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  • Possible to push a hash value only if it is unique?

    - by Structure
    In the example code below, assuming that the value $keyvalue is constantly changing, I am attempting to use a single line (or something similarly contained) to test and see if the current $keyvalue already exists. If it does, then do nothing. If it does not, then push it. This line would reside within a while statement which is why it needs to be contained within a few lines. Preserving order does not matter as long as there are no duplicate values. my $key = "numbers"; my $keyvalue = 1; my %hash = ($key => '1'); push (@{$hash{$key}}, $keyvalue) unless exists $hash{$key}; I am not getting any errors with use strict; use warnings;, but at the same time this is not working. In the example above, I would expect that since the default value is 1 that the $keyvalue would not be pushed as it is also 1. Perhaps I have gotten myself all turned around... Are there adjustments to get this to work or any alternatives that can be used instead to accomplish the same thing?

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  • OOP + MVC advice on Member Controller

    - by dan727
    Hi, I am trying to follow good practices as much as possible while I'm learning using OOP in an MVC structure, so i'm turning to you guys for a bit of advice on something which is bothering me a little here. I am writing a site where I will have a number of different forms for members to fill in (mainly data about themselves), so i've decided to set up a Member controller where all of the forms relating to the member are represented as individual methods. This includes login/logout methods, as well as editing profile data etc. In addition to these methods, i also have a method to generate the member's control panel widget, which is a constant on every page on the site while the member is logged in. The only thing is, all of the other methods in this controller all have the same dependencies and form templates, so it would be great to generate all this in the constructor, but as the control_panel method does not have the same dependencies etc, I cannot use the constructor for this purpose, and instead I have to redeclare the dependencies and same template snippets in each method. This obviously isn't ideal and doesn't follow DRY principle, but I'm wondering what I should do with the control_panel method, as it is related to the member and that's why I put it in that controller in the first place. Am I just over-complicating things here and does it make sense to just move the control_panel method into a simple helper class? Here are the basic methods of the controller: class Member_Controller extends Website_Controller { public function __construct() { parent::__construct(); if (request::is_ajax()) { $this->auto_render = FALSE; // disable auto render } } public static function control_panel() { //load control panel view $panel = new View('user/control_panel'); return $panel; } public function login() { } public function register() { } public function profile() { } public function household() { } public function edit_profile() { } public function logout() { } }

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  • Mapping a URL to a service inside a class library

    - by johnk82swe
    I'm developing a small content management solution than can be used in any ASP.NET 3.5 website. The website references some dll's and then lets the aspx's inherit my page baseclass. Some configuration in web.config is also needed, but thats it. Now I'm building a standalone Silverlight editor for the CMS. My idea is that it should communicate with the server using web services. But the question is how to make this service available to the editor? I don't want the website developers having to bother with it. If I used a REST API rather than SOAP I could just create an HttpHandler in my class library and let the website developers add a handler to it in web.config with the path "editor" and then the editor could communicate with that handler on mywebsite.com/editor. Is there any way to achieve the same with a asmx or wcf service? The important thing is that the website developers never have to set up any asmx files or anything. They should only have to specify a url and map that url to a service inside my class library. Thanks in advance!

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  • javascript var assignment conversion to target type

    - by pbhd
    searching for a function, which converts rhs to the type of lhs. e.g. var x=false // x is boolean now; x=assign (x, "true"); //should convert "true" to boolean and return that x=assign (x, 1); // dto, convert 1 to true x=0 // x is number x=assign (x, "123"); // should convert "123" to 123; so such a function can be written, thats not the question. But: Is there somewhere a somehow complete implementation of such a thing? I started with something like that: function assign (v, x) { if (typeof v==typeof x) { return x; } switch (typeof v) { case 'boolean' : { return x=='true'?true:false; } case 'number' : { return parseFloat(x); } } return "xxx"; } var v=true; var x='true'; var r1=assign (v, x); console.log (typeof r1+ " "+r1); v=10; x="123"; var r1=assign (v, x); console.log (typeof r1+ " "+r1); which of course is not complete, but maybe shows what I'm goig for.

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  • Java / Spring MVC 3 validation of an email address

    - by Tim
    I have a Java backend with Spring MVC and I am using validation in this way on my domain object for an email address: import javax.validation.constraints.NotNull; import javax.validation.constraints.Pattern; import javax.validation.constraints.Size; ... @NotNull @Size(min = 1, max = 100) @Pattern(regexp="^([a-zA-Z0-9\\-\\.\\_]+)'+'(\\@)([a-zA-Z0-9\\-\\.]+)'+'(\\.)([a-zA-Z]{2,4})$") private String email; But all I get with these lines of code Set<ConstraintViolation<Person>> failures = validator.validate(personObject); ... Map<String, String> failureMessages = new HashMap<String, String>(); for (ConstraintViolation<Person> failure : failures) { failureMessages.put(failure.getPropertyPath().toString(), failure.getMessage()); System.out.println(failure.getPropertyPath().toString()+" - "+failure.getMessage()) } I get this on the console: email - must match "^([a-zA-Z0-9\\-\\.\\_]+)'+'(\\@)([a-zA-Z0-9\\-\\.]+)'+'(\\.)([a-zA-Z]{2,4})$" but I have as email address [email protected], so the regexp does not match. So I have two prolems: What's wrong here? And how can I define a error message on my own, because display this to the user, that is not a good thing :-) Thank you in advance for your help and Best Regards.

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  • Vacancy Tracking Algorithm implementation in C++

    - by Dave
    I'm trying to use the vacancy tracking algorithm to perform transposition of multidimensional arrays in C++. The arrays come as void pointers so I'm using address manipulation to perform the copies. Basically, there is an algorithm that starts with an offset and works its way through the whole 1-d representation of the array like swiss cheese, knocking out other offsets until it gets back to the original one. Then, you have to start at the next, untouched offset and do it again. You repeat until all offsets have been touched. Right now, I'm using a std::set to just fill up all possible offsets (0 up to the multiplicative fold of the dimensions of the array). Then, as I go through the algorithm, I erase from the set. I figure this would be fastest because I need to randomly access offsets in the tree/set and delete them. Then I need to quickly find the next untouched/undeleted offset. First of all, filling up the set is very slow and it seems like there must be a better way. It's individually calling new[] for every insert. So if I have 5 million offsets, there's 5 million news, plus re-balancing the tree constantly which as you know is not fast for a pre-sorted list. Second, deleting is slow as well. Third, assuming 4-byte data types like int and float, I'm using up actually the same amount of memory as the array itself to store this list of untouched offsets. Fourth, determining if there are any untouched offsets and getting one of them is fast -- a good thing. Does anyone have suggestions for any of these issues?

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  • "javascript: void(0)" links sometimes break event handlers in internet explorer

    - by internet man
    A while back I ran in to a problem where after clicking an anchor with "javascript: void(0)" events just stopped firing. I read that following a link puts the page in a different state and in that different state events don't fire. Even though the link is not real, it sometimes confuses IE. Anyway, I removed the "javascript: void(0)"'s and the problem has not been seen again. Now, in a different application I am seeing the same thing... kinda. Clicking the "javascript: void(0)" sometimes has no ill effect. But then for some reason or another after clicking the bad link the page will stop working. Once this happens it will continue to happen consistently until the client machine is rebooted. After reboot, you are back to it sometimes happening. Crazy right? Reboot fixing a web page!?!?! So, my question is has anyone seen this before? Can anyone give an explanation for this issue? Any documentation on this issue? I can't seem to find anything on it again. Does this even make sense? I already know "javascript: void(0)" is bad practice... I am just looking to understand the issue. Specifically, this is IE7. Thanks for reading!

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  • Windows service (hosting WCF service) stops immediately on start up

    - by Thr33Dii
    My Question: I cannot navigate to the base address once the service is installed because the service won't remain running (stops immediately). Is there anything I need to do on the server or my machine to make the baseAddress valid? Background: I'm trying to learn how to use WCF services hosted in Windows Services. I have read several tutorials on how to accomplish this and it seems very straight forward. I've looked at this MSDN article and built it step-by-step. I can install the service on my machine and on a server, but when I start the service, it stops immediately. I then found this tutorial, which is essentially the same thing, but it contains some clients that consume the WCF service. I downloaded the source code, compiled, installed, but when I started the service, it stopped immediately. Searching SO, I found a possible solution that said to define the baseAddress when instantiating the ServiceHost, but that didnt help either. My serviceHost is defined as: serviceHost = new ServiceHost( typeof( CalculatorService ), new Uri( "http://localhost:8000/ServiceModelSamples/service" ) ); My service name, base address, and endpoint: <service name="Microsoft.ServiceModel.Samples.CalculatorService" behaviorConfiguration="CalculatorServiceBehavior"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="http://localhost:8000/ServiceModelSamples/service"/> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="Microsoft.ServiceModel.Samples.ICalculator"/> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange"/> </service> I've verified the namespaces are identical. It's just getting frustrating that the tutorials seem to assume that the Windows service will start as long as all the stated steps are followed. I'm missing something and it's probably right in front of me. Please help!

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  • strange doctrine update problem

    - by larryzhao
    Hi, guys, I have a simple table like following: class SnookerCurrentInfo extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('current_frame_id', 'integer', 4, array('notnull' => 'false')); $this->hasColumn('current_player_id', 'integer', 4, array('notnull' => 'false')); $this->hasColumn('current_score1', 'integer', 4, array('notnull' => 'false')); $this->hasColumn('current_score2', 'integer', 4, array('notnull' => 'false')); } public function setUp(){ $this->setTableName('snooker_current_info'); } } and I would like to keep only one entry in this table. So every time the value is changed I read the entry with id = 1 out and change the object and execute save. like the following: $info = Doctrine::getTable('SnookerCurrentInfo')->find(1); $info->current_frame_id = $jsonInfo['current_frame_id']; $info->current_player_id = $jsonInfo['current_player_id']; $info->current_score1 = $jsonInfo['current_score1']; $info->current_score2 = $jsonInfo['current_score2']; $info->save(); but the strange thing is, I try to make it clear. Let's say at first, the entry is (30, 1, 1, 0) and I switch player, so update the entry to (30, 2, 1, 0). and I switch the player back again, so the entry should be updated to (30, 1, 1, 0), but this is not affected to the database!! In the database, the entry still remains as (30, 2, 1, 0)!!!! But if after (30, 2, 1, 0), I update the score to (30, 2, 1, 1) and then switch the player back (30, 1, 1, 1) then this is ok. What's that? How should I deal with it? Thanks for a lot helping, really urgent!!

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  • Composable FLinq expressions

    - by Daniel
    When doing linq-to-sql in c#, you could do something like this: var data = context.MyTable.Where(x => x.Parameter > 10); var q1 = data.Take(10); var q2 = data.Take(3); q1.ToArray(); q2.ToArray(); This would generate 2 separate SQL queries, one with TOP 10, and the other with TOP 3. In playing around with Flinq, I see that: let data = query <@ seq { for i in context.MyTable do if x.Parameter > 10 then yield i } @> data |> Seq.take 10 |> Seq.toList data |> Seq.take 3 |> Seq.toList is not doing the same thing. Here it seems to do one full query, and then do the "take" calls on the client side. An alternative that I see used is: let q1 = query <@ for i in context.MyTable do if x.Param > 10 then yield i } |> Seq.take 10 @> let q2 = query <@ for i in context.MyTable do if x.Param > 10 then yield i } |> Seq.take 3 @> These 2 generate the SQL with the appropriate TOP N filter. My problem with this is that it doesn't seem composable. I'm basically having to duplicate the "where" clause, and potentially would have to duplicate other other subqueries that I might want to run on a base query. Is there a way to have F# give me something more composable? (I originally posted this question to hubfs, where I have gotten a few answers, dealing with the fact that C# performs the query transformation "at the end", i.e. when the data is needed, where F# is doing that transformation eagerly.)

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  • How to load src in html5 Video tag from JavaScript?

    - by luis_laurent
    Here is the thing, I'm working with ASP.NET and I'm using this particular SignalR library to broadcast a video to my clients, but as far as I know I can not stream video because signalR is a messaging system and it is not intended to stream video, files or things like that. Now what I am trying to do is to split the video into buffers that is Base64-encoded into a string, then on the client I am decoding this string and I am trying to load it into the source of a Video tag. Here I show you what I am doing on the client: HTML Code: <video id="myVideo"> <source id="video_source"> </video> Javascript Code: //here somehow I am getting the string with the base64-encoded video function playVideo(message) { var myVideo = document.getElementById("myVideo"); var mySource = document.getElementById("video_source"); mySource.setAttribute("src", getEncodedVideoString("avi", message)); myVideo.load(); myVideo.play(); }; // here I am formatting and concatenating the string for my source attribute function getEncodedVideoString(type, file) { return 'data:video/' + type + ';base64,' + $.base64.decode(file); } Well as you can see, at the moment I'm facing a scenario a little weird, but I already have the video encoded on the client, now I just need to find out the way to reproduce that video. And here is when my question comes up, does any one has done something like this before, or you have any idea or suggestion to do that? P.S I am using this jquery-base64 library to decode my string

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  • Return node level of hierarchical xml

    - by Ryan
    In a treeview you can retrieve the level of an item. I am trying to accomplish the same thing with the given input being an object. The XML data I will use for this example would be something like the following <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Testing> <Numbers> <Number val="1"> <Number val="1.1"> <Number val="1.1.1"> <Number val="1.1.2" /> <Number val="1.1.3" /> <Number val="1.1.4" /> </Number> </Number> <Number val="1.2" /> <Number val="1.3" /> <Number val="1.4" /> </Number> <Number val="2" /> <Number val="3" /> <Number val="4" /> </Numbers> <Numbers> <Number val="5" /> <Number val="6" /> <Number val="7" /> <Number val="8" /> </Numbers> </Testing> This one is kicking my butt!

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  • EF 4 Query - Issue with Multiple Parameters

    - by Brian
    Hello, A trick to avoiding filtering by nullable parameters in SQL was something like the following: select * from customers where (@CustomerName is null or CustomerName = @CustomerName) This worked well for me in LINQ to SQL: string customerName = "XYZ"; var results = (from c in ctx.Customers where (customerName == null || (customerName != null && c.CustomerName == customerName)) select c); But that above query, when in ADO.NET EF, doesn't work for me; it should filter by customer name because it exists, but it doesn't. Instead, it's querying all the customer records. Now, this is a simplified example, because I have many fields that I'm utilizing this kind of logic with. But it never actually filters, queries all the records, and causes a timeout exception. But the wierd thing is another query does something similarly, with no issues. Any ideas why? Seems like a bug to me, or is there a workaround for this? I've since switched to extension methods which works. Thanks.

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  • VB.NET Program Locks Up with Internet Explorer Opened

    - by aaronsj
    I'm using Visual Studio 2008 and developing a VB.NET application. I'm having strange lockup problems with my program, but only when Internet explorer 8 is opened. When I cover my form with another window and then uncover it, I find that it has locked up. My program has no references to IE and the only thing it even has to do with IE is using Process.Start with a web address. My program works fine and exactly as it should, but only when IE is not opened. Does anyone know why a program would lock up only while IE is running? Edit: I've done some digging and I've found the offending thread in my program. I don't know what starts this thread or what it does, but when I kill it, my program no longer freezes. The thread is one of the CreateApplicationContext threads, here is the last few items in the stack trace of that thread. 6 ntkrnlpa.exe+0x897bc 7 ntdll.dll!KiFastSystemCallRet 8 mscorwrks.dll!LogHelp_TerminateOnAssert+0x61 9 mscorwrks.dll!DllUnregisterServerInternal+0x10523 10 mscorwrks.dll!DllUnregisterServerInternal+0x10542 11 mscorwrks.dll!StrongNameErrorInfo+0x34387 12 mscorwrks.dll!StrongNameErrorInfo+0x34815 13 mscorwrks.dll!CreateApplicationContext+0xbc35 14 KERNEL32.dll!GetModuleHandleA+0xdf Process explorer says my program is using no CPU nor throwing any exceptions while it is hung.

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  • How to debug properly and find causes for crashes?

    - by Newbie
    I dont know what to do anymore... its hopeless. I'm getting tired of guessing whats causing the crashes. Recently i noticed some opengl calls crashes programs randomly on some gfx cards. so i am getting really paranoid what can cause crashes now. The bad thing on this crash is that it crashes only after a long time of using the program, so i can only guess what is the problem. I cant remember what changes i made to the program that may cause the crashes, its been so long time. But luckily the previous version doesnt crash, so i could just copypaste some code and waste 10 hours to see at which point it starts crashing... i dont think i want to do that yet. The program crashes after i make it to process the same files about 5 times in a row, each time it uses about 200 megabytes of memory in the process. It crashes at random times while and after the reading process. I have createn a "safe" free() function, it checks the pointer if its not NULL, and then frees the memory, and then sets the pointer to NULL. Isn't this how it should be done? I watched the task manager memory usage, and just before it crashed it started to eat 2 times more memory than usual. Also the program loading became exponentially slower every time i loaded the files; first few loads didnt seem much slower from each other, but then it started rapidly doubling the load speeds. What should this tell me about the crash? Also, do i have to manually free the c++ vectors by using clear() ? Or are they freed after usage automatically, for example if i allocate vector inside a function, will it be freed every time the function has ended ? I am not storing pointers in the vector. -- Shortly: i want to learn to catch the damn bugs as fast as possible, how do i do that? Using Visual Studio 2008.

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  • Dynamic Data Extract Tools

    - by Kevin McGovern
    I've been searching around for a few weeks now for a tool that either is fully built or a direction of something I could build for dynamically extracting data via a web interface. Basically, what I'm looking for is a way to give users a list of all available data objects from our database and then let them pick ones from the list they'd like to view and set parameters then export the results to an excel file. Right now we're doing it purely with SQL statements but we have hundreds of objects so as you might imagine, those statements are really complex and prone to errors. It would be great if there was a tool available to do this or if someone had an idea of an easy way to organize this. Any help would be greatly appreciated. We've looked at BI tools like QlikView and Tableau but that is probably overkill for what we're trying to do. The open-source BI tools we've looked at seemed really primitive in their functionality. The other thing we looked at was MSAS (our DB is SQL Server) but I'd prefer something that was more database-agnostic and lived on a web server instead of on the database.

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  • initialize jquery slider with hidden input value from database.

    - by ludwigs3rd
    I'm using a slider as user input for a screen. Basically it's a bulk update screen where there is a table with multiple rows, thus multiple sliders. I created it so that the hidden value is what gets posted in the form. <td> <input class="percentageProvidedHidden" type="hidden" name='<%= "Values[" + i + "].Percentage" %>' value='<%=item.Percentage %>' /> <div class="percentageProvidedSlider"></div> </td> I have the update working just fine (move slider changes hidden input value, submit, values are updated in db), however, I can't get the damn thing to initialize with the value of the hidden input (note the "value: " parameter below). In this case I think $(this) isn't actually $('percentageProvidedSlider') but the page itself. Can someone help me get the slider value to initialize with the hidden input field? I'm using ASP .Net MVC 2 so if there are any methods I should try with that I welcome them as well. $('.percentageProvidedSlider').slider( { min: 0, max: 100, step: 25, value: $(this).parents('tr').find('input.percentageProvidedHidden').val(), slide: function(e, ui) { var mypos = ui.value; $(this).find('.ui-slider-handle').text(ui.value); }, change: function(event, ui) { var myVal = $(this).slider("option", "value"); $(this).parents('tr').find('input.percentageProvidedHidden').val(myVal); var myDropDown = $(this).parents('tr').find('select.verified'); } });

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  • Event-based interaction between two custom classes

    - by Antenka
    Hello everybody. I have such problem: I have 2 custom components, which have their own nesting hierarchy ... One is container for another. I have to "familiarize them" with each other. The way I'm trying to achieve that is using global events (one side is firing and the other one is catching): Application.application.addEventListener("Hello", function (data:Event):void{ // .. some actions }); //and Application.application.dispatchEvent(new Event(Hello)); Everything is pretty good, but there's one thingy .. when I'm trying to catch the event, I can't access the class, who is catching it. E.g.: Container fires the event. Child caughts it. Then should be created the connection between container and it's child. BUT, the only thing I could acheive is passing a reference to the Container in the DynamicEvent. Is there any chance that I could access the child at the event-handler function. Or maybe there's more elegant way to solve this problem ... Any help would be greately appreciated :)

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  • How to use different providers for Linq to entities?

    - by Anders Svensson
    I'm trying to familiarize myself a bit more with database programming, and I'm looking at different ways of creating a data access layer for applications. I've tried out a few ways but there is such a jungle of different database technologies that I don't know what to learn. For instance I've tried using datasets with tableadapters. Using that I am able to switch data provider rather easily (by programming against the interfaces such as IDbConnection). This is one thing I would want to achieve. But I also know everyone's talking about LINQ, and I'm trying to get to know that a bit better too. So I have tried using Linq to Sql classes as the data access layer as well, but apparently this is not provider independent (works only for SQL Server). So then I read about the Entity Framework (which just as Linq to SQL apparently has gotten its share of bashing already...). It's supposed to be provider independent everybody says, but how? I tried out a tutorial to create an entity data model, but the only providers to choose from were SQL Server/Express. Just for learning purposes, I would like to know how to use the entity framework with MS Access/OleDb. Also, I would appreciate some input on what is the preferred database technology for data access. Is it LINQ still after all the bashing, or should you just use datasets because they are provider independent? Any pointers for what to learn would be great, because it's just too much to learn it all if I'm not going to use it in the end...!

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  • Calling a register method from 2 or more controllers best practice

    - by PussInBoots
    I don't want to repeat myself. That is, I don't want the same code in two different controllers. I always start from a default mvc5 web app project. That project has a Register ActionMethod in an AccountController: // // GET: /Account/Register [AllowAnonymous] public ActionResult Register() { return View(); } // // POST: /Account/Register [HttpPost] [AllowAnonymous] [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] public async Task<ActionResult> Register(RegisterViewModel model) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { var user = new ApplicationUser() { UserName = model.UserName }; var result = await UserManager.CreateAsync(user, model.Password); if (result.Succeeded) { await SignInAsync(user, isPersistent: false); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { AddErrors(result); } } // If we got this far, something failed, redisplay form return View(model); } Say I have a CampaignController and I want to register a user when he/she is on that page, fills out his/her username and pass and clicks the send form/submit button. What is the best thing to do in the ActionMethod of that form/controller? Yes, I want to have the registerform in two or more places. What is the best way to accomplish this in mvc 5?

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  • AS3 TextField is blank, doesn't accept any of my settings??

    - by Andy Melichar
    Having a strange issue with assigning a TextField to a movie clip. nameFormat = new TextFormat(); nameFormat.size = 14; nameFormat.color = "0x000000"; nameFormat.border = true; nameFormat.font = "Arial"; charName = new TextField(); charName.defaultTextFormat = nameFormat; charName.text = value.charname; charName.x = 92.5; charName.y = 6.5; charName.width = 205; charName.height = 21; thechars[value.charid].addChild(charName); If I trace charName.text it traces correctly, but when the containing movieclip is displayed, it is always blank and none of my settings (borders, background color, etc..) show up. I'm placing several of these movieclips into another movieclip, which is then added to a scroller as such: scrollContent.addChild(thechars[newvalue.charid]); theScroller.source = scrollContent; The strange thing is that I am using the exact same method to drop a button into each of the 'thechars' and it shows up and works fine. AND... if I hover my mouse over the spot where the textField should be, I can see my mouse change from a pointer to a text cursor, so the textFields are showing up, they are just blank? Help?

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  • Smarty/PHP loop not being passed to IE(Pc) or Chrome/FF(Mac)

    - by Kyle Sevenoaks
    Hi, I've been working on a site that has a lot of PHP/Smarty involved, I've been asked to re-skin a webstore checkout process, but during this we've discovered this issue. This particular quirk is one part of a tax calculation that doesn't get sent to the browser in IE for PC and Chrome/FF for the Mac. It's NOT in the output source in the browsers, but is in FF, Chrome and Opera on the PC. Here is the code that doesn't "work:" {foreach $cart.taxes.$currency as $tax} <div id="subTotalCaption2"><p style="width:100px;">{$tax.name_lang}:</p></div> <div id="taxAmount2"><p>{$tax.formattedAmount}</p></div> {/foreach} It's not a CSS issue as if you go all the way through the checkout process and then back to the order page (Not using the back button, using the on-site links) it works. There is another calculation on the last page of the process that does the same thing: {foreach from=$order.taxes.$currency item="tax"} <tr> <td colspan="{$colspan}" class="tax">{$tax.name_lang}:</td> <td>{$tax.formattedAmount}</td> </tr> {/foreach} I guess my question is what could cause this to not be read (Parsed?) in IE and the mac but other browsers do it fine on the PC. Thanks.

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  • jQuery Toggle switch images

    - by Sixfoot Studio
    Hi Guys, I have a situation where I am not understanding jQuery's Toggle. I have two buttons, both of them open the same content and when you click on either button the content should open or close and the attribute changes the button from open to closed. (So both buttons do the same function). Only thing is, when I click on the top button and it opens my content and then click on the lower button to close it, the image attributes are switched incorrectly. Here's a very stripped down version of what my code looks like and I would appreciate some help. <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> $(function () { var open = false; $("#button1, #button2").toggle( function () { open = true; $("#button1").attr("src", "images/btn-open.gif"); $("#button2").attr("src", "images/btn-open.gif"); }, function () { if (open) { $("#button1").attr("src", "images/btn-closed.gif"); $("#button2").attr("src", "images/btn-closed.gif"); } else { $("#button1").attr("src", "images/btn-open.gif"); $("#button2").attr("src", "images/btn-open.gif"); } open = false; } ); }); </script> <img id="button1" src="images/btn-open.gif"></img> <br /> <br /> <br /> <br /> <img id="button2" src="images/btn-open.gif"></img>

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  • ObjectDataSource firing twice, or on its own

    - by LoveMeSomeCode
    Can someone explain exactly how/when an ObjectDataSource fires? I have an ASP.NET page, with a GridView, which is referencing an ODS. I put a breakpoint in the method the ODS is using, and noticed it was firing twice. I looked into the code and the answer seemed obvious at first. I had Page_Load() { if(!Page.IsPostBack) { MethodA(); MethodB(); } } where MethodA and MethodB were both eventually calling gv.DataBind(). This made sense because I assume that each call to GridView.DataBind() would result in asking the ODS for data, and therefore running my data access method. The weird thing is that when comment out the call to MethodA, it still fires twice. Checking the call stack shows the method being run first as a result of MethodB, and then again, with no trail except [External Code]. This mystery load does not happen when I let MethodA and MethodB both execute. Any idea what's going on here? Any idea what other code I might have that is asking the ODS for data? I'm starting to think all these 'no code' data controls are more obfuscation and BS than they're worth.

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  • Website hosting from home - IIS6 [closed]

    - by Paul
    I'm wanting to host a few websites from home, primarily because I'm using some BETA Microsoft software (.NET 4 and EF) and don't want to install it on my production server which is hosted at eukhost.com. Basically, I'm completely new to this sort of thing. So far, here is what I've done: Registered the domain name at namecheap.com (let's call it mydomain.com) Gone to "Nameserver Registration" in the panel and entered my IP address for the NS1 and NS2 records (let's say the IP is 0.0.0.0). Gone to "Domain Name Server Setup" and entered ns1.mydomain.com & ns2.mydomain.com Forwarded requests from port 80 to my internal IP (let's say 192.168.1.254) Created the website in IIS (I'm just testing with a single website so far, so have not created any host header values) Now, if I type in the IP address (http://0.0.0.0) I get the site as expected. However, if I enter http://www.mydomain.com I get an error saying "DNS Error - Cannot find server". I'm aware that there is a service from DynDNS that will automatically change the IP if I have a dynamic address, however my IP has remained static since I installed the ISP (since October) so I don't need this. Is there any way that I can get the DNS to work just by configuring IIS or something in Windows? I don't really want to have to pay for any 3rd party service. Thanks,

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