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  • How to split xml to header and items using smooks?

    - by palto
    I have a xml file roughly like this: <batch> <header> <headerStuff /> </header> <contents> <timestamp /> <invoices> <invoice> <invoiceStuff /> </invoice> <!-- Insert 1000 invoice elements here --> </invoices> </contents> </batch> I would like to split that file to 1000 files with the same headerStuff and only one invoice. Smooks documentation is very proud of the possibilities of transformations, but unfortunately I don't want to do those. The only way I've figured how to do this is to repeat the whole structure in freemarker. But that feels like repeating the structure unnecessarily. The header has like 30 different tags so there would be lots of work involved also. What I currently have is this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <smooks-resource-list xmlns="http://www.milyn.org/xsd/smooks-1.1.xsd" xmlns:calc="http://www.milyn.org/xsd/smooks/calc-1.1.xsd" xmlns:frag="http://www.milyn.org/xsd/smooks/fragment-routing-1.2.xsd" xmlns:file="http://www.milyn.org/xsd/smooks/file-routing-1.1.xsd"> <params> <param name="stream.filter.type">SAX</param> </params> <frag:serialize fragment="INVOICE" bindTo="invoiceBean" /> <calc:counter countOnElement="INVOICE" beanId="split_calc" start="1" /> <file:outputStream openOnElement="INVOICE" resourceName="invoiceSplitStream"> <file:fileNamePattern>invoice-${split_calc}.xml</file:fileNamePattern> <file:destinationDirectoryPattern>target/invoices</file:destinationDirectoryPattern> <file:highWaterMark mark="10"/> </file:outputStream> <resource-config selector="INVOICE"> <resource>org.milyn.routing.io.OutputStreamRouter</resource> <param name="beanId">invoiceBean</param> <param name="resourceName">invoiceSplitStream</param> <param name="visitAfter">true</param> </resource-config> </smooks-resource-list> That creates files for each invoice tag, but I don't know how to continue from there to get the header also in the file. EDIT: The solution has to use Smooks. We use it in an application as a generic splitter and just create different smooks configuration files for different types of input files.

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  • MS Access 2003 - Option Group frame: can I add text boxes that are part of the frame instead of rad

    - by Justin
    Ok so this maybe a simple/silly question but I don't know so here goes: In access let's say I want to have a frame control, so I click the option group button and add it to the desgin surface. However, I am not wanting to use this as a option group with radio button selection, instead I would like to add text boxes instead the frame, so that when I reference the frame, it references every control instead of it, hence the text boxes, cbo boxes, etc.....just as it would if they were radio option selections. So can you do this? I want whatever controls I add inside the frame to be easily referenced (i.e. make all controls visible just by using frameExample.visible = true) so that I can build my own tab control groupings..... can this be done? Thanks! EDIT: What I am trying to accomplish is having a form that includes a collection of controls (input controls - cbo boxes, text boxes, etc), that serve as the Main record information. These are saved to a table via an INSERT statement on button_click because this form is unbound. Next I have 8 categories that are relative per each main record (and data that goes along with it). Each of these categories could have a sub form area and a button click that bring it's relative form into the sub form area. These sub forms would be unbound as well as I would just save data via SQL statement. So i know I could accomplish this by running the insert statement from the parent form, on the main collection control's data that would create the KeyID number, then run a SQL statement that would turn around and load that KeyID number right back onto the page in a hidden text box. Then when I click one of the sub forms and load its relative collection of controls, I could then save that data along with KeyID for each of these sub-forms/tables. SO...... I was wondering if instead you could define these controls as a collection so that you could hide and make visible all the ones you need on button clicks and avoid the need for additional forms (subs). I know that if a user enters data into a text box, and then somewhere along the way that box becomes hidden, the data still exists in it and still ends up in the SQL statement.... So I want all these controls to exist on the same form, but I thought what is I could encapsulate them into a frame like an option group, then I could call the frame and all the relative controls would be called up (made visible) as needed. Sorry for the long explanation but I thought it would help.

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  • No exception, no error, still i dont recieve the json object from my http post

    - by user2978538
    My source code: final Thread t = new Thread() { public void run() { Looper.prepare(); HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpConnectionParams.setConnectionTimeout(client.getParams(), 10000); HttpResponse response; JSONObject obj = new JSONObject(); try { HttpPost post = new HttpPost("http://pc.dyndns-office.com/mobile.asp"); obj.put("Model", ReadIn1); obj.put("Product", ReadIn2); obj.put("Manufacturer", ReadIn3); obj.put("RELEASE", ReadIn4); obj.put("SERIAL", ReadIn5); obj.put("ID", ReadIn6); obj.put("ANDROID_ID", ReadIn7); obj.put("Language", ReadIn8); obj.put("BOARD", ReadIn9); obj.put("BOOTLOADER", ReadIn10); obj.put("BRAND", ReadIn11); obj.put("CPU_API", ReadIn12); obj.put("DISPLAY", ReadIn13); obj.put("FINGERPRINT", ReadIn14); obj.put("HARDWARE", ReadIn15); obj.put("UUID", ReadIn16); StringEntity se = new StringEntity(obj.toString()); se.setContentType(new BasicHeader(HTTP.CONTENT_TYPE, "application/json")); post.setEntity(se); post.setHeader("host", "http://pc.dyndns-office.com/mobile.asp"); response = client.execute(post); if (response != null) { InputStream in = response.getEntity().getContent(); } } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Looper.loop(); } }; t.start(); } } i want to send an Json object to a Website. As far as I can see, I set the header, but still I get this exception, can someone help me? (I'm using Android-Studio) __ Edit: i don't get any exceptions anymore, but still i do not receive the json packet. When i manually call the website i get a log file entry. Does anyone know, what's wrong? Edit2: When i debug i get as response "HTTP/1.1 400 bad request" i'm sure its not an permission problem. Any ideas?

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  • Unable to disable generation of sources JAR with maven-release-plugin

    - by Chris Lieb
    I am trying to release a web project using Maven 2.2.1 and the maven-release-plugin 2.0-beta-9, but it always fails when doing release:perform on generating the sources jar for the EAR project, which makes sense since the EAR project doesn't have any source. [INFO] [INFO] [source:jar {execution: attach-sources}] [INFO] [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] [ERROR] BUILD ERROR [INFO] [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] [INFO] Error creating source archive: You must set at least one file. To try to disable the building of a sources JAR for the EAR project, I added the following to the POM for my EAR project (the version of the release plugin is set in a parent POM): <build> <plugins> ... <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-release-plugin</artifactId> <configuration> <useReleaseProfile>false</useReleaseProfile> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> </build> Upon running the release again after checking in this change, I got the same error while generating the sources JAR for the EAR project, even though this should have been disabled by the previous POM snippet. What am I doing wrong? Why is the sources JAR still being built? Edit: I've tried to make the source plugin include my application.xml file so that this error doesn't occur by adding the following POM snippet: <build> <plugins> ... <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-source-plugin</artifactId> <configuration> <includes> <include>${basedir}/META-INF/**/*</include> </includes> <useDefaultExcludes>false</useDefaultExcludes> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> </build> Unfortunately, this does not fix the problem either.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Custom Error Pages with Magical Unicorn

    - by FLClover
    my question is regarding Pure.Kromes answer to this post. I tried implementing my pages' custom error messages using his method, yet there are some problems I can't quite explain. a) When I provoke a 404 Error by entering in invalid URL such as localhost:3001/NonexistantPage, it defaults to the ServerError() Action of my error controller even though it should go to NotFound(). Here is my ErrorController: public class ErrorController : Controller { public ActionResult NotFound() { Response.TrySkipIisCustomErrors = true; Response.StatusCode = (int)HttpStatusCode.NotFound; var viewModel = new ErrorViewModel() { ServerException = Server.GetLastError(), HTTPStatusCode = Response.StatusCode }; return View(viewModel); } public ActionResult ServerError() { Response.TrySkipIisCustomErrors = true; Response.StatusCode = (int)HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; var viewModel = new ErrorViewModel() { ServerException = Server.GetLastError(), HTTPStatusCode = Response.StatusCode }; return View(viewModel); } } My error routes in Global.asax.cs: routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("{*favicon}", new { favicon = @"(.*/)?favicon.ico(/.*)?" }); routes.MapRoute( name: "Error - 404", url: "NotFound", defaults: new { controller = "Error", action = "NotFound" } ); routes.MapRoute( name: "Error - 500", url: "ServerError", defaults: new { controller = "Error", action = "ServerError" } ); And my web.config settings: <system.web> <customErrors mode="On" redirectMode="ResponseRewrite" defaultRedirect="/ServerError"> <error statusCode="404" redirect="/NotFound" /> </customErrors> ... </system.web> <system.webServer> <httpErrors errorMode="Custom" existingResponse="Replace"> <remove statusCode="404" subStatusCode="-1" /> <error statusCode="404" path="/NotFound" responseMode="ExecuteURL" /> <remove statusCode="500" subStatusCode="-1" /> <error statusCode="500" path="/ServerError" responseMode="ExecuteURL" /> </httpErrors> ... The Error views are located in /Views/Error/ as NotFound.cshtml and ServerError.cshtml. b) One funny thing is, When a server error occurs, it does in fact display the Server Error view I defined, however it also outputs a default error message as well saying that the Error page could not be found. Here's how it looks like: Do you have any advice how I could fix these two problems? I really like Pure.Kromes approach to implementing these error messages, but if there are better ways of achieving this don't hestitate to tell me. Thanks! *EDIT : * I can directly navigate to my views through the ErrorController by accessing /Error/NotFound or Error/ServerError. The views themselves only contain some text, no markup or anything. As I said, it actually works in some way, just not the way I intended it to work. There seems to be an issue with the redirect in the web.config, but I haven't been able to figure it out.

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  • Getting a screenshot of a page using .NET - Need help with code

    - by Ender
    I'm writing a specialized crawler and parser for internal use and I require the ability to take a screenshot of a web page in order to check what colours are being used throughout. The program will take in around ten web addresses and will save them as a bitmap image, from there I plan to use LockBits in order to create a list of the five most used colours within the image. To my knowledge it's the easiest way to get the colours used within a web page but if there is an easier way to do it please chime in with your suggestions. Anyway, I was going to use this program until I saw the price tag. I'm also fairly new to C#, having only used it for a few months. Can anyone provide me with a solution to my problem of taking a screenshot of a web page in order to extract the colour scheme? EDIT: Sorry for not getting back to this sooner, but I've been busy with some other things. Anyway, the code seems to work well, but the problem I am having right now is that I am running it within a form, and naturally with Application.Run() being called I cannot run two instances of the same form at once. It recommended Form.showDialog() but that broke everything. Can anyone give me a hand with this code? public static void buildScreenshotFromURL(string url) { int width = 800; int height = 600; using (WebBrowser browser = new WebBrowser()) { browser.Width = width; browser.Height = height; browser.ScrollBarsEnabled = true; // This will be called when the page finishes loading browser.DocumentCompleted += new System.Windows.Forms.WebBrowserDocumentCompletedEventHandler(OnDocumentCompleted); //browser.DocumentCompleted += OnDocumentCompleted; browser.Navigate(url); // This prevents the application from exiting until // Application.Exit is called // Application.Run() does not work as it cannot be called twice, recommended form.showDialog() // but still issues Application.Run(); } } public static void OnDocumentCompleted(object sender, WebBrowserDocumentCompletedEventArgs e) { // Define size of thumbnail neded int thumbSize = 50; // Now that the page is loaded, save it to a bitmap WebBrowser browser = (WebBrowser)sender; // Code edited from example below to make smaller bitmap and save as PNG using (Graphics graphics = browser.CreateGraphics()) { using (Bitmap bitmap = new Bitmap(browser.Width, browser.Height, graphics)) { Rectangle bounds = new Rectangle(0, 0, bitmap.Width, bitmap.Height); browser.DrawToBitmap(bitmap, bounds); Bitmap thumbBitmap = new Bitmap(bitmap.GetThumbnailImage(thumbSize, thumbSize, thumbCall, IntPtr.Zero)); thumbBitmap.Save("screenshot.png", ImageFormat.Png); handleImage(thumbBitmap); } }

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  • How hard programming is? Really. [closed]

    - by Bubba88
    Hi! The question is about your perception of programming activity. How hard/exacting this task is? There is much buzz about programming nowadays, people say that programmers are smart, very technical and abstract at a time, know much about world, psychology etc.. They say, that programmers got really powerful brain thing, cause there is much to keep in consideration simultaneously again with much information folded into each other associatively (up 10 levels of folding they say))) Still, there are some terms to specify at our own.. So that is the question: What do you think about programming in general? Is it hard? Is it 'for everyone' or for the particular kind of people only? How much non-CS background do you need to program (just to program, really; enterprise applications for example)? How long is the learning curve? (again, for programming in general) And another bunch of random questions: - If you were not to like/love programming, would that be a serious trouble bothering your current employment? - If you were to start from the beginning, would you chose that direction this time? - What other areas (jobs or maybe hobbies) are comparable to programming in the way they can explode someone's lovely brain? - Is 'non turing-complete programming' (SQL, XML, etc.) comparable to what we do or is it really way easier, less requiring, cheap and akin to cooking :)? Well, the essence is: How would you describe programming activity WRT to its difficulty? Or, on the other hand: Did you ever catch yourself thinking at some point: OMG, it's sooo hard! I don't know how would I ever program, even carried away this way and doing programming just for fun? It's very interesting to know your opinion, your'e the programmers after all. I mean much people must be exaggerating/speculating about the thing they do not really know about. But that musn't be the case here on SO :) P.S.: I'll try my best to update this post later, and you please edit it too. At least I'll get decent English in my question text :)

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  • Javascript code inside updatepanel usercontrol.

    - by Ed Woodcock
    Ok: I've got an updatepanel on an aspx page that contains a single Placeholder. Inside this placeholder I'm appending one of a selection of usercontrols depending on certain external conditions (this is a configuration page). In each of these usercontrols there is a bindUcEvents() javascript function that binds the various jQuery and javascript events to buttons and validators inside the usercontrol. The issue I'm having is that the usercontrol's javascript is not being recognised. Normally, javascript inside an updatepanel is executed when the updatepanel posts back, however none of this code can be found by the page (I've tried running the function manually via firebug's console, but it tells me it cannot find the function). Does anyone have any suggestions? Cheers, Ed. EDIT: cut down (but functional) example: Markup: <script src="/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ScriptManager ID="Script" runat="server" /> <asp:Button ID="Postback" runat="server" Text="Populate" OnClick="PopulatePlaceholder" /> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdateMe" runat="server"> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="Postback" EventName="Click" /> </Triggers> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Literal ID="Code" runat="server" /> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="PlaceMe" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </div> </form> C#: protected void PopulatePlaceholder(object sender, EventArgs e) { Button button = new Button(); button.ID = "Push"; button.Text = "push"; button.OnClientClick = "javascript:return false;"; Code.Text = "<script type=\"text/javascript\"> function bindEvents() { $('#" + button.ClientID + "').click(function() { alert('hello'); }); } bindEvents(); </script>"; PlaceMe.Controls.Add(button); }

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  • Performance Optimization for Matrix Rotation

    - by Summer_More_More_Tea
    Hello everyone: I'm now trapped by a performance optimization lab in the book "Computer System from a Programmer's Perspective" described as following: In a N*N matrix M, where N is multiple of 32, the rotate operation can be represented as: Transpose: interchange elements M(i,j) and M(j,i) Exchange rows: Row i is exchanged with row N-1-i A example for matrix rotation(N is 3 instead of 32 for simplicity): ------- ------- |1|2|3| |3|6|9| ------- ------- |4|5|6| after rotate is |2|5|8| ------- ------- |7|8|9| |1|4|7| ------- ------- A naive implementation is: #define RIDX(i,j,n) ((i)*(n)+(j)) void naive_rotate(int dim, pixel *src, pixel *dst) { int i, j; for (i = 0; i < dim; i++) for (j = 0; j < dim; j++) dst[RIDX(dim-1-j, i, dim)] = src[RIDX(i, j, dim)]; } I come up with an idea by inner-loop-unroll. The result is: Code Version Speed Up original 1x unrolled by 2 1.33x unrolled by 4 1.33x unrolled by 8 1.55x unrolled by 16 1.67x unrolled by 32 1.61x I also get a code snippet from pastebin.com that seems can solve this problem: void rotate(int dim, pixel *src, pixel *dst) { int stride = 32; int count = dim >> 5; src += dim - 1; int a1 = count; do { int a2 = dim; do { int a3 = stride; do { *dst++ = *src; src += dim; } while(--a3); src -= dim * stride + 1; dst += dim - stride; } while(--a2); src += dim * (stride + 1); dst -= dim * dim - stride; } while(--a1); } After carefully read the code, I think main idea of this solution is treat 32 rows as a data zone, and perform the rotating operation respectively. Speed up of this version is 1.85x, overwhelming all the loop-unroll version. Here are the questions: In the inner-loop-unroll version, why does increment slow down if the unrolling factor increase, especially change the unrolling factor from 8 to 16, which does not effect the same when switch from 4 to 8? Does the result have some relationship with depth of the CPU pipeline? If the answer is yes, could the degrade of increment reflect pipeline length? What is the probable reason for the optimization of data-zone version? It seems that there is no too much essential difference from the original naive version. EDIT: My test environment is Intel Centrino Duo processor and the verion of gcc is 4.4 Any advice will be highly appreciated! Kind regards!

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  • Python multiprocessing global variable updates not returned to parent

    - by user1459256
    I am trying to return values from subprocesses but these values are unfortunately unpicklable. So I used global variables in threads module with success but have not been able to retrieve updates done in subprocesses when using multiprocessing module. I hope I'm missing something. The results printed at the end are always the same as initial values given the vars dataDV03 and dataDV04. The subprocesses are updating these global variables but these global variables remain unchanged in the parent. import multiprocessing # NOT ABLE to get python to return values in passed variables. ants = ['DV03', 'DV04'] dataDV03 = ['', ''] dataDV04 = {'driver': '', 'status': ''} def getDV03CclDrivers(lib): # call global variable global dataDV03 dataDV03[1] = 1 dataDV03[0] = 0 # eval( 'CCL.' + lib + '.' + lib + '( "DV03" )' ) these are unpicklable instantiations def getDV04CclDrivers(lib, dataDV04): # pass global variable dataDV04['driver'] = 0 # eval( 'CCL.' + lib + '.' + lib + '( "DV04" )' ) if __name__ == "__main__": jobs = [] if 'DV03' in ants: j = multiprocessing.Process(target=getDV03CclDrivers, args=('LORR',)) jobs.append(j) if 'DV04' in ants: j = multiprocessing.Process(target=getDV04CclDrivers, args=('LORR', dataDV04)) jobs.append(j) for j in jobs: j.start() for j in jobs: j.join() print 'Results:\n' print 'DV03', dataDV03 print 'DV04', dataDV04 I cannot post to my question so will try to edit the original. Here is the object that is not picklable: In [1]: from CCL import LORR In [2]: lorr=LORR.LORR('DV20', None) In [3]: lorr Out[3]: <CCL.LORR.LORR instance at 0x94b188c> This is the error returned when I use a multiprocessing.Pool to return the instance back to the parent: Thread getCcl (('DV20', 'LORR'),) Process PoolWorker-1: Traceback (most recent call last): File "/alma/ACS-10.1/casa/lib/python2.6/multiprocessing/process.py", line 232, in _bootstrap self.run() File "/alma/ACS-10.1/casa/lib/python2.6/multiprocessing/process.py", line 88, in run self._target(*self._args, **self._kwargs) File "/alma/ACS-10.1/casa/lib/python2.6/multiprocessing/pool.py", line 71, in worker put((job, i, result)) File "/alma/ACS-10.1/casa/lib/python2.6/multiprocessing/queues.py", line 366, in put return send(obj) UnpickleableError: Cannot pickle <type 'thread.lock'> objects In [5]: dir(lorr) Out[5]: ['GET_AMBIENT_TEMPERATURE', 'GET_CAN_ERROR', 'GET_CAN_ERROR_COUNT', 'GET_CHANNEL_NUMBER', 'GET_COUNT_PER_C_OP', 'GET_COUNT_REMAINING_OP', 'GET_DCM_LOCKED', 'GET_EFC_125_MHZ', 'GET_EFC_COMB_LINE_PLL', 'GET_ERROR_CODE_LAST_CAN_ERROR', 'GET_INTERNAL_SLAVE_ERROR_CODE', 'GET_MAGNITUDE_CELSIUS_OP', 'GET_MAJOR_REV_LEVEL', 'GET_MINOR_REV_LEVEL', 'GET_MODULE_CODES_CDAY', 'GET_MODULE_CODES_CMONTH', 'GET_MODULE_CODES_DIG1', 'GET_MODULE_CODES_DIG2', 'GET_MODULE_CODES_DIG4', 'GET_MODULE_CODES_DIG6', 'GET_MODULE_CODES_SERIAL', 'GET_MODULE_CODES_VERSION_MAJOR', 'GET_MODULE_CODES_VERSION_MINOR', 'GET_MODULE_CODES_YEAR', 'GET_NODE_ADDRESS', 'GET_OPTICAL_POWER_OFF', 'GET_OUTPUT_125MHZ_LOCKED', 'GET_OUTPUT_2GHZ_LOCKED', 'GET_PATCH_LEVEL', 'GET_POWER_SUPPLY_12V_NOT_OK', 'GET_POWER_SUPPLY_15V_NOT_OK', 'GET_PROTOCOL_MAJOR_REV_LEVEL', 'GET_PROTOCOL_MINOR_REV_LEVEL', 'GET_PROTOCOL_PATCH_LEVEL', 'GET_PROTOCOL_REV_LEVEL', 'GET_PWR_125_MHZ', 'GET_PWR_25_MHZ', 'GET_PWR_2_GHZ', 'GET_READ_MODULE_CODES', 'GET_RX_OPT_PWR', 'GET_SERIAL_NUMBER', 'GET_SIGN_OP', 'GET_STATUS', 'GET_SW_REV_LEVEL', 'GET_TE_LENGTH', 'GET_TE_LONG_FLAG_SET', 'GET_TE_OFFSET_COUNTER', 'GET_TE_SHORT_FLAG_SET', 'GET_TRANS_NUM', 'GET_VDC_12', 'GET_VDC_15', 'GET_VDC_7', 'GET_VDC_MINUS_7', 'SET_CLEAR_FLAGS', 'SET_FPGA_LOGIC_RESET', 'SET_RESET_AMBSI', 'SET_RESET_DEVICE', 'SET_RESYNC_TE', 'STATUS', '_HardwareDevice__componentName', '_HardwareDevice__hw', '_HardwareDevice__stickyFlag', '_LORRBase__logger', '__del__', '__doc__', '__init__', '__module__', '_devices', 'clearDeviceCommunicationErrorAlarm', 'getControlList', 'getDeviceCommunicationErrorCounter', 'getErrorMessage', 'getHwState', 'getInternalSlaveCanErrorMsg', 'getLastCanErrorMsg', 'getMonitorList', 'hwConfigure', 'hwDiagnostic', 'hwInitialize', 'hwOperational', 'hwSimulation', 'hwStart', 'hwStop', 'inErrorState', 'isMonitoring', 'isSimulated'] In [6]:

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  • IE8 web slice - CSS problem

    - by rjovic
    Again me with IE8 web slice :) This time i have following problem. I created web slice for IE8 and created button for users where they can choice to add it to their browsers. Code is : <input class="add" type="button" value="Dodaj Xica web slice u IE8!" onclick='window.external.AddToFavoritesBar("http://localhost:51914/Home/GetWebSlice", "xica.rjovic.com", "slice");' /> There is everything fine, and web slice is added to IE8 and web page is displayed correct. But I have problem with CSS in web slice. I defined css in it, but when web slice i rendered there are only black fonts without any css properties. My web slice is defined as : <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head runat="server"> <title>GetWebSlice</title> <style type="text/css"> p {color: white; } body {background-color: blue; } .container {background-color: red;} </style> </head> <body> <div class="hslice container" id="xica"> <h2 class="entry-title container">Xica web slice</h2> <div class="entry-content"> <h2>Saldo : <b><%= ViewData["total"] %></b></h2> <p><%= ViewData["cardNumber"] %></p> <p>Status : <%= ViewData["status"] %></p> </div> </div> </body> </html> When I try to see web slice directly in my browser then everything is ok, and css is show as expected. Thank you...! EDIT : here is the picture of problem : http://www.deviantpics.com/share-2F10_4BD73E25.html

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  • nSticky/static variable references in for loops

    - by pthulin
    In this example I create three buttons 'one' 'two' 'three'. When clicked I want them to alert their number: <html> <head> <script type="application/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="application/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var numbers = ['one', 'two', 'three']; for (i in numbers) { var nr = numbers[i]; var li = $('<li>' + nr + '</li>'); li.click(function() { var newVariable = String(nr); alert(i); // 2 alert(nr); // three alert(newVariable); // three alert(li.html()); // three }); $('ul').append(li); } }); </script> </head> <body> <ul> </ul> </body> </html> The problem is, when any of these are clicked, the last value of the loop's variables is used, i.e. alert box always says 'three'. In JavaScript, variables inside for-loops seem to be 'static' in the C language sense. Is there some way to create separate variables for each click function, i.e. not using the same reference? Thanks! Edit: The solution is to use jQuery.data to associate arbitrary data with each element: <html> <head> <script type="application/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="application/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var numbers = ['one', 'two', 'three']; for (i in numbers) { var nr = numbers[i]; var li = $('<li>' + nr + '</li>'); li.data('nr', nr); li.click(function() { alert($(this).data('nr')); }); $('ul').append(li); } }); </script> </head> <body> <ul> </ul> </body> </html>

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  • Recursive N-way merge/diff algorithm for directory trees?

    - by BobMcGee
    What algorithms or Java libraries are available to do N-way, recursive diff/merge of directories? I need to be able to generate a list of folder trees that have many identical files, and have subdirectories with many similar files. I want to be able to use 2-way merge operations to quickly remove as much redundancy as possible. Goals: Find pairs of directories that have many similar files between them. Generate short list of directory pairs that can be synchronized with 2-way merge to eliminate duplicates Should operate recursively (there may be nested duplicates of higher-level directories) Run time and storage should be O(n log n) in numbers of directories and files Should be able to use an embedded DB or page to disk for processing more files than fit in memory (100,000+). Optional: generate an ancestry and change-set between folders Optional: sort the merge operations by how many duplicates they can elliminate I know how to use hashes to find duplicate files in roughly O(n) space, but I'm at a loss for how to go from this to finding partially overlapping sets between folders and their children. EDIT: some clarification The tricky part is the difference between "exact same" contents (otherwise hashing file hashes would work) and "similar" (which will not). Basically, I want to feed this algorithm at a set of directories and have it return a set of 2-way merge operations I can perform in order to reduce duplicates as much as possible with as few conflicts possible. It's effectively constructing an ancestry tree showing which folders are derived from each other. The end goal is to let me incorporate a bunch of different folders into one common tree. For example, I may have a folder holding programming projects, and then copy some of its contents to another computer to work on it. Then I might back up and intermediate version to flash drive. Except I may have 8 or 10 different versions, with slightly different organizational structures or folder names. I need to be able to merge them one step at a time, so I can chose how to incorporate changes at each step of the way. This is actually more or less what I intend to do with my utility (bring together a bunch of scattered backups from different points in time). I figure if I can do it right I may as well release it as a small open source util. I think the same tricks might be useful for comparing XML trees though.

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  • How to use an UpdatePanel inside a Reapeater ItemTemplate with a HTML Table

    - by vanslly
    I want to allow the user to edit by data by row, so only need content updated by row. I managed to achieve this by using a Repeater with a UpdatePanel in the ItemTemplate. Using a div <asp:ScriptManager ID="ctlScriptManager" runat="server" /> <asp:Repeater ID="ctlMyRepeater" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <div> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="ctlUpdatePanel" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Label ID="lblName" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("Name") %>' /> <asp:LinkButton ID="btnRename" runat="server" CommandArgument='<%# Eval("ID") %>' CommandName="Rename">Rename...</asp:LinkButton> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="btnRename" EventName="Click" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> But, I want to use a table to ensure structure and spacing and CSS styling wasn't doing it for me, but when I use a table everything goes whacky. Using a Table <asp:ScriptManager ID="ctlScriptManager" runat="server" /> <table> <asp:Repeater ID="ctlMyRepeater" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="ctlUpdatePanel" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <tr> <td> <asp:Label ID="lblName" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("Name") %>' /> </td> <td> <asp:LinkButton ID="btnRename" runat="server" CommandArgument='<%# Eval("ID") %>' CommandName="Rename">Rename...</asp:LinkButton> </td> </tr> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="btnRename" EventName="Click" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> </table> What's the best way to solve this problem? I prefer using a table, because I really want to enfore structure without reliance on CSS. Thanks in advance.

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  • How to convert a 32bpp image to an indexed format?

    - by Ed Swangren
    So here are the details (I am using C# BTW): I receive a 32bpp image (JPEG compressed) from a server. At some point, I would like to use the Palette property of a bitmap to color over-saturated pixels (brightness 240) red. To do so, I need to get the image into an indexed format. I have tried converting the image to a GIF, but I get quality loss. I have tried creating a new bitmap in an index format by these methods: // causes a "Parameter not valid" error Bitmap indexed = new Bitmap(orig.Width, orig.Height, PixelFormat.Indexed) // no error, but the resulting image is black due to information loss I assume Bitmap indexed = new Bitmap(orig.Width, orig.Height, PixelFormat.Format8bppIndexed) I am at a loss now. The data in this image is changed constantly by the user, so I don't want to manually set pixels that have a brightness 240 if I can avoid it. If I can set the palette once when the image is created, my work is done. If I am going about this the wrong way to begin with please let me know. EDIT: Thanks guys, here is some more detail on what I am attempting to accomplish. We are scanning a tissue slide at high resolution (pathology application). I write the interface to the actual scanner. We use a line-scan camera. To test the line rate of the camera, the user scans a very small portion and looks at the image. The image is displayed next to a track bar. When the user moves the track bar (adjusting line rate), I change the overall intensity of the image in an attempt to model what it would look like at the new line rate. I do this using an ImageAttributes and ColorMatrix object currently. When the user adjusts the track bar, I adjust the matrix. This does not give me per pixel information, but the performance is very nice. I could use LockBits and some unsafe code here, but I would rather not rewrite it if possible. When the new image is created, I would like for all pixels with a brightness value of 240 to be colored red. I was thinking that defining a palette for the bitmap up front would be a clean way of doing this.

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  • Moving MVC2 Helpers to MVC3 razor view engine

    - by Dai Bok
    Hi, In my MVC 2 site, I have an html helper, that I use to add javascripts for my pages. In my master page I have the main javascripts I want to include, and then in the aspx pages, I include page specific javascripts. So for example, my Site.Master has something like this: .... <head> <%=html.renderScripts() %> </head> ... //core scripts for main page <%html.AddScript("/scripts/jquery.js") %> <%html.AddScript("/scripts/myLib.js") %> .... Then in the child aspx page, I may also want to include other scripts. ... //the page specific script I want to use <% html.AddScript("/scripts/register.aspx.js") %> ... So when the full page gets rendered the javascript files are all collected and rendered in the head by sitemaster placeholder function RenderScripts. This works fine. Now with MVC 3 and razor view engine, they layout pages behave differently, because now my page level javascripts are not rendered/included. Now all I see the LayoutMaster contents. How do I get the solution wo workwith MVC 3 and the razor view engine. (The helper has already been re-written to return a HTMLString ;-)) For reference: my MasterLayout looks like this: ... ... <head> @{ Html.AddJavaScript("/Scripts/jQuery.js"); Html.AddJavaScript("/Scripts/myLib.js"); } //Render scripts @html.RenderScripts() </head> .... and the child page looks like this: @{ Layout = "~/Views/Shared/MasterLayout.cshtml"; ViewBag.Title = "Child Page"; Html.AddJavaScript("/Scripts/register.aspx.js"); } .... <div>some html </div> Thanks for your help. Edit = Just to explain, if this question is not clear enough. When producing a "page" I collect all the javascript files the designers want to use, by using the html.addJavascript("filename.js") and store these in a dictionary - (1) stops people adding duplicate js files - then finally when the page is ready to render, I write out all the javascript files neatly in the header. (2) - this helper helps keep JS in one place, and prevents designers from adding javascript files all over the place. This used to work fine with Master/SiteMaster Pages in mvc 2. but how can I achieve this with razor?

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  • Avoiding stack overflows in wrapper DLLs

    - by peachykeen
    I have a program to which I'm adding fullscreen post-processing effects. I do not have the source for the program (it's proprietary, although a developer did send me a copy of the debug symbols, .map format). I have the code for the effects written and working, no problems. My issue now is linking the two. I've tried two methods so far: Use Detours to modify the original program's import table. This works great and is guaranteed to be stable, but the user's I've talked to aren't comfortable with it, it requires installation (beyond extracting an archive), and there's some question if patching the program with Detours is valid under the terms of the EULA. So, that option is out. The other option is the traditional DLL-replacement. I've wrapped OpenGL (opengl32.dll), and I need the program to load my DLL instead of the system copy (just drop it in the program folder with the right name, that's easy). I then need my DLL to load the Cg framework and runtime (which relies on OpenGL) and a few other things. When Cg loads, it calls some of my functions, which call Cg functions, and I tend to get stack overflows and infinite loops. I need to be able to either include the Cg DLLs in a subdirectory and still use their functions (not sure if it's possible to have my DLLs import table point to a DLL in a subdirectory) or I need to dynamically link them (which I'd rather not do, just to simplify the build process), something to force them to refer to the system's file (not my custom replacement). The entire chain is: Program loads DLL A (named opengl32.dll). DLL A loads Cg.dll and dynamically links (GetProcAddress) to sysdir/opengl32.dll. I now need Cg.dll to also refer to sysdir/opengl32.dll, not DLL A. How would this be done? Edit: How would this be done easily without using GetProcAddress? If nothing else works, I'm willing to fall back to that, but I'd rather not if at all possible. Edit2: I just stumbled across the function SetDllDirectory in the MSDN docs (on a totally unrelated search). At first glance, that looks like what I need. Is that right, or am I misjudging? (off to test it now) Edit3: I've solved this problem by doing thing a bit differently. Instead of dropping an OpenGL32.dll, I've renamed my DLL to DInput.dll. Not only does it have the advantage of having to export one function instead of well over 120 (for the program, Cg, and GLEW), I don't have to worry about functions running back in (I can link to OpenGL as usual). To get into the calls I need to intercept, I'm using Detours. All in all, it works much better. This question, though, is still an interesting problem (and hopefully will be useful for anyone else trying to do crazy things in the future). Both the answers are good, so I'm not sure yet which to pick...

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  • How do I add a column that displays the number of distinct rows to this query?

    - by Fake Code Monkey Rashid
    Hello good people! I don't know how to ask my question clearly so I'll just show you the money. To start with, here's a sample table: CREATE TABLE sandbox ( id integer NOT NULL, callsign text NOT NULL, this text NOT NULL, that text NOT NULL, "timestamp" timestamp with time zone DEFAULT now() NOT NULL ); CREATE SEQUENCE sandbox_id_seq START WITH 1 INCREMENT BY 1 NO MINVALUE NO MAXVALUE CACHE 1; ALTER SEQUENCE sandbox_id_seq OWNED BY sandbox.id; SELECT pg_catalog.setval('sandbox_id_seq', 14, true); ALTER TABLE sandbox ALTER COLUMN id SET DEFAULT nextval('sandbox_id_seq'::regclass); INSERT INTO sandbox VALUES (1, 'alpha', 'foo', 'qux', '2010-12-29 16:51:09.897579+00'); INSERT INTO sandbox VALUES (2, 'alpha', 'foo', 'qux', '2010-12-29 16:51:36.108867+00'); INSERT INTO sandbox VALUES (3, 'bravo', 'bar', 'quxx', '2010-12-29 16:52:36.370507+00'); INSERT INTO sandbox VALUES (4, 'bravo', 'foo', 'quxx', '2010-12-29 16:52:47.584663+00'); INSERT INTO sandbox VALUES (5, 'charlie', 'foo', 'corge', '2010-12-29 16:53:00.742356+00'); INSERT INTO sandbox VALUES (6, 'delta', 'foo', 'qux', '2010-12-29 16:53:10.884721+00'); INSERT INTO sandbox VALUES (7, 'alpha', 'foo', 'corge', '2010-12-29 16:53:21.242904+00'); INSERT INTO sandbox VALUES (8, 'alpha', 'bar', 'corge', '2010-12-29 16:54:33.318907+00'); INSERT INTO sandbox VALUES (9, 'alpha', 'baz', 'quxx', '2010-12-29 16:54:38.727095+00'); INSERT INTO sandbox VALUES (10, 'alpha', 'bar', 'qux', '2010-12-29 16:54:46.237294+00'); INSERT INTO sandbox VALUES (11, 'alpha', 'baz', 'qux', '2010-12-29 16:54:53.891606+00'); INSERT INTO sandbox VALUES (12, 'alpha', 'baz', 'corge', '2010-12-29 16:55:39.596076+00'); INSERT INTO sandbox VALUES (13, 'alpha', 'baz', 'corge', '2010-12-29 16:55:44.834019+00'); INSERT INTO sandbox VALUES (14, 'alpha', 'foo', 'qux', '2010-12-29 16:55:52.848792+00'); ALTER TABLE ONLY sandbox ADD CONSTRAINT sandbox_pkey PRIMARY KEY (id); Here's the current SQL query I have: SELECT * FROM ( SELECT DISTINCT ON (this, that) id, this, that, timestamp FROM sandbox WHERE callsign = 'alpha' AND CAST(timestamp AS date) = '2010-12-29' ) playground ORDER BY timestamp DESC This is the result it gives me: id this that timestamp ----------------------------------------------------- 14 foo qux 2010-12-29 16:55:52.848792+00 13 baz corge 2010-12-29 16:55:44.834019+00 11 baz qux 2010-12-29 16:54:53.891606+00 10 bar qux 2010-12-29 16:54:46.237294+00 9 baz quxx 2010-12-29 16:54:38.727095+00 8 bar corge 2010-12-29 16:54:33.318907+00 7 foo corge 2010-12-29 16:53:21.242904+00 This is what I want to see: id this that timestamp count ------------------------------------------------------------- 14 foo qux 2010-12-29 16:55:52.848792+00 3 13 baz corge 2010-12-29 16:55:44.834019+00 2 11 baz qux 2010-12-29 16:54:53.891606+00 1 10 bar qux 2010-12-29 16:54:46.237294+00 1 9 baz quxx 2010-12-29 16:54:38.727095+00 1 8 bar corge 2010-12-29 16:54:33.318907+00 1 7 foo corge 2010-12-29 16:53:21.242904+00 1 EDIT: I'm using PostgreSQL 9.0.* (if that helps any).

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  • Visual Studio soft-crashing when encountering XAML Errors in initialize.

    - by Aren
    I've been having some serious issues with Visual Studio 2010 as of late. It's been crashing in a peculiar way when I encounter certain types of XAML errors during the InitializeComponent() of a control/window. The program breaks and visual studio gears up like it's catching an exception (because it is) and then stops midway displaying a broken highlight in my XAML file with no details as to what is wrong. Example: There is not pop outs, or details Anywhere about what is wrong, only a callstack that points to my InitializeComponent() call. Now normally I'd just do some trial and error to fix this problem, and find out where i messed up, but the real problem isn't my code. Visual Studio is rendered completely useless at this point. It reports my application still in "Running" mode. The Stop/Break/Restart buttons on the toolbar or in the menus don't do anything (but grey out). Closing the application does not stop this behaviour, closing visual studio gets it stuck in a massive loop where it yells at me complaining every file open is not in the debug project, then repeats this process when i have exausted every open file. I have to force-close devenv.exe, and after this happening 3-4 times in a row it's a lot of wasted time (as my projects are usually pretty big and studio can be quite slow @ loading). To the point Has anyone else experienced this? How can I stop studio from locking up. Can I at LEAST get information out of this beast another way so i can fix my XAML error sooner rather than after 3-4 trial-and-error compiles yielding the same crash? Any & All help would be appreciated. Visual Studio 2010 version: 10.0.30319.1RTM Edit & Update FWIW, mostly the errors that cause this are XamlParseExceptions (I figured this out after i found what was wrong with my XAML). I think I need to be clearer though, Im not looking for the solution to my code problem, as these are usually typos / small things, I'm looking for a solution to VStudio getting all buggered up as a result. The particular error in the above image that 100% for sure caused this was a XamlParseException caused by forgetting a Value attribute on a data trigger. I've fixed that part but it still doesn't tell my why my studio becomes a lump of neutered program when a perfectly normal exception is thrown in the parsing of the XAML. Code that will cause this issue (at least for me) This is the base template WPF Application, with the following Window.xaml code. The problem is a missing Value="True" on the <DataTrigger ...> in the template. It generates a XamlParseException and Visual Studio Crashes as described above when debugging it. Final Notes The following solutions did not help me: Restarting Visual Studio Rebooting Reinstalling Visual Studio

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  • Mocking a concrete class : templates and avoiding conditional compilation

    - by AshirusNW
    I'm trying to testing a concrete object with this sort of structure. class Database { public: Database(Server server) : server_(server) {} int Query(const char* expression) { server_.Connect(); return server_.ExecuteQuery(); } private: Server server_; }; i.e. it has no virtual functions, let alone a well-defined interface. I want to a fake database which calls mock services for testing. Even worse, I want the same code to be either built against the real version or the fake so that the same testing code can both: Test the real Database implementation - for integration tests Test the fake implementation, which calls mock services To solve this, I'm using a templated fake, like this: #ifndef INTEGRATION_TESTS class FakeDatabase { public: FakeDatabase() : realDb_(mockServer_) {} int Query(const char* expression) { MOCK_EXPECT_CALL(mockServer_, Query, 3); return realDb_.Query(); } private: // in non-INTEGRATION_TESTS builds, Server is a mock Server with // extra testing methods that allows mocking Server mockServer_; Database realDb_; }; #endif template <class T> class TestDatabaseContainer { public: int Query(const char* expression) { int result = database_.Query(expression); std::cout << "LOG: " << result << endl; return result; } private: T database_; }; Edit: Note the fake Database must call the real Database (but with a mock Server). Now to switch between them I'm planning the following test framework: class DatabaseTests { public: #ifdef INTEGRATION_TESTS typedef TestDatabaseContainer<Database> TestDatabase ; #else typedef TestDatabaseContainer<FakeDatabase> TestDatabase ; #endif TestDatabase& GetDb() { return _testDatabase; } private: TestDatabase _testDatabase; }; class QueryTestCase : public DatabaseTests { public: void TestStep1() { ASSERT(GetDb().Query(static_cast<const char *>("")) == 3); return; } }; I'm not a big fan of that compile-time switching between the real and the fake. So, my question is: Whether there's a better way of switching between Database and FakeDatabase? For instance, is it possible to do it at runtime in a clean fashion? I like to avoid #ifdefs. Also, if anyone has a better way of making a fake class that mimics a concrete class, I'd appreciate it. I don't want to have templated code all over the actual test code (QueryTestCase class). Feel free to critique the code style itself, too. You can see a compiled version of this code on codepad.

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  • Proper way to use Linq with WPF

    - by Ingó Vals
    I'm looking for a good guide into the right method of using Linq to Sql together with WPF. Most guides only go into the bare basics like how to show data from a database but noone I found goes into how to save back to the database. Can you answer or point out to me a guide that can answer these questions. I have a separate Data project because the same data will also be used in a web page so I have the repository method. That means I have a seperate class that uses the DataContext and there are methods like GetAllCompanies() and GetCompanyById ( int id ). 1) Where there are collections is it best to return as a IQueryable or should I return a list? Inside the WPF project I have seen reccomendations to wrap the collection in a ObservabgleCollection. 2) Why should I use ObservableCollection and should I use it even with Linq / IQueryable Some properties of the linq entities should be editable in the app so I set them to two-way mode. That would change the object in the observableCollection. 3) Is the object in the ObservableCollection still a instance of the original linq entity and so is the change reflected in the database ( when submitchanges is called ) I should have somekind of save method in the repository. But when should I call it? What happens if someone edits a field but decides not to save it, goes to another object and edits it and then press save. Doesn't the original change also save? When does it not remember the changes to a linq entity object anymore. Should I instance the Datacontext class in each method so it loses scope when done. 4) When and how to call the SubmitChanges method 5) Should I have the DataContext as a member variable of the repository class or a method variable To add a new row I should create a new object in a event ( "new" button push ) and then add it to the database using a repo method. 6) When I add the object to the database there will be no new object in the ObservableCollection. Do I refresh somehow. 7) I wan't to reuse the edit window when creating new but not sure how to dynamically changing from referencing selected item from a listview to this new object. Any examples you can point out.

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  • Multiplying field value with retreived value jQuery

    - by Efe
    I pull product price from another page. Then I multiply it with quantity entered in the quantity input field. The problem is, if I forget to enter quantity value before I pull product price data or if I change the quantity field later, the final total price is not updated. I hope I clearly explained it. javascript: $('#AddProduct').click(function() { var i = 0; var adding = $(+(i++)+'<div class="row'+(i)+'"><div class="column width50"><input type="text" id="PRODUCTNAME" name="PRODUCTNAME'+(i)+'" value="" class="width98" /><input type="hidden" class="PRODUCTID" name="PRODUCTID" /><input type="hidden" class="UNITPRICE" name="UNITPRICE'+(i)+'" /><small>Search Products</small></div><div class="column width20"><input type="text" class="UNITQUANTITY" name="UNITQUANTITY'+(i)+'" value="" class="width98" /><small>Quantity</small></div><div class="column width30"><span class="prices">Unit Price:<span class="UNITPRICE"></span><br />Total Price:<span class="TOTALPRICE"></span><br /><a href="#" id="RemoveProduct(".row'+(i)+'");">Remove</a></span></div>'); $('#OrderProducts').append(adding); adding.find("#PRODUCTNAME").autocomplete("orders.cs.asp?Process=ListProducts", { selectFirst: false }).result(function(event, data, formatted) { if (data) { adding.find(".UNITPRICE").html(data[1]); adding.find(".PRODUCTID").val(data[2]); adding.find(".TOTALPRICE").html(data[1] * $('.UNITQUANTITY').val()); } }); return false; }); $('#RemoveProduct').click(function() { $().remove(); return false; }); my html: <fieldset> <h2>Order Items</h2> <div id="OrderProducts"> <a href="#" id="AddProduct"><img src="icons/add.png" alt="Add" /></a> </div> </fieldset> edit Now I totaly messed it up. Removing a row is not working anymore as well... Test link: http://refinethetaste.com/html/cp/?Section=orders&Process=AddOrder#

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  • How build my own Application Setting

    - by adisembiring
    I want to build a ApplicationSetting for my application. The ApplicationSetting can be stored in a properties file or in a database table. The settings are stored in key-value pairs. E.g. ftp.host = blade ftp.username = dummy ftp.pass = pass content.row_pagination = 20 content.title = How to train your dragon. I have designed it as follows: Application settings reader: interface IApplicationSettingReader { read(); } DatabaseApplicationSettingReader { dao appSettingDao; AppSettings read() { List<AppSettingEntity> listEntity = appSettingsDao.findAll(); Map<String, String> map = new HaspMap<String, String>(); foreach (AppSettingEntity entity : listEntity) { map.put(entity.getConfigName(), entity.getConfigValue()); } return new AppSettings(map); } } DatabaseApplicationSettingReader { dao appSettingDao; AppSettings read() { //read from some properties file return new AppSettings(map); } } Application settings class: AppSettings { private static AppSettings instance; private Map map; Public AppSettings(Map map) { this.map = map; } public static AppSettings getInstance() { if (instance == null) { throw new RuntimeException("Object not configure yet"); } return instance; } public static configure(IApplicationSettingReader reader) { instance = reader.read(); } public String getFtpSetting(String param) { return map.get("ftp." + param); } public String getContentSetting(String param) { return map.get("content." + param); } } Test class: AppSettingsTest { IApplicationSettingReader reader; @Before public void setUp() throws Exception { reader = new DatabaseApplicationSettingReader(); } @Test public void getContentSetting_should_get_content_title() { AppSettings.configure(reader); Instance settings = AppSettings.getInstance(); String title = settings.getContentSetting("title"); assertNotNull(title); Sysout(title); } } My questions are: Can you give your opinion about my code, is there something wrong? I configure my application setting once, while the application start, I configure the application setting with appropriate reader (DbReader or PropertiesReader), I make it singleton. The problem is, when some user edit the database or file directly to database or file, I can't get the changed values. Now, I want to implement something like ApplicationSettingChangeListener. So if the data changes, I will refresh my application settings. Do you have any suggestions how this can be implemented?

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  • set equal height on multiple divs

    - by Greenie
    I need to set equal height on a series of divs inside another div wrapper. The problem is that I dont want the same height on all of them. The page kind of have 3 columns and the floating divs can be 1, 2 or 3 columns wide. The divs float left, so the following example will give me three rows of divs in my wrapper. How can I set equal height on the divs that are in the same row? In my example I want nr 1 and 2 to have equal height and 3, 4 and 5 another equal height? I cant know beforehand how many divs there is or how wide or high they are. Edit: They can be for instance 300, 600 or 900 px wide and the page width is 900px <div id="wrapper"> <div class="one-wide">nr1</div> <div class="two-wide">nr2</div> <div class="one-wide">nr3</div> <div class="one-wide">nr4</div> <div class="one-wide">nr5</div> <div class="three-wide">nr6</div> </div> Im thinking I somehow need to figure out when the added width of the divs is at the full page width and set equal height on those. Then do the same on the next divs. But I cant wrap my head around it. Currently im just using this to set the height on the children of the wrapper: $.fn.equalHeights = function(px) { $(this).each(function(){ var currentTallest = 0; $(this).children().each(function(i){ if ($(this).height() > currentTallest) { currentTallest = $(this).height(); } }); // for ie6, set height since min-height isn't supported if ($.browser.msie && $.browser.version == 6.0) { $(this).children().css({'height': currentTallest}); } $(this).children('div').css({'min-height': currentTallest}); }); return this; };

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  • MVVM Binding Orthogonal Aspects in Views e.g. Application Settings

    - by chibacity
    I have an application which I am developing using WPF\Prism\MVVM. All is going well and I have some pleasing MVVM implementations. However, in some of my views I would like to be able to bind application settings e.g. when a user reloads an application, the checkbox for auto-scrolling a grid should be checked in the state it was last time the user used the application. My view needs to bind to something that holds the "auto-scroll" setting state. I could put this on the view-model, but applications settings are orthogonal to the purpose of the view-model. The "auto-scroll" setting is controlling an aspect of the view. This setting is just an example. There will be quite a number of them and splattering my view-models with properties to represent application settings (so I can bind them) feels decidedly yucky. One view-model per view seems to be de rigeuer... What is best\usual practice here? Splatter my view-models with application settings? Have multiple view-models per view so settings can be represented in their own right? Split views so that controls can bind to an ApplicationSettingsViewModel? = too many views? Something else? Edit 1 To add a little more context, I am developing a UI with a tabbed interface. Each tab will host a single widget and there a variety of widgets. Each widget is a Prism composition of individual views. Some views are common amongst widgets e.g. a file picker view. Whilst each widget is composed of several views, as a whole, conceptually a widget has a single set of user settings e.g. last file selected, auto-scroll enabled, etc. These need to be persisted and retrieved\applied when the application starts again, and the widget views are created. My question is focused on the fact that conceptually a widget has a single set of user settings which is at right-angles to the fact that a widget consists of many views. Each view in the widget has it's own view-model (which works nicely and logically) but if I stick to a one view-model per view, I would have to splatter each view-model with user settings appropriate to it. This doesn't sound right ?!?

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