Search Results

Search found 2197 results on 88 pages for 'explanation'.

Page 69/88 | < Previous Page | 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76  | Next Page >

  • In a bidirectional JPA OneToMany/ManyToOne association, what is meant by "the inverse side of the as

    - by Bytecode Ninja
    In these examples on TopLink JPA Annotation Reference: Example 1-59 @OneToMany - Customer Class With Generics @Entity public class Customer implements Serializable { ... @OneToMany(cascade=ALL, mappedBy="customer") public Set<Order> getOrders() { return orders; } ... } Example 1-60 @ManyToOne - Order Class With Generics @Entity public class Order implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="CUST_ID", nullable=false) public Customer getCustomer() { return customer; } ... } It seams to me that the Customer entity is the owner of the association. However, in the explanation for the mappedBy attribute in the same document, it is written that: if the relationship is bidirectional, then set the mappedBy element on the inverse (non-owning) side of the association to the name of the field or property that owns the relationship as Example 1-60 shows. However, if I am not wrong, looks like in the example the mappedBy is actually specified on the owning side of the association, rather than the non-owning side. So my question is basically: In a bidirectional (one-to-many/many-to-one) association, which of the entities is the owner? How can we designate the One side as the owner? How can we designate the Many side as the owner? What is meant by "the inverse side of the association"? How can we designate the One side as the inverse? How can we designate the Many side as the inverse? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Does Perl auto-vivify variables used as references in subroutine calls?

    - by FM
    I've declared 2010 to be the year of higher-order programming, so I'm learning Haskell. The introduction has a slick quick-sort demo, and I thought, "Hey, that's easy to do in Perl". It turned to be easier than I expected. Note that I don't have to worry about whether my partitions ($less and $more) are defined. Normally you can't use an undefined value as an array reference. use strict; use warnings; use List::MoreUtils qw(part); my @data = (5,6,7,4,2,9,10,9,5,1); my @sorted = qsort(@data); print "@sorted\n"; sub qsort { return unless @_; my $pivot = shift @_; my ($less, $more) = part { $_ < $pivot ? 0 : 1 } @_; # Works, even though $less and $more are sometimes undefined. return qsort(@$less), $pivot, qsort(@$more); } As best I can tell, Perl will auto-vivify a variable that you try to use as a reference -- but only if you are passing it to a subroutine. For example, my call to foo() works, but not the attempted print. use Data::Dumper qw(Dumper); sub foo { print "Running foo(@_)\n" } my ($x); print Dumper($x); # Fatal: Can't use an undefined value as an ARRAY reference. # print @$x, "\n"; # But this works. foo(@$x); # Auto-vivification: $x is now []. print Dumper($x); My questions: Am I understanding this behavior correctly? What is the explanation or reasoning behind why Perl does this? Is this behavior explained anywhere in the docs?

    Read the article

  • shielding #include within namespace { } block?

    - by Jeff
    Edit: I know that method 1 is essentially invalid and will probably use method 2, but I'm looking for the best hack or a better solution to mitigate rampant, mutable namespace proliferation. I have multiple class or method definitions in one namespace that have different dependencies, and would like to use the fewest namespace blocks or explicit scopings possible but while grouping #include directives with the definitions that require them as best as possible. I've never seen any indication that any preprocessor could be told to exclude namespace {} scoping from #include contents, but I'm here to ask if something similar to this is possible: (see bottom for explanation of why I want something dead simple) // NOTE: apple.h, etc., contents are *NOT* intended to be in namespace Foo! // would prefer something most this: namespace Foo { #include "apple.h" B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } #include "banana.h" int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } #include "blueberry.h" void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo ... // over this: #include "apple.h" #include "banana.h" #include "blueberry.h" namespace Foo { B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo ... // or over this: #include "apple.h" namespace Foo { B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo #include "banana.h" namespace Foo { int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo #include "blueberry.h" namespace Foo { void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo My real problem is that I have projects where a module may need to be branched but have coexisting components from the branches in the same program. I have classes like FooA, etc., that I've called Foo::A in the hopes being able to branch less painfully as Foo::v1_2::A, where some program may need both a Foo::A and a Foo::v1_2::A. I'd like "Foo" or "Foo::v1_2" to show up only really once per file, as a single namespace block, if possible. Moreover, I tend to prefer to locate blocks of #include directives immediately above the first definition in the file that requires them. What's my best choice, or alternatively, what should I be doing instead of hijacking the namespaces?

    Read the article

  • jQuery Accordion

    - by Fuego DeBassi
    Just wondering if anyone can provide some basic advice on an accordion I'm trying to simplify. Got a working version, but it seems way overly complex. Here is my new JS. $(document).ready(function() { $("#themes li ul").hide(); $("#themes li").hover(function() { $("ul").show(); }, function() { $("li ul").hide(); }); The markup looks like this: <ul> <li>Tier 1 <ul> <li>Tier 2</li> <li>Tier 2</li> </ul> </li> <li>Tier 1 <ul> <li>Tier 2</li> <li>Tier 2</li> </ul> </li> </ul> My script works alright. But it shows all of the child ul's when any parent li is hovered, and it hides all the child ul's when unhovered. Just not sure how I can get it to A.) Only .show the li ul when that specific li is hovered. And B.) Hide the shown li ul only when another one is hovered (not itself). Example + explanation would be especially helpful! Thanks!!

    Read the article

  • (Not So) Silly Objective-C inheritance problem when using property - GCC Bug?

    - by Ben Packard
    Update 2 - Many people are insisting I need to declare an iVar for the property. Some are saying not so, as I am using Modern Runtime (64 bit). I can confirm that I have been successfully using @property without iVars for months now. Therefore, I think the 'correct' answer is an explanation as to why on 64bit I suddenly have to explicitly declare the iVar when (and only when) i'm going to access it from a child class. The only one I've seen so far is a possible GCC bug (thanks Yuji). Not so simple after all... Update - I messed up one line of the original copy and paste - corrected. The @property call was missing (nonatomic, retain) but is a red herring - STILL NEED AN ANSWER! Thanks. I've been scratching my head with this for a couple of hours - I haven't used inheritance much. Here I have set up a simple Test B class that inherits from Test A, where an ivar is declared. But I get the compilation error that the variable is undeclared. This only happens when I add the property and synthesize declarations - works fine without them. TestA Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface TestA : NSObject { NSString *testString; } @end TestA Implementation is empty: #import "TestA.h" @implementation TestA @end TestB Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> #import "TestA.h" @interface TestB : TestA { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *testProp; @end TestB Implementation (Error - 'testString' is undeclared) #import "TestB.h" @implementation TestB @synthesize testProp; - (void)testing{ NSLog(@"test ivar is %@", testString); } @end

    Read the article

  • Diamond problem in C++

    - by Jack
    I know the diamond problem. I am using gcc compiler. I have some scenarios I need explanation about. 1) class A{ public: virtual void eat(){cout<<"A eat\n";} }; class B:public A{ public: void eat(){ cout<<"B eat\n";}}; class C:public A{ public: void eat(){ cout<<"C eat\n";}}; class D:public B,C{ public: void eat(){ cout<<"D eat\n";}}; int main() { A * a = new D(); a->eat(); getch(); return 0; } Why doesn't this work? 2) class A{ public: void eat(){cout<<"A eat\n";} }; class B:virtual public A{ public: void eat(){ cout<<"B eat\n";}}; class C:virtual public A{ public: void eat(){ cout<<"C eat\n";}}; class D: public B,C{ public: void eat(){ cout<<"D eat\n";}}; int main() { A * a = new D(); a->eat(); getch(); return 0; } When I do this what happens in the background. How does the ambiguity get removed. Is the concept of vtables involved here?

    Read the article

  • Why Stream/lazy val implementation using is faster than ListBuffer one

    - by anrizal
    I coded the following implementation of lazy sieve algorithms using Stream and lazy val below : def primes(): Stream[Int] = { lazy val ps = 2 #:: sieve(3) def sieve(p: Int): Stream[Int] = { p #:: sieve( Stream.from(p + 2, 2). find(i=> ps.takeWhile(j => j * j <= i). forall(i % _ > 0)).get) } ps } and the following implementation using (mutable) ListBuffer: import scala.collection.mutable.ListBuffer def primes(): Stream[Int] = { def sieve(p: Int, ps: ListBuffer[Int]): Stream[Int] = { p #:: { val nextprime = Stream.from(p + 2, 2). find(i=> ps.takeWhile(j => j * j <= i). forall(i % _ > 0)).get sieve(nextprime, ps += nextprime) } } sieve(3, ListBuffer(3))} When I did primes().takeWhile(_ < 1000000).size , the first implementation is 3 times faster than the second one. What's the explanation for this ? I edited the second version: it should have been sieve(3, ListBuffer(3)) instead of sieve(3, ListBuffer()) .

    Read the article

  • Replace low level web-service reference call transport with custom one

    - by hoodoos
    I'm not sure if title sounds right actually, so I will give more explanation here. I will begin from very beginning :) I'm using c# and .net for my development. I have an application that makes requests to some soap web-service and for each user request it produces 3 to 10 requests for web-service, they should all run async to finish in one time, so I use Async method of the web-service generated reference and then wait for result on callback. But it seems like it starts a thread (or takes it from pool) for every async call I make, so if I have 10 clients I got to spawn 30 to 100 threads and it sounds terrible even for my 16 cores server :) So i wanted to replace low level transport implementation with my own which uses non-blocking sockets and can handle at least 50 sockets run parallel in one thread with not much overhead. But I actually dunno where to put my override best. I analyzed System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol class and see that it has some GetWebRequest method which I actually could use. If only I could somehow interupt the object it creates and get a http request with all headers and body from there and then send it with my own sockets.. Any ideas what approach to use? Or maybe there's something built in the framework I can use?

    Read the article

  • Python script to calculate aded combinations from a dictionary

    - by dayde
    I am trying to write a script that will take a dictionary of items, each containing properties of values from 0 - 10, and add the various elements to select which combination of items achieve the desired totals. I also need the script to do this, using only items that have the same "slot" in common. For example: item_list = { 'item_1': {'slot': 'top', 'prop_a': 2, 'prop_b': 0, 'prop_c': 2, 'prop_d': 1 }, 'item_2': {'slot': 'top', 'prop_a': 5, 'prop_b': 0, 'prop_c': 1, 'prop_d':-1 }, 'item_3': {'slot': 'top', 'prop_a': 2, 'prop_b': 5, 'prop_c': 2, 'prop_d':-2 }, 'item_4': {'slot': 'mid', 'prop_a': 5, 'prop_b': 5, 'prop_c':-5, 'prop_d': 0 }, 'item_5': {'slot': 'mid', 'prop_a':10, 'prop_b': 0, 'prop_c':-5, 'prop_d': 0 }, 'item_6': {'slot': 'mid', 'prop_a':-5, 'prop_b': 2, 'prop_c': 3, 'prop_d': 5 }, 'item_7': {'slot': 'bot', 'prop_a': 1, 'prop_b': 3, 'prop_c':-4, 'prop_d': 4 }, 'item_8': {'slot': 'bot', 'prop_a': 2, 'prop_b': 2, 'prop_c': 0, 'prop_d': 0 }, 'item_9': {'slot': 'bot', 'prop_a': 3, 'prop_b': 1, 'prop_c': 4, 'prop_d':-4 }, } The script would then need to select which combinations from the "item_list" dict that using 1 item per "slot" that would achieve a desired result when added. For example, if the desired result was: 'prop_a': 3, 'prop_b': 3, 'prop_c': 8, 'prop_d': 0, the script would select 'item_2', 'item_6', and 'item_9', along with any other combination that worked. 'item_2': {'slot': 'top', 'prop_a': 5, 'prop_b': 0, 'prop_c': 1, 'prop_d':-1 } 'item_6': {'slot': 'mid', 'prop_a':-5, 'prop_b': 2, 'prop_c': 3, 'prop_d': 5 } 'item_9': {'slot': 'bot', 'prop_a': 3, 'prop_b': 1, 'prop_c': 4, 'prop_d':-4 } 'total': 'prop_a': 3, 'prop_b': 3, 'prop_c': 8, 'prop_d': 0 Any ideas how to accomplish this? It does not need to be in python, or even a thorough script, but just an explanation on how to do this in theory would be enough for me. I have tried working out looping through every combination, but that seems to very quickly get our of hand and unmanageable. The actual script will need to do this for about 1,000 items using 20 different "slots", each with 8 properties. Thanks for the help!

    Read the article

  • How does an NSTextField know that it's value has changed?

    - by Brian Postow
    I have a textfield that can either be edited by hand, or set through another control. (It's a page number, so you can jump to page 16 by typing in 16, or you can page up and down with the next/prev buttons) I have the value of the text field bound to an int page variable. It seems to work correctly, when you type a page number in, it jumps, when you page up and down, the page number in the text box changes appropriately. However, at some level, when I page up and down, the text box doesn't seem to know that it's value has changed, because if I type 1 it doesn't do anything. It doesn't call the bound set-method or anything. It looks like the textfield is thinking "I'm already 1, so I don't need to do anything." Even though it was 5 because I hit next 4 times. If I type an number other than 1, it goes there. If I THEN type 1, it goes to page 1, because now it thinks it's on that other page. The problem seems to be that I'm changing the value of the textfield programatically, but some part isn't getting the message. Does this seem like a reasonable explanation? And either way, any ideas on what's causing it? thanks

    Read the article

  • Hotkey to toggle checkboxes does opposite

    - by Joel Harris
    In this jsFiddle, I have a table with checkboxes in the first column. The master checkbox in the table header functions as expected toggling the state of all the checkboxes in the table when it is clicked. I have set up a hotkey for "shift-x" to toggle the master checkbox. The desired behavior when using the hotkey is: The master checkbox is toggled The child checkboxes each have their checked state set to match the master But what is actually happening is the opposite... The child checkboxes each have their checked state set to match the master The master checkbox is toggled Here is the relevant code $(".master-select").click(function(){ $(this).closest("table").find("tbody .row-select").prop('checked', this.checked); }); function tickAllCheckboxes() { var master = $(".master-select").click(); } //using jquery.hotkeys.js to assign hotkey $(document).bind('keydown', 'shift+x', tickAllCheckboxes); This results in the child checkboxes having the opposite checked state of the master checkbox. Why is that happening? A fix would be nice, but I'm really after an explanation so I can understand what is happening.

    Read the article

  • How does the socket API accept() function work?

    - by Eli Bendersky
    The socket API is the de-facto standard for TCP/IP and UDP/IP communications (that is, networking code as we know it). However, one of its core functions, accept() is a bit magical. To borrow a semi-formal definition: accept() is used on the server side. It accepts a received incoming attempt to create a new TCP connection from the remote client, and creates a new socket associated with the socket address pair of this connection. In other words, accept returns a new socket through which the server can communicate with the newly connected client. The old socket (on which accept was called) stays open, on the same port, listening for new connections. How does accept work? How is it implemented? There's a lot of confusion on this topic. Many people claim accept opens a new port and you communicate with the client through it. But this obviously isn't true, as no new port is opened. You actually can communicate through the same port with different clients, but how? When several threads call recv on the same port, how does the data know where to go? I guess it's something along the lines of the client's address being associated with a socket descriptor, and whenever data comes through recv it's routed to the correct socket, but I'm not sure. It'd be great to get a thorough explanation of the inner-workings of this mechanism.

    Read the article

  • How to start AJAX in Zend?

    - by Awan
    I am working on some projects as a developer(PHP,MySQL) in which AJAX and jQuery is already implemented. But now I want to learn implementation of AJAX and jQuery stuff. Can anyone tell me the exact steps with explanation? I have created a project in Zend. There is only one controller(IndexController) and two actions(a and b) in my project now. Now I want to use ajax in my project. But I don't know how to start. I read some tutorial but unable to completely understand. I have index.phtml like this: <a href='index/a'>Load info A</a> <br/> <a href='index/b'>Load info B</a> <br /> <div id=one>load first here<div> <div id=two>load second here</div> Here index is controller in links. a and b are actions. now I have four files like this: a1.phtml I am a1 a2.phtml I am a2 b1.phtml I am b1 b2.phtml I am b2 I think you have got my point. When user clicks first link (Load info A) then a1.phtml should be loaded into div one and a2.phtml should be loaded into div two When user clicks second link (Load info B) then b1.phtml should be loaded into div one and b2.phtml should be loaded into div two And someone tell me the purpose of JSON in this process and how to use this also? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to start with AJAX/JSON in Zend?

    - by Awan
    I am working on some projects as a developer(PHP,MySQL) in which AJAX and jQuery is already implemented. But now I want to learn implementation of AJAX and jQuery stuff. Can anyone tell me the exact steps with explanation? I have created a project in Zend. There is only one controller(IndexController) and two actions(a and b) in my project now. Now I want to use ajax in my project. But I don't know how to start. I read some tutorial but unable to completely understand. I have index.phtml like this: <a href='index/a'>Load info A</a> <br/> <a href='index/b'>Load info B</a> <br /> <div id=one>load first here<div> <div id=two>load second here</div> Here index is controller in links. a and b are actions. now I have four files like this: a1.phtml I am a1 a2.phtml I am a2 b1.phtml I am b1 b2.phtml I am b2 I think you have got my point. When user clicks first link (Load info A) then a1.phtml should be loaded into div one and a2.phtml should be loaded into div two When user clicks second link (Load info B) then b1.phtml should be loaded into div one and b2.phtml should be loaded into div two And someone tell me the purpose of JSON in this process and how to use this also? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Partially constructed object / Multi threading

    - by reto
    Heya! I'm using joda due to it's good reputation regarding multi threading. It goes great distances to make multi threaded date handling efficient, for example by making all Date/Time/DateTime objects immutable. But here's a situation where I'm not sure if Joda is really doing the right thing. It probably is correct, but I'd be very interested to see the explanation for it. When a toString() of a DateTime is being called Joda does the following: /* org.joda.time.base.AbstractInstant */ public String toString() { return ISODateTimeFormat.dateTime().print(this); } All formatters are thread safe, as they are as well ready-only. But what's about the formatter-factory: private static DateTimeFormatter dt; /* org.joda.time.format.ISODateTimeFormat */ public static DateTimeFormatter dateTime() { if (dt == null) { dt = new DateTimeFormatterBuilder() .append(date()) .append(tTime()) .toFormatter(); } return dt; } This is a common pattern in single threaded applications. I see the following dangers: Race condition during null check -- worst case: two objects get created. No Problem, as this is solely a helper object (unlike a normal singleton pattern situation), one gets saved in dt, the other is lost and will be garbage collected sooner or later. the static variable might point to a partially constructed object before the objec has been finished initialization (before calling me crazy, read about a similar situation in this Wikipedia article. So how does Joda ensure that not partially created formatter gets published in this static variable? Thanks for your explanations! Reto

    Read the article

  • NOT A DUPLICATE! VS2010 - How to automatically stop compile on first compile error

    - by Ben Robbins
    {rant}First I'd like to say that this IS NOT A DUPLICATE. I've asked this question previously but it got closed as a duplicate when it isn't. This question is SPECIFIC to VS 2010 and the answers to the so-called duplicate work in VS 2008 but not in VS 2010 (at least not for me or anyone I know). So before you go closing something as a duplicate how about you read the question carefully and try the answer for yourself and see if it actually works. Apologies for the rant but there is no obvious way to contact the SO police that closed the issue or get it reopened. {/rant} At work we have a C# solution with over 80 projects. In VS 2008 we use a macro to stop the compile as soon as a project in the solution fails to build (see this question for several options for VS 2005 & VS 2008: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/134796/how-to-automatically-stop-visual-c-build-at-first-compile-error). Is it possible to do the same in VS 2010? What we have found is that in VS 2010 the macros don't work (at least I couldn't get them to work) as it appears that the environment events don't fire in VS 2010. The default behaviour is to continue as far as possible and display a list of errors in the error window. I'm happy for it to stop either as soon as an error is encountered (file-level) or as soon as a project fails to build (project-level). Answers for VS 2010 only please. If the macros do work then a detailed explanation of how to configure them for VS 2010 would be appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Passing data structures to different threads

    - by Robb
    I have an application that will be spawning multiple threads. However, I feel there might be an issue with threads accessing data that they shouldn't be. I'm relatively new to threading so bare with me. Here is the structure of the threaded application (sorry for the crudeness): MainThread / \ / \ / \ Thread A Thread B / \ / \ / \ / \ / \ / \ Thread A_1 Thread A_2 Thread B_1 Thread B_2 Under each lettered thread (which could be many), there will only be two threads and they are fired of sequentially. The issue i'm having is I'm not entirely sure how to pass in a datastructure into these threads. So, the datastructure is created in MainThread, will be modified in the lettered thread (Thread A, etc) specific to that thread and then a member variable from that datastructure is sent to Letter_Numbered threads. Currently, the lettered thread class has a member variable and when the class is constructed, the datastructure from mainthread is passed in by reference, invoking the copy constructor so the lettered thread has it's own copy to play with. The lettered_numbered thread simply takes in a string variable from the data structure within the lettered thread. My question is, is this accceptable? Is there a much better way to ensure each lettered thread gets its own data structure to play with? Sorry for the somewhat poor explanation, please leave comments and i'll try to clarify.

    Read the article

  • High memory usage for dummies

    - by zaf
    I've just restarted my firefox web browser again because it started stuttering and slowing down. This happens every other day due to (my understanding) of excessive memory usage. I've noticed it takes 40M when it starts and then, by the time I notice slow down, it goes to 1G and my machine has nothing more to offer unless I close other applications. I'm trying to understand the technical reasons behind why its such a difficult problem to sol ve. Mozilla have a page about high memory usage: http://support.mozilla.com/en-US/kb/High+memory+usage But I'm looking for a slightly more in depth and satisfying explanation. Not super technical but enough to give the issue more respect and please the crowd here. Some questions I'm already pondering (they could be silly so take it easy): When I close all tabs, why doesn't the memory usage go all the way down? Why is there no limits on extensions/themes/plugins memory usage? Why does the memory usage increase if it's left open for long periods of time? Why are memory leaks so difficult to find and fix? App and language agnostic answers also much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Does this language feature already exists?

    - by Pindatjuh
    I'm currently developing a new language for programming in a continuous environment (compare it to electrical engineering), and I've got some ideas on a certain language construction. Let me explain the feature by explanation and then by definition; x = a | b; Where x is a variable and a and b are other variables (or static values). if(x == a) { // all references to "x" are essentially references to "a". } if(x == b) { // same but with "b" } if(x != a) { // ... } if(x == a | b) { // guaranteed that "x" is '"a" | "b"'; interacting with "x" // will interact with both "a" and "b". } // etc. In the above, all code-blocks are executed, but the "scope" changes in each block how x is interpreted. In the first block, x is guaranteed to be a: thus interacting with x inside that block will interact on a. The second and the third code-block are only equal in this situation (because not b only remains a). The last block guarantees that x is at least a or b. Further more; | is not the "bitwise or operator", but I've called it the "and/or"-operator. It's definition is: "|" = "and" | "or" (On my blog, http://cplang.wordpress.com/2009/12/19/binop-and-or/, is more (mathematical) background information on this operator. It's loosely based on sets.) I do not know if this construction already exists, so that's my question: does this language feature already exists?

    Read the article

  • The following grammar is LL1, SLR, LR(1), LALR?

    - by Mike
    P - {D ; C} D - d; D| d C - c; C | c a) Is the grammar LL(1)? Explain your answer. b) Is the grammar SLR(1)? Explain your answer. c) Is the grammar LR(1)? Explain your answer. d) Is the grammar LALR? Explain your answer. As for my answers I actually got no for them all... so I'm thinking I did something wrong Here is my explanation. a) It is not LL(1) because it is not left factored. b) It is not SLR, because of the transition diagram item 2 ( which is... ) D- d . ; D D- d . We need to consult the follow set, Follow(D) = ; Therefore this is not SLR c) It is not LR(1) because of... item 1 P- {D.;C} , $ D- .d;D , ; D- .d , ; item 2 D- d.; D , ; D- d. , ; item 3 D- d; . D , ; D- .d;D , ; D- .d , ; Since item 2 goes to item 3 with ;, AND "D- d."'s (in item 2) look ahead token is also ;. this causes a reduce to shift conflict, therefore this grammar is not LR(1) d) This grammar is not LALR because it is not LR(1) Thanks for your help!

    Read the article

  • using in-line asm to write a for loop with 2 comparisons

    - by aCuria
    I want to convert the for loop in the following code into assembly but i am not sure how to start. An explanation of how to do it and why it works would be appreciated. I am using VS2010, C++, writing for the x86. The code is as follows: for (n = 0; norm2 < 4.0 && n < N; ++n) { __asm{ ///a*a - b*b + x fld a // a fmul st(0), st(0) // aa fld b // b aa fmul st(0), st(0) // bb aa fsub // (aa-bb) // st(0) - st(1) fld x // x (aa-bb) fadd // (aa-bb+x) /// 2.0*a*b + y; fld d // d (aa-bb+x) fld a // d a (aa-bb+x) fmul // ad (aa-bb+x) fld b // b ad (aa-bb+x) fmul // abd (aa-bb+x) fld y // y adb (aa-bb+x) fadd // b:(adb+y) a:(aa-bb+x) fld st(0) //b b:(adb+y) a:(aa-bb+x) fmul st(0), st(0) // bb b:(adb+y) a:(aa-bb+x) fld st(2) // a bb b:(adb+y) a:(aa-bb+x) fmul st(0), st(0) // aa bb b:(adb+y) a:(aa-bb+x) fadd // aa+bb b:(adb+y) a:(aa-bb+x) fstp norm2 // store aa+bb to norm2, st(0) is popped. fstp b fstp a } }

    Read the article

  • Adding items to a combo box's internal list programatically.

    - by Andrew
    So, despite Matt's generous explanation in my last question, I still didn't understand and decided to start a new project and use an internal list. - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(NSNotification *)aNotification { codesList = [[NSString alloc] initWithContentsOfFile: @".../.../codelist.txt"]; namesList = [[NSString alloc] initWithContentsOfFile: @".../.../namelist.txt"]; codesListArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc]initWithArray:[codesList componentsSeparatedByString:@"\n"]]; namesListArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc]initWithArray:[namesList componentsSeparatedByString:@"\n"]]; addTheDash = [[NSString alloc]initWithString:@" - "]; flossNames = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; [flossNames removeAllObjects]; for (int n=0; n<=[codesListArray count]; n++){ NSMutableString *nameBuilder = [[NSMutableString alloc]initWithFormat:@"%@", [codesListArray objectAtIndex:n]]; [nameBuilder appendString:addTheDash]; [nameBuilder appendString:[namesListArray objectAtIndex:n]]; [comboBoz addItemWithObjectValue:[NSMutableString stringWithString:nameBuilder]]; [nameBuilder release]; } } So this is my latest attempt at this and the list still isn't showing in my combo box. I've tried using the addItemsWithObjectValues outside the for loop along with the suggestions at this question: Is this the right way to add items to NSCombobox in Cocoa ? But still no luck. If you can't tell, I'm trying to combine two strings from the files with a hyphen in between them and then put that new string into the combo box. There are over 400 codes and matching names in the two files, so manually putting them in would be a huge chore, not to mention, I don't see what would be causing this problem. The compiler shows no warnings or errors, and in the IB, I have it set to use the internal list, but when I run it, the list is not populated unless I do it manually. Some things I thought might be causing it: Being in the applicationDidFinishLaunching: method Having the string and array variables declared as instance variables in the header (along with @property and @synth done to them) Messing around with using appendString multiple times with NSMutableArrays Nothing seems to be causing this to me, but maybe someone else will know something I don't. Thanks for the help.

    Read the article

  • Mutex example / tutorial ?

    - by Nav
    I've noticed that asking questions for the sake of creating a reference list etc. is encouraged in SO. This is one such question, so that anyone Googling for a mutex tutorial will find a good one here. I'm new to multithreading, and was trying to understand how mutexes work. Did a lot of Googling and this is the only decent tutorial I found, but it still left some doubts of how it works because I created my own program and the locking didn't work. One absolutely non-intuitive syntax of the mutex is pthread_mutex_lock( &mutex1 );, where it looks like the mutex is being locked, when what I really want to lock is some other variable. Does this syntax mean that locking a mutex locks a region of code until the mutex is unlocked? Then how do threads know that the region is locked? And isn't such a phenomenon supposed to be called critical section? In short, could you please help with the simplest possible mutex example program and the simplest possible explanation on the logic of how it works? I'm sure this will help plenty of other newbies.

    Read the article

  • Android, NetworkInfo.getTypeName(), NullpointerException

    - by moppel
    I have an activity which shows some List entries. When I click on a list item my app checks which connection type is available ("WIF" or "MOBILE"), through NetworkInfo.getTypeName(). As soon as I call this method I get a NullpointerException. Why? I tested this on the emulator, cause my phone is currently not available (it's broken...). I assume this is the problem? This is the only explanation that I have, if that's not the case I have no idea why this would be null. Here's some code snippet: public class VideoList extends ListActivity{ ... public void onCreate(Bundle bundle){ final ConnectivityManager cm = (ConnectivityManager) getSystemService(Context.CONNECTIVITY_SERVICE); ... listview.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener(){ public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> parent, View view, int position, long id) { ... NetworkInfo ni = cm.getActiveNetworkInfo(); String connex = ni.getTypeName(); //Nullpointer exception here if(connex.equals("WIFI")doSomething(); } }); } }

    Read the article

  • Explaining the forecasts from an ARIMA model

    - by Samik R.
    I am trying to explain to myself the forecasting result from applying an ARIMA model to a time-series dataset. The data is from the M1-Competition, the series is MNB65. For quick reference, I have a google doc spreadsheet with the data. I am trying to fit the data to an ARIMA(1,0,0) model and get the forecasts. I am using R. Here are some output snippets: > arima(x, order = c(1,0,0)) Series: x ARIMA(1,0,0) with non-zero mean Call: arima(x = x, order = c(1, 0, 0)) Coefficients: ar1 intercept 0.9421 12260.298 s.e. 0.0474 202.717 > predict(arima(x, order = c(1,0,0)), n.ahead=12) $pred Time Series: Start = 53 End = 64 Frequency = 1 [1] 11757.39 11786.50 11813.92 11839.75 11864.09 11887.02 11908.62 11928.97 11948.15 11966.21 11983.23 11999.27 I have a few questions: (1) How do I explain that although the dataset shows a clear downward trend, the forecast from this model trends upward. This also happens for ARIMA(2,0,0), which is the best ARIMA fit for the data using auto.arima (forecast package) and for an ARIMA(1,0,1) model. (2) The intercept value for the ARIMA(1,0,0) model is 12260.298. Shouldn't the intercept satisfy the equation: C = mean * (1 - sum(AR coeffs)), in which case, the value should be 715.52. I must be missing something basic here. (3) This is clearly a series with non-stationary mean. Why is an AR(2) model still selected as the best model by auto.arima? Could there be an intuitive explanation? Thanks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76  | Next Page >