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  • many to many relationship mysql select

    - by zeina
    Let's consider 2 tables "schools" and "students". Now a student may belong to different schools in his life, and a school have many students. So this is a many to many example. A third table "links" specify the relation between student and school. Now to query this I do the following: Select sc.sid , -- stands for school id st.uid, -- stands for student id sc.sname, -- stands for school name st.uname, -- stands for student name -- select more data about the student joining other tables for that from students s left join links l on l.uid=st.uid -- l.uid stands for the student id on the links table left join schools sc on sc.sid=l.sid -- l.sid is the id of the school in the links table where st.uid=3 -- 3 is an example this query will return duplicate data for the user id if he has more than one school, so to fix this I added group by st.uid, yet I also need the list of school name related to the same user. Is there a way to do it with fixing the query I wrote instead of having 2 queries? So as example I want to have Luci of schools ( X, Y, Z, R, ...) etc

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  • Why do I get null objects in a many-to-many bag?

    - by Jim Geurts
    I have a bag defined for a many-to-many list: <class name="Author" table="Authors"> <id name="Id" column="AuthorId"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" /> <bag name="Books" table="Author_Book_Map" where="IsDeleted=0" fetch="join"> <key column="AuthorId" /> <many-to-many class="Book" column="BookId" where="IsDeleted=0" /> </bag> </class> If I return all author objects using something like the following, I will get what initially appeared to be duplicate Author records: Session.Query<Author>().List<Author>() The extra author objects are created when an author is mapped to Book objects that have IsDeleted = 1 and IsDeleted = 0. Rather than creating one Author object with an enumerable that contains only the books with IsDeleted = 0, it will create two author objects. The first author object has a Books enumerable that contains books with IsDeleted = 0. The second author object will contain an enumerable of null book objects. Similarly, if an object only has one book map, and that map points to a book with IsDeleted = 1, then an author object is returned with a Books collection having one null object. I'm thinking part of the problem stems from the map table objects linking to rows that satisfy the where condition on the bag object but do not meet the many-to-many where condition. This is happening with NHibernate version 3.0.0.4980. Is this a configuration issue or something else?

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  • Argument type deduction, references and rvalues

    - by uj2
    Consider the situation where a function template needs to forward an argument while keeping it's lvalue-ness in case it's a non-const lvalue, but is itself agnostic to what the argument actually is, as in: template <typename T> void target(T&) { cout << "non-const lvalue"; } template <typename T> void target(const T&) { cout << "const lvalue or rvalue"; } template <typename T> void forward(T& x) { target(x); } When x is an rvalue, instead of T being deduced to a constant type, it gives an error: int x = 0; const int y = 0; forward(x); // T = int forward(y); // T = const int forward(0); // Hopefully, T = const int, but actually an error forward<const int>(0); // Works, T = const int It seems that for forward to handle rvalues (without calling for explicit template arguments) there needs to be an forward(const T&) overload, even though it's body would be an exact duplicate. Is there any way to avoid this duplication?

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  • Calling a javascript function from an aspx.cs code behind

    - by David Hodgson
    Hi, I would like to call a javascript function from an aspx control. For instance, suppose I had: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> <script type="text/javascript"> function test(x, y) { } </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" onclick="Button1_Click"/> </div> </form> </body> </html> and in the code behind: protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // do stuff (really going to a database to fill x and y) int[] x = new int[] { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 }; int[] y = new int[] { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 }; // call javascript function as test(x,y); } Is there a way to do it? DUPLICATE:calling-a-javascript-function-at-the-end-of-button-click-code-behind

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  • how to change type of value in an php array and sorting it..is it possible ?

    - by justjoe
    hi, i got problem with my code and hopefully someone able to figure it out. The main purpose is to sort array based on its value (then reindex its numerical key). i got this sample of filename : $filename = array("index 198.php", "index 192.php", "index 144.php", "index 2.php", "index 1.php", "index 100.php", "index 111.php"); $alloutput = array(); //all of index in array foreach ($filename as $name) { preg_match('#(\d+)#', $name, $output); // take only the numerical from file name array_shift($output); // cleaned. the last code create duplicate numerical in $output, if (is_array($hasilku)) { $alloutput = array_merge($alloutput, $output); } } //try to check the type of every value in array foreach ($alloutput as $output) { if (is_array($hasil)) { echo "array true </br>"; } elseif (is_int($hasil)) { echo "integer true </br>"; } elseif (is_string($hasil)) { //the numerical taken from filename always resuld "string". echo "string true </br>"; } } the output of this code will be : Array ( [0] = 198 [1] = 192 [2] = 144 [3] = 2 [4] = 1 [5] = 100 [6] = 111 ) i have test every output in array. It's all string (and not numerical), So the question is how to change this string to integer, so i can sort it from the lowest into the highest number ? the main purpose of this code is how to output array where it had been sort from lowest to highest ?

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  • Two Objects created with the same Address in Flex

    - by James
    Hi, I have an issue in flex which is causing a bit of a headache! I am adding objects to an ArrayCollection but in doing so, another ArrayCollection is also picking up these changes even though there is no binding occurring. I can see from the debug that the two ACs have the same address but for the life of me can't figure out why. I have two Array Collections: model.index.rows //The main array collection model.index.holdRows //The array collection that imitates the above This phantom data binding occurs only for the first iteration in the loop and for all others it will just write it the once. The reason this is proving troublesome is that it creates duplicate entries in my datagrid. public override function handleMessage(message:IMessage):void { super.handleMessage(message); if (message is IndexResponse) { var response:IndexResponse = message as IndexResponse; model.index.rows.removeAll(); model.index.indexIsEmpty = response.nullIndex; if (model.index.indexIsEmpty !== true) { //Update the index model from the response. Note: each property of the row object will be shown in the UI as a column in the grid response.index.forEach(function(entry:EntryData, i:int, a:Array):void { var row:Object = { fileID: entry.fileID, dadName: entry.dadName }; entry.tags.forEach(function(tag:Tag, i:int, a:Array):void { row[tag.name] = tag.value; }); model.index.rows.addItem(row); }); if(model.index.indexForNetworkView == true){ model.index.holdRows.source = model.index.holdRows.source.concat(model.index.rows.source); model.index.indexCounter++; model.index.indexForNetworkView = false; controller.indexController.showNetwork(model.index.indexCounter); } model.index.rows.refresh(); controller.networkController.show(); } } Has anyone else who has encountered something simillar propose a solution?

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  • Multiple "ObjectChangeTracker" getting created, can it be avoided?

    - by user555937
    Hi, We are working on a POC where we have following architecture (MVVM), WPF(Client) + WCF + Model(DataAccess)+ ADO.Net Entity Framework 4.0 (with SQL Server 2008 R2 as DB) All are different projects. In the DataAccess layer we have created different Entity Models(edmx) based on the functionality. The tables under perticular flow are grouped and created different entity models. We are using self tracking entities to and fro to communicate with the WPF client through wcf service. For Single model everything works fine. But when we created a Multiple models then few issues started coming. Mutliple models have few duplicate tables/entities. Two probels are, 1) When we try to access entities from different models mutiple objects "ObjectChangeTracker" are getting created. E.g. CompanyModel(edmx) - Company(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker, ObjectState ProductModel(edmx) - Customer(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker1, ObjectState1 OrderModel(edmx) - Oder(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker2, ObjectState2 Is there any way to avoid this? 2) There are few tables which shared across the Models, E.g. Company(Entity) is used in All above mdoels. During compile time it does not thow any error. But run time It gives error saying "Schema specified is not valid. Errors: The mapping of CLR type to EDM type is ambiguous because multiple CLR types match the EDM type "Company"".. To resolve this, we renamed the entities with some prefix to make them Unique. Is there any other way we can resolve this without changing the name of the entity in the same assembly? Thanks in advance and appreciate if anyone has approach for these issues. Thanks, Kiran

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  • Retrieving a unique result set with Core Data

    - by randombits
    I have a core data based app that manages a bunch of entities. I'm looking to be able to do the following. I have an entity "SomeEntity" with the attributes: name, type, rank, foo1, foo2. Now, SomeEntity has several rows if when we're speaking strictly in SQL terms. What I'm trying to accomplish is to retrieve only available types, even though each instance can have duplicate types. I also need them returned in order according to rank. So in SQL, what I'm looking for is the following: SELECT DISTINCT(type) ORDER BY rank ASC Here is the code I have so far that's breaking: NSError *error = NULL; NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [fetchRequest setReturnsDistinctResults:YES]; [fetchRequest setPropertiesToFetch:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"type", @"rank", nil]]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"SomeEntity" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; // sort by rank NSSortDescriptor *rankDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"rank" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:rankDescriptor,nil]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [sortDescriptors release]; [rankDescriptor release]; NSArray *fetchResults = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&error]; [fetchRequest release]; return fetchResults; Right now that is crashing with the following: Invalid keypath section passed to setPropertiesToFetch:

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  • How to structure this Symfony web project?

    - by James William
    I am new to Symfony and am not sure how to best structure my web project. The solution must accommodate 3 use cases: Public access to www.mydomain.com for general use Member only access to member.mydomain.com Administrator access to admin.mydomain.com All three virtual hosts point to the Symfony /web directory Questions: Is this 3 separate applications in my Symfony project (e.g. "frontend", "backend" and "admin" or "public", "member", "admin")? Is this a good approach if there is to be some duplicate code (e.g. generating a member list would be common across all 3 applications, but presented differently)? How would I route to the various applications based on the subdomain when a user accesses *.mydomain.com? Where in Symfony should this routing logic be placed? Or, is this one application with modules for each of the above use cases? EDIT: I do not have access to httpd.conf in apache to specify a default page for virtual hosts. I can only specify a directory for each subdomain using the hostin provider's cPanel.

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  • codeigniter mulitple LIKE db query using associative array- but all from the same column name...?

    - by Inigo
    Hi, I'm trying to query my database using codeigniter's active record class. I have a number of blog posts stored in a table. The query is for a search function, which will pull out all the posts that have certain categories assigned to them. So the 'category' column of the table will have a list of all the categories for that post in no particular order, separated by commas, like so: Politics,History,Sociology.. etc. If a user selects, say, Politics and History, The titles of all the posts that have BOTH these categories should be returned. Right? So, the list of categories queried will be the array $cats. I thought this would work- foreach ($cats as $cat){ $this->db->like('categories',$cat); } By Producing this- $this-db-like('categories','Politics'); $this-db-like('categories','History'); (Which would produce- 'WHERE categories LIKE '%Politics%' AND categories LIKE '%History%') But it doesn't work, it seems to only produce the first statement. The problem I guess is that the column name is the same for each of the chained queries. There doesn't seem to be anything in the CI user guide about this (http://codeigniter.com/user_guide/database/active_record.html) as they seem to assume that each chained statement is going to be for a different column name. Does anyone know how I could do this? Thanks! edit- Of course it is not possible to use an associative array in one statement as it would have to contain duplicate keys- in this case every key would have to be 'categories'...

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  • What changed in the DataGrid that means it won't work anymore?

    - by Jeff Yates
    I have a Silverlight app with a DataGrid containing some custom columns and all was working well. Then I updated to Silverlight 3 tools for VS 2008 SP1 and rebuilt it. Now it has the following problems: Rows aren't added when the collection is modified. The ItemsSource property is (and always has been) set to an ObservableCollection instance, which notifies when its contents change. This worked fine for Silverlight 2. However, in Silverlight 3 to get this working at all, I now have to null and then re-set ItemsSource - this seems like I'm hiding a bigger issue but I can't work out what that might be. I cannot select a row or a cell anymore. If I'm lucky, I can select one whole row before it stops working. I can't edit anything. I suspect this is related to the previous point. I'll post some source when I am able, but first I have to strip it down to the bare minimum. In the meantime, I was hoping someone might have some idea of what may be going on here. My gut feeling on the second two points is that my bindings are no longer working, but that's just a guess and if it is the case, I have no idea which ones. Thanks for any help anyone might be able to provide. Update So, I finally reduced my problem down to a simple works/doesn't work comparison. The problem seems to occur if I override Equals in my element type. As soon as I do that, something happens strangely in the ObservableCollection that contains that type, it seems, and my application breaks. To make it more interesting, there is a check to make sure that duplicate items don't even get close to being added to the collection. I don't exactly know why ObservableCollection needs to compare equality when inserting items (the stack trace indicates it is using IndexAt) but this seems to cause the issue. So, any thoughts?

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  • input field placeholder in jQuery

    - by Hristo
    I'm trying to create a Login page, not worrying about actually logging in yet, but I'm trying to achieve the effect where there is some faded text inside the input field and when you click on it, the text disappears or if you click away the text reappears. I have this working for my "Username" input field, but the "Password" field is giving me problems because I can't just do $("#password").attr("type","password"). Here's my code: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <title>Insert title here</title> <!-- Links --> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="style.css" /> <!-- Scripts --> <script type="text/javascript" src="jQuery.js"></script> <script> // document script $(document).ready(function(){ // login box event handler $('#login').click(function(){ $('.loginBox').animate({ height: '150px' }, '1000' ); $('#username').show(); // add pw placeholder field $('#password').after('<input type="text" id="placeHolder" value="Password" class="placeHolder" />'); $('#password').hide(); }); // username field focus and blur event handlers $('#username').focus(function() { if($(this).hasClass('placeHolder')){ $(this).val(''); $(this).removeClass('placeHolder'); } }); $('#username').blur(function() { if($(this).val() == '') { $(this).val('Username'); $(this).addClass('placeHolder'); } }); // password field focus and blur event handlers $('#placeHolder').focus(function() { $('#placeHolder').hide(); $('#password').show(); $('#password').focus(); }); $('#password').blur(function() { if($('#password').val() == '') { $('#placeHolder').show(); $('#password').hide(); } }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="loginBox" class="loginBox"> <a id="login">Proceed to Login</a><br /> <div id="loginForm"> <form> <input type="text" id="username" class="placeHolder" value="Username" /> <input type="password" id="password" class="placeHolder" value="" /> </form> </div> </div> </body> </html> Right now, I can click on the password input box and type in it, but the text is not disappearing and the "type" doesn't get set to "password"... the new input field I create isn't being hidden, it just stays visible, and I'm not sure where the problem is. Any ideas? Thanks, Hristo

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  • .NET binary serialization conditionally without ISerializable

    - by SillyWhy
    I got 2 classes, for example: public class A { private B b; ... } public class B { ... } I need to serialize an object A using BinaryFormatter. When remoting it shall include the field b, but not when serialize to file. Here is what I added: [Serializable] public class A : MarshalByRefObject { private B b; [OnSerializing] private void OnSerializing(StreamingContext context) { if (context.State == StreamingContextStates.File) { this.b = null; } } ... } [Serializable] public class B : MarshalByRefObject { ... } I think this is a bad design because if another class C also contains B, in class C we must add the duplicate OnSerializing() logic as in A. Class B should decide what to do, not class A or C. I don't want to use ISerializable interface because there are too many variables in class B have to be added to SerializationInfo. I can create a SerializationSurrogate for class B, which perform nothing in GetObjectData() & SetObjectData(), then use it when serializing to file. However the same maintenance issue because whoever modify class B can't notice what going to happen during serialization & the existence of SerializationSurrogate. Is there a better alternative?

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  • Pattern for version-specific implementations of a Java class

    - by Mike Monkiewicz
    So here's my conundrum. I am programming a tool that needs to work on old versions of our application. I have the code to the application, but can not alter any of the classes. To pull information out of our database, I have a DTO of sorts that is populated by Hibernate. It consumes a data object for version 1.0 of our app, cleverly named DataObject. Below is the DTO class. public class MyDTO { private MyWrapperClass wrapper; public MyDTO(DataObject data) { wrapper = new MyWrapperClass(data); } } The DTO is instantiated through a Hibernate query as follows: select new com.foo.bar.MyDTO(t1.data) from mytable t1 Now, a little logic is needed on top of the data object, so I made a wrapper class for it. Note the DTO stores an instance of the wrapper class, not the original data object. public class MyWrapperClass { private DataObject data; public MyWrapperClass(DataObject data) { this.data = data; } public String doSomethingImportant() { ... version-specific logic ... } } This works well until I need to work on version 2.0 of our application. Now DataObject in the two versions are very similar, but not the same. This resulted in different sub classes of MyWrapperClass, which implement their own version-specific doSomethingImportant(). Still doing okay. But how does myDTO instantiate the appropriate version-specific MyWrapperClass? Hibernate is in turn instantiating MyDTO, so it's not like I can @Autowire a dependency in Spring. I would love to reuse MyDTO (and my dozens of other DTOs) for both versions of the tool, without having to duplicate the class. Don't repeat yourself, and all that. I'm sure there's a very simple pattern I'm missing that would help this. Any suggestions?

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  • Just for fun (C# and C++)...time yourself [closed]

    - by Ted
    Possible Duplicate: What is your solution to the FizzBuzz problem? OK guys this is just for fun, no flamming allowed ! I was reading the following http://www.codinghorror.com/blog/2007/02/why-cant-programmers-program.html and couldn't believe the following sentence... " I've also seen self-proclaimed senior programmers take more than 10-15 minutes to write a solution." For those that can't be bothered to read the article, the background is this: ....I set out to develop questions that can identify this kind of developer and came up with a class of questions I call "FizzBuzz Questions" named after a game children often play (or are made to play) in schools in the UK. An example of a Fizz-Buzz question is the following: Write a program that prints the numbers from 1 to 100. But for multiples of three print "Fizz" instead of the number and for the multiples of five print "Buzz". For numbers which are multiples of both three and five print "FizzBuzz". SO I decided to test myself. I took 5 minutes in C++ and 3mins in c#! So just for fun try it and post your timings + language used! P.S NO UNIT TESTS REQUIRED, NO OUTSOURCING ALLOWED, SWITCH OFF RESHARPER! :-) P.S. If you'd like to post your source then feel free

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  • JSR-299 (CDI) configuration at runtime

    - by nsn
    I need to configure different @Alternatives, @Decorators and @Injectors for different runtime environments (think testing, staging and production servers). Right now I use maven to create three wars, and the only difference between those wars are in the beans.xml files. Is there a better way to do this? I do have @Alternative @Stereotypes for the different environments, but even then I need to alter beans.xml, and they don't work for @Decorators (or do they?) Is it somehow possible to instruct CDI to ignore the values in beans.xml and use a custom configuration source? Because then I could for example read a system property or other environment variable. The application exclusively runs in containers that use Weld, so a weld-specific solution would be ok. I already tried to google this but can't seem to find good search terms, and I asked the Weld-Users-Forums, but to no avail. Someone over there suggested to write my own custom extension, but I can't find any API to actually change the container configuration at runtime. I think it would be possible to have some sort of @ApplicationScoped configuration bean and inject that into all @Decorators which could then decide themselves whether they should be active or not and then in order to configure @Alternatives write @Produces methods for every interface with multiple implementations and inject the config bean there too. But this seems to me like a lot of unnecessary work to essentially duplicate functionality already present in CDI?

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  • Dynamically alter outter div as inner one gets bigger.

    - by Razor Storm
    I have two divs, one inside another. The outter one is called #wrapper, while the inner one is called #pad. Now #pad allows user input, and I have a javascript (jQuery) function that changes the content of #pad based on what the user input is. Sometimes, because of this function, #pad's content will cause the div to become more elongated than before. Now obviously I would wish for #wrapper to grow longer as well to accommodate this change in #pad's length. However, this does not occur. #wrapper { clear:both; padding-top:0.5em; /*padding-left:50px;*/ height: 100%; background-color: rgba(255,255,255,0.4); -moz-border-radius: 20px 20px 0px 0px; -webkit-border-radius: 20px 20px 0px 0px; border-radius: 20px 20px 0px 0px; } #pad { margin-top: 25px; -moz-border-radius: 5px; border: solid 1px #DDD; margin-left:25px; padding-left:25px; margin-right:25px; padding-right:25px; margin-bottom:2em; } This is the javascript function: function preview() { var id1=$("#input1").val(); var id2=$("#input2").val(); var id3=$("#input3").val(); var id4=$("#input4").val(); var id5=$("#input5").val(); if(id1!= null && id1!="") { if( $("#preview1").attr("src")!=id1) { $("#preview1").attr("src",id1); $("#preview1").fadeIn("slow"); } } else { $("#preview1").attr("src",""); $("#preview1").fadeOut("slow"); } if(id2!= null && id2!="") { if( $("#preview2").attr("src")!=id2) { $("#preview2").attr("src",id2); $("#preview2").fadeIn("slow"); } } else { $("#preview2").attr("src",""); $("#preview2").fadeOut("slow"); } if(id3!= null && id3!="") { if( $("#preview3").attr("src")!=id3) { $("#preview3").attr("src",id3); $("#preview3").fadeIn("slow"); } } else { $("#preview3").attr("src",""); $("#preview3").fadeOut("slow"); } if(id4!= null && id4!="") { if( $("#preview4").attr("src")!=id4) { $("#preview4").attr("src",id4); $("#preview4").fadeIn("slow"); } } else { $("#preview4").attr("src",""); $("#preview4").fadeOut("slow"); } if(id5!= null && id5!="") { if( $("#preview5").attr("src")!=id5) { $("#preview5").attr("src",id5); $("#preview5").fadeIn("slow"); } } else { $("#preview5").attr("src",""); $("#preview5").fadeOut("slow"); } setTimeout("preview()",1000); $("#wrapper").attr("height",$(document).attr("height")); } http://surveys.mylifeisberkeley.com/

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  • Create Views for object properties in model in MVC 3 application?

    - by Anders Svensson
    I have an Asp.Net MVC 3 application with a database "Consultants", accessed by EF. Now, the Consultant table in the db has a one-to-many relationship to several other tables for CV type information (work experience, etc). So a user should be able to fill in their name etc once, but should be able to add a number of "work experiences", and so on. But these foreign key tables are complex objects in the model, and when creating the Create View I only get the simple properties as editor fields. How do I go about designing the View or Views so that the complex objects can be filled in as well? I picture a View in my mind where the simple properties are simple fields, and then some sort of control where you can click "add work experience", and as many as needed would be added. But how would I do that and still utilize the model binding? In fact, I don't know how to go about it at all. (BTW, Program and Language stand for things like software experience in general, and natural language competence, not programming languages, in case you're wondering about the relationships there). Any ideas greatly appreciated! Here's the Create View created by the add View command by default: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Create"; } <h2>Create</h2> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.validate.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.ValidationSummary(true) <fieldset> <legend>Consultant</legend> <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.FirstName) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.FirstName) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.FirstName) </div> <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.LastName) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.LastName) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.LastName) </div> <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.UserName) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.UserName) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.UserName) </div> <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Description) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Description) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Description) </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="Create" /> </p> </fieldset> } <div> @Html.ActionLink("Back to List", "Index") </div> And here's the EF database diagram:

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  • Why do you need "extern C" for in C++ callbacks to C functions?

    - by Artyom
    Hello, I find such examples in Boost code. namespace boost { namespace { extern "C" void *thread_proxy(void *f) { .... } } // anonymous void thread::thread_start(...) { ... pthread_create(something,0,&thread_proxy,something_else); ... } } // boost Why do you actually need this extern "C"? It is clear that thread_proxy function is private internal and I do not expect that it would be mangled as "thread_proxy" because I actually do not need it mangled at all. In fact in all my code that I had written and that runs on may platforms I never used extern "C" and this had worked as-as with normal functions. Why extern "C" is added? My problem is that extern "C" function pollute global name-space and they do not actually hidden as author expects. This is not duplicate! I'm not talking about mangling and external linkage. It is obvious in this code that external linkage is unwanted!

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  • Leftover Nav Bar in Landscape View

    - by Rob Bonner
    Hello, I am working to force a view into landscape mode, and have picked up all kinds of cool tips to make this happen, but am stuck on one item that is left on the screen. I have my XIB file laid out in landscape, and in my code I create the view controller normally: RedeemViewController *aViewController = [[RedeemViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"RedeemViewController" bundle:nil]; aViewController.hidesBottomBarWhenPushed = YES; aViewController.wantsFullScreenLayout = YES; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:aViewController animated:YES]; Inside the controller viewDidLoad I complete the following: [[UIApplication sharedApplication] setStatusBarOrientation:UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight]; [[self navigationController] setNavigationBarHidden:YES animated:YES]; [UIView beginAnimations:@"View Flip" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:.75]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseInOut]; if (self.interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait) { self.view.transform = CGAffineTransformIdentity; self.view.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeRotation(degreesToRadian(90)); self.view.bounds = CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, 480, 320); } [UIView commitAnimations]; What I end up with is a perfectly rotated view, with a grey vertical bar on the left side (see pic). So to the question, how do I get rid of the bar? Edit: I am pretty sure this is the navigation bar that is not being hidden. This is a duplicate of another post, with some modified code, the other question was being answered with the bug.

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  • Should I be using the command pattern? Seems like a lot of work...

    - by Fedor
    My Room class has a lot of methods I used before I decided to use the command pattern. Previously, I was invoking a lot of commands and now it seems I have to make a method in my roomParser class for every method. If I wanted to invoke say, setHotelCode I would have to create a method in roomParser that iterates through and invokes the method. Is this the way I should be using the command pattern? <?php interface Parseable { public function parse( $arr, $dept ); } class Room implements Parseable { protected $_adults; protected $_kids; protected $_startDate; protected $_endDate; protected $_hotelCode; protected $_sessionNs; protected $_minRate; protected $_maxRate; protected $_groupCode; protected $_rateCode; protected $_promoCode; protected $_confCode; protected $_currency = 'USD'; protected $_soapAction; protected $_soapHeaders; protected $_soapServer; protected $_responseXml; protected $_requestXml; public function __construct( $startdate,$enddate,$rooms=1,$adults=2,$kids=0 ) { $this->setNamespace(SESSION_NAME); $this->verifyDates( $startdate, $enddate ); $this->_rooms= $rooms; $this->_adults= $adults; $this->_kids= $kids; $this->setSoapAction(); $this->setRates(); } public function parse( $arr, $dept ) { $this->_price = $arr * $dept * rand(); return $this; } public function setNamespace( $namespace ) { $this->_sessionNs = $namespace; } private function verifyDates( $startdate, $enddate ) {} public function setSoapAction( $str= 'CheckAvailability' ) { $this->_soapAction = $str; } public function setRates( $rates='' ) { } public function setHotelCode($code ) { $this->_hotelCode = $code; } private function getSoapHeader() { return '<?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soap:Header> </soap:Header>'; } private function getSoapFooter() { return '</soap:Envelope>'; } private function getSource() { return '<POS> <Source><RequestorId ID="" ID_Context="" /></Source> </POS>'; } function requestXml() { $this->_requestXml = $this->getSoapHeader(); $this->_requestXml .='<soap:Body></soap:Body>'; return $this->_requestXml; } private function setSoapHeaders ($contentLength) { $this->_soapHeaders = array('POST /url HTTP/1.1', 'Host: '.SOAP_HOST, 'Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8', 'Content-Length: '.$contentLength); } } class RoomParser extends SplObjectStorage { public function attach( Parseable $obj ) { parent::attach( $obj ); } public function parseRooms( $arr, $dept ) { for ( $this->rewind(); $this->valid(); $this->next() ) { $ret = $this->current()->parse( $arr, $dept ); echo $ret->getPrice(), PHP_EOL; } } } $arrive = '12/28/2010'; $depart = '01/02/2011'; $rooms = new RoomParser( $arrive, $depart); $rooms->attach( new Room( '12/28/2010', '01/02/2011') ); $rooms->attach( new Room( '12/29/2010', '01/04/2011') ); echo $rooms->count(), ' Rooms', PHP_EOL; Edit: I'm thinking it may be easier if I made the RoomParser less generic by storing properties that all the objects will share. Though I'll probably have to make methods if I want to override for a certain object.

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  • WordPress issues with htaccess causing 500 server error

    - by Scott B
    I have a few customers of my custom wordpress theme that are reporting that their sites have went down over the past few weeks due to a 500 internal server error. In each case, it appears that the htaccess file has been to blame. In one case, the user's hosting company found a "_pvt/service.pwd" line in there that was apparently causing the problem. In another instance, the hosting company indicated that a chron job appeared to be causing the issue and sent the user the following as evidence... root@cherry [/home/login/public_html]# stat .htaccess File: `.htaccess.orig' Size: 587 Blocks: 8 IO Block: 4096 regular file Device: 811h/2065d Inode: 590021607 Links: 1 Access: (0644/-rw-r--r--) Uid: ( 2234/login) Gid: ( 2231/login) Access: 2010-03-07 16:42:01.000000000 -0600 Modify: 2010-03-26 09:15:15.000000000 -0500 Change: 2010-03-26 09:45:05.000000000 -0500 In yet another instance, the user reported this as the cause... The permissions on my .index file somehow got changed to 777 instead of 644 I'm just seeking to help these users understand what's going on, the likely cause and how to prevent it. I also want to eliminate my theme as a potential contributing factor. I have two areas in which I want to submit here to make sure that they are not likely to cause such an issue. They are my permalink rewrite code as well as my upgrade script (which sets 755 on the destination folder (my theme folder). Here's the permalink rewrite code... if (file_exists(ABSPATH.'/wp-admin/includes/taxonomy.php')) { require_once(ABSPATH.'/wp-admin/includes/taxonomy.php'); if(get_option('permalink_structure') !== "/%postname%/" || get_option('mycustomtheme_permalinks') !=="/%postname%/") { $mycustomtheme_permalinks = get_option('mycustomtheme_permalinks'); require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/misc.php'); require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/file.php'); global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->set_permalink_structure($mycustomtheme_permalinks); $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } if(!get_cat_ID('topMenu')){wp_create_category('topMenu');} if(!get_cat_ID('hidden')){wp_create_category('hidden');} if(!get_cat_ID('noads')){wp_create_category('noads');} } if (!is_dir(ABSPATH.'wp-content/uploads')) { mkdir(ABSPATH.'wp-content/uploads'); } And here is the relevant lines from my uploader script... // permission settings for newly created folders $chmod = 0755; // Ensures that the correct file was chosen $accepted_types = array('application/zip', 'application/x-zip-compressed', 'multipart/x-zip', 'application/s-compressed'); foreach($accepted_types as $mime_type) { if($mime_type == $type) { $okay = true; break; } } //Safari and Chrome don't register zip mime types. Something better could be used here. $okay = strtolower($name[1]) == 'zip' ? true: false; if(!$okay) { die("This upgrader requires a zip file. Please make sure your file is a valid zip file with a .zip extension"); } //mkdir($target); $saved_file_location = $target . $filename; if(move_uploaded_file($source, $saved_file_location)) { openZip($saved_file_location); } else { die("There was a problem. Sorry!"); }

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  • servicestack Razor view with request and response DTO

    - by user7398
    I'm having a go with the razor functionality in service stack. I have a razor cshtml view working for one of my response DTO's. I need to access some values from the request DTO in the razor view that have been filled in from some fields from the REST route, so i can construct a url to put into the response html page and also label some form labels. Is there anyway of doing this? I don't want to duplicate the property from the request DTO into the response DTO just for this html view. Because i'm trying to emulate an existing REST service of another product, i do not want to emit extra data just for the html view. eg http://localhost/rest/{Name}/details/{Id} eg @inherits ViewPage<DetailsResponse> @{ ViewBag.Title = "todo title"; Layout = "HtmlReport"; } this needs to come from the request dto NOT @Model <a href="/rest/@Model.Name">link to user</a> <a href="/rest/@Model.Name/details/@Model.Id">link to user details</a>

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  • How can I run some common code from both (a) scheduled via Windows Task & (b) manually from within W

    - by Greg
    Hi, QUESTION - How can I run some common code from both (a) scheduled via Windows Task & (b) manually from within WinForms app? BACKGROUND: This follows on from the http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2489999/how-can-i-schedule-tasks-in-a-winforms-app thread REQUIREMENTS C# .NETv3.5 project using VS2008 There is an existing function which I want to run both (a) manually from within the WinForms application, and (b) scheduled via Windows Task. APPROACHES So what I'm trying to understand is what options are there to make this work eg Is it possible for a windows task to trigger a function to run within a running/existing WinForms application? (doesn't sound solid I guess) Split code out into two projects and duplicate for both console application that the task manager would run AND code that the winforms app would run Create a common library and re-use this for both the above-mentioned projects in the bullet above Create a service with an interface that both the task manager can access plus the winforms app can manage Actually each of these approaches sounds quite messy/complex - would be really nice to drop back to have the code only once within the one project in VS2008, the only reason I ask about this is I need to have a scheduling function and the suggestion has been to use http://taskscheduler.codeplex.com/ as the means to do this, which takes the scheduling out of my VS2008 project... thanks

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  • how can i make sure only a single record is inserted when multiple apache threads are trying to acce

    - by Ed Gl
    I have a web service (xmlrpc service to be exact) that handles among other things writing data into the database. Here's the scenario: I often receive requests to either update or insert a record. What I would do is this: If the record already exists, append to the record, If not, create a new record The issue is that there are certain times I would get a 'burst' of requests, which spawns several apache threads to handle the request. These 'bursts' would come within less than milliseconds of each other. I now have several threads performing #1 and #2. Often two threads would would 'pass' number #1 and actually create two duplicate records (except for the primary key). I'd like to use some locking mechanism to prevent other threads from accessing the table while the other thread finishes its work. I'm just afraid of using it because if something happens I don't want to leave the table locked. Is there a solid way of handling this? I'm open to using locks if I can do it properly. Thanks,

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