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  • JQuery Control Update Not Happening

    - by Mad Halfling
    Hi, I've got a script that disables a button input control, empties a table body and then (after an AJAX call) re-populates it. It all works fine but sometimes there are a lot of rows in the table so the browser (IE) takes a while to empty and refill it. The strange thing is, while the rows are being emptied, the button still appears to be enabled, however if I put an alert between the button being disabled and the tbody being emptied, the button works properly, disabling visibly before the the alert comes up. Is there any way I can get the button to update before the resource consuming table emptying process/command commences? Thx MH Code sample, as requested (but it's not complex, so I didn't initially include it) $('#Search').attr('disabled', true); $('#StatusSpan').empty(); $('#DisplayTBody').empty(); then I perform my AJAX call, re-enable the button and repopulate the table. As I mentioned, normally this is really quick and isn't a problem, but if there are, say, 1500 rows in the table it takes a while to clear down but the 'Search' button doesn't update on the screen, however if I put an alert after the .attr('disabled' line the button visibly updates when the alert box is up, but without that the button doesn't visibly disable until after the table clears (which is about 3 or 4 seconds with 1500 rows), it just stays in it's down/"mid-press" state. I don't have a problem with the time the browser is taking to render the table changes, that's just life, but I need the users to see visible feedback so they know the search has started

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  • How to emulate a BEFORE DELETE trigger in SQL Server 2005

    - by Mark
    Let's say I have three tables, [ONE], [ONE_TWO], and [TWO]. [ONE_TWO] is a many-to-many join table with only [ONE_ID and [TWO_ID] columns. There are foreign keys set up to link [ONE] to [ONE_TWO] and [TWO] to [ONE_TWO]. The FKs use the ON DELETE CASCADE option so that if either a [ONE] or [TWO] record is deleted, the associated [ONE_TWO] records will be automatically deleted as well. I want to have a trigger on the [TWO] table such that when a [TWO] record is deleted, it executes a stored procedure that takes a [ONE_ID] as a parameter, passing the [ONE_ID] values that were linked to the [TWO_ID] before the delete occurred: DECLARE @Statement NVARCHAR(max) SET @Statement = '' SELECT @Statement = @Statement + N'EXEC [MyProc] ''' + CAST([one_two].[one_id] AS VARCHAR(36)) + '''; ' FROM deleted JOIN [one_two] ON deleted.[two_id] = [one_two].[two_id] EXEC (@Statement) Clearly, I need a BEFORE DELETE trigger, but there is no such thing in SQL Server 2005. I can't use an INSTEAD OF trigger because of the cascading FK. I get the impression that if I use a FOR DELETE trigger, when I join [deleted] to [ONE_TWO] to find the list of [ONE_ID] values, the FK cascade will have already deleted the associated [ONE_TWO] records so I will never find any [ONE_ID] values. Is this true? If so, how can I achieve my objective? I'm thinking that I'd need to change the FK joining [TWO] to [ONE_TWO] to not use cascades and to do the delete from [ONE_TWO] manually in the trigger just before I manually delete the [TWO] records. But I'd rather not go through all that if there is a simpler way.

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  • Pthread - setting scheduler parameters

    - by Andna
    I wanted to use read-writer locks from pthread library in a way, that writers have priority over readers. I read in my man pages that If the Thread Execution Scheduling option is supported, and the threads involved in the lock are executing with the scheduling policies SCHED_FIFO or SCHED_RR, the calling thread shall not acquire the lock if a writer holds the lock or if writers of higher or equal priority are blocked on the lock; otherwise, the calling thread shall acquire the lock. so I wrote small function that sets up thread scheduling options. void thread_set_up(int _thread) { struct sched_param *_param=malloc(sizeof (struct sched_param)); int *c=malloc(sizeof(int)); *c=sched_get_priority_min(SCHED_FIFO)+1; _param->__sched_priority=*c; long *a=malloc(sizeof(long)); *a=syscall(SYS_gettid); int *b=malloc(sizeof(int)); *b=SCHED_FIFO; if (pthread_setschedparam(*a,*b,_param) == -1) { //depending on which thread calls this functions, few thing can happen if (_thread == MAIN_THREAD) client_cleanup(); else if (_thread==ACCEPT_THREAD) { pthread_kill(params.main_thread_id,SIGINT); pthread_exit(NULL); } } } sorry for those a,b,c but I tried to malloc everything, still I get SIGSEGV on the call to pthread_setschedparam, I am wondering why?

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  • NSView only redraws on breakpoint

    - by Jacopo
    I have a custom view inside a NSPopover. It should change according to user input and it does the first time the user interact with it but it fails to redraw the following times. I have tried to put an NSLog inside the -drawRect: method and it doesn't get called during normal execution. When I try to debug and put a breakpoint inside the method it gets called normally and the app works as it should. I explicitly call the view -setNeedsDisplay: method every time I need it to redraw. I don't understand why it should make a difference. Here is the code that update the status of the view. These methods are part of the NSTextField delegate method -textDidChange: and I checked that these get called every time the user type something in the textfield associated with popover. [tokenCloud tokensToHighlight:[NSArray arrayWithObject:completeSuggestionString]]; tokenCloud.tokens = filteredTokens; [tokenCloud setNeedsDisplay:YES]; The views is a series of recessed button. The first line update the status of all the buttons in the popover and the second add or delete buttons. They both work properly because the first time they are called the view is update properly. I have also checked that both the status of the buttons in tokenCloud and its property tokens are updated correctly. The problem is that the NSView subclass, tokenCloud, doesn't redraw so the changes are not reflected in the UI the second time. Here is the draw method of the view: - (void)drawRect:(NSRect)rect { [self recalculateButtonLocations]; NSLog(@"Redrawn"); } Again this method gets called normally every time I update the view if I place a breakpoint in [self recalculateButtonLocations];. If instead I let the app run normally nothing gets logged in the console the second time I update the view. Same thing if I include the NSLog in the recalculateButtonLocations method, nothing gets logged the second time meaning that the method is not called.

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  • Div Container Cleanup?

    - by Nto
    Just wondering if its possible to cleanup (less code needed to do the same thing) making this div container. Basically it's just a div with a background image however the top & bottom of the div have rounded graphical corners which is why I have a top, middle, and bottom div inside the container div. <div class="fbox"> <div class="ftop"></div> <div class="fmid"> Fullbox Text Goes Here </div> <div class="fbot"></div> </div> Css: .fbox { width: 934px; margin: 0 auto; opacity: 0.70; } .ftop { width: 934px; background:url(../images/cb/full.png) no-repeat 0 -34px; height: 17px; margin:0 } .fmid { width: 894px; padding-left: 20px; padding-right: 20px; background:url(../images/cb/fullmid.png) repeat-y; min-height: 50px; margin:0 } .fbot { width: 934px; background:url(../images/cb/full.png) no-repeat 0 -17px; height: 17px; margin:0 } Outcome: http://img709.imageshack.us/img709/6681/fbox.jpg

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  • float** allocation limit + serialized struct problem. Need advice!

    - by jmgunn
    basically im getting an allocation limit error/warning when i create a float** array. the function i am calling to fill the float** retrieves data from a struct loaded from a file. The function works fine when i use one object but when i load 2 objects into memory i get the limit error. I am pretty sure this is to do with byte alignment or a similar thing because my struct is saved with a float** member which i am sure you are not susposed to do !?! Please confirm this! The next question i have now is how to save/serialize the float** member of this struct? I cant really afford to put an upper bound on the array ie "float [10000][3]" because i need/want to use this structure as a base for many other types of objects that may have well under the upper bound. Stroking my chin here! Any help/advice will recieve my highest gratitude. BTW these said struct objects will be used in a game/graphics package, the float** is a float[3] array for storing vertices in a model. Much thanks in advance

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  • WPF: Trying to add a class to Window.Resources Again

    - by user3952846
    I did exactly the same thing, but still the same error is occurring: "The tag 'CenterToolTipConverter' does not exist in XML namespace 'clr-namespace:WpfApplication1;assembly=WpfApplication1'. Line 12 Position 10." CenterToolTipConverter.cs namespace WpfApplication1 { public class CenterToolTipConverter : IMultiValueConverter { public object Convert(object[] values, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { if (values.FirstOrDefault(v => v == DependencyProperty.UnsetValue) != null) { return double.NaN; } double placementTargetWidth = (double)values[0]; double toolTipWidth = (double)values[1]; return (placementTargetWidth / 2.0) - (toolTipWidth / 2.0); } public object[] ConvertBack(object value, Type[] targetTypes, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotSupportedException(); } } } MainWindow.xaml <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:WpfApplication1;assembly=WpfApplication1" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <Window.Resources> <local:CenterToolTipConverter x:Key="myCenterToolTipConverter"/> </Window.Resources> </Window> What am I doing wrong? Thanks in advance!!!

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  • The cross-thread usage of "HttpContext.Current" property and related things

    - by smwikipedia
    I read from < Essential ASP.NET with Examples in C# the following statement: Another useful property to know about is the static Current property of the HttpContext class. This property always points to the current instance of the HttpContext class for the request being serviced. This can be convenient if you are writing helper classes that will be used from pages or other pipeline classes and may need to access the context for whatever reason. By using the static Current property to retrieve the context, you can avoid passing a reference to it to helper classes. For example, the class shown in Listing 4-1 uses the Current property of the context to access the QueryString and print something to the current response buffer. Note that for this static property to be correctly initialized, the caller must be executing on the original request thread, so if you have spawned additional threads to perform work during a request, you must take care to provide access to the context class yourself. I am wondering about the root cause of the bold part, and one thing leads to another, here is my thoughts: We know that a process can have multiple threads. Each of these threads have their own stacks, respectively. These threads also have access to a shared memory area, the heap. The stack then, as I understand it, is kind of where all the context for that thread is stored. For a thread to access something in the heap it must use a pointer, and the pointer is stored on its stack. So when we make some cross-thread calls, we must make sure that all the necessary context info is passed from the caller thread's stack to the callee thread's stack. But I am not quite sure if I made any mistake. Any comments will be deeply appreciated. Thanks. ADD Here the stack is limited to user stack.

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  • How many hours a day (of the standard 8) do you actually work? [closed]

    - by someone
    Possible Duplicate: How much do you [really] work a day When I started working (not so long ago), I was very conscientious about really working. If I didn't work for 10 minutes at a time, I felt like I was cheating. But as I started to look around me, I realized that I was the only one... and most of my coworkers were spending a big percentage of their time browsing the internet or playing solitaire. I started to slack off a little more than usual... while still basically getting all my work done. But while I do all that's required of me, and usually quickly, I no longer beg for work to fill up my spare time; I'm content to do what I'm told and play around when no one makes sure I'm busy enough. Which means that I'm often bored and underutilized. (Which I was even when I begged for work - people are pretty laid back about the workload and don't seem to realize how much I can get done if pushed to the fullest.) But I was just talking to a friend who graduated with me and also recently started working... and she came to me with the same concerns about slacking. She's working remotely, which means there are often gaps in communication when she can't really get anything done... And she's feeling guilty about it. Which made me rethink the whole thing... So, as workers, how many hours, out of the 8 standard average, are you actually working (honestly)? And, as bosses, how many hours do you expect your workers to work? And from an ethical standpoint, how much free time, or space out time, can workers have during the day without being considered to be "cheating" their office of labor and money?

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  • Writing all the html of a document with jquery instead of in the page body?

    - by Robert
    I'm a UI person currently working on a web application, where most of the people I work with are back end developers. I'm currently at a disagreement with them about whether or not the above is a prudent thing to do. This application doe use quite a bit of JavaScript, and wouldn't even work without it unfortunately. This being the case, One of the back end developers that I'm working with is claiming that pages could and even SHOULD be build completely with JavaScript or jquery. This caught me completely off guard. We're talking about div tags, lists, background images and text here. I'm trying to explain to him that this isn't the right way to do things at all, and from a best practices perspective: content(html) should be separate from presentation(css), and behavior(script etc.). I know that it's possible to write html in jquery, although I haven't done it, but am I wrong in my thinking that this isn't the way things should be done. Is it even possible to write ALL the code with jquery? would love to hear any thoughts either way, as I will be discussing this with him again tomorrow.

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  • XStream noclassdeffound error

    - by Jimmy
    I am attempting to run Xstream in a netbeans proof of concept project. I have the following code. XStream xstream = new XStream(); FileOutputStream fis = new FileOutputStream("Test.xml"); xstream.toXML(company, fis); The program is crashing on the first line of code with the following error. Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/xmlpull/v1/XmlPullParserException at com.thoughtworks.xstream.XStream.<init>(XStream.java:336) at Parser.XParser.Parse(XParser.java:24) at rejaxbtest.REJAXBTest.main(REJAXBTest.java:39) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.xmlpull.v1.XmlPullParserException at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:366) at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:355) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:354) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:423) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:308) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:356) ... 3 more Java Result: 1 I have seen one other thread with this problem, but the answer that was given was put the jar in the project lib directory, but netbeans has already correctly finished that task. Any other possible thing that would cause java not to recognize the Xstream class at runtime even though it is fine at compile time? Thanks Jimmy

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  • Strange Puzzle - Invalid memory access of location

    - by Rob Graeber
    The error message I'm getting consistently is: Invalid memory access of location 0x8 rip=0x10cf4ab28 What I'm doing is making a basic stock backtesting system, that is iterating huge arrays of stocks/historical data across various algorithms, using java + eclipse on the latest Mac Os X. I tracked down the code that seems to be causing it. A method that is used to get the massive arrays of data and is called thousands of times. Nothing is retained so I don't think there is a memory leak. However there seems to be a set limit of around 7000 times I can iterate over it before I get the memory error. The weird thing is that it works perfectly in debug mode. Does anyone know what debug mode does differently in Eclipse? Giving the jvm more memory doesn't help, and it appears to work fine using -xint. And again it works perfectly in debug mode. public static List<Stock> getStockArray(ExchangeType e){ List<Stock> stockArray = new ArrayList<Stock>(); if(e == ExchangeType.ALL){ stockArray.addAll(getStockArray(ExchangeType.NYSE)); stockArray.addAll(getStockArray(ExchangeType.NASDAQ)); }else if(e == ExchangeType.ETF){ stockArray.addAll(etfStockArray); }else if(e == ExchangeType.NYSE){ stockArray.addAll(nyseStockArray); }else if(e == ExchangeType.NASDAQ){ stockArray.addAll(nasdaqStockArray); } return stockArray; } A simple loop like this, iterated over 1000s of times, will cause the memory error. But not in debug mode. for (Stock stock : StockDatabase.getStockArray(ExchangeType.ETF)) { System.out.println(stock.symbol); }

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  • How to insert rows in a many-to-many relationship

    - by GSound
    Hello, I am having an issue trying to save into an intermediate table. I am new on Rails and I have spent a couple of hours on this but can't make it work, maybe I am doing wrong the whole thing. Any help will be appreciated. =) The app is a simple book store, where a logged-in user picks books and then create an order. This error is displayed: NameError in OrderController#create uninitialized constant Order::Orderlist These are my models: class Book < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :orderlists has_many :orders, :through => :orderlists end class Order < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user has_many :orderlists has_many :books, :through => :orderlists end class OrderList < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :book belongs_to :order end This is my Order controller: class OrderController < ApplicationController def add if session[:user] book = Book.find(:first, :conditions => ["id = #{params[:id]}"]) if book session[:list].push(book) end redirect_to :controller => "book" else redirect_to :controller => "user" end end def create if session[:user] @order = Order.new if @order.save session[:list].each do |b| @order.orderlists.create(:book => b) # <-- here is my prob I cant make it work end end end redirect_to :controller => "book" end end Thnx in advance! Manuel

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  • Unnecessary Redundancy with Tables.

    - by Stacey
    My items are listed as follows; This is just a summary of course. But I'm using a method shown for the "Detail" table to represent a type of 'inheritence', so to speak - since "Item" and "Downloadable" are going to be identical except that each will have a few additional fields relevant only to them. My question is in this design pattern. This sort of thing appears many, many times in our projects - is there a more intelligent way to handle it? I basically need to normalize the tables as much as possible. I'm extremely new to databases and so this is all very confusing to me. There are 5 items. Awards, Items, Purchases, Tokens, and Downloads. They are all very, very similar, except each has a few pieces of data relevant only to itself. I've tried to use a declaration field (like an enumerator 'Type' field) in conjunction with nullable columns, but I was told that is a bad approach. What I have done is take everything similar and place it in a single table, and then each type has its own table that references a column in the 'base' table. The problem occurs with relationships, or junctions. Linking all of these back to a customer. Each type takes around 2 additional tables to properly junction all of the data together- and as such, my database is growing very, very large. Is there a smarter practice for this kind of behavior? Item ID | GUID Name | varchar(64) Product ID | GUID Name | varchar(64) Store | GUID [ FK ] Details | GUID [FK] Downloadable ID | GUID Name | varchar(64) Url | nvarchar(2048) Details | GUID [FK] Details ID | GUID Price | decimal Description | text Peripherals [ JUNCTION ] ID | GUID Detail | GUID [FK] Store ID | GUID Addresses | GUID Addresses ID | GUID Name | nvarchar(64) State | int [FK] ZipCode | int Address | nvarchar(64) State ID | int Name | varchar(32)

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  • Clarification on ZVals

    - by Beachhouse
    I was reading this: http://www.dereleased.com/2011/04/27/the-importance-of-zvals-and-circular-references/ And there's an example that lost me a bit. $foo = &$bar; $bar = &$foo; $baz = 'baz'; $foo = &$baz; var_dump($foo, $bar); /* string(3) "baz" NULL */ If you’ve been following along, this should make perfect sense. $foo is created, and pointed at a ZVal location identified by $bar; when $bar is created, it points at the same place $foo was pointed. That location, of course, is null. When $foo is reassigned, the only thing that changes is to which ZVal $foo points; if we had assigned a different value to $foo first, then $bar would still retain that value. I learned to program in C. I understand that PHP is different and it uses ZVals instead of memory locations as references. But when you run this code: $foo = &$bar; $bar = &$foo; It seems to me that there would be two ZVals. In C there would be two memory locations (and the values would be of the opposite memory location). Can someone explain?

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  • Background-image is not displaying in Firefox

    - by goa
    Strange thing happens. Background-image is not displaying in Firefox under some versions of WindowsXP and Windows Vista, but displays in Firefox under Mac OSX. It also displays in IE. This is CSS: .cherry_banner { background: url("library/media/images/cherry_banner_top.png") no-repeat; width: 276px; display:block; min-height:100px; padding-top: 13px; color: #fdfdfd; margin-bottom:20px; } .cherry_banner a { color: #fdfdfd; } .cherry_banner a:hover { text-decoration:underline; } .cherry_banner li { list-style-type:none; } .cherry_banner h2 { font-size: 18px; margin-bottom: 10px; } .chb_text1 { background: url("library/media/images/cherry_banner_pixel.png") repeat-y; } .chb_text2 { background: url("library/media/images/cherry_banner_bottom.gif") bottom no-repeat; padding: 4px 14px 24px 25px; } And this is html: <div id="linkcat-8" class="cherry_banner tpt"><div class="chb_text1"><div class="chb_text2"> <h2>??? ?????????</h2> <ul class='xoxo blogroll'> <li><a href="http://inveda.ru/jyotish/naksatra-calendar/">???????? ?????????? ?????????????? ????????? ????????????? ??? ?? 2010?.</a></li> </ul> </div></div></div> You can see on http://www.inveda.ru - right column - red banner.

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  • overload == (and != , of course) operator, can I bypass == to determine whether the object is null

    - by LLS
    Hello, when I try to overload operator == and != in C#, and override Equal as recommended, I found I have no way to distinguish a normal object and null. For example, I defined a class Complex. public static bool operator ==(Complex lhs, Complex rhs) { return lhs.Equals(rhs); } public static bool operator !=(Complex lhs, Complex rhs) { return !lhs.Equals(rhs); } public override bool Equals(object obj) { if (obj is Complex) { return (((Complex)obj).Real == this.Real && ((Complex)obj).Imaginary == this.Imaginary); } else { return false; } } But when I want to use if (temp == null) When temp is really null, some exception happens. And I can't use == to determine whether the lhs is null, which will cause infinite loop. What should I do in this situation. One way I can think of is to us some thing like Class.Equal(object, object) (if it exists) to bypass the == when I do the check. What is the normal way to solve the problem?

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  • How to store and synchronize a big list of strings

    - by Joel
    I have a large database table in SQLExpress on Windows, with a particular field of interest 'code'. I have an Apache web server with MySQL on Linux. The web application on the Linux box needs access to the list of all codes. The only thing it will use the list for is checking for the existence of a given code. Having the Linux server call out to the Windows server is impractical as the Windows server is behind a NAT'ed office internet connection, and it may not always be accessible. I have set it so the Windows server will push the list of codes to the web server by means of a simple HTTP POST request. However, at this point I have not implemented the storage of the codes on the Linux box. Should I store them in a MySQL table with a single field 'code'? Then I get fast indexed lookups O(1), however I think synchronization will be an issue - given an updated list of codes, pushed from the Windows box, how would I optimally synchronize the list with the database? TRUNCATE, followed by INSERT? Should I instead store them in a flat file? Then I have O(n) look up time rather than O(1). Additionally an extra constant-time overhead too, as I will be processing the file in Ruby. However, synchronization is easy - simply replace the file.

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  • SQL inner join from field defined table?

    - by Wolftousen
    I have a, currently, a total of 6 tables that are part of this question. The primary table, tableA, contains columns that all the entries in the other 5 tables have in common. The other 5 tables have columns which define the entry in tableA in more detail. For example: TableA ID|Name|Volumn|Weight|Description 0 |T1 |0.4 |0.1 |Random text 1 |R1 |5.3 |25 |Random text TableB ID|Color|Shape 0 |Blue |Sphere TableC ID|Direction|Velocity 1 |North |3.4 (column names are just examples don't take them for what they mean...) The ID field in Table A is unique to all other tables (i.e. TableB will have 0, but TableC will not, nor any other Tables). What I would like to do is select all the fields from TableA and the corresponding (according to ID field) detail Table (TableB-F). What I have currently done and not tested is added a field to TableA so it looks like this: TableA ID|Name|Volumn|Weight|Description|Table 0 |T1 |0.4 |0.1 |Random text|TableB 1 |R1 |5.3 |25 |Random text|TableC I have a few questions about this: 1.Is it proper to do such a thing to TableA, as foreign keys wont work in this situation since they all need to link to different tables? 2.If this is proper, would the SQL query look like this (ID would be input by the user)? SELECT * FROM TableA AS a INNER JOIN a.Table AS t ON a.ID = ID; 3.Is there a better way to do this? Thanks for the help.

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  • Joining tables, if percentage is above certain value

    - by CluelessGerman
    My question is similar to this one: Compare rows and get percentage However, little different. I adapted my question to the other post. I got 2 tables. First table: user_id | post_id 1 1 1 2 1 3 2 12 2 15 And second table: post_id | rating 1 1 1 2 1 3 2 1 2 5 3 null 3 1 3 4 12 4 15 1 So now I would like to count the rating for each post, in the second table. If the rating has more than, lets say, 50% positive ratings than I want to get the post_id and going it to the post_id from table one and add 1 to the user_id. At the end it would return the user_id with the number of positive posts. The result for above table would be: user_id | helpfulPosts 1 2 2 1 The post with post_id 1 and 3 have positive rating, because more than 50% have ratings of 1-3. The post with id = 2 is not positive, because the rating is exactly 50%. How would I achieve this? For clarification: It's a mysql rdbm and a positive post, is one where the number of rating_ids with 1, 2 and 3 are more than half of the overall rating. Basically the same thing, from the other thread I posted above.

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  • Filling in uninitialized array in java? (or workaround!)

    - by AlexRamallo
    Hello all, I'm currently in the process of creating an OBJ importer for an opengles android game. I'm relatively new to the language java, so I'm not exactly clear on a few things. I have an array which will hold the number of vertices in the model(along with a few other arrays as well): float vertices[]; The problem is that I don't know how many vertices there are in the model before I read the file using the inputstream given to me. Would I be able to fill it in as I need to like this?: vertices[95] = 5.004f; //vertices was defined like the example above or do I have to initialize it beforehand? if the latter is the case then what would be a good way to find out the number of vertices in the file? Once I read it using inputstreamreader.read() it goes to the next line until it reads the whole file. The only thing I can think of would be to read the whole file, count the number of vertices, then read it AGAIN the fill in the newly initialized array. Is there a way to dynamically allocate the data as is needed?

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  • Is there command-line tool to extract typedef, structure, enumeration, variable, function from a C or C++ file?

    - by FooF
    I am desiring a command-line tool to extract a definition or declaration (typedef, structure, enumeration, variable, or function) from a C or C++ source file. Also a way to replace an existing definition/declaration would be handy (after transforming the extracted definition by a user-submitted script). Is there such generic tool available, or is some resonably close approximation of such a tool? Scriptability and ability to hook-up with user created scripts or programs is of importance here, although I am academically curious of GUI programs too. Open source solutions for Unix/Linux camp are preferred (although I am curious of Windows and OS X tools too). Primary language interests are C and C++ but more generic solution would be even better (I think we do not need super accurate parsing capabilities for finding, extracting and replacing a definition in a program source file). Sample Use Cases (extra - for the curious mind): Given deeply nested structs and variable (array) initializations of these types, suppose there is a need to change a struct definition by adding or reordering fields or rewriting the variable/array definitions in more readable format without introducing errors resulting from manual labor. This would work by extracting the old initializations, then using a script/program to write the new initializations to replace the old ones. For implementing a code browsing tool - extract a definition. Decorative code generation (e.g. logging function entries / returns). Scripted code structuring (e.g. extract this and that thing and put in different place without change - version control commit comment could document the command to perform this operation to make it evident and verifiable that nothing changed). Note about tags: More accurate tag than code-generation would be code-transformation but it does not exist.

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  • .Net forms - intercepting the Close X event.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    Hi, this must be a dumb question, but I cannot figure it out. I also cannot use the designer because coders before me managed to throw GUI and logic all in one, so now it is confused. I've got to do it the old school way. I have a Form which can be closed in 3 ways: Close button, File / Close menu, and the X icon. I want them all to do the same thing. Intercepting the button and the menu events is easy. In fact, both are hooked up to an onCloseConfig method. Btw, is there a better name for this method? private void onCloseConfig(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { if (! m_configControl.Modified) { Application.Exit(); // Or should it be this.Close(); } .... // Else present a dialog, ask if they want to save. } So, to intercept the X I tried: this.FormClosing +=new FormClosingEventHandler(this.onCloseConfig); I believe this is what causes an infinite loop. I do not want that :) FormClosed is another option, but it seems too late. I just want to intercept the fact that the X was clicked, not the fact that the form is closing. Please help. Thanks!

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  • jQuery date calculator - show/hide IMG

    - by utopicam
    I have a problem with the following code. I tried changing many things (symbols, classes, imgs in the code) but this is killing me and I have no idea how to fix it. Sorry it's so specific, when solved I'll change the title to something more useful. I have two images. My jquery has to calculate the day and show one image or the other depending on that (using a class with display:none). My month has 24 days (it's a xmas thing). This is what I have so far: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ var currentTime = new Date() var day = currentTime.getDate(); if (day > 24){ day = 1; } $(".calDate").each(function(){ var curDate = $(this).attr("date"); if (curDate < day){ $(this).addClass("xMasPast"); } else if(curDate==day){ $(this).addClass("xMasActive"); } else { $(this).addClass("xMasInactive"); } }); $(".calDate2").each(function(){ var curDate = $(this).attr("date"); if (curDate > day){ $(this).addClass("xMasInactive"); } else if(curDate==day){ $(this).addClass("xMasActive"); } else { $(this).addClass("xMasActive"); } }); }); </script> But it's showing all the images. What am I missing? (any ideas on making the code simpler are more than welcomed). Thanks for your help! Update: simplified HTML <div><img src="day21.png" which="21"/></a></div> <img id="bola21" class="calDate2" src="day21.png"/>

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  • How Can I Accept a Generic Class and Use Its Properties / Methods

    - by Blake Blackwell
    I want to create a class that could hold any of a number of same type of classes. For example lets says I have a base class like follows: public class BaseClass { public string MyBaseString { get; set; } } And then I have a few derived classes like this: public class DerivedClass : BaseClass { public MyDerivedClassString { get; set; } } public class DerivedClass2 : BaseClass { public MyDerivedClass2String { get; set; } } Now I would like a class that accepts one of these implementations and does stuff with it. Here is the only thing I can think of, but there must be a better way: public class ClassA { public object MyClass { get; set; } public ClassA (object myClass) { MyClass = myClass; if (object is BaseClass) { //do something } else if (object is DerivedClass) { //do something specific to derived class } else if (object is DerivedClass2) { //do something specific to derived class 2 } } } I'm not sure really what I'm looking for here. Any ideas would be great!

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