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  • vimscript: calling dictionary functions with call()

    - by intuited
    I'm hoping to call a "static" dictionary function using call(). By "static" I mean that the keyword 'dict' is not used in the function's definition. I use this nomenclature in the hopes that the effect of this keyword is to declare a static member function as is possible in java/C++/etc, ie to put the function name in the class namespace but allow it to be called without referencing an object. However this doesn't seem to work. For example: " Setup: let testdict = { } funct! testdict.funct() echo "called" endfunct " Tests: " Following each line is an indented comment " containing its output in message land, ie what was echoed. call testdict.funct() " called echo testdict.funct " 667 echo string(testdict.funct) " function('667') echo function('667') " E475: Invalid argument: 667 echo function('testdict.funct') " testdict.funct call call(testdict.funct, [ ]) " E725: Calling dict function without Dictionary: 667 " Same deal if there's an intermediate variable involved. let TestdictDotFunct = testdict.funct echo TestdictDotFunct " 667 echo string(TestdictDotFunct) " function('667') call TestdictDotFunct() " E725: Calling dict function without Dictionary: 667 From the help topic E725: It is also possible to add a function without the "dict" attribute as a Funcref to a Dictionary, but the "self" variable is not available then. So logic would seem to indicate that if "self" is not available, then it should be possible to call the function referenced by the Funcref without a Dictionary. However this doesn't seem to be the case. Am I missing something? Vim version info: $ aptitude show vim-gnome Package: vim-gnome State: installed Automatically installed: no Version: 2:7.2.245-2ubuntu2

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  • IPhone custom UITableViewCell Reloading

    - by Steblo
    Hi, currently I'm struggling with this problem: I got a UITableViewController that displays a tableView with different custom cells. One custom cell displays a number (by a label). If you click on this cell, the navigationController moves to a UIPicker where the user can select the number to be displayes. If the user moves back, the cell should display the updated value. Problem: I managed to reload the cells by calling - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewWillAppear:animated]; [self.tableView reloadData]; } in the UITableViewController. This works only, if I don't use dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier for the cell (tables won't show updates otherwise). But in this case, memory usage grows and grows... In addition, the program crashes after about 15 movements to pickerView and back - I think because the cell that should be reloaded is already released. How can I update a reusable custom cell every time the view appears ? What is the best solution ? I think retaining cells should not be used ?

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  • Adapting existing HTML/Javascript model to Titanium's latest release (v 0.9)

    - by Alan Neal
    In pre-0.9 versions of Titanium, one could simply specify an .html file (local or remote) in the tiapp.xml file and interact with it in the same manner as one would on a website. As of version 0.9, that is no the longer case. One creates their entire app dynamically. Unfortunately, this broke my previous implementation and, other than an updated Kitchen Sink, much of the new model and API calls are not covered in the documentation (e.g., createLabel). So, my question is this... What are the simplest steps for re-creating the previous effect (knowingly forgoing some of the advantages of the Titanium's latest approach if necessary)? My previous implementation was exactly as it functions on the website. The website has a single index.html file with no content other than links to JavaScript and style files. The document body's onload event called the first JavaScript function (located in the main script) and, from that point forth, the entire content was dynamically created. How can I set up the latest version of Titanium so that I am poised to do the exact same thing? BTW: Whereas I previously had the choice to keep the files local or remote, I don't believe that remote access (e.g., simply using the webView widget to point to the website) is viable. That's because pages displayed via the webView do not have access to most of the API. Since the iPhone and Safari browsers do not support the file input type, the only means for uploading files (something my app requires) is calling Titanium's function. Thanks in advance.

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  • Delphi 2010 - Source files randomly become read-only in editor?

    - by Justin
    Does anyone else have this problem or is my Delphi cursed somehow? I'll have a bunch of forms and files open in tabs in the editor and I'll be typing away and then suddenly everything stops - my .pas file has, seemingly at random, become read-only. Sometimes I can just right-click the tab at the top and uncheck "Read-Only" and continue, but sometimes this option is checked and greyed-out (disabled), meaning I can't uncheck it and I can't make any further edits to the file. This too seems to be random. In the latter case, the only solution is to save the file in question, which works, despite Delphi's assertion that the file is read-only, close its tab in the editor, and re-open it. Not catastrophic, really, but it's starting to become annoying. Could it be that I am hitting a keyboard command combination accidentally to do this or is this a bug in Delphi? I'm in Delphi 2010, Windows 7. Doubt it's anything to do with installed packages, but if anyone wants the list I'll generate it and attach it here.

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  • Some general C questions.

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hello. I am trying to fully understand the process pro writing code in some language to execution by OS. In my case, the language would be C and the OS would be Windows. So far, I read many different articles, but I am not sure, whether I understand the process right, and I would like to ask you if you know some good articles on some subjects I couldn´t find. So, what I think I know about C (and basically other languages): C compiler itself handles only data types, basic math operations, pointers operations, and work with functions. By work with functions I mean how to pass argument to it, and how to get output from function. During compilation, function call is replaced by passing arguments to stack, and than if function is not inline, its call is replaced by some symbol for linker. Linker than find the function definition, and replace the symbol to jump adress to that function (and of course than jump back to program). If the above is generally true and I get it right, where to final .exe file actually linker saves the functions? After the main() function? And what creates the .exe header? Compiler or Linker? Now, additional capabilities of C, today known as C standart library is set of functions and the declarations of them, that other programmers wrote to extend and simplify use of C language. But these functions like printf() were (or could be?) written in different language, or assembler. And there comes my next question, can be, for example printf() function be written in pure C without use of assembler? I know this is quite big question, but I just mostly want to know, wheather I am right or not. And trust me, I read a lots of articles on the web, and I would not ask you, If I could find these infromation together on one place, in one article. Insted I must piece by piece gather informations, so I am not sure if I am right. Thanks.

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  • Test Results window in VS2008 not showing results

    - by TimK
    I have an existing solution that has been working for a long time, containing around 600 tests in a couple of test projects. I recently moved to a new PC - it's Win7-x64, and I installed a fresh copy of VS2008. When I first opened the solution on the new machine, the Test List Editor was completely empty. Trying to create a new test list caused the editor to refresh, and now it shows my test lists, but they're acting funny. I can select tests in the lists, and run them, but the results window doesn't usually update automatically to show the results of the latest test. It has done this when running a single test a couple of times, but even that is not consistent. The only way I can view the results is by manually going to the Test Runs window and connecting to individual test runs. When I do that, the results show up in the results list, but I can't check them to re-run the failed tests - the check boxes are all disabled. I guess I should describe the way it used to work, in case that was unusual - I used to select some tests from the Test Lists window, tell it to run them, and the results window would clear itself, and then display the results from the current run. I could then check any tests that I wanted to re-run, and use the run/debug button in the results window to do so. Any ideas what's going on here?

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  • Different versions of JBoss on the same host

    - by Vladimir Bezugliy
    I have JBoss 4 installed on my PC to directory C:\JBoss4 And environment variable JBOSS_HOME set to this directory: JBOSS_HOME=C:\JBoss4 I need to install JBoss 5.1 on the same PC. I installed it into C:\JBoss51 In order to start JBoss 5.1 on the same host where JBoss 4 was already started, I need to redefine properties jboss.home.dir, jboss.home.url, jboss.service.binding.set: C:\JBoss51\bin\run.sh -Djboss.home.dir=C:/JBoss51 \ -Djboss.home.url=file:/C:/JBoss51 \ -Djboss.service.binding.set=ports-01 But in C:\JBoss51\bin\run.sh I can see following code: … if [ "x$JBOSS_HOME" = "x" ]; then # get the full path (without any relative bits) JBOSS_HOME=`cd $DIRNAME/..; pwd` fi export JBOSS_HOME … runjar="$JBOSS_HOME/bin/run.jar" JBOSS_BOOT_CLASSPATH="$runjar" And this code does not depend either on jboss.home.dir or on jboss.home.dir. So when I start JBoss 5.1 script will use jar files from JBoss 4.3? Is it correct? Should I redefine environment variable JAVA_HOME when I start JBoss 5.1? In this case script will use correct jar files. Or if I redefined properties jboss.home.dir, jboss.home.url then JBoss will not use any variables set in run.sh? How does it works?

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  • Troubles Iterating Over A HashMap with JSF, MyFaces & Facelets

    - by Lee Theobald
    Hi all, I'm having some trouble looping over a HashMap to print out it's values to the screen. Could someone double check my code to see what I'm doing wrong. I can't seem to find anything wrong but there must be something. In a servlet, I am adding the following to the request: Map<String, String> facetValues = new HashMap<String, String>(); // Filling the map req.setAttribute(facetField.getName(), facetValues); In one case "facetField.getName()" evaluates to "discipline". So in my page I have the following: <ui:repeat value="${requestScope.discipline}" var="item"> <li>Item: <c:out value="${item}"/>, Key: <c:out value="${item.key}"/>, Value: <c:out value="${item.item}"/></li> </ui:repeat> The loop is ran once but all the outputs are blank?!? I would have at least expected something in item if it's gone over the loop once. Checking the debug popup for Facelets, discipline is there and on the loop. Printing it to the screen results in something that looks like a map to me (I've shortened the output) : {300=0, 1600=0, 200=0, ... , 2200=0} I've also tried with a c:forEach but I'm getting the same results. So does anyone have any ideas where I'm going wrong? Thanks for any input, Lee

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  • C# - Alternative to System.Time.Timer, to call a function at a specific time.

    - by Fábio Antunes
    Hello everybody. I want to call a specific function on my C# application at a specific time. At first i thought about using a Timer (System.Time.Timer), but that soon became impossible to use. Why? Simple. The Timer Class requires a Interval in milliseconds, but considering that i might want the function to be executed, lets says in a week that would mean: 7 Days = 168 hours; 168 Hours = 10,080 minutes; 10,080 Minutes = 6,048,000 seconds; 6,048,000 Seconds = 6,048,000,000 milliseconds; So the Interval would be 6,048,000,000; Now lets remember that the Interval accepted data type is int, and as we know int range goes from -2,147,483,648 to 2,147,483,647. That makes Timer useless in this case once we cannot set a Interval bigger that 2,147,483,647 milliseconds. So i need a solution where i could specify when the function should be called. Something like this: solution.ExecuteAt = "30-04-2010 15:10:00"; solution.Function = "functionName"; solution.Start(); So when the System Time would reach "30-04-2010 15:10:00" the function would be executed in the application. How can this problem be solved? Thanks just by taking the time to read my question. But if you could provide me with some help i would be most grateful. Additional Info: What these functions will do? Getting climate information and based on that info: Starting / Shutting down other Applications (most of them Console Based); Sending custom Commands to those Console Applications; Power down, Rebooting, Sleep, Hibernate the computer; And if possible schedule the BIOS to Power Up the Computer;

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  • Insert video clip in a lyx presentation and play it in GNU/Linux.

    - by Orjanp
    How can I insert a video clip into a presentation created in Lyx? Have seen http://www.latex-community.org/forum/viewtopic.php?f=19&t=48. It works, but there the video starts in the background in an external player. I would prefer it to be played in the presentation itself. If an external player is used it it should at least start in the foreground. But the presentation takes the foreground. Using evince in GNU/linux as pdf viewer. Beamer is used as a presentation template. Is it possible to play a video file in an embedded player in the presentation itself? Created an example presentation. The code is found below. \documentclass[english]{beamer} \usepackage{mathptmx} \usepackage[T1]{fontenc} \usepackage[latin9]{inputenc} \usepackage{amsmath} \usepackage{amssymb} \makeatletter %%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%% Textclass specific LaTeX commands. % this default might be overridden by plain title style \newcommand\makebeamertitle{\frame{\maketitle}}% \AtBeginDocument{ \let\origtableofcontents=\tableofcontents \def\tableofcontents{\@ifnextchar[{\origtableofcontents}{\gobbletableofcontents}} \def\gobbletableofcontents#1{\origtableofcontents} } \makeatletter \long\def\lyxframe#1{\@lyxframe#1\@lyxframestop}% \def\@lyxframe{\@ifnextchar<{\@@lyxframe}{\@@lyxframe<*>}}% \def\@@lyxframe<#1>{\@ifnextchar[{\@@@lyxframe<#1>}{\@@@lyxframe<#1>[]}} \def\@@@lyxframe<#1>[{\@ifnextchar<{\@@@@@lyxframe<#1>[}{\@@@@lyxframe<#1>[<*>][}} \def\@@@@@lyxframe<#1>[#2]{\@ifnextchar[{\@@@@lyxframe<#1>[#2]}{\@@@@lyxframe<#1>[#2][]}} \long\def\@@@@lyxframe<#1>[#2][#3]#4\@lyxframestop#5\lyxframeend{% \frame<#1>[#2][#3]{\frametitle{#4}#5}} \makeatother \def\lyxframeend{} % In case there is a superfluous frame end %%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%% User specified LaTeX commands. \usetheme{Warsaw} \usepackage{hyperref} \makeatother \usepackage{babel} \begin{document} \title{Testing video} \makebeamertitle \lyxframeend{}\section{Testing video} \lyxframeend{}\subsection{Testing video} \lyxframeend{}\lyxframe{Testing video} \href{run:video.wmv}{Movie} \appendix \lyxframeend{} \end{document}

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  • php/mongodb: how does references work in php?

    - by harald
    hello, i asked this in the mongodb user-group, but was not satisfied with the answer, so -- maybe someone at stackoverflow can enlighten me: the question was: $b = array('x' => 1); $ref = &$b; $collection->insert($ref); var_dump($ref); $ref does not contain '_id', because it's a reference to $b, the handbook states. (the code snippet is taken from the php mongo documentation) i should add, that: $b = array('x' => 1); $ref = $b; $collection->insert($ref); var_dump($ref); in this case $ref contains the _id -- for those, who do not know, what the insert method of mongodb-php-driver does -- because $ref is passed by reference (note the $b with and without referencing '&'). on the other hand ... function test(&$data) { $data['_id'] = time(); } $b = array('x' => 1); $ref =& $b; test($ref); var_dump($ref); $ref contains _id, when i call a userland function. my question is: how does the references in these cases differ? my question is probably not mongodb specific -- i thought i would know how references in php work, but apparently i do not: the answer in the mongodb user-group was, that this was the way, how references in php work. so ... how do they work -- explained with these two code-snippets? thanks in advance!!!

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  • java.lang.IllegalStateException: missing behavior definition for the preceding method call getMessag

    - by user362199
    Hi All, I'm using EasyMock(version 2.4) and TestNG for writing UnitTest. I have a following scenario and I cannot change the way class hierarchy is defined. I'm testing ClassB which is extending ClassA. ClassB look like this public class ClassB extends ClassA { public ClassB() { super("title"); } @Override public String getDisplayName() { return ClientMessages.getMessages("ClassB.title"); } } ClassA code public abstract class ClassA { private String title; public ClassA(String title) { this.title = ClientMessages.getMessages(title); } public String getDisplayName() { return this.title; } } ClientMessages class code public class ClientMessages { private static MessageResourse messageResourse; public ClientMessages(MessageResourse messageResourse) { this.messageResourse = messageResourse; } public static String getMessages(String code) { return messageResourse.getMessage(code); } } MessageResourse Class code public class MessageResourse { public String getMessage(String code) { return code; } } Testing ClassB import static org.easymock.classextension.EasyMock.createMock; import org.easymock.classextension.EasyMock; import org.testng.Assert; import org.testng.annotations.Test; public class ClassBTest { private MessageResourse mockMessageResourse = createMock(MessageResourse.class); private ClassB classToTest; private ClientMessages clientMessages; @Test public void testGetDisplayName() { EasyMock.expect(mockMessageResourse.getMessage("ClassB.title")).andReturn("someTitle"); clientMessages = new ClientMessages(mockMessageResourse); classToTest = new ClassB(); Assert.assertEquals("someTitle" , classToTest.getDisplayName()); EasyMock.replay(mockMessageResourse); } } When I'm running this this test I'm getting following exception: java.lang.IllegalStateException: missing behavior definition for the preceding method call getMessage("title") While debugging what I found is, it's not considering the mock method call mockMessageResourse.getMessage("ClassB.title") as it has been called from the construtor (ClassB object creation). Can any one please help me how to test in this case. Thanks.

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  • need some help in Abraham twitteroauth class

    - by diEcho
    Hello All, i m learning how to use twitter from twitter developer link on Authenticating Requests with OAuth page i was debugging my code with given procedure on Sending the user to authorization section there is written that if you are using the callback flow, your oauth_callback should have received back your oauth_token (the same that you sent, your "request token") and a field called the oauth_verifier. You'll need that for the next step. Here's the response I received: oauth_token=8ldIZyxQeVrFZXFOZH5tAwj6vzJYuLQpl0WUEYtWc&oauth_verifier=pDNg57prOHapMbhv25RNf75lVRd6JDsni1AJJIDYoTY my original code is require_once('twitteroauth/twitteroauth.php'); require_once('config.php'); /* Build TwitterOAuth object with client credentials. */ $connection = new TwitterOAuth(CONSUMER_KEY, CONSUMER_SECRET); /* Get temporary credentials. */ $request_token = $connection->getRequestToken(OAUTH_CALLBACK); /* Save temporary credentials to session. */ $_SESSION['oauth_token'] = $token = $request_token['oauth_token']; $_SESSION['oauth_token_secret'] = $request_token['oauth_token_secret']; /* If last connection failed don't display authorization link. */ switch ($connection->http_code) { case 200: /* Build authorize URL and redirect user to Twitter. */ echo "<br/>Authorize URL:".$url = $connection->getAuthorizeURL($token); //header('Location: ' . $url); break; default: /* Show notification if something went wrong. */ echo 'Could not connect to Twitter. Refresh the page or try again later.'; } and i m getting Authorize URL: https://twitter.com/oauth/authenticate?oauth_token=BHqbrTjsPcyvaAsfDwfU149aAcZjtw45nhLBeG1c i m not getting above URL having oauth_verifier. please tell me from where do i see/debug that url??

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  • Why can't the compiler/JVM just make autoboxing "just work"?

    - by Pyrolistical
    Autoboxing is rather scary. While I fully understand the difference between == and .equals I can't but help have the follow bug the hell out of me: final List<Integer> foo = Arrays.asList(1, 1000); final List<Integer> bar = Arrays.asList(1, 1000); System.out.println(foo.get(0) == bar.get(0)); System.out.println(foo.get(1) == bar.get(1)); That prints true false Why did they do it this way? It something to do with cached Integers, but if that is the case why don't they just cache all Integers used by the program? Or why doesn't the JVM always auto unbox to primitive? Printing false false or true true would have been way better. EDIT I disagree about breakage of old code. By having foo.get(0) == bar.get(0) return true you already broke the code. Can't this be solved at the compiler level by replacing Integer with int in byte code (as long as it is never assigned null)

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  • Using Directives, Namespace and Assembly Reference - all jumbled up with StyleCop!

    - by Jack
    I like to adhere to StyleCop's formatting rules to make code nice and clear, but I've recently had a problem with one of its warnings: All using directives must be placed inside of the namespace. My problem is that I have using directives, an assembly reference (for mocking file deletion), and a namespace to juggle in one of my test classes: using System; using System.IO; using Microsoft.Moles.Framework; using Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.UnitTesting; [assembly: MoledType(typeof(System.IO.File))] namespace MyNamespace { //Some Code } The above allows tests to be run fine - but StyleCop complains about the using directives not being inside the namespace. Putting the usings inside the namespace gives the error that "MoledType" is not recognised. Putting both the usings and the assembly reference inside the namespace gives the error 'assembly' is not a valid attribute location for this declaration. Valid attribute locations for this declaration are 'type'. All attributes in this block will be ignored. It seems I've tried every layout I can but to no avail - either the solution won't build, the mocking won't work or StyleCop complains! Does anyone know a way to set these out so that everything's happy? Or am I going to have to ignore the StyleCop warning in this case?

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  • ASP.NET: aggregating validators in a user control

    - by orsogufo
    I am developing a web application where I would like to perform a set of validations on a certain field (an account name in the specific case). I need to check that the value is not empty, matches a certain pattern and is not already used. I tried to create a UserControl that aggregates a RequiredFieldValidator, a RegexValidator and a CustomValidator, then I created a ControlToValidate property like this: public partial class AccountNameValidator : System.Web.UI.UserControl { public string ControlToValidate { get { return ViewState["ControlToValidate"] as string; } set { ViewState["ControlToValidate"] = value; AccountNameRequiredFieldValidator.ControlToValidate = value; AccountNameRegexValidator.ControlToValidate = value; AccountNameUniqueValidator.ControlToValidate = value; } } } However, if I insert the control on a page and set ControlToValidate to some control ID, when the page loads I get an error that says Unable to find control id 'AccountName' referenced by the 'ControlToValidate' property of 'AccountNameRequiredFieldValidator', which makes me think that the controls inside my UserControl cannot resolve correctly the controls in the parent page. So, I have two questions: 1) Is it possible to have validator controls inside a UserControl validate a control in the parent page? 2) Is it correct and good practice to "aggregate" multiple validator controls in a UserControl? If not, what is the standard way to proceed?

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  • attachment_fu and RMagick

    - by trobrock
    After finally getting RMagick installed on my Mac I have set up attachment_fu according to the tutorial here: http://clarkware.com/cgi/blosxom/2007/02/24#FileUploadFu&gt when I try and upload a file via the upload form I get around 80 messages like these: /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/rmagick-2.13.1/lib/RMagick.rb:44: warning: already initialized constant PercentGeometry /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/rmagick-2.13.1/lib/RMagick.rb:45: warning: already initialized constant AspectGeometry /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/rmagick-2.13.1/lib/RMagick.rb:46: warning: already initialized constant LessGeometry /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/rmagick-2.13.1/lib/RMagick.rb:47: warning: already initialized constant GreaterGeometry I did some searching and found that this problem can arise when you require RMagick twice in an application using different casing for the require statement: http://work.rowanhick.com/2007/12/19/require-rmagick-and-case-sensitivity/ I am not requiring it myself, but I was thinking maybe with the config.gem "rmagick" line in my environment.rb file rails might be requiring it. After the form submits it gives me a validation error of: Content type is not included in the list I have checked the source for attachement_fu and found the image/png in the list of content types so I don't believe that is the proper error message: http://github.com/technoweenie/attachment_fu/blob/master/lib/technoweenie/attachment_fu.rb Does anyone have any ideas on how I can get this to work?

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  • JsonParseException on Valid JSON

    - by user2909602
    I am having an issue calling a RESTful service from my client code. I have written the RESTful service using CXF/Jackson, deployed to localhost, and tested using RESTClient successfully. Below is a snippet of the service code: @POST @Produces("application/json") @Consumes("application/json") @Path("/set/mood") public Response setMood(MoodMeter mm) { this.getMmDAO().insert(mm); return Response.ok().entity(mm).build(); } The model class and dao work successfully and the service itself works fine using RESTClient. However, when I attempt to call this service from Java Script, I get the error below on the server side: Caused by: org.codehaus.jackson.JsonParseException: Unexpected character ('m' (code 109)): expected a valid value (number, String, array, object, 'true', 'false' or 'null') I have copied the client side code below. To make sure it has nothing to do with the JSON data itself, I used a valid JSON string (which works using RESTClient, JSON.parse() method, and JSONLint) in the vars 'json' (string) and 'jsonData' (JSON). Below is the Java Script code: var json = '{"mood_value":8,"mood_comments":"new comments","user_id":5,"point":{"latitude":37.292929,"longitude":38.0323323},"created_dtm":1381546869260}'; var jsonData = JSON.parse(json); $.ajax({ url: 'http://localhost:8080/moodmeter/app/service/set/mood', dataType: 'json', data: jsonData, type: "POST", contentType: "application/json" }); I've seen the JsonParseException a number of times on other threads, but in this case the JSON itself appears to be valid (and tested). Any thoughts are appreciated.

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  • Asp.Net MVC 2: How exactly does a view model bind back to the model upon post back?

    - by Dr. Zim
    Sorry for the length, but a picture is worth 1000 words: In ASP.NET MVC 2, the input form field "name" attribute must contain exactly the syntax below that you would use to reference the object in C# in order to bind it back to the object upon post back. That said, if you have an object like the following where it contains multiple Orders having multiple OrderLines, the names would look and work well like this (case sensitive): This works: Order[0].id Order[0].orderDate Order[0].Customer.name Order[0].Customer.Address Order[0].OrderLine[0].itemID // first order line Order[0].OrderLine[0].description Order[0].OrderLine[0].qty Order[0].OrderLine[0].price Order[0].OrderLine[1].itemID // second order line, same names Order[0].OrderLine[1].description Order[0].OrderLine[1].qty Order[0].OrderLine[1].price However we want to add order lines and remove order lines at the client browser. Apparently, the indexes must start at zero and contain every consecutive index number to N. The black belt ninja Phil Haack's blog entry here explains how to remove the [0] index, have duplicate names, and let MVC auto-enumerate duplicate names with the [0] notation. However, I have failed to get this to bind back using a nested object: This fails: Order.id // Duplicate names should enumerate at 0 .. N Order.orderDate Order.Customer.name Order.Customer.Address Order.OrderLine.itemID // And likewise for nested properties? Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price Order.OrderLine.itemID Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price I haven't found any advice out there yet that describes how this works for binding back nested ViewModels on post. Any links to existing code examples or strict examples on the exact names necessary to do nested binding with ILists? Steve Sanderson has code that does this sort of thing here, but we cannot seem to get this to bind back to nested objects. Anything not having the [0]..[n] AND being consecutive in numbering simply drops off of the return object. Any ideas?

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  • Problem counting item frequency on T-SQL

    - by Raúl Roa
    I'm trying to count the frequency of numbers from 1 to 100 on different fields of a table. Let's say I have the table "Results" with the following data: LottoId Winner Second Third --------- --------- --------- --------- 1 1 2 3 2 1 2 3 I'd like to be able to get the frequency per numbers. For that I'm using the following code: --Creating numbers temp table CREATE TABLE #Numbers( Number int) --Inserting the numbers into the temp table declare @counter int set @counter = 0 while @counter < 100 begin set @counter = @counter + 1 INSERT INTO #Numbers(Number) VALUES(@counter) end -- SELECT #Numbers.Number, Count(Results.Winner) as Winner,Count(Results.Second) as Second, Count(Results.Third) as Third FROM #Numbers LEFT JOIN Results ON #Numbers.Number = Results.Winner OR #Numbers.Number = Results.Second OR #Numbers.Number = Results.Third GROUP BY #Numbers.Number The problem is that the counts are repeating the same values for each number. In this particular case I'm getting the following result: Number Winner Second Third --------- --------- --------- --------- 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 2 2 2 ... When I should get this: Number Winner Second Third --------- --------- --------- --------- 1 2 0 0 2 0 2 0 3 0 0 2 ... What am I missing?

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  • Winforms: How to speed up Invalidate()?

    - by Pedery
    I'm developing a retained mode drawing application in GDI+. The application can draw simple shapes to a canvas and perform basic editing. The math that does this is optimized to the last byte and is not an issue. I'm drawing on a panel that is using the built-in Controlstyles.DoubleBuffer. Now, my problem arises if I run my app maximized on a big monitor (HD in my case). If I try to draw a line from one corner of the (big) canvas to the diagonally oposite other, it will start to lag and the CPU goes high up. Each graphical object in my app has a boundingbox. Thus, when I invalidate the boundingbox of a line that goes from one corner of the maximized app to the oposite diagonal one, that boundingbox is virtually as big as the canvas. When a user is drawing a line, this invalidation of the boundingbox thus happens on the mousemove event, and there is a clear lag visible. This lag also exists if the line is the only object on the canvas. I've tried to optimize this in many ways. If I draw a shorter line, the CPU and the lag goes down. If I remove the Invalidate() and keep all other code, the app is quick. If I use a Region (that only spans the figure) to invalidate instead of the boundingbox, it is just as slow. If I split the boundingbox into a range of smaller boxes that lie back to back, thus reducing the invalidation area, no visible performance gain can be seen. Thus I'm at a loss here. How can I speed up the invalidation? On a side note, both Paint.Net and Mspaint suffers from the same shortcommings. Word and PowerPoint however, seem to be able to paint a line as described above with no lag and no CPU load at all. Thus it's possible to achieve the desired results, the question is how?

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  • LinkedIn API returning extra/incorrect login prompt

    - by Paul Osetinsky
    I have a Rails application running the omniauth-linkedin gem and linkedin gem (essentialy an API wrapper). When a user logs in, they receive a primary login prompt that displays to them the correct scopes (FULL PROFILE and EMAIL ADDRESS), as below: However, after they log in, they get another login prompt that should not come up, and that ignores the initial scope request. It tells them that LinkedIN is only requesting their PROFILE OVERVIEW, which is incorrect: The problem must lie in my auth_controller, and I think it has do to with the url that is created in one of the authentication stages (definitely right after the user enters their LinkedIn authentication credentials). Here is my auth_controller: require 'linkedin' class AuthController < ApplicationController def auth client = LinkedIn::Client.new(ENV['LINKEDIN_KEY'], ENV['LINKEDIN_SECRET']) request_token = client.request_token(:oauth_callback => "http://#{request.host_with_port}/callback") session[:rtoken] = request_token.token session[:rsecret] = request_token.secret redirect_to client.request_token.authorize_url end def callback client = LinkedIn::Client.new(ENV['LINKEDIN_KEY'], ENV['LINKEDIN_SECRET']) if session[:atoken].nil? pin = params[:oauth_verifier] atoken, asecret = client.authorize_from_request(session[:rtoken], session[:rsecret], pin) session[:atoken] = atoken session[:asecret] = asecret @user = current_user @user.uid = client.profile(:fields => ["id"]).id flash.now[:success] = 'Signed in with LinkedIn.' else client.authorize_from_access(session[:atoken], session[:asecret]) @user.uid = client.profile(:fields => ["id"]).id flash.now[:success] = 'Signed in with LinkedIn.' end @user = current_user @user.save redirect_to current_user end end Just in case, here is my omniauth.rb file that states the scopes I am requesting for my application: Rails.application.config.middleware.use OmniAuth::Builder do provider :linkedin, ENV['LINKEDIN_KEY'], ENV['LINKEDIN_SECRET'], :scope => 'r_fullprofile r_emailaddress', :fields => ['id', 'email-address', 'first-name', 'last-name', 'headline', 'industry', 'picture-url', 'public-profile-url', 'location', 'positions', 'educations'] end Can't figure out how to get rid of that second unnecessary and misleading prompt from LinkedIn and would appreciate any guidance! Thank you.

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  • Mercurial: a few questions all related to .hgignore

    - by WizardOfOdds
    I've been working for a long time with a .hgignore file that was fine and recently added one new type of files to ignore. When running "hg status", I noticed this: M .hgignore So Mercurial considers the .hgignore to be a file that needs to be tracked (if it's a the root of the project). Now I've read various docs but my points weren't specifically adressed so here are some very detailed questions which hopefully can help me figure this out (it would be great is someone answering could quote and address these three points [even with a simply yes/no answer for each question]): Should .hgignore be at the root of the project? (I guess it should, seen that a developer can potentially be working on several projects which would all have different .hgignore requirements) Can .hgignore be ignored be Mercurial? If it can be ignored, should .hgignore be ignored by Mercurial (which is different than the previous question) In the case where .hgignore should not be ignored, can't some really bad thing happens if you suddenly rollback way earlier, when a really old and incomplete .hgignore was used? I think I saw weird things happening with certain per-user IDE project files (I'm not saying all IDEs project files are per-user only, but some definitely are) that were supposed to be ignored, but then the user rolls back to an old version, where an old .hgignore gets used, and then suddenly files supposed to be ignored are committed because the old .hgignore didn't exclude these.

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  • Sync Vs. Async Sockets Performance in .NET

    - by Michael Covelli
    Everything that I read about sockets in .NET says that the asynchronous pattern gives better performance (especially with the new SocketAsyncEventArgs which saves on the allocation). I think this makes sense if we're talking about a server with many client connections where its not possible to allocate one thread per connection. Then I can see the advantage of using the ThreadPool threads and getting async callbacks on them. But in my app, I'm the client and I just need to listen to one server sending market tick data over one tcp connection. Right now, I create a single thread, set the priority to Highest, and call Socket.Receive() with it. My thread blocks on this call and wakes up once new data arrives. If I were to switch this to an async pattern so that I get a callback when there's new data, I see two issues The threadpool threads will have default priority so it seems they will be strictly worse than my own thread which has Highest priority. I'll still have to send everything through a single thread at some point. Say that I get N callbacks at almost the same time on N different threadpool threads notifying me that there's new data. The N byte arrays that they deliver can't be processed on the threadpool threads because there's no guarantee that they represent N unique market data messages because TCP is stream based. I'll have to lock and put the bytes into an array anyway and signal some other thread that can process what's in the array. So I'm not sure what having N threadpool threads is buying me. Am I thinking about this wrong? Is there a reason to use the Async patter in my specific case of one client connected to one server?

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  • Telerik Silverlight RadComboBox Selected Item

    - by Chirag
    i am customize telerik Datapager control in that control create one resource file and add one combobox for change page size of grid <UserControl.Resources> ....... <telerik:RadComboBox x:Name="CmbPageSize" MinWidth="40" telerik:StyleManager.Theme="{StaticResource Theme}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=BindPageSize, Mode=TwoWay}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=DataPagerPageSize_string, Mode=TwoWay}"></telerik:RadComboBox> ....... Bind a combo with public string DataPagerPageSize_string { get { if (_DataPagerPageSize_string == null || _DataPagerPageSize_string == string.Empty) { //DatapagerIndex = 1; return DefaultPageSize.ToString(); } return _DataPagerPageSize_string; } set { _DataPagerPageSize_string = value; OnPropertyChanged("_DataPagerPageSize_string"); } } public List<string> BindPageSize { get { List<string> Pagerdata = new List<string>(); Pagerdata.Add("10"); Pagerdata.Add("20"); Pagerdata.Add("50"); Pagerdata.Add("100"); Pagerdata.Add("250"); Pagerdata.Add("500"); Pagerdata.Add("750"); Pagerdata.Add("1000"); Pagerdata.Add("1500"); Pagerdata.Add("2000"); Pagerdata.Add("Automatic"); Pagerdata.Add("All"); return Pagerdata; } } this is working fine in case of if i select a value from combobox but i wan to change it from code behind Like EVP.DataPagerPageSize_string = "All"; this thigs works fine but Combobox display me a old value; if i will check a property then it show me a newly set value but combobox not select newly value

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