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• WCF Custom SOAP Header Issues

  - by WayneC

  I'm trying to implement an endpoint behavior which injects a custom SOAP header into all messages to and from a service. I've gotten pretty close by implementing the approach from the accepted answer of this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/986455/wcf-wsdl-soap-header-on-all-operations/995951#995951 After implementing that solution, my custom SOAP header does indeed show up in the WSDL; however, when I try to call the methods on my service, I get the following exception/fault: <ExceptionDetail xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.ServiceModel" xmlns:i="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <HelpLink i:nil="true" /> <InnerException i:nil="true" /> <Message>Index was outside the bounds of the array.</Message> <StackTrace> at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DataContractSerializerOperationFormatter.AddHeadersToMessage(Message message, MessageDescription messageDescription, Object[] parameters, Boolean isRequest) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.OperationFormatter.SerializeReply(MessageVersion messageVersion, Object[] parameters, Object result) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.SerializeOutputs(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.InvokeBegin(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage5(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage3(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage2(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage1(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.MessageRpc.Process(Boolean isOperationContextSet)</StackTrace> <Type>System.IndexOutOfRangeException</Type> </ExceptionDetail> Looking in Reflector at the DataContractSerializerOperationFormatter.AddHeadersToMessage method thats throwing the exception, leads me to believe that the following snippet is causing the problem...but I'm not sure why. MessageHeaderDescription description = (MessageHeaderDescription) headerPart.Description; object parameterValue = parameters[description.Index]; I think the last line above is throwing the exception. The parameters variable is from IDispatchFormatter.SerializeReply What's going on?!?!! Any help would be greatly appreciated...

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• Error while compiling pjsip 2 for cxode 4.3.2 and SDK 5.1

  - by Linus Persson

  I'm trying to compile pjsip version 2 using the terminal and I'm getting constant error no matter what I try. Been looking for the answer all over the internet including stackoverflow. I downloaded pjsip version 2 using their subversion repository today so all files should be up to date. When following this guide: http://trac.pjsip.org/repos/wiki/Getting-Started/iPhone I get this error after running "make dep && make clean && make": ld: symbol(s) not found for architecture armv7 collect2: ld returned 1 exit status make[2]: *** [../bin/pjsua-arm-apple-darwin9] Error 1 make[1]: *** [pjsua] Error 2 make: *** [all] Error 1 When using the above guide combined with this guide: http://lists.pjsip.org/pipermail/pjsip_lists.pjsip.org/2011-October/013481.html I get this error after running "make dep && make clean && make": ld: symbol(s) not found for architecture arm collect2: ld returned 1 exit status make[2]: *** [../bin/pjsua-arm-apple-darwin10] Error 1 make[1]: *** [pjsua] Error 2 make: *** [all] Error 1 I've included /pjlib/include/pj/config_site.h with the following code: #define PJ_CONFIG_IPHONE 1 #include <pj/config_site_sample.h> How do I get pjsip to compile without errors? Please consider that I'm new to this, thank you!

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• mmap only needed pages of kernel buffer to user space

  - by axeoth

  See also this answer: http://stackoverflow.com/a/10770582/1284631 I need something similar, but without having to allocate a buffer: the buffer is large, in theory, but the user space program only needs to access some parts of it (it mocks some registers of a hardware). As I cannot allocate with vmalloc_user() such a large buffer (kernel 32 bit, in embedded environment, no swap...), I followed the same approach as in the quoted answer, trying to allocate only those pages that are really requested by the user space. So: I use a my_mmap() function for the device file (actually, is the .mmap field of a struct uio_info) to set up the fields of the vma, then, in the vm_area_struct's .fault field (also named my_fault()), I should return a page. except that: In the my_fault() method of vm_area_struct, I cannot obtain a page through: vmf->page=vmalloc_to_page(my_buf + (vmf->pgoff << PAGE_SHIFT)); since there is no allocated buffer: my_buf = vmalloc_user(MY_BUF_SIZE); fails with "allocation failed: out of vmalloc space - use vmalloc= to increase size." (and there is no room or swap to increase that vmalloc= parameter). So, I would need to get a page from the kernel and fill the vmf->page field. How to allocate a page (I assume that the offset of the page is known, as it is vm->pgoff). What base memory should I use instead of my_buf? PS: I also did set up the vma->flags |= VM_NORESERVE; (in the my_mmap()), but not sure if it helps. Is there any vmalloc_user_unreserved()-like function? (let's say, lazy allocation) Also, writing 1 to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_memory and large values (eg 500) to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_ratio before trying to my_buf=vmalloc_user(<large_size>) didn't work.

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• Radio buttons being reset in FF on cache-refresh

  - by Andrew Song

  (This is technically an addendum to an earlier StackOverflow question I had posted, but my original post asked a different question which doesn't really cover this topic -- I don't want to edit my older question as I feel this is different enough to merit its own page) While browsing my website in Firefox 3.5 (and only FF3.5), I come across a page with two radio buttons that have the following HTML code: <input id="check1" type="radio" value="True" name="check" checked="checked"/> <input id="check2" type="radio" value="False" name="check"/> This page renders as expected, with 'check1' checked and 'check2' unchecked. When I then go to refresh the page by pressing Control + R, the two radio buttons render, but they are both unchecked even though the raw HTML code is the same (as above). If I do a cache-miss refresh (via Control + F5 or Control + Shift + R), the page returns back to the way you'd expect it. This is not a problem in any other browser I've tried except FF3.5. What is causing these radio buttons to be reset on a normal refresh? How can I avoid this?

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• To OpenID or not to OpenID? Is it worth it?

  - by Eloff

  Does OpenID improve the user experience? Edit Not to detract from the other comments, but I got one really good reply below that outlined 3 advantages of OpenID in a rational bottom line kind of way. I've also heard some whisperings in other comments that you can get access to some details on the user through OpenID (name? email? what?) and that using that it might even be able to simplify the registration process by not needing to gather as much information. Things that definitely need to be gathered in a checkout process: Full name Email (I'm pretty sure I'll have to ask for these myself) Billing address Shipping address Credit card info There may be a few other things that are interesting from a marketing point of view, but I wouldn't ask the user to manually enter anything not absolutely required during the checkout process. So what's possible in this regard? /Edit (You may have noticed stackoverflow uses OpenID) It seems to me it is easier and faster for the user to simply enter a username and password in a signup form they have to go through anyway. I mean you don't avoid entering a username and password either with OpenID. But you avoid the confusion of choosing a OpenID provider, and the trip out to and back from and external site. With Microsoft making Live ID an OpenID provider (More Info), bringing on several hundred million additional accounts to those provided by Google, Yahoo, and others, this question is more important than ever. I have to require new customers to sign up during the checkout process, and it is absolutely critical that the experience be as easy and smooth as possible, every little bit harder it becomes translates into lost sales. No geek factor outweighs cold hard cash at the end of the day :) OpenID seems like a nice idea, but the implementation is of questionable value. What are the advantages of OpenID and is it really worth it in my scenario described above?

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• DataGridView not displaying data in ToolStripControlHost

  - by jblaske

  I'm utilizing the code posted by Jesper Palm here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/280891/make-user-control-display-outside-of-form-boundry /// <summary> /// A simple popup window that can host any System.Windows.Forms.Control /// </summary> public class PopupWindow : System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripDropDown { private System.Windows.Forms.Control _content; private System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripControlHost _host; public PopupWindow(System.Windows.Forms.Control content) { //Basic setup... this.AutoSize = false; this.DoubleBuffered = true; this.ResizeRedraw = true; this._content = content; this._host = new System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripControlHost(content); //Positioning and Sizing this.MinimumSize = content.MinimumSize; this.MaximumSize = content.Size; this.Size = content.Size; content.Location = Point.Empty; //Add the host to the list this.Items.Add(this._host); } } I've translated it to VB: Public Class PopupWindow Inherits System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripDropDown Private _content As System.Windows.Forms.Control Private _host As System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripControlHost Public Sub New(ByVal content As System.Windows.Forms.Control) Me.AutoSize = False Me.DoubleBuffered = True Me.ResizeRedraw = True Me._content = content Me._host = New System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripControlHost(content) Me.MinimumSize = content.MinimumSize Me.MaximumSize = content.MaximumSize Me.Size = content.Size content.Location = Point.Empty Me.Items.Add(Me._host) End Sub End Class It works great with a PictureBox showing its information. But for some reason I cannot get the DataGridView to display anything when it is in the popup. If I pull the grid out of the popup it displays all of its information fine. If I pause during debug, the grid shows that it has all the data in it. It's just not displaying anything. Does anybody have any ideas?

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• Django: Determining if a user has voted or not

  - by TheLizardKing

  I have a long list of links that I spit out using the below code, total votes, submitted by, the usual stuff but I am not 100% on how to determine if the currently logged in user has voted on a link or not. I know how to do this from within my view but do I need to alter my below view code or can I make use of the way templates work to determine it? I have read http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1528583/django-vote-up-down-method but I don't quite understand what's going on ( and don't need any ofjavascriptery). Models (snippet): class Link(models.Model): category = models.ForeignKey(Category, blank=False, default=1) user = models.ForeignKey(User) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) modified = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) url = models.URLField(max_length=1024, unique=True, verify_exists=True) name = models.CharField(max_length=512) def __unicode__(self): return u'%s (%s)' % (self.name, self.url) class Vote(models.Model): link = models.ForeignKey(Link) user = models.ForeignKey(User) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) def __unicode__(self): return u'%s vote for %s' % (self.user, self.link) Views (snippet): def hot(request): links = Link.objects.select_related().annotate(votes=Count('vote')).order_by('-created') for link in links: delta_in_hours = (int(datetime.now().strftime("%s")) - int(link.created.strftime("%s"))) / 3600 link.popularity = ((link.votes - 1) / (delta_in_hours + 2)**1.5) if request.user.is_authenticated(): try: link.voted = Vote.objects.get(link=link, user=request.user) except Vote.DoesNotExist: link.voted = None links = sorted(links, key=lambda x: x.popularity, reverse=True) links = paginate(request, links, 15) return direct_to_template( request, template = 'links/link_list.html', extra_context = { 'links': links, }) The above view actually accomplishes what I need but in what I believe to be a horribly inefficient way. This causes the dreaded n+1 queries, as it stands that's 33 queries for a page containing just 29 links while originally I got away with just 4 queries. I would really prefer to do this using Django's ORM or at least .extra(). Any advice?

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• Safari Web Inspector is not updating when I update an element with ajax

  - by Ashley

  I have a checkout page http://www.oipolloi.com/oipolloi/shop/viewbasket.php with multiple ajax calls after certain items update (EG look up postage cost when country is changed, then update discount boxes etc). I've asked for help in the past about the best method of making sure ALL calls have returned before allowing the form to be submitted for payment processing: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2290372/how-do-i-prevent-form-submission-until-multiple-ajax-calls-have-finished-jquery I was fairly happy that the logic in the finished solution was correct, but I have still been receiving reports that people using Safari are able to submit the form without the ajax calls returning properly. I have tried using the Safari Web Inspector to debug but it seems that when you Inspect Element, then update an element with an ajax call, the Inspector doesn't seem to update. I am updating hidden fields, so it's hard to be able to know whether the problem lies with the DOM not being updated properly, or the Inspector itself. I'm using Safari 4.0.5 on PC and you can reproduce the problem above by looking for a div id="countryFieldsBilling" with Web Inspector. It should contain three hidden fields that are initially empty. You can try to make it update (or not) by choosing a country from the select menu at the bottom of 'Shipping Address' box, and then clicking the 'click to use Shipping Address' link at the top of the 'Billing Address' just below. The behaviour I am seeing is that the country chosen in the shipping select gets copied correctly to the country in the billing select, but the hidden inputs in the Web Inspector do not get updated. When these hidden inputs do not get updated, this causes the problem that Mac Safari users report. If you can let me know either how to get Web Inspector to work properly, or something else I may have missed in the behaviour of Mac Safari that may cause these problems, that would be great. Thanks in advance

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• ADO.NET DataTable/DataRow Thread Safety

  - by Allen E. Scharfenberg

  Introduction A user reported to me this morning that he was having an issue with inconsistent results (namely, column values sometimes coming out null when they should not be) of some parallel execution code that we provide as part of an internal framework. This code has worked fine in the past and has not been tampered with lately, but it got me to thinking about the following snippet: Code Sample lock (ResultTable) { newRow = ResultTable.NewRow(); } newRow["Key"] = currentKey; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, object> output in outputs) { object resultValue = output.Value; newRow[output.Name] = resultValue != null ? resultValue : DBNull.Value; } lock (ResultTable) { ResultTable.Rows.Add(newRow); } (No guarantees that that compiles, hand-edited to mask proprietery information.) Explanation We have this cascading type of locking code other places in our system, and it works fine, but this is the first instance of cascading locking code that I have come across that interacts with ADO .NET. As we all know, members of framework objects are usually not thread safe (which is the case in this situation), but the cascading locking should ensure that we are not reading and writing to ResultTable.Rows concurrently. We are safe, right? Hypothesis Well, the cascading lock code does not ensure that we are not reading from or writing to ResultTable.Rows at the same time that we are assigning values to columns in the new row. What if ADO .NET uses some kind of buffer for assigning column values that is not thread safe--even when different object types are involved (DataTable vs. DataRow)? Has anyone run into anything like this before? I thought I would ask here at StackOverflow before beating my head against this for hours on end :) Conclusion Well, the consensus appears to be that changing the cascading lock to a full lock has resolved the issue. That is not the result that I expected, but the full lock version has not produced the issue after many, many, many tests. The lesson: be wary of cascading locks used on APIs that you do not control. Who knows what may be going on under the covers!

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• identify accounts using zend-openid [HELP]

  - by tawfekov

  Hi! , i had successfully implemented simple open ID authentication with the [gmail , yahoo , myopenid, aol and many others ] exactly as stackoverflow do but i had a problem with identifying accounts for example 'openid_ns' => string 'http://specs.openid.net/auth/2.0' (length=32) 'openid_mode' => string 'id_res' (length=6) 'openid_op_endpoint' => string 'https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/ud' (length=37) 'openid_response_nonce' => string '2010-05-02T06:35:40Z9YIASispxMvKpw' (length=34) 'openid_return_to' => string 'http://dev.local/download/index/gettingback' (length=43) 'openid_assoc_handle' => string 'AOQobUf_2jrRKQ4YZoqBvq5-O9sfkkng9UFxoE9SEBlgWqJv7Sq_FYgD7rEXiLLXhnjCghvf' (length=72) 'openid_signed' => string 'op_endpoint,claimed_id,identity,return_to,response_nonce,assoc_handle' (length=69) 'openid_sig' => string 'knieEHpvOc/Rxu1bkUdjeE9YbbFX3lqZDOQFxLFdau0=' (length=44) 'openid_identity' => string 'https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=AItOawk0NAa51T3xWy-oympGpxFj5CftFsmjZpY' (length=80) 'openid_claimed_id' => string 'https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=AItOawk0NAa51T3xWy-oympGpxFj5CftFsmjZpY' (length=80) i thought that openid_claimed_id or openid_identity is identical for every account but after some testing turns out the claimed id is changeable by the users them self in yahoo and randomly changing in case of gmail FYI am using zend openid with a bit modification on consumer class and i can't use SERG [Simple Refistration Extension] cuz currently it uses openid v1 specification :( i hadn't read the specification of openid so if any body know please help me to how to identify openid accounts to know if this account has signed in before or not

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• Subclassing ViewPager Breaks Animation

  - by Ryan Thomas

  In my Android application I have an activity which uses a view pager to display 4+ pages (Fragments). I implemented buttons on each screen that move between pages by calling: pager.setCurrentItem(position, true); The view pager and fragments are all working as I desired. I then began looking for a solution to disable user swiping between pages so that the transition between pages in handled by the buttons only. The solution I found was mentioned in a few stackoverflow articles as well as This Blog that suggest subclassing the view pager to intercept touch events to disable swiping. I followed those examples by subclassing the view pager class as follows: public class ViewPager extends android.support.v4.view.ViewPager { private boolean enabled; public ViewPager(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { super(context, attrs); this.enabled = true; } @Override public boolean onTouchEvent(MotionEvent event) { if (this.enabled) { return super.onTouchEvent(event); } return false; } @Override public boolean onInterceptTouchEvent(MotionEvent event) { if (this.enabled) { return super.onInterceptTouchEvent(event); } return false; } public void setSwipingEnabled(boolean enabled) { this.enabled = enabled; } } Using the subclassed view pager and calling setSwipingEnabled(false) works as was desired. The user can no longer move between pages with swipe gestures and I can still move between pages via button clicks by calling setCurrentItem(int position, boolean smoothScroll). However using the subclass breaks the animation between pages. When I call setCurrentItem(position, true) with android.support.v4.view.ViewPager I get very clean scrolling animations between pages. When I make the same call using the subclass the screen has a very brief 'flash' and then automatically draws the new page. I would like to know how to fix the animation while retaining the ability to disable user swiping between pages. I greatly appreciate any help with this. Let me know if you need any additional information. So far I have tested using a Samsung device running 2.3.5 and an AVD emulator targeting Android 2.3.3.

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• jQuery - Creating a dynamic content loader using $.get()

  - by Kenny Bones

  Hello everybody! (hello dr.Nick) :) So I posted a question yesterday about a content loader plugin for jQuery I thought I'd use, but didn't get it to work. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2469291/jquery-could-use-a-little-help-with-a-content-loader Although it works now, I see some disadvantages to it. It requires heaploads of files where the content is in. Since the code essentially picks up the url in the href link and searches that file for a div called #content What I would really like to do is to collect all of these files into a single file and give each div/container it's unique ID and just pick up the content from those. So i won't need so many separate files laying around. Nick Craver thought I should use $.get()instead since it's got a descent callback. But I'm not that strong in js at all.. And I don't even know what this means. I'm basically used to Visual Basic and passing of arguments, storing in txt files etc. Which is really not suitable for this purpose. So what's the "normal" way of doing things like this? I'm pretty sure I'm not the only one who's thought of this right? I basically want to get content from a single php file that contains alot of divs with unique IDs. And without much hassle, fade out the existing content in my main page, pick up the contents from the other file and fade it into my main page.

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• How to register application for existing file types using WiX installer?

  - by Marek

  related to this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/138550/how-to-register-file-types-extensions-with-a-wix-installer but not a duplicate. I need to handle existing file types (.jpg files). I do not want to be the default handler for .jpg, I would just like to extend the "Open with" menu with a link to my app. I see HKCR\.jpg\OpenWithList\ and HKCR\.jpg\OpenWithProgIds\ in the registry but I am not sure whether to write to these and how to do it correctly with WiX. Should I use something like this? <ProgId Id='??what here?' Description='Jpeg handled by my App'> <Extension Id='jpg' ContentType='image/jpeg'> <Verb Id='openwithmyapp' Sequence='10' Command='OpenWithMyApp' Target='[!FileId]' Argument='"%1"' /> </Extension> </ProgId> There are many ways how to fail here (like Photo Mechanics did, the HKCR for image file types is a real mess after I have installed this software) How to do this correctly with WiX?

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• Custom Server to communicate with my software?

  - by Zachary Brown

  I am working on a major project that I need for work. I am working on a project that requires software validation. I would like this to be handled by a custom server I will write in Python, this server will be the "gateway" between the user and product activation. The software program will be purchased from other companies in volume licensing. So this is what I need the server to do: 1). The user clicks to activate their software. (easy, all is good so far) 2). The software gets the distributor's id from another online server. ( this is also easy, and already coded.) 3). Then, the software asks my custom server if the distributor is allowed to activate anymore copies of the software. 4). The server will then check ( an online encoded text file ) to see if the distributor can or can't. If they can, it will tell the software that registration can proceede, at which point the software will pass the software serial number to the server. I have done my best to explain what I am trying to accomplish, but if something is not quite sensible, please let me know. Thanks to all members of Stackoverflow.com for the help in the past, and those who will help me now. I am using Python 2.6 Win. XP Home Edition

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• How do I override a python import?

  - by Evan Plaice

  So I'm working on pypreprocessor which is a preprocessor that takes c-style directives and I've been able to make it work like a traditional preprocessor (it's self-consuming and executes postprocessed code on-the-fly) except that it breaks library imports. The problem is. The preprocessor runs through the file, processes' it, outputs to a temp file, and exec() the temp file. Libraries that are imported need to be handled a little different because they aren't executed but rather loaded and made accessible to the caller module. What I need to be able to do is. Interrupt the import (since the preprocessor is being run in the middle of the import), load the postprocessed code as a tempModule, and replace the original import with the tempModule to trick the calling script with the import into believing that the tempModule is the original module. I have searched everywhere and so far, have no solution. This question is the closest I've seen so far to providing an answer: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1096216/override-namespace-in-python Here's what I have. # remove the bytecode file created by the first import os.remove(moduleName + '.pyc') # remove the first import del sys.modules[moduleName] # import the postprocessed module tmpModule = __import__(tmpModuleName) # set first module's reference to point to the preprocessed module sys.modules[moduleName] = tmpModule moduleName is the name of the original module, tmpModuleName is the name of the postprocessed code file. The strange part is, this solution still runs completely normal as if the first module completed loaded normally; unless you remove the last line, then you get a module not found error. Hopefully someone on SO know a lot more about imports than I do because this one has me stumped.

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• problem configure JBoss to work with JNDI(2)

  - by Spiderman

  in continuation to the question from last week: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2828237/problem-configure-jboss-to-work-with-jndi I'm trying to bind datasource in JBoss and use it in my application. In my struggling, I already managed to avoid the javax.naming.NameNotFoundException by: 1. using in java new InitialContext().lookup(connection); instead of new JndiObjectFactoryBean().setJndiName(connection); 2. changing the connection name from: 'jndi-name' to 'java:jndi-name' Now the problem is that the datasouce that I get from the lookup is null. I created the datsource file: <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>bilby</jndi-name> <connection-url>jdbc:oracle:myURL</connection-url> <driver-class>oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver </driver-class> <user-name>myUsername</user-name> <password>myPassword</password> <exception-sorter-class- name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.OracleExceptionSorter</exception-sorter-class-name> <metadata> <type-mapping>Oracle9i</type-mapping> </metadata> </local-tx-datasource> </datasources> and put it under \server\default\deploy\oracle-ds.xml I get during runtime the line: 18:37:56,560 INFO [ConnectionFactoryBindingService] Bound ConnectionManager 'jb oss.jca:service=DataSourceBinding,name=bilby' to JNDI name 'java:bilby' So my question is - why do I get null as my datasource???

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• php request variables assigning $_GEt

  - by chris

  if you take a look at a previous question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2690742/mod-rewrite-title-slugs-and-htaccess I am using the solution that Col. Shrapnel proposed- but when i assign values to $_GET in the actual file and not from a request the code doesnt work. It defaults away from the file as if the $_GET variables are not set The code I have come up with is- if(!empty($_GET['cat'])){ $_GET['target'] = "category"; if(isset($_GET['page'])){ $_GET['pageID'] = $_GET['page']; } $URL_query = "SELECT category_id FROM cats WHERE slug = '".$_GET['cat']."';"; $URL_result = mysql_query($URL_query); $URL_array = mysql_fetch_array($URL_result); $_GET['category_id'] = $URL_array['category_id']; }elseif($_GET['product']){ $_GET['target'] = "product"; $URL_query = "SELECT product_id FROM products WHERE slug = '".$_GET['product']."';"; $URL_result = mysql_query($URL_query); $URL_array = mysql_fetch_array($URL_result); print_r($URL_array); $_GET['product_id'] = $URL_array['product_id']; The original variable string that im trying to represent is /cart.php?Target=product&product_id=16142&category_id=249 And i'm trying to build the query string variables with code and including cart.php so i can use cleaner URL's So I have product/product-title-with-clean-url/ going to slug.php?product=slug Then the slug searches the db for a record with the matching slug and returns the product_id as in the code above.Then built the query string and include cart.php

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• Drawing an image in Java, slow as hell on a netbook.

  - by Norswap

  In follow-up to my previous questions (especially this one : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2684123/java-volatileimage-slower-than-bufferedimage), i have noticed that simply drawing an Image (it doesn't matter if it's buffered or volatile, since the computer has no accelerated memory*, and tests shows it's doesn't change anything), tends to be very long. (*) System.out.println(GraphicsEnvironment.getLocalGraphicsEnvironment() .getDefaultScreenDevice().getAvailableAcceleratedMemory()); --> 0 How long ? For a 500x400 image, about 0.04 seconds. This is only drawing the image on the backbuffer (obtained via buffer strategy). Now considering that world of warcraft runs on that netbook (tough it is quite laggy) and that online java games seems to have no problem whatsoever, this is quite thought provoking. I'm quite certain I didn't miss something obvious, I've searched extensively the web, but nothing will do. So do any of you java whiz have an idea of what obscure problem might be causing this (or maybe it is normal, tough I doubt it) ? PS : As I'm writing this I realized this might be cause by my Linux installation (archlinux) tough I have the correct Intel driver. But my computer normally has "Integrated Intel Graphics Media Accelerator 950", which would mean it should have accelerated video memory somehow. Any ideas about this side of things ?

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• XForms relation of 'constraint' and 'required' properties

  - by Danny

  As a reference, the most similar question already asked is: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/8667849/making-xforms-enforce-the-constraint-and-type-model-item-properties-only-when-fi The difference is that I cannot use the relevant properties since I do want the field to be visible and accessible. I'm attempting to make a XForms form that has the following properties: It displays a text field named 'information'. (for the example) This field must not be required, since it may not be necessary to enter data. (Or this data will be entered at a later time.) However, if data is entered in this field, it must adhere to the specified constraint. I cannot mark the field as not relevant since this would hide the field and some data may need to be entered in it. The trouble now is that even though the field has no data in it, the constraint is still enforced (i.e. even though it is not marked as 'required'). I have taken a look at the XForms 1.1 specification, however it does not seem to describe how the properties 'required' and 'constraint' should interact. The only option I see, is to add a part to the constraint such that an empty value is allowed. e.g.: . = '' or <actual-constraint However, I don't like this. It feels like a workaround to add this to every such field. Is there any other way to express that non-required fields should not need to match the constraint for that field? (Am I missing something?)

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• Release edit in QTableWidget Cell

  - by Schomin

  Basically I am trying to give the enter key the same functionality as the return key has when editing a cell in a qtablewidget. If editing a cell and enter is pressed I want it to jump out of editing that cell just like return does. It feels like I've literally tried everything. I've even tried passing a return press event to qcoreapplication. It seems like if your editing a cell and you press a key to trigger an action it wont happen. That seems to be what the problem is and I'm not sure how to get around that. I've been setting up all of my keyboard shortcuts for this program as actions because it seems easier to set up. Is there another way to do this that would allow the key event to happen when editing a cell? Can anyone help out with this? Thank you in advance. Tried this. It didn't work for me. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/518447/how-can-i-tell-a-qtablewidget-to-end-editing-a-cell

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• Unserializing an API return object (PHP/Ebay API)

  - by DavidYell

  I have been working with the Ebay api for a project and have found it great. I have however found a problem now, more PHP related. When I read my items from Ebay, I store a bunch of details in the database. Currently, just for the sake of it really, I serialize the whole return object and store it in the database in a related table. The idea being, that when I display my information, I have all the details to hand should I need them. The problem arises in that the pricing information is always in a sub object. [ConvertedAdjustmentAmount] => __PHP_Incomplete_Class Object ( [__PHP_Incomplete_Class_Name] => eBayAmountType [_] => 0 [currencyID] => USD ) As you can see when I unserialize my object, my cunning plan falls foul of the Incomplete class problem. I have checked the following question, without success. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/965611/forcing-access-to-php-incomplete-class-object-properties The main issue lies, as far as I can see, in that the price class is stored in the Ebay api, so how do I recreate it? I have been reading this page, http://uk3.php.net/manual/en/function.unserialize.php and trying to figure out, unserialize_callback_func which I can't figure out either, so any help would be appreciated!

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• When is a method eligible to be inlined by the CLR?

  - by Ani

  I've observed a lot of "stack-introspective" code in applications, which often implicitly rely on their containing methods not being inlined for their correctness. Such methods commonly involve calls to: MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod Assembly.GetCallingAssembly Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly Now, I find the information surrounding these methods to be very confusing. I've heard that the run-time will not inline a method that calls GetCurrentMethod, but I can't find any documentation to that effect. I've seen posts on StackOverflow on several occasions, such as this one, indicating the CLR does not inline cross-assembly calls, but the GetCallingAssembly documentation strongly indicates otherwise. There's also the much-maligned [MethodImpl(MethodImpOptions.NoInlining)], but I am unsure if the CLR considers this to be a "request" or a "command." Note that I am asking about inlining eligibility from the standpoint of contract, not about when current implementations of the JITter decline to consider methods because of implementation difficulties, or about when the JITter finally ends up choosing to inline an eligible method after assessing the trade-offs. I have read this and this, but they seem to be more focused on the last two points (there are passing mentions of MethodImpOptions.NoInlining and "exotic IL instructions", but these seem to be presented as heuristics rather than as obligations). When is the CLR allowed to inline?

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• How do the operators < and > work with pointers?

  - by Øystein

  Just for fun, I had a std::list of const char*, each element pointing to a null-terminated text string, and ran a std::list::sort() on it. As it happens, it sort of (no pun intended) did not sort the strings. Considering that it was working on pointers, that makes sense. According to the documentation of std::list::sort(), it (by default) uses the operator < between the elements to compare. Forgetting about the list for a moment, my actual question is: How do these (, <, =, <=) operators work on pointers in C++ and C? Do they simply compare the actual memory addresses? char* p1 = (char*) 0xDAB0BC47; char* p2 = (char*) 0xBABEC475; e.g. on a 32-bit, little-endian system, p1 p2 because 0xDAB0BC47 0xBABEC475? Testing seems to confirm this, but I thought it'd be good to put it on StackOverflow for future reference. C and C++ both do some weird things to pointers, so you never really know...

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• Why won't WPF databindings show text when ToString() has a collaborating object?

  - by Jay

  In a simple form, I bind to a number of different objects -- some go in listboxes; some in textblocks. A couple of these objects have collaborating objects upon which the ToString() method calls when doing its work -- typically a formatter of some kind. When I step through the code I see that when the databinding is being set up, ToString() is called the collaborating object is not null and returns the expected result when inspected in the debugger, the objects return the expected result from ToString() BUT the text does not show up in the form. The only common thread I see is that these use a collaborating object, whereas the other bindings that show up as expected simply work from properties and methods of the containing object. If this is confusing, here is the gist in code: public class ThisThingWorks { private SomeObject some_object; public ThisThingWorks(SomeObject s) { some_object = s; } public override string ToString() { return some_object.name; } } public class ThisDoesntWork { private Formatter formatter; private SomeObject some_object; public ThisDoesntWork(SomeObject o, Formatter f) { formatter = f; some_object = o; } public override string ToString() { return formatter.Format(some_object.name); } } Again, let me reiterate -- the ToString() method works in every other context -- but when I bind to the object in WPF and expect it to display the result of ToString(), I get nothing. Update: The issue seems to be what I see as a buggy behaviour in the TextBlock binding. If I bind the Text property to a property of the DataContext that is declared as an interface type, ToString() is never called. If I change the property declaration to an implementation of the interface, it works as expected. Other controls, like Label work fine when binding the Content property to a DataContext property declared as either the implementation or the interface. Because this is so far removed from the title and content of this question, I've created a new question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2917878/why-doesnt-textblock-databinding-call-tostring-on-a-property-whose-compile-tim

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• Focus-dependent text change for TextBoxes in WPF

  - by Simon

  Hey there. I'm writing an application in WPF using the MVVM-pattern and will really often use TextBoxes. I don't want to use labels for the user to know user what the text box is for, i.e. I don't want something like this: <TextBlock> Name: </TextBlock> <TextBox /> Instead, I would like the TextBox to contain its own label. Statically, you would express it like this: <TextBox>Name</TextBox> If the cursor is displayed in the textbox, i.e. the TextBox gains focus, I want the description text to disappear. If the TextBox is left empty and it loses the focus, the description text should be shown again. It's similar to the search textbox of StackOverflow or the one of Firefox. (please tell me if your not sure what I mean). One TextBox's label may change at runtime, dependending on e.g. a ComboBox's selected element or a value in my ViewModel. (It's like in Firefox's search TextBox, if you select google from the search engins' menu, the TextBox's label changes to "Google", if you select "Yahoo" its set to "Yahoo"). Thus I want to be able to bind the label's content. Consider that I may already have a Binding on the Text-Property of the TextBox. How can implement such a behaviour and make it reusable for any of my TextBox's? Code is welcome but not needed; a description of what to do is enough. Thank you in advance.

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