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BackgroundWorker From ASP.Net Application

- by Kevin

We have an ASP.Net application that provides administrators to work with and perform operations on large sets of records. For example, we have a "Polish Data" task that an administrator can perform to clean up data for a record (e.g. reformat phone numbers, social security numbers, etc.) When performed on a small number of records, the task completes relatively quickly. However, when a user performs the task on a larger set of records, the task may take several minutes or longer to complete. So, we want to implement these kinds of tasks using some kind of asynchronous pattern. For example, we want to be able to launch the task, and then use AJAX polling to provide a progress bar and status information. I have been looking into using the BackgroundWorker class, but I have read some things online that make me pause. I would love to get some additional advice on this. For example, I understand that the BackgroundWorker will actually use the thread pool from the current application. In my case, the application is an ASP.Net web site. I have read that this can be a problem because when the application recycles, the background workers will be terminated. Some of the jobs I mentioned above may take 3 minutes, but others may take a few hours. Also, we may have several hundred administrators all performing similar operations during the day. Will the ASP.Net application thread pool be able to handle all of these background jobs efficiently while still performing it's normal request processing? So, I am trying to determine if using the BackgroundWorker class and approach is right for our needs. Should I be looking at an alternative approach? Thanks and sorry for such a long post! Kevin

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rails, mysql charsets & encoding: binary

- by Benjamin Vetter

Hi, i've a rails app that runs using utf-8. It uses a mysql database, all tables with mysql's default charset and collation (i.e. latin1). Therefore the latin1 tables contain utf-8 data. Sure, that's not nice, but i'm not really interested in it. Everything works fine, because the connection encoding is latin1 as well and therefore mysql does not convert between charsets. Only one problem: i need a utf-8 fulltext index for one table: mysql> show create table autocompletephrases; ... AUTO_INCREMENT=310095 DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_unicode_ci But: I don't want to convert between charsets in my rails app. Therefore I would like to know if i could just set config/database.yml production: adapter: mysql >>>> encoding: binary ... which just calls SET NAMES 'binary' when connecting to mySQL. It looks like it works for my case, because i guess it forces mysql to -not- convert between charsets (mySQL docs). Does anyone knows about problems about doing this? Any side-effects? Or do you have any other suggestions? But i'd like to avoid converting my whole database to utf-8. Many Thanks! Benjamin

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How do I extract HTML content using Regex in PHP

- by gAMBOOKa

I know, i know... regex is not the best way to extract HTML text. But I need to extract article text from a lot of pages, I can store regexes in the database for each website. I'm not sure how XML parsers would work with multiple websites. You'd need a separate function for each website. In any case, I don't know much about regexes, so bear with me. I've got an HTML page in a format similar to this <html> <head>...</head> <body> <div class=nav>...</div><p id="someshit" /> <div class=body>....</div> <div class=footer>...</div> </body> I need to extract the contents of the body class container. I tried this. $pattern = "/<div class=\"body\">\(.*?\)<\/div>/sui" $text = $htmlPageAsIs; if (preg_match($pattern, $text, $matches)) echo "MATCHED!"; else echo "Sorry gambooka, but your text is in another castle."; What am I doing wrong? My text ends up in another castle.

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Log4net Logging Problem : Very simple file appender logging not working

- by contactmatt

Here's my web.config information <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler, log4net"/> </configSections> <log4net> <root> <level value="ALL" /> </root> <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender"> <file value="c:\temp\log-file.txt" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <rollingStyle value="Size" /> <maxSizeRollBackups value="10" /> <maximumFileSize value="1MB" /> <staticLogFileName value="true" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.SimpleLayout" /> </appender> </log4net> ... Here's the code that initalizes the logger protected void SendMessage() { log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator.Configure(); ILog log = LogManager.GetLogger(typeof(Contact)); ... log.Info("here we go!"); log.Debug("debug afasf"); ... } it doesn't work, no matter what I seem to do. I am referencing the 'log4net.dll' correctly, and by debugging the application i can see that the log object is getting initiated properly. This is a asp.net 3.5 framework web project. Any ideas/suggestions? I thought originally this error may be due to a file write permission constraint, but that doesn't seem to be the case (or so I think).

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Can GWT image sprites using ImageBundle be made to work in IE7 and IE6?

- by aem

I'm trying to use a ClientBundle in my GWT application to make multiple images get sent as a single file. I declare the bundle like so: public interface MyResources extends ClientBundle { public static final MyResources INSTANCE = GWT.create(MyResources.class); @Source("icon1.png") ImageResource icon1(); @Source("icon2.png") ImageResource icon2(); } This works great in Firefox and IE8, but in IE7 (and earlier) the whole sprite shows up in place of one of my original images - that is, icon1 is next to icon2 next to icon3, and so on. In IE8's developer tools using IE8-as-IE7 mode or Compatibility View, I can see that it's showing an image with a file name like 26BEFD2399A92A5DDA54277BA550C75B.cache.png, which is what I'd expect. So is there any way to make GWT image sprites work in IE7 and lower? If not, is there any way to gracefully degrade so users of other browsers get the speedup of spriting and IE7 and IE6 users get something that looks right but is slower? Edit: The Client Bundle Developer's Guide has a discussion of using ClientBundle and @sprite, and says "Support for IE6 isn't feasible in this format, because structural changes to the DOM are necessary to implement a "windowing" effect. Once it's possible to distinguish ie6 and ie7 in user.agent, we could revisit support for ie6. In the current implementation, the ie6 code won't render correctly, although is a purely cosmetic issue." Is this what's going on in my case, and is there a way to work around it? Showing all the images is "purely a cosmetic issue", but it's a pretty severe one.

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Forcing CLLocationManager updates - does it help or hurt?

- by Steve N

I've been trying to find any way to optimize the performance of my location-based iPhone application and have seen some people mention that you can force location updates by starting and stopping your CLLocationManager. I need the best accuracy I can get, and the user in my case would probably like to see updates every few seconds (say, 10 seconds) as they walk around. I've set the filters accordingly, but I notice that sometimes I don't get any updates on the device for quite some time. I'm testing the following approach, which forces an update when a fixed time interval passes (I'm using 20 seconds). My gut tells me this really won't help me provide more accurate updates to the user, and that just leaving CLLocationManager running all the time is probably the best approach. - (void)forceLocationUpdate { [[LocationManager locationManager] stopUpdates]; [[LocationManager locationManager] startUpdates]; [self performSelector:@selector(forceLocationUpdate) withObject:nil afterDelay:20.0]; } My question is- does forcing updates from CLLocationManager actually improve core location performance? Does it hurt performance? If I'm outside in an open field with good GPS reception, will this help then? Does anyone have experience trying this? Thanks in advance, Steve

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How to remove the error "Cant find PInvoke DLL SQLite.interop.dll"

- by Shailesh Jaiswal

I am developing windows mobile application. I am using the SQLlite database. I am using the following code to connect to this database as follows SQLiteConnection cn = new SQLiteConnection(); SQLiteDataReader SQLiteDR; cn.ConnectionString = @"Data Source=F:\CompNetDB.db3"; cn.Open(); SQLiteCommand cmd = new SQLiteCommand(); cmd.CommandText = "select * from CustomerInfo"; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; cmd.Connection = cn; SQLiteDR = cmd.ExecuteReader(); In the above case I am getting the error "Cant find PInvike DLL SQLite.interop.dll". I have added the DLL System.Data.SQLLite from the \SQLite.NET\bin\compactframework this folder. This is the folder which is installed by default when I installed the SQLite. In the same folder there is one DLL file named SQLlite.Interop.66.DLL. When I try to add reference to this dll it is giving error that dll can not be added. Are the two dlls SQLlite.Interop.dll & System.Interop.066.dll same ? In the above code how to solve the error "Cant find PInvoke.SQLite.Interop.dll" Please can you tell whether there is mistake in my code or I am missing something in my application?

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Problems with jQuery load and getJSON only when using Chrome

- by leftend

I'm having an issue with two jQuery calls. The first is a "load" that retrieves HTML and displays it on the page (it does include some Javascript and CSS in the code that is returned). The second is a "getJSON" that returns JSON - the JSON returned is valid. Everything works fine in every other browser I've tried - except Chrome for either Windows or Mac. The page in question is here: http://urbanistguide.com/category/Contemporary.aspx When you click on a Restaurant name in IE/FF, you should see that item expand with more info - and a map displayed to the right. However, if you do this in Chrome all you get is the JSON data printed to the screen. The first problem spot is when the "load" function is called here: var fulllisting = top.find(".listingfull"); fulllisting.load(href2, function() { fulllisting.append("<div style=\"width:99%;margin-top:10px;text-align:right;\"><a href=\"#\" class=\"" + obj.attr("id") + "\">X</a>"); itemId = fulllisting.find("a.listinglink").attr("id"); ... In the above code, the callback function doesn't seem to get invoked. The second problem spot is when the "getJSON" function is called: $.getJSON(href, function(data) { if (data.error.length > 0) { //display error message } else { ... } In this case - it just seems to follow the link instead of performing the callback... and yes, I am doing a "return false;" at the end of all of this to prevent the link from executing. All of the rest of the code is inline on that page if you want to view the source code. Any ideas?? Thanks

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Asynchronous NSURLConnection Throws EXC_BAD_ACCESS

- by Sheehan Alam

I'm not really sure why my code is throwing a EXC_BAD_ACCESS, I have followed the guidelines in Apple's documentation: -(void)getMessages:(NSString*)stream{ NSString* myURL = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://www.someurl.com"]; NSURLRequest *theRequest = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:myURL]]; NSURLConnection *theConnection=[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; if (theConnection) { receivedData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } else { NSLog(@"Connection Failed!"); } } And my delegate methods #pragma mark NSURLConnection Delegate Methods - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveResponse:(NSURLResponse *)response { // This method is called when the server has determined that it // has enough information to create the NSURLResponse. // It can be called multiple times, for example in the case of a // redirect, so each time we reset the data. // receivedData is an instance variable declared elsewhere. [receivedData setLength:0]; } - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveData:(NSData *)data { // Append the new data to receivedData. // receivedData is an instance variable declared elsewhere. [receivedData appendData:data]; } - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didFailWithError:(NSError *)error { // release the connection, and the data object [connection release]; // receivedData is declared as a method instance elsewhere [receivedData release]; // inform the user NSLog(@"Connection failed! Error - %@ %@", [error localizedDescription], [[error userInfo] objectForKey:NSErrorFailingURLStringKey]); } - (void)connectionDidFinishLoading:(NSURLConnection *)connection { // do something with the data // receivedData is declared as a method instance elsewhere NSLog(@"Succeeded! Received %d bytes of data",[receivedData length]); // release the connection, and the data object [connection release]; [receivedData release]; } I get an EXC_BAD_ACCESS on didReceiveData. Even if that method simply contains an NSLog, I get the error. Note: receivedData is an NSMutableData* in my header file

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Does GC guarantee that cleared References are enqueued to ReferenceQueue in topological order?

- by Dimitris Andreou

Say there are two objects, A and B, and there is a pointer A.x --> B, and we create, say, WeakReferences to both A and B, with an associated ReferenceQueue. Assume that both A and B become unreachable. Intuitively B cannot be considered unreachable before A is. In such a case, do we somehow get a guarantee that the respective references will be enqueued in the intuitive (topological when there are no cycles) order in the ReferenceQueue? I.e. ref(A) before ref(B). I don't know - what if the GC marked a bunch of objects as unreachable, and then enqueued them in no particular order? I was reviewing Finalizer.java of guava, seeing this snippet: private void cleanUp(Reference<?> reference) throws ShutDown { ... if (reference == frqReference) { /* * The client no longer has a reference to the * FinalizableReferenceQueue. We can stop. */ throw new ShutDown(); } frqReference is a PhantomReference to the used ReferenceQueue, so if this is GC'ed, no Finalizable{Weak, Soft, Phantom}References can be alive, since they reference the queue. So they have to be GC'ed before the queue itself can be GC'ed - but still, do we get the guarantee that these references will be enqueued to the ReferenceQueue at the order they get "garbage collected" (as if they get GC'ed one by one)? The code implies that there is some kind of guarantee, otherwise unprocessed references could theoretically remain in the queue. Thanks

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What are alternatives to Win32 PulseEvent() function?

- by Bill

The documentation for the Win32 API PulseEvent() function (kernel32.dll) states that this function is “… unreliable and should not be used by new applications. Instead, use condition variables”. However, condition variables cannot be used across process boundaries like (named) events can. I have a scenario that is cross-process, cross-runtime (native and managed code) in which a single producer occasionally has something interesting to make known to zero or more consumers. Right now, a well-known named event is used (and set to signaled state) by the producer using this PulseEvent function when it needs to make something known. Zero or more consumers wait on that event (WaitForSingleObject()) and perform an action in response. There is no need for two-way communication in my scenario, and the producer does not need to know if the event has any listeners, nor does it need to know if the event was successfully acted upon. On the other hand, I do not want any consumers to ever miss any events. In other words, the system needs to be perfectly reliable – but the producer does not need to know if that is the case or not. The scenario can be thought of as a “clock ticker” – i.e., the producer provides a semi-regular signal for zero or more consumers to count. And all consumers must have the correct count over any given period of time. No polling by consumers is allowed (performance reasons). The ticker is just a few milliseconds (20 or so, but not perfectly regular). Raymen Chen (The Old New Thing) has a blog post pointing out the “fundamentally flawed” nature of the PulseEvent() function, but I do not see an alternative for my scenario from Chen or the posted comments. Can anyone please suggest one? Please keep in mind that the IPC signal must cross process boundries on the machine, not simply threads. And the solution needs to have high performance in that consumers must be able to act within 10ms of each event.

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Grails bean-fields plugin

- by Don

Hi, I'm having problems using the Grails bean-fields plugin with a class this is annotated Validateable, but is not a domain/command class. The root cause of the problem appears to be in this method of BeanTagLib.groovy private def getBeanConstraints(bean) { if (bean?.metaClass?.hasProperty(bean, 'constraints')) { def cons = bean.constraints if (cons != null) { if (log.debugEnabled) { log.debug "Bean is of type ${bean.class} - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}]" } // Safety check for the case where bean is no a proper domain/command object // This avoids confusing errors where constraints comes back as a Closure if (!(cons instanceof Map)) { if (log.warnEnabled) { log.warn "Bean of type ${bean.class} is not a domain class, command object or other validateable object - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}]" } } } else { if (log.warnEnabled) { log.warn "Bean of type ${bean.class} has no constraints" } } return cons } else return null } I tested out this method above in the grails console and when I pass an instance of MyBean into this method, it logs: Bean of type ${bean.class} is not a domain class, command object or other validateable object - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}] Because the constraints are returned as an instance of Closure instead of a Map. If I could figue out how to get a Map reference to the constraints of a @Validateable class (that is not a domain/command class), I guess I could resolve the problem. Thanks, Don

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Wizard form in Struts

- by Kuntal Basu

I am creating a wizard in Struts. It cotains 4 steps. For Each step I have separate ActionClass say:- Step1Action.java Step2Action.java Step3Action.java Step4Action.java and in each class there are 2 methods input() and process(). input() method is for showing the page in input mode process() method is will be use for processing the submitted data (if validation is ok) I am carrying all data upto the last step in a session. And saving all of them in database in the last step Similaly 4 action tags in struts.xml like :- <action name="step1" class="com.mycomp.myapp.action.Step1Action1" method="input"> <result name="success" type="redirectAction">step2</result> <result name="input">/view/step1.jsp</result> </action> <action name="step2" class="com.mycomp.myapp.action.Step1Action2" method="input"> <result name="success" type="redirectAction">step3</result> <result name="input">/view/step2.jsp</result> </action> But I think I am going wrong. Please Tell me How will I handle This case?

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Visual C++ Assembly link library troubles

- by Sanarothe

Hi. I'm having a problem having my projects built in VC++ Express 2008... I'm using a library, irvine32.inc/lib. INCLUDE Irvine32.inc works for me at school (On already configured VS environments) by default, but at home (Windows 7 x64) I'm having a boatload of issues. My original post here was that a file that irvine32.inc referenced, in the same folder, 'could not be opened.' Added irvine folder to the include path for specific project, progress. Then I was getting an error with mt.exe, but a suggestion on the MSDN suggested turn off antivirus, and now project does build but when I run a program that does NOT reference anything in irvine32, it tells me repeatedly that my project has triggered a breakpoint, and allows me to continue or break. Continue just pops the same window, break loads another popup telling me that "No symbols are loaded for any call stack frame. Source code cannot be displayed." This popup lets me view the disassembly. I tested it with and without working statements, it just throws the same breakpoint on the first line of code. Now, if I run the program when it DOES require something from the include file, in this case, DumpRegs: INCLUDE Irvine32.inc .data .code main PROC mov ebx,1000h mov eax,1000h add eax,ebx call DumpRegs main ENDP END main This gives me 1main.obj : error LNK2019: unresolved external symbol _DumpRegs@0 referenced in function _main@0 1C:\Users\Cameron\csis165\Lab8_CCarroll\Debug\Lab8_CCarroll.exe : fatal error LNK1120: 1 unresolved externals This does NOT happen when I build a project from the book author's examples, which has the same include statement. I'm baffled. :(

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Using the groupby method in Python, example included

- by randombits

Trying to work with groupby so that I can group together files that were created on the same day. When I say same day in this case, I mean the dd part in mm/dd/yyyy. So if a file was created on March 1 and April 1, they should be grouped together because the "1" matches. Here's the code I have so far: #!/usr/bin/python import os import datetime from itertools import groupby def created_ymd(fn): ts = os.stat(fn).st_ctime dt = datetime.date.fromtimestamp(ts) return dt.year, dt.month, dt.day def get_files(): files = [] for f in os.listdir(os.getcwd()): if not os.path.isfile(f): continue y,m,d = created_ymd(f) files.append((f, d)) return files files = get_files() for key, group in groupby(files, lambda x: x[1]): for file in group: print "file: %s, date: %s" % (file[0], key) print " " The problem is, I get lots of files that get grouped together based on the day. But then I'll see multiple groups with the same day. Meaning I might have 4 files grouped that were created on the 17th. Later on I'll see another unique set of 2 files that are also created on the 17th. Where am I going wrong?

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Why does RunDLL32 process exit early on Windows 7?

- by Vicky

On Windows XP and Vista, I can run this code: STARTUPINFO si; PROCESS_INFORMATION pi; BOOL bResult = FALSE; ZeroMemory(&pi, sizeof(pi)); ZeroMemory(&si, sizeof(si)); si.cb = sizeof(STARTUPINFO); si.dwFlags = STARTF_USESHOWWINDOW; si.wShowWindow = SW_SHOW; bResult = CreateProcess(NULL, "rundll32.exe shell32.dll,Control_RunDLL modem.cpl", NULL, NULL, FALSE, NORMAL_PRIORITY_CLASS, NULL, NULL, &si, &pi); if (bResult) { WaitForSingleObject(pi.hProcess, INFINITE); CloseHandle(pi.hProcess); CloseHandle(pi.hThread); } and it operates as I would expect, i.e. the WaitForSingleObject does not return until the Modem Control Panel window has been closed by the user. On Windows 7, the same code, WaitForSingleObject returns straight away (with a return code of 0 indicating that the object signalled the requested state). Similarly, if I take it to the command line, on XP and Vista I can run start /wait rundll32.exe shell32.dll,Control_RunDLL modem.cpl and it does not return control to the command prompt until the Control Panel window is closed, but on Windows 7 it returns immediately. Is this a change in RunDll32? I know MS made some changes to RunDll32 in Windows 7 for UAC, and it looks from these experiments as though one of those changes might have involved spawning an additional process to display the window, and allowing the originating process to exit. The only thing that makes me think this might not be the case is that using a process explorer that shows the creation and destruction of processes, I do not see anything additional being created beyond the called rundll32 process itself. Any other way I can solve this? I just don't want the function to return until the control panel window is closed.

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Positioning / Scrolling problem with Flex popup.

- by user284163

Hi all, I'm trying to work out a specific problem I'm having with positioning in Flex using the PopUpManager. Basically I'm wanting to create a popup which will scroll with the parent container - this is necessary because the parent container is large and if the user's browser window isn't large enough (this will be the case the majority of the time) - they will have to use the scrollbar of the container to scroll down. The problem is that the popup is positioned relative to another component, and it needs to stay by that component. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.core.UITextField; import mx.containers.TitleWindow; import mx.managers.PopUpManager; private function clickeroo(event:MouseEvent):void { var popup:TitleWindow = new TitleWindow(); popup.width = 250; popup.height = 300; popup.title = "Example"; var tf:UITextField = new UITextField(); tf.wordWrap = true; tf.width = popup.width - 30; tf.text = "This window stays put and doesn't scroll when the hbox is scrolled (even with using the hbox as parent in the addPopUp method), I need the popup to be local to the HBox."; popup.addChild(tf); PopUpManager.addPopUp(popup, hbox, false); PopUpManager.centerPopUp(popup); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:HBox width="100%" height="2000" id="hbox"> <mx:Button label="Click Me" click="clickeroo(event)"/> </mx:HBox> </mx:Application> Could anyone give me any pointers in the right direction? Thanks.

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jQuery Autocomplete Json Ajax cross browser issue with Google Search Appliance

- by skyfoot

I am implementing a jquery autocomplete on a search form and am getting the suggestions from the Google Search Appliance Autocomple suggestions service which returns a result set in json. What I am trying to do is go off to the GSA to get suggestions when the user types something in the search box. The url to get the json suggestions is as follows: http://gsaurl/suggest?q=<query>&max=10&site=default_site&client=default_frontend&access=p&format=rich The json which is returned is as follows: { "query":"re", "results": [ {"name":"red", "type":"suggest"}, {"name":"read", "type":"suggest"}] } The jQuery autocomplete code is as follows: $(#q).autocomplete(searchUrl, { width: 320, dataType: 'json', highlight: false, scroll: true, scrollHeight: 300, parse: function(data) { var array = new Array(); for(var i=0;i<data.results.length;i++) { array[i] = { data: data.results[i], value: data.results[i].name, result: data.results[i].name }; } return array; }, formatItem: function(row) { return row.name; } }); This works in IE but fails in firefox as the data returned in the parse function is null. Any ideas why this would be the case? Workaround I created an aspx page to call the GSA suggest service and to return the json from the suggest service. Using this page as a proxy and setting it as the url in the jQuery autocomplete worked in both IE and FireFox.

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Problem Activating Sharepoint Timer Job

- by Ben Robinson

I have created a very simple sharepoint timer job. All i want it to do is iterate through a list and update each list item so that it triggers an existing workflow that works fine. In other words all i am trying to do is work around the limitation that workflows cannot be triggered on a scheduled basis. I have written a class that inherits from SPJobDefinition that does the work and i have a class that inherits from SPFeatureReceiver to install and activate it. I have created the feature using SPVisualdev that my coleagues have used in the past for other SP development. My Job class is below: public class DriverSafetyCheckTrigger : SPJobDefinition { private string pi_SiteUrl; public DriverSafetyCheckTrigger(string SiteURL, SPWebApplication WebApp):base("DriverSafetyCheckTrigger",WebApp,null, SPJobLockType.Job) { this.Title = "DriverSafetyCheckTrigger"; pi_SiteUrl = SiteURL; } public override void Execute(Guid targetInstanceId) { using (SPSite siteCollection = new SPSite(pi_SiteUrl)) { using (SPWeb site = siteCollection.RootWeb) { SPList taskList = site.Lists["Driver Safety Check"]; foreach(SPListItem item in taskList.Items) { item.Update(); } } } } } And the only thing in the feature reciever class is that i have overridden the FeatureActivated method below: public override void FeatureActivated(SPFeatureReceiverProperties Properties) { SPSite site = Properties.Feature.Parent as SPSite; // Make sure the job isn't already registered. foreach (SPJobDefinition job in site.WebApplication.JobDefinitions) { if (job.Name == "DriverSafetyCheckTrigger") job.Delete(); } // Install the job. DriverSafetyCheckTrigger oDriverSafetyCheckTrigger = new DriverSafetyCheckTrigger(site.Url, site.WebApplication); SPDailySchedule oSchedule = new SPDailySchedule(); oSchedule.BeginHour = 1; oDriverSafetyCheckTrigger.Schedule = oSchedule; oDriverSafetyCheckTrigger.Update(); } The problem i have is that when i try to activate the feature it throws a NullReferenceException on the line oDriverSafetyCheckTrigger.Update(). I am not sure what is null in this case, the example i have followed for this is this tutorial. I am not sure what I am doing wrong.

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ruby gem not found although it is installed

- by Eimantas

I found some similar problems here on SO, but none seem to match my case (sorry if I overlooked). Here's my problem: I installed oauth-plugin gem to ruby gems dir, but trying to use it in rails app tells me that it's not being found. Here's the output of relevant commands: Instalation % s gem install oauth-plugin Successfully installed oauth-plugin-0.3.14 1 gem installed Installing ri documentation for oauth-plugin-0.3.14... Installing RDoc documentation for oauth-plugin-0.3.14... gem which oauth-plugin output: % gem which oauth-plugin /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/oauth-plugin-0.3.14/lib/oauth-plugin.rb gem env output: % gem env RubyGems Environment: - RUBYGEMS VERSION: 1.3.6 - RUBY VERSION: 1.8.7 (2009-12-24 patchlevel 248) [i686-darwin10.2.0] - INSTALLATION DIRECTORY: /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8 - RUBY EXECUTABLE: /usr/bin/ruby - EXECUTABLE DIRECTORY: /usr/bin - RUBYGEMS PLATFORMS: - ruby - x86-darwin-10 - GEM PATHS: - /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8 - /Users/eimantas/.gem/ruby/1.8 - GEM CONFIGURATION: - :update_sources => true - :verbose => true - :benchmark => false - :backtrace => true - :bulk_threshold => 1000 - :gem => ["--no-ri", "--no-rdoc"] - :sources => ["http://gems.ruby.lt/", "http://rubygems.org/"] - REMOTE SOURCES: - http://gems.ruby.lt/ - http://rubygems.org/ Doing ls -l /usr/lib/ruby shows this: % ls -l /usr/lib/ruby lrwxr-xr-x 1 root wheel 76 Aug 14 2009 /usr/lib/ruby -> ../../System/Library/Frameworks/Ruby.framework/Versions/Current/usr/lib/ruby And the gem in question is in intended location. This is not a single gem that is not being found by rubygems (although it's located where it should be). Any guidance towards the solution is much appreciated.

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Hover effect for parent unordered list inherited by child list

- by elvista

I have a simple menu <ul id="menu"> <li class="leaf"><a href="#">Menu Item 1</a></li> <li class="leaf"><a href="#">Menu Item 2</a></li> <li class="expanded"><a href="#">Menu Item 3</a> <ul> <li class="leaf"><a href="#">Menu Item a</a></li> <li class="leaf"><a href="#">Menu Item b</a></li> <li class="leaf"><a href="#">Menu Item c</a></li> </ul> </li> <li class="leaf"><a href="#">Menu Item 4</a></li> </ul> and ul#menu li a:hover {font-weight:bold;} The problem I am facing is when I hover above a ul li li, the parent as well as all its siblings gets the hover effect. I only want the list item I hovered above to get the effect. I tried ul#menu li.leaf a: hover {..}, ul#menu li.expanded a: hover {..} , but even in that case, when I hover above li.expanded, it's child inherits the style. How do I fix this?

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Ways std::stringstream can set fail/bad bit?

- by Evan Teran

A common piece of code I use for simple string splitting looks like this: inline std::vector<std::string> split(const std::string &s, char delim) { std::vector<std::string> elems; std::stringstream ss(s); std::string item; while(std::getline(ss, item, delim)) { elems.push_back(item); } return elems; } Someone mentioned that this will silently "swallow" errors occurring in std::getline. And of course I agree that's the case. But it occurred to me, what could possibly go wrong here in practice that I would need to worry about. basically it all boils down to this: inline std::vector<std::string> split(const std::string &s, char delim) { std::vector<std::string> elems; std::stringstream ss(s); std::string item; while(std::getline(ss, item, delim)) { elems.push_back(item); } if(ss.fail()) { // *** How did we get here!? *** } return elems; } A stringstream is backed by a string, so we don't have to worry about any of the issues associated with reading from a file. There is no type conversion going on here since getline simply reads until it sees a newline or EOF. So we can't get any of the errors that something like boost::lexical_cast has to worry about. I simply can't think of something besides failing to allocate enough memory that could go wrong, but that'll just throw a std::bad_alloc well before the std::getline even takes place. What am I missing?

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Can't operator == be applied to generic types in C#?

- by Hosam Aly

According to the documentation of the == operator in MSDN, For predefined value types, the equality operator (==) returns true if the values of its operands are equal, false otherwise. For reference types other than string, == returns true if its two operands refer to the same object. For the string type, == compares the values of the strings. User-defined value types can overload the == operator (see operator). So can user-defined reference types, although by default == behaves as described above for both predefined and user-defined reference types. So why does this code snippet fail to compile? void Compare<T>(T x, T y) { return x == y; } I get the error Operator '==' cannot be applied to operands of type 'T' and 'T'. I wonder why, since as far as I understand the == operator is predefined for all types? Edit: Thanks everybody. I didn't notice at first that the statement was about reference types only. I also thought that bit-by-bit comparison is provided for all value types, which I now know is not correct. But, in case I'm using a reference type, would the the == operator use the predefined reference comparison, or would it use the overloaded version of the operator if a type defined one? Edit 2: Through trial and error, we learned that the == operator will use the predefined reference comparison when using an unrestricted generic type. Actually, the compiler will use the best method it can find for the restricted type argument, but will look no further. For example, the code below will always print true, even when Test.test<B>(new B(), new B()) is called: class A { public static bool operator==(A x, A y) { return true; } } class B : A { public static bool operator==(B x, B y) { return false; } } class Test { void test<T>(T a, T b) where T : A { Console.WriteLine(a == b); } }

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Which Perl modules can be installed just by copying lib files?

- by elliot100

I'm an absolute beginner at Perl, and am trying to use some non-core modules on my shared Linux web host. I have no command line access, only FTP. Host admins will consider installing modules on request, but the ones I want to use are updated frequently (DateTime::TimeZone for example), and I'd prefer to have control over exactly which version I'm using. By experimentation, I've found some modules can be installed by copying files from the module's lib directory to a directory on the host, and using use lib "local_path"; in my script, i.e. no compiling is required to install (DateTime and DateTime::TimeZone again). How can I tell whether this is the case for a particular module? I realise I'll have to resolve dependencies myself. Additionally: if I wanted to be able to install any module, including those which require compiling, what would I be looking for in terms of hosting? I'm guessing at the moment I share a VM with several others and the minimum provision I'd need would be a dedicated VM with shell access?

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How to figure out what error my Java Eclipse project has?

- by Greg Mattes

I've created a Java project from existing source with an Ant build script in Eclipse. I cannot run my project because Eclipse tells me that there is at least one error in it. Now, I know that the project runs fine on the command line, so I suspect an Eclipse configuration error. As far as I can tell, the only feedback that I have from Eclipse is a little red X on my project in the Package Explorer window and dialog window when I try to run the project says there are errors in the project This is all wonderful, but what is the error? Is there a "show me the next error" button somewhere? In the past, on other Eclipse projects, I've notice other little red X's on folders containing source files with errors, the little red X's appear on the source files as well. I scanned (manually) through all of the source files and I haven't found any other red X's (again, where is the "next error" button?). If I select the "Proceed" button I am greeted with a java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError for my main class, which makes me suspect a classpath issue. I've checked the classpath, and I'm fairly certain that it's correct. Is there a way to see the exact jvm command line that Eclipse is invoking? I realize that it might be invoking the JVM programmatically, and not on a "real" command line. In any case, is there a way, other than the run configuration dialog, to see what is actually happening when I hit the "Proceed" button?

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