from a table of a database called user_info. Then I want to put it into a variable, let's name it $res. After that, I want to do some condition stuff, such as if $res=="m", Can anyone help me write a simple structure here? Here is the code: <?php $sql = "Select category FROM user_info WHERE user_name = '" .$_SESSION['username']."' and password = '".$_SESSION['password']."'"; $res = mysql_query($sql); if($res == "a"){ include('MPIncomeStrategy.php'); } if($res == "b"){ include('MPIncomeStrategy.php'); } But it seems that the code is not able to detect $res =="category value in database". Did I just use the wrong way to store the category value?

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  • Vim: `cd` to path stored in variable

    - by tsyu80
    I'm pretty new to vim, and I'm having a hard time understanding some subtleties with vim scripting. Specifically, I'm having trouble working with commands that expect an unquoted-string (is there a name for this?). For example cd some/unquoted/string/path The problem is that I'd like to pass a variable, but calling let pathname = 'some/path' cd pathname will try to change the current directory to 'pathname' instead of 'some/path'. One way around this is to use let cmd = 'cd ' . pathname execute cmd but this seems a bit roundabout. This StackOverflow question actually uses cd with a variable, but it doesn't work on my system ("a:path" is treated as the path as described above). I'm using cd as a specific example, but this behavior isn't unique to cd; for example, the edit command also behaves this way. (Is there a name for this type of command?)

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  • Is there really a need for encryption to have true wireless security? [closed]

    - by Cawas
    I welcome better key-wording here, both on tags and title. I'm trying to conceive a free, open and secure network environment that would work anywhere, from big enterprises to small home networks of just 1 machine. I think since wireless Access Points are the most, if not only, true weak point of a Local Area Network (let's not consider every other security aspect of having internet) there would be basically two points to consider here: Having an open AP for anyone to use the internet through Leaving the whole LAN also open for guests to be able to easily read (only) files on it, and even a place to drop files on Considering these two aspects, once everything is done properly... What's the most secure option between having that, or having just an encrypted password-protected wifi? Of course "both" would seem "more secure". But it shouldn't actually be anything substantial. That's the question, but I think it may need more elaborating on. If you don't think so, please feel free to skip the next (long) part. Elaborating more on the two aspects ... I've always had the feeling using any kind of the so called "wireless security" methods is actually a bad design. I'm talking mostly about encrypting and pass-phrasing (which are actually two different concepts), since I won't even consider hiding SSID and mac filtering. I understand it's a natural way of thinking. With cable networking nobody can access the network unless they have access to the physical cable, so you're "secure" in the physical way. In a way, encrypting is for wireless what building walls is for the cables. And giving pass-phrases would be adding a door with a key. But the cabling without encryption is also insecure. If someone plugin all the data is right there. So, while I can see the use for encrypting data, I don't think it's a security measure in wireless networks. It's wasting resources for too little gain. I believe we should encrypt only sensitive data regardless of wires. That's already done with HTTPS, so I don't really need to encrypt my torrents, for instance. They're torrents, they are meant to be freely shared! As for using passwords, they should be added to the users, always. Not to wifi. For securing files, truly, best solution is backup. Sure all that doesn't happen that often, but I won't consider the most situations where people just don't care. I think there are enough situations where we actually use passwords on our OS users, so let's go with that in mind. I keep promoting the Fonera concept as an instance. It opens up a free wifi port, if you choose so, and anyone can connect to the internet through that, without having any access to your LAN. It also uses a QoS which will never let your bandwidth drop from that public usage. That's security, and it's open. But it's lacking the second aspect. I'll probably be bashed for promoting the non-usage of WPA 2 with AES or whatever, but I wanted to know from more experienced (super) users out there: what do you think?

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  • Mac OS X 10.8 VPN Server: Bypass VPN for LAN traffic (routing LAN traffic to secondary connection)

    - by Dan Robson
    I have somewhat of an odd setup for a VPN server with OS X Mountain Lion. It's essentially being used as a bridge to bypass my company's firewall to our extranet connection - certain things our team needs to do require unfettered access to the outside, and changing IT policies to allow traffic through the main firewall is just not an option. The extranet connection is provided through a Wireless-N router (let's call it Wi-Fi X). My Mac Mini server is configured with the connection to this router as the primary connection, thus unfettered access to the internet via the router. Connections to this device on the immediate subnet are possible through the LAN port, but outside the subnet things are less reliable. I was able to configure the VPN server to provide IP addresses to clients in the 192.168.11.150-192.168.11.200 range using both PPTP and L2TP, and I'm able to connect to the extranet through the VPN using the standard Mac OS X VPN client in System Preferences, however unsurprisingly, a local address (let's call it internal.company.com) returns nothing. I tried to bypass the limitation of the VPN Server by setting up Routes in the VPN settings. Our company uses 13.x.x.x for all internal traffic, instead of 10.x.x.x, so the routing table looked something like this: IP Address ---------- Subnet Mask ---------- Configuration 0.0.0.0 248.0.0.0 Private 8.0.0.0 252.0.0.0 Private 12.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 Private 13.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 Public 14.0.0.0 254.0.0.0 Private 16.0.0.0 240.0.0.0 Private 32.0.0.0 224.0.0.0 Private 64.0.0.0 192.0.0.0 Private 128.0.0.0 128.0.0.0 Private I was under the impression that if nothing was entered here, all traffic was routed through the VPN. With something entered, only traffic specifically marked to go through the VPN would go through the VPN, and all other traffic would be up to the client to access using its own default connection. This is why I had to specifically mark every subnet except 13.x.x.x as Private. My suspicion is that since I can't reach the VPN server from outside the local subnet, it's not making a connection to the main DNS server and thus can't be reached on the larger network. I'm thinking that entering hostnames like internal.company.com aren't kicked back to the client to resolve, because the server has no idea that the IP address falls in the public range, since I suspect (probably should ping test it but don't have access to it right now) that it can't reach the DNS server to find out anything about that hostname. It seems to me that all my options for resolving this all boil down to the same type of solution: Figure out how to reach the DNS with the secondary connection on the server. I'm thinking that if I'm able to do [something] to get my server to recognize that it should also check my local gateway (let's say Server IP == 13.100.100.50 and Gateway IP == 13.100.100.1). From there Gateway IP can tell me to go find DNS Server at 13.1.1.1 and give me information about my internal network. I'm very confused about this path -- really not sure if I'm even making sense. I thought about trying to do this client side, but that doesn't make sense either, since that would add time to each and every client side setup. Plus, it just seems more logical to solve it on the server - I could either get rid of my routing table altogether or keep it - I think the only difference would be that internal traffic would also go through the server - probably an unnecessary burden on it. Any help out there? Or am I in over my head? Forward proxy or transparent proxy is also an option for me, although I have no idea how to set either of those up. (I know, Google is my friend.)

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  • How to use Public IP in case of two ISP when two differs from each other

    - by user1471995
    Please bare with my long explanation but this is important to explain the actual problem. Please also pardon my knowledge with PFsense as i am new to this. I have single PFSense box with 3 Ethernet adapter. Before moving to configuration for these, i want to let you know i have two Ethernet based Internet Leased Line Connectivity let's call them ISP A and ISP B. Then last inetrface is LAN which is connected to network switch. Typical network diagram ISP A ----- PFSense ----> Switch ---- > Servers ISP B ----- ISP A (Initially Purchased) WAN IP:- 113.193.X.X /29 Gateway IP :- 113.193.X.A and other 4 usable public IP in same subnet(So the gateway for those IP are also same). ISP B (Recently Purchased) WAN IP:- 115.115.X.X /30 Gateway IP :- 115.115.X.B and other 5 usable public IP in different subnet(So the gateway for those IP is different), for example if 115.119.X.X2 is one of the IP from that list then the gateway for this IP is 115.119.X.X1. Configuration for 3 Interfaces Interface : WAN Network Port : nfe0 Type : Static IP Address : 113.193.X.X /29 Gateway : 113.193.X.A Interface : LAN Network Port : vr0 Type : Static IP Address : 192.168.1.1 /24 Gateway : None Interface : RELWAN Network Port : rl0 Type : Static IP Address : 115.115.X.X /30 (I am not sure of the subnet) Gateway : 115.115.X.B To use Public IP from ISP A i have done following steps a) Created Virtual IP using either ARP or IP Alias. b) Using Firewall: NAT: Port Forward i have created specific natting from one public IP to my internal Lan private IP for example :- WAN TCP/UDP * * 113.193.X.X1 53 (DNS) 192.168.1.5 53 (DNS) WAN TCP/UDP * * 113.193.X.X1 80 (HTTP) 192.168.1.5 80 (HTTP) WAN TCP * * 113.193.X.X2 80 (HTTP) 192.168.1.7 80 (HTTP) etc., c) Current state for Firewall: NAT: Outbound is Manual and whatever default rule are defined for the WAN those are only present. d) If this section in relevant then for Firewall: Rules at WAN tab then following default rule has been generated. * RFC 1918 networks * * * * * Block private networks * Reserved/not assigned by IANA * * * * * * To use Public IP from ISP B i have done following steps a) Created Virtual IP using either ARP or IP Alias. b) Using Firewall: NAT: Port Forward i have created specific natting from one public IP to my internal Lan private IP for example :- RELWAN TCP/UDP * * 115.119.116.X.X1 80 (HTTP) 192.168.1.11 80 (HTTP) c) Current state for Firewall: NAT: Outbound is Manual and whatever default rule are defined for the RELWAN those are only present. d) If this section in relevant then for Firewall: Rules at RELWAN tab then following default rule has been generated. * RFC 1918 networks * * * * * * Reserved/not assigned by IANA * * * * * * Last thing before my actual query is to make you aware that to have multiple Wan setup i have done following steps a) Under System: Gateways at Groups Tab i have created new group as following MultipleGateway WANGW, RELWAN Tier 2,Tier 1 Multiple Gateway Test b) Then Under Firewall: Rules at LAN tab i have created a rule for internal traffic as follows * LAN net * * * MultipleGateway none c) This setup works if unplug first ISP traffic start routing using ISP 2 and vice-versa. Now my main query and problem is i am not able to use public IP address allocated by ISP B, i have tried many small tweaks but not successful in anyone. The notable difference between the two ISP is a) In case of ISP A there Public usable IP address are on same subnet so the gateway used for the WAN ip is same for the other public IP address. b) In case of ISP B there public usable IP address are on different subnet so the obvious the gateway IP for them is different from WAN gateway's IP. Please let me know how to use ISP B public usable IP address, in future also i am going to rely for more IPs from ISP B only.

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