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  • database table design

    - by e.b.white
    I design the tables as below for the system which looks like a package delivering system For example, after user received the package, postman should record in system, and the state(history table) is "delivered",and operator is this postman, the current state(state table) is of course "delivered" history table: +---------------+--------------------------+ | Field | Desc | +---------------+--------------------------+ | id | PRIMARY KEY | +---------------+--------------------------+ | package_id | package_tacking_id | +---------------+--------------------------+ | state | package_state | +---------------+--------------------------+ | operators | operators | +---------------+--------------------------+ | create_time| create_time | +---------------+--------------------------+ state table: +---------------+--------------------------+ | Field | Desc | +---------------+--------------------------+ | id | PRIMARY KEY | +---------------+--------------------------+ | package_id | package_tacking_id | +---------------+--------------------------+ | state | latest_package_state | +---------------+--------------------------+ Above is just the basic information to record, some other information( like invoice, destination,...) should be recored as well. But there are different service types like s1 and s2, for s1 it is not needed to record invoice but s1 need, and maybe s1 need some other information to record (like the tel of end user). After all, at delivering way stations there are additional information to record, and for different service type the information type is different. My question is: 1. For different service type, shall I need to declare different tables(option A) or just one big table which can record all information for all types(option B)? 2. If option A, since the basic information above is MUST, how can prevent from declaring there duplicate fields in different tables?

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  • Splitting a string which contain multiple symbols to get specific values

    - by Eon Rusted du Plessis
    I cannot believe I am having trouble with this following string String filter = "name=Default;pattern=%%;start=Last;end=Now"; This is a short and possibly duplicate question, but how would I split this string to get: string Name = "Default"; string Pattern = "%%" ; string start = "Last" ; string end = "Now" ; Reason why I ask is my deadline is very soon, and this is literally the last thing I must do. I'm Panicking, and I'm stuck on this basic command. I tried: pattern = filter.Split(new string[] { "pattern=", ";" }, StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries)[1]; //Gets the pattern startDate = filter.Split(new string[] { "start=", ";" }, StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries)[1]; //Gets the start date I happen to get the pattern which I needed, but as soon as I try to split start, I get the value as "Pattern=%%" What can I do? Forgot to mention The list in this string which needs splitting may not be in any particular order . this is a single sample of a string which will be read out of a stringCollection (reading these filters from Properties.Settings.Filters

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  • Return REF CURSOR to procedure generated data

    - by ThaDon
    I need to write a sproc which performs some INSERTs on a table, and compile a list of "statuses" for each row based on how well the INSERT went. Each row will be inserted within a loop, the loop iterates over a cursor that supplies some values for the INSERT statement. What I need to return is a resultset which looks like this: FIELDS_FROM_ROW_BEING_INSERTED.., STATUS VARCHAR2 The STATUS is determined by how the INSERT went. For instance, if the INSERT caused a DUP_VAL_ON_INDEX exception indicating there was a duplicate row, I'd set the STATUS to "Dupe". If all went well, I'd set it to "SUCCESS" and proceed to the next row. By the end of it all, I'd have a resultset of N rows, where N is the number of insert statements performed and each row contains some identifying info for the row being inserted, along with the "STATUS" of the insertion Since there is no table in my DB to store the values I'd like to pass back to the user, I'm wondering how I can return the info back? Temporary table? Seems in Oracle temporary tables are "global", not sure I would want a global table, are there any temporary tables that get dropped after a session is done?

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  • iOS - is it possible to cache CGContextDrawImage?

    - by woot586
    I used the timing profile tool to identify that 95% of the time is spent calling the function CGContextDrawImage. In my app there are a lot of duplicate images repeatably being chopped from a sprite map and drawn to the screen. I was wondering if it was possible to cache the output of CGContextDrawImage in an NSMutableDictionay, then if the same sprite is requested again it can be just pull it from the cache rather than doing all the work of clipping and rendering it again. This is what i’ve got but I have not been to successful: Definitions if(cache == NULL) cache = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc]init]; //Identifier based on the name of the sprite and location within the sprite. NSString* identifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@-%d",filename,frame]; Adding to cache CGRect clippedRect = CGRectMake(0, 0, clipRect.size.width, clipRect.size.height); CGContextClipToRect( context, clippedRect); //create a rect equivalent to the full size of the image //offset the rect by the X and Y we want to start the crop //from in order to cut off anything before them CGRect drawRect = CGRectMake(clipRect.origin.x * -1, clipRect.origin.y * -1, atlas.size.width, atlas.size.height); //draw the image to our clipped context using our offset rect CGContextDrawImage(context, drawRect, atlas.CGImage); [cache setValue:UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext() forKey:identifier]; UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); Rendering a cached sprite There is probably a better way to render CGImage which is my ultimate caching goal but at the moment I’m just looking to successfully render the cached image out however this has not been successful. UIImage* cachedImage = [cache objectForKey:identifier]; if(cachedImage){ NSLog(@"Cached %@",identifier); CGRect imageRect = CGRectMake(0, 0, cachedImage.size.width, cachedImage.size.height); if (NULL != UIGraphicsBeginImageContextWithOptions) UIGraphicsBeginImageContextWithOptions(imageRect.size, NO, 0); else UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(imageRect.size); //Use draw for now just to see if the image renders out ok CGContextDrawImage(context, imageRect, cachedImage.CGImage); UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); }

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  • Alternate colors on click with jQuery

    - by Jace Cotton
    I'm sure there is a simple solution to this, and I'm sure this is a duplicate question, though I have been unable to solve my solution particularly because I don't really know how to phrase it in order to search for other questions/solutions, so I'm coming here hoping for some help. Basically, I have spans with classes that assigns a background-color property, and inside those spans are words. I have three of these spans, and each time a user clicks on a span I want the class to change (thus changing the background color and inner text). HTML: <span class="alternate"> <span class="blue showing">Lorem</span> <span class="green">Ipsum</span> <span class="red">Dolor</span> </span> CSS: .alternate span { display : none } .alternate .showing { display : inline } .blue { background : blue } .green { background : green } .red { background : red } jQuery: $(".alternate span").each(function() { $(this).on("click", function() { $(this).removeClass("showing"); $(this).next().addClass("showing"); }); }); This solution works great using $.next until I get to the third click, whereafter .showing is removed, and is not added since there are no more $.next options. How do I, after getting to the last-child, add .showing to the first-child and then start over? I have tried various options including if($(".alternate span:last-child").hasClass("showing")) { etc. etc. }, and I attempted to use an array and for loop though I failed to make it work. Newb question, I know, but I can't seem to solve this so as a last resort I'm coming here.

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  • Is it possible to have WAMP run httpd.exe as user [myself] instead of local SYSTEM?

    - by Olivier H
    Hello! I run a django application over apache with mod_wsgi, using WAMP. A certain URL allows me to stream the content of image files, the paths of which are stored in database. The files can be located whether on local machine or under network drive (\my\network\folder). With the development server (manage.py runserver), I have no trouble at all reading and streaming the files. With WAMP, and with network drive files, I get a IOError : obviously because the httpd instance does not have read permission on said drive. In the task manager, I see that httpd.exe is run by SYSTEM. I would like to tell WAMP to run the server as [myself] as I have read and write permissions on the shared folder. (eventually, the production server should be run by a 'www-admin' user having the permissions) Mapping the network shared folder on a drive letter (Z: for instance) does not solve this at all. The User/Group directives in httpd.conf do not seem to have any kind of influence on Apache's behaviour. I've also regedited : I tried to duplicate the HKLM[...]\wampapache registry key under HK_CURRENT_USER\ and rename the original key, but then the new key does not seem to be found when I cmd this > httpd.exe -n wampapache -k start or when I run WAMP. I've run out of ideas :) Has anybody ever had the same issue?

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  • unbuffered I/O in Linux

    - by stuck
    I'm writing lots and lots of data that will not be read again for weeks - as my program runs the amount of free memory on the machine (displayed with 'free' or 'top') drops very quickly, the amount of memory my app uses does not increase - neither does the amount of memory used by other processes. This leads me to believe the memory is being consumed by the filesystems cache - since I do not intend to read this data for a long time I'm hoping to bypass the systems buffers, such that my data is written directly to disk. I dont have dreams of improving perf or being a super ninja, my hope is to give a hint to the filesystem that I'm not going to be coming back for this memory any time soon, so dont spend time optimizing for those cases. On Windows I've faced similar problems and fixed the problem using FILE_FLAG_NO_BUFFERING|FILE_FLAG_WRITE_THROUGH - the machines memory was not consumed by my app and the machine was more usable in general. I'm hoping to duplicate the improvements I've seen but on Linux. On Windows there is the restriction of writing in sector sized pieces, I'm happy with this restriction for the amount of gain I've measured. is there a similar way to do this in Linux?

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  • Separate "Year" to several worksheets according to one column....

    - by HACHI
    hello! This task is driving me mad... please help! Instead of manually type in the data, i have used VBA to find the year range, put into one column and delete all duplicate ones. But since excel could give more than 20 years, it would be tedious to do all the filtering manually. AND, now i need excel to separate the rows that contain the specific year range in any one the three columns and put them into a new sheet. e.g. The years that excel could find in the three columns(F:H) are ( 2001,2003,2006,2010, 2012,2020.....2033).. and they are pasted in column "S" in sheet 1. How could i tell excel create new sheets for the years ( sheets 2001, sheets 2003, sheet2006....),search through column (F:H) in sheet 1 to see if ANY of those columns contain that year, and paste them into the new sheet. To be more specific, in the newly created "Sheet 2001", the entire row where column(F:H) contains "2001" should be pasted. and in the newly created "Sheet 2033", the entire row where column(F:H) contains "2033" should be pasted.. Enclosed please find the reference. http://www.speedyshare.com/files/23851477/Book32.xls I have got sheet "2002" and "2003" here as results but for the real one i will need more years' sheets (as many as how many excel could extract in the previous stage; as shown in column L ) ...... I think this task should be quite usual (extracting by date), but i couldn't google the result....Pleas help!!I am very clueless about how to do LOOPING.. so please advice and give in more details! Thanks

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  • SELECT SQL Variable - should i avoid using this syntax and always use SET?

    - by Sholom
    Hi All, This may look like a duplicate to here, but it's not. I am trying to get a best practice, not a technical answer (which i already (think) i know). New to SQL Server and trying to form good habits. I found a great explanation of the functional differences between SET @var = and SELECT @var = here: http://vyaskn.tripod.com/differences_between_set_and_select.htm To summarize what each has that the other hasn't (see source for examples): SET: ANSI and portable, recommended by Microsoft. SET @var = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) fails when the select returns more then one value, eliminating the possibility of unpredictable results. SET @var = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) will set @var to NULL if that's what SELECT column_name FROM table_name returned, thus never leaving @var at it's prior value. SELECT: Multiple variables can be set in one statement Can return multiple system variables set by the prior DML statement SELECT @var = column_name FROM table_name would set @var to (according to my testing) the last value returned by the select. This could be a feature or a bug. Behavior can be changed with SELECT @j = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) syntax. Speed. Setting multiple variables with a single SELECT statement as opposed to multiple SET/SELECT statements is much quicker. He has a sample test to prove his point. If you could design a test to prove the otherwise, bring it on! So, what do i do? (Almost) always use SET @var =, using SELECT @var = is messy coding and not standard. OR Use SELECT @var = freely, it could accomplish more for me, unless the code is likely to be ported to another environment. Thanks

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  • PHP Ajax not working

    - by Kostis
    I have 3 buttons on my page and depending on which one the user is clickingi want to run through ajax call a delete query in my database. When the user clicks on a button the javascript function seems to work but it doesn't run the query in php script. The html page: <?php session_start(); ?> <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-7"> <script> function myFunction(name) { var r=confirm("Are you sure? This action cannot be undone!"); if (r==true) { alert(name); // check if is getting in if statement and confirm the parameter's value var xmlhttp; if (str.length==0) { document.getElementById("clearMessage").innerHTML=""; return; } if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { document.getElementById("clearMessage").innerHTML= responseText; } } xmlhttp.open("GET","clearDatabase.php?q="+name,true); xmlhttp.send(); } else alert('pff'); } </script> </head> <body> <div id="wrapper"> <div id="header"></div> <div id="main"> <?php if (session_is_registered("username")){ ?> <!--<a href="#">???a????s? pa?a??? µ???µ?t??</a><br /> <a href="#">???a????s? pa?a??? s??ed????</a><br /> <a href="#">???a????s? push notifications</a><br />--> <input type="button" value="???a????s? pa?a??? µ???µ?t??" onclick="myFunction('messages')" /> <input type="button" value="???a????s? pa?a??? s??ed????" onclick="myFunction('conferences')" /> <input type="button" value="???a????s? push notifications" onclick="myFunction('notifications')" /> <div id="clearMessage"></div> <?php } else echo "Login first."; ?> </div> <div id="footer"></div> </div> </body> </html> and the php script: <?php if (isset($_GET["q"])) $q=$_GET["q"]; $host = "localhost"; $database = "dbname"; $user = "dbuser"; $pass = "dbpass"; $con = mysql_connect($host,$user,$pass) or die(mysql_error()); mysql_select_db($database,$con) or die(mysql_error()); if ($q=="messages") $query = "DELETE FROM push_message WHERE time_sent IS NOT NULL"; else if ($q=="conferences") $query = "DELETE FROM push_message WHERE time_sent IS NOT NULL"; else if ($q=="notifications") { $query = "DELETE FROM push_friend WHERE time_sent IS NOT NULL"; } $res = mysql_query($query,$con) or die(mysql_error()); if ($res) echo "success"; else echo "failed"; mysql_close($con); ?>

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  • Having different database sorting order (default_scope) for two different views

    - by Juniper747
    In my model (pins.rb), I have two sorting orders: default_scope order: 'pins.featured DESC' #for adding featured posts to the top of a list default_scope order: 'pins.created_at DESC' #for adding the remaining posts beneath the featured posts This sorting order (above) is how I want my 'pins view' (index.html.erb) to look. Which is just a list of ALL user posts. In my 'users view' (show.html.erb) I am using the same model (pins.rb) to list only current_user pins. HOWEVER, I want to sorting order to ignore the "featured" default scope and only use the second scope: default_scope order: 'pins.created_at DESC' How can I accomplish this? I tried doing something like this: default_scope order: 'pins.featured DESC', only: :index default_scope order: 'pins.created_at DESC' But that didn't fly... UPDATE I updated my model to define a scope: scope :featy, order: 'pins.featured DESC' default_scope order: 'pins.created_at DESC' And updated my pins view to: <%= render @pins.featy %> However, now when I open my pins view, I get the error: undefined method `featy' for #<Array:0x00000100ddbc78> UPDATE 2 User.rb class User < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name, :email, :username, :password, :password_confirmation, :avatar, :password_reset_token, :password_reset_sent_at has_secure_password has_many :pins, dependent: :destroy #destroys user posts when user is destroyed # has_many :featured_pins, order: 'featured DESC', class_name: "Pin", source: :pin has_attached_file :avatar, :styles => { :medium => "300x300#", :thumb => "120x120#" } before_save { |user| user.email = user.email.downcase } before_save { |user| user.username = user.username.downcase } before_save :create_remember_token before_save :capitalize_name validates :name, presence: true, length: { maximum: 50 } VALID_EMAIL_REGEX = /\A[\w+\-.]+@[a-z\d\-.]+\.[a-z]+\z/i VALID_USERNAME_REGEX = /^[A-Za-z0-9]+(?:[_][A-Za-z0-9]+)*$/ validates :email, presence: true, format: { with: VALID_EMAIL_REGEX }, uniqueness: { case_sensitive: false } validates :username, presence: true, format: { with: VALID_USERNAME_REGEX }, uniqueness: { case_sensitive: false } validates :password, length: { minimum: 6 }, on: :create #on create, because was causing erros on pw_reset Pin.rb class Pin < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :content, :title, :privacy, :date, :dark, :bright, :fragmented, :hashtag, :emotion, :user_id, :imagesource, :imageowner, :featured belongs_to :user before_save :capitalize_title before_validation :generate_slug validates :content, presence: true, length: { maximum: 8000 } validates :title, presence: true, length: { maximum: 24 } validates :imagesource, presence: { message: "Please search and choose an image" }, length: { maximum: 255 } validates_inclusion_of :privacy, :in => [true, false] validates :slug, uniqueness: true, presence: true, exclusion: {in: %w[signup signin signout home info privacy]} # for sorting featured and newest posts first default_scope order: 'pins.created_at DESC' scope :featured_order, order: 'pins.featured DESC' def to_param slug # or "#{id}-#{name}".parameterize end def generate_slug # makes the url slug address bar freindly self.slug ||= loop do random_token = Digest::MD5.hexdigest(Time.zone.now.to_s + title)[0..9]+"-"+"#{title}".parameterize break random_token unless Pin.where(slug: random_token).exists? end end protected def capitalize_title self.title = title.split.map(&:capitalize).join(' ') end end users_controller.rb class UsersController < ApplicationController before_filter :signed_in_user, only: [:edit, :update, :show] before_filter :correct_user, only: [:edit, :update, :show] before_filter :admin_user, only: :destroy def index if !current_user.admin? redirect_to root_path end end def menu @user = current_user end def show @user = User.find(params[:id]) @pins = @user.pins current_user.touch(:last_log_in) #sets the last log in time if [email protected]? render 'pages/info/' end end def new @user = User.new end pins_controller.rb class PinsController < ApplicationController before_filter :signed_in_user, except: [:show] # GET /pins, GET /pins.json def index #Live Feed @pins = Pin.all @featured_pins = Pin.featured_order respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render json: @pins } end end # GET /pins, GET /pins.json def show #single Pin View @pin = Pin.find_by_slug!(params[:id]) require 'uri' #this gets the photo's id from the stored uri @image_id = URI(@pin.imagesource).path.split('/').second if @pin.privacy == true #check for private pins if signed_in? if @pin.user_id == current_user.id respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.json { render json: @pin } end else redirect_to home_path, notice: "Prohibited 1" end else redirect_to home_path, notice: "Prohibited 2" end else respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.json { render json: @pin } end end end # GET /pins, GET /pins.json def new @pin = current_user.pins.new respond_to do |format| format.html # new.html.erb format.json { render json: @pin } end end # GET /pins/1/edit def edit @pin = current_user.pins.find_by_slug!(params[:id]) end Finally, on my index.html.erb I have: <%= render @featured_pins %>

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  • Handling primary key duplicates in a data warehouse load

    - by Meff
    I'm currently building an ETL system to load a data warehouse from a transactional system. The grain of my fact table is the transaction level. In order to ensure I don't load duplicate rows I've put a primary key on the fact table, which is the transaction ID. I've encountered a problem with transactions being reversed - In the transactional database this is done via a status, which I pick up and I can work out if the transaction is being done, or rolled back so I can load a reversal row in the warehouse. However, the reversal row will have the same transaction ID and so I get a primary key violation. I've solved this for now by negating the primary key, so transaction ID 1 would be a payment, and transaction ID -1 (In the warehouse only) would be the reversal. I have considered an alternative of generating a BIT column, where 0 is normal and 1 is reversal, then making the PK the transaction ID and the BIT column. My question is, is this a good practice, and has anyone else encountered anything like this? For reference, this is a payment processing system, so values will not be modified, so there will only ever be transactions and reversals.

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  • How can I write a function template for all types with a particular type trait?

    - by TC
    Consider the following example: struct Scanner { template <typename T> T get(); }; template <> string Scanner::get() { return string("string"); } template <> int Scanner::get() { return 10; } int main() { Scanner scanner; string s = scanner.get<string>(); int i = scanner.get<int>(); } The Scanner class is used to extract tokens from some source. The above code works fine, but fails when I try to get other integral types like a char or an unsigned int. The code to read these types is exactly the same as the code to read an int. I could just duplicate the code for all other integral types I'd like to read, but I'd rather define one function template for all integral types. I've tried the following: struct Scanner { template <typename T> typename enable_if<boost::is_integral<T>, T>::type get(); }; Which works like a charm, but I am unsure how to get Scanner::get<string>() to function again. So, how can I write code so that I can do scanner.get<string>() and scanner.get<any integral type>() and have a single definition to read all integral types? Update: bonus question: What if I want to accept more than one range of classes based on some traits? For example: how should I approach this problem if I want to have three get functions that accept (i) integral types (ii) floating point types (iii) strings, respectively.

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  • Indexing table with duplicates MySQL/SQL Server with millions of records

    - by Tesnep
    I need help in indexing in MySQL. I have a table in MySQL with following rows: ID Store_ID Feature_ID Order_ID Viewed_Date Deal_ID IsTrial The ID is auto generated. Store_ID goes from 1 - 8. Feature_ID from 1 - let's say 100. Viewed Date is Date and time on which the data is inserted. IsTrial is either 0 or 1. You can ignore Order_ID and Deal_ID from this discussion. There are millions of data in the table and we have a reporting backend that needs to view the number of views in a certain period or overall where trial is 0 for a particular store id and for a particular feature. The query takes the form of: select count(viewed_date) from theTable where viewed_date between '2009-12-01' and '2010-12-31' and store_id = '2' and feature_id = '12' and Istrial = 0 In SQL Server you can have a filtered index to use for Istrial. Is there anything similar to this in MySQL? Also, Store_ID and Feature_ID have a lot of duplicate data. I created an index using Store_ID and Feature_ID. Although this seems to have decreased the search period, I need better improvement than this. Right now I have more than 4 million rows. To search for a particular query like the one above, it looks at 3.5 million rows in order to give me the count of 500k rows. PS. I forgot to add view_date filter in the query. Now I have done this.

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  • Parse a CSV file extracting some of the values but not all.

    - by Yallaa
    Good day, I have a local csv file with values that change daily called DailyValues.csv I need to extract the value field of category2 and category4. Then combine, sort and remove duplicates (if any) from the extracted values. Then save it to a new local file NewValues.txt. Here is an example of the DailyValues.csv file: category,date,value category1,2010-05-18,value01 category1,2010-05-18,value02 category1,2010-05-18,value03 category1,2010-05-18,value04 category1,2010-05-18,value05 category1,2010-05-18,value06 category1,2010-05-18,value07 category2,2010-05-18,value08 category2,2010-05-18,value09 category2,2010-05-18,value10 category2,2010-05-18,value11 category2,2010-05-18,value12 category2,2010-05-18,value13 category2,2010-05-18,value14 category2,2010-05-18,value30 category3,2010-05-18,value16 category3,2010-05-18,value17 category3,2010-05-18,value18 category3,2010-05-18,value19 category3,2010-05-18,value20 category3,2010-05-18,value21 category3,2010-05-18,value22 category3,2010-05-18,value23 category3,2010-05-18,value24 category4,2010-05-18,value25 category4,2010-05-18,value26 category4,2010-05-18,value10 category4,2010-05-18,value28 category4,2010-05-18,value11 category4,2010-05-18,value30 category2,2010-05-18,value31 category2,2010-05-18,value32 category2,2010-05-18,value33 category2,2010-05-18,value34 category2,2010-05-18,value35 category2,2010-05-18,value07 I've found some helpful parsing examples at http://www.php.net/manual/en/function.fgetcsv.php and managed to extract all the values of the value column but don't know how to restrict it to only extract the values of category2/4 then sort and clean duplicate. The solution needs to be in php, perl or shell script. Any help would be much appreciated. Thank you in advance.

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  • mod_rewrite: no access to real files and directories

    - by tshabalala
    Hello. I use mod_rewrite/.htaccess for pretty URLs. I forward all the requests to my index.php, like this: RewriteRule ^/?([a-zA-Z0-9/-]+)/?$ /index.php [NC,L] The index.php then handles the requests. I'm also using this condition/rule to eliminate trailing slashes (or rather rewrite them to the URL without a trailing slash, with a 301 redirect; I'm doing this to avoid duplicate content and because I like no trailing slashes better): RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^\.localhost$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.+)/$ http://%{HTTP_HOST}/$1 [R=301,L] This works well, except that I now get an infinite loop when trying to access a (real) directory (the rewrite rule removes the trailing slash, the server adds it again, ...). I solved this by setting the DirectorySlash directive to Off: DirectorySlash Off I don't know how good this solution is, I don't feel too confident about it tbh. Anyway, what I'd like to do is completely ignore "real" files and directories, since I don't need them and I only use pretty URLs with "virtual" files/directories anyway. This would allow me to avoid the DirectorySlash workaround/hack too. Is this possible? Thanks!

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  • What do I do about a Java program that spawned two instaces of itself?

    - by user288915
    I have a java JAR file that is triggered by a SQL server job. It's been running successfully for months. The process pulls in a structured flat file to a staging database then pushes that data into an XML file. However yesterday the process was triggered twice at the same time. I can tell from a log file that gets created, it looks like the process ran twice simultaneously. This caused a lot of issues and the XML file that it kicked out was malformed and contained duplicate nodes etc. My question is, is this a known issue with Java JVM's spawning multiple instances of itself? Or should I be looking at sql server as the culprit? I'm looking into 'socket locking' or file locking to prevent multiple instances in the future. This is the first instance of this issue that I've ever heard of. More info: The job is scheduled to run every minute. The job triggers a .bat file that contains the java.exe - jar filename.jar The java program runs, scans a directory for a file and then executes a loop to process if the file if it finds one. After it processes the file it runs another loop that kicks out XML messages. I can provide code samples if that would help. Thank you, Kevin

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  • JSF - Random Number using Beans (JAVA)

    - by Alex Encore Tr
    I am trying to create a jsf application which, upon page refresh increments the hit counter and generates two random numbers. What should be displayed on the window may look something like this: On your On your roll x you have thrown x and x For this program I decided to create two Beans, one to hold the page refresh counter and one to generate a random number. Those look like this for the moment: CounterBean.java package diceroll; public class CounterBean { int count=0; public CounterBean() { } public void setCount(int count) { this.count=count; } public int getCount() { count++; return count; } } RandomNumberBean.java package diceroll; import java.util.Random; public class RandomNumberBean { int rand=0; Random r = new Random(); public RandomNumberBean() { rand = r.nextInt(6); } public void setNextInt(int rand) { this.rand=rand; } public int getNextInt() { return rand; } } I have then created an index.jsp to display the above message. <html> <%@ taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jsf/core" prefix="f"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" prefix="h"%> <f:view> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1"> <title>Roll the Dice</title> </head> <body> <h:form> <p> On your roll # <h:outputText value="#{CounterBean.count} " /> you have thrown <h:outputText value="#{RandomNumberBean.rand}" />and <h:outputText value="#{RandomNumberBean.rand} " /> </p> </h:form> </body> </f:view> </html> However, when I run the application, I get the following message: org.apache.jasper.el.JspPropertyNotFoundException: /index.jsp(14,20) '#{RandomNumberBean.rand}' Property 'rand' not found on type diceroll.RandomNumberBean Caused by: org.apache.jasper.el.JspPropertyNotFoundException - /index.jsp(14,20) '#{RandomNumberBean.rand}' Property 'rand' not found on type diceroll.RandomNumberBean I suppose there's a mistake with my faces-config.xml file, so I will post this here as well, see if somebody can provide some help: faces-config.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <faces-config xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee/web-facesconfig_2_0.xsd" version="2.0"> <managed-bean> <managed-bean-name>CounterBean</managed-bean-name> <managed-bean-class>diceroll.CounterBean</managed-bean-class> <managed-bean-scope>session</managed-bean-scope> </managed-bean> <managed-bean> <managed-bean-name>RandomNumberBean</managed-bean-name> <managed-bean-class>diceroll.RandomNumberBean</managed-bean-class> <managed-bean-scope>session</managed-bean-scope> </managed-bean> </faces-config>

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  • codeigniter cron job with http access

    - by user1313850
    Sorry if this is a duplicate question...I've searched around and found similar advice but nothing that helps my exact problem. And please excuse the noob questions, CRON is a new thing for me. I have a codeigniter script that scrapes the html DOM of another site and stores some of that in a database. I'd like to run this script at a regular interval. This has lead me to looking into cron jobs. The page I have is at myserver.com/index.php/update I realize I can run a cron job with curl and run this page. If I want to be a bit more secure I can put a string at the end like: myserver.com/index.php/update/asdfh2784fufds And check for that in my CI controller. This seems like it would be mostly secure, but doesn't seem like the "right" way to do things. I've looked into running CI from the command line, and can execute basic pages like: php index.php mycontroller But when I try to do: php index.php update It doesn't work. I suspect this is because it needs to use HTTP to scrape the DOM of the outside page. So, my question: How do I securely run a codeigniter script with a cron job that needs HTTP access?

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  • C#: Determine Type for (De-)Serialization

    - by dbemerlin
    Hi, i have a little problem implementing some serialization/deserialization logic. I have several classes that each take a different type of Request object, all implementing a common interface and inheriting from a default implementation: This is how i think it should be: Requests interface IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class DefaultRequest : IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class LoginRequest : DefaultRequest { public String User {get;set;} public String Pass {get;set;} } Handlers interface IHandler<T> { public Type GetRequestType(); public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request); } class DefaultHandler<T> : IHandler<T> // Used as fallback if the handler cannot be determined { public Type GetRequestType() { return /* ....... how to get the Type of T? ((new T()).GetType()) ? .......... */ } public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request) { /* ... */ } } class LoginHandler : DefaultHandler<LoginRequest> { public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel mode, LoginRequest request) { } } Calling class Controller { public ProcessRequest(String action, String serializedRequest) { IHandler handler = GetHandlerForAction(action); IRequest request = serializer.Deserialize<handler.GetRequestType()>(serializedRequest); handler(this.Model, request); } } Is what i think of even possible? My current Solution is that each handler gets the serialized String and is itself responsible for deserialization. This is not a good solution as it contains duplicate code, the beginning of each HandleRequest method looks the same (FooRequest request = Deserialize(serializedRequest); + try/catch and other Error Handling on failed deserialization). Embedding type information into the serialized Data is not possible and not intended. Thanks for any Hints.

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  • Sys. engineer has decided to dynamically transform all XSLs into DLLs on website build process. DLL

    - by John Sullivan
    Hello, OS: Win XP. Here is my situation. I have a browser based application. It is "wrapped" in a Visual Basic application. Our "Systems Engineer Senior" has decided to spawn DLL files from all of our XSL pages (many of which have duplicate names) upon building a new instance of the website and have the active server pages (ASPX) use the DLL instead. This has created a "known issue" in which ~200 DLL naming conflicts occur and, thus, half of our application is broken. I think a solution to this problem is that, thankfully, we're generating the names of the DLLs and linking them up with our application dynamically. Therefore we can do something kludgy like generate a hash and append it to the end of the DLL file name when we build our website, then always reference the DLL that had some kind of random string / hash appended to its name. Aside from outright renaming the DLLs, is there another way to have multiple DLLs with the same name register for one application? I think the answer is "No, only between different applications using a special technique." Please confirm. Another question I have on my mind is whether this whole idea is a good practice -- converting our XSL pages (which we use in mass -- every time a response from our web app occurs) into DLL functions that call a "function" to do what the XSL page did via an active server page (ASPX), when we were before just sending an XML response to an XSL page via aspx.

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  • Lazy load images in UITableViewCell

    - by lostInTransit
    Hi I have some 50 custom cells in my UITableView. I want to display an image and a label in the cells where I get the images from URLs. I want to do a lazy load of images so the UI does not freeze up while the images are being loaded. I tried getting the images in separate threads but I have to load each image every time a cell becomes visible again (Otherwise reuse of cells shows old images) Apps like Facebook load images only for cells currently visible and once the images are loaded, they are not loaded again. Can someone please tell me how to duplicate this behavior. Thanks. Edit Trying to cache images in an NSMutableDictionary object creates problems when the user scrolls fast. I am getting images only when scrolling completely stops and clearing out the cache on memory warning. But the app invariably gets a memory warning (due to size of images being cached) and clears the cache before reloading. If scrolling is very fast, it crashes. Any other suggestions are welcome

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  • Weird GWT issue causing IE threads to skyrocket.

    - by WesleyJohnson
    I'm not sure if this is an issue with GWT, JavaScript, Java, IE or just poor programming, but I'll try to explain. We're implementing web based chat program at work and some of our users have unreliable connections. So we're running into issues where they send out a new message and after x number of milliseconds have passed, the XHR request timesout and the client tries to resend the message again. The issue we ran into was sometimes the message would make it to the server and into the DB, but the XHR request wouldn't make it back to the client so the client was essentially retrying requests that had alread made it to the server. To mitigate this issue, we now send along a count/key with the message. The client says, hey I'm sending msg 50 and it's text is this. If the server already has that message, it just sends back "ok, I got it" and doens't insert into the DB again, eliminating dupes. So the client is free to keep retrying over and over until finally a call comes back from the server saying "Ok, I got it" and then it increments the key and moves on (or we keep them out of the chat if it fails enough). Anyway, so that's the background of what we're doing. The issue is, when we add this code on some versions of IE the threads start increasing gradually everytime it's accessed. On IE8 for Windows7 x64 it doesn't really seem to do it, but on IE8 for Windows Vista x86 it does. So I can't really pinpoint if it's a fluke or my code. Maybe someone had some ideas on a better way to do this. Here is some pseudo code: (the issue seems appear where I increment messageCount? Is this a scope thing, naming conflict, maybe the issue is entirely somewhere else and I'm way off base. public class SFChatClient implements EntryPoint { private List<String> messageQueue; private Integer messageCount = 0; public void onModuleLoad() { messageQueue = new ArrayList<String>(); // setup ui and what not // add a keyhandler to an input box that checks for <ENTER> and calls sendMEssage() } private void sendMessage() { // add message content to the UI for the chat messageQueue.add( //get message from user ); sendQueuedMessages(); } private void sendQueuedMessages() { if( messageQueue.size() > 0 ) { String outgoingMessage = messageQueue.get( 0 ); WebServiceClass.sendMessage( outgoingMessage, messageCount, new WebServiceHandler() { public void onSuccess() { // Delete item 0 from messageQueue messageCount = messageCount + 1; // <--- this seems to cause IE to leak threads. Taking out this code stops the issue??? sendQueuedMessages(); } public void onError() { // Do error handling sendQueuedMessages(); } } ); } } } public class WebServiceClass() { public void sendMessage( String message, Integer messageCount, handler ) { RequestBuilder builder = new RequestBuilder(// create request builder with proper params for the web service url, JSON content type, etc ) { public void onSuccess() { handler.onSuccess() } public void onError() { handler.onError() } } builder.setData( // JSON with message ); bulder.send(); } }

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  • .htaccess - alias all www-only requests to subdirectory

    - by CodeMoose
    Trying to install the wonderful Concrete5 CMS to use as my main site engine - the problem is it has about 15 different files and directories, and they clutter up my root. I'd really like to move it to a /_concrete/ subdirectory, and still maintain it in the domain root. htaccess has never been my strong suit - after a lot of research and learning, and a lot of error 500s, my frustration is overriding my pride and I'm posting here. Here's exactly what I'm trying to accomplish: Any requests that come through www.domain.com are forwarded to www.domain.com/_concrete/, except in the case of an existing file. The end-user URL shouldn't change - they will still see the site as www.domain.com, even though they're being served www.domain.com/_concrete/. Multiple subdomains exist on this site as sub-folders within the root - thus, only requests coming through www.domain.com should be redirected. Here's the closest I got with my htaccess, which produces an error 500: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www\.)?domain\.com [NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !^_concrete RewriteRule ^(.*)$ _concrete/$1 [L,QSA] This is the result of 4 hours of sweat and blood (mostly blood), so I have to be close. I'm hoping one of your fine minds can point out a stupid mistake and put this thing to rest swiftly. Thanks for your time! Addendum: I previously posted .htaccess - alias domain root to subfolder a while ago, which got me started. Please don't fall into the trap of thinking it's a duplicate.

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  • complex css image centering help?

    - by Tenshiko
    My problem is a bit more complex than the title says. Sorry, I don't know how to be more specific... I'm working on a website and I came across a part where I should display some thumbnails. The thing is, the thumbnails are not matching in dimensions. (I know, it sounds ridiculous, since this is thumbnails are for, right?) No, there is simply NO WAY to create them in the same dimensions!! I've managed to create a HTML+CSS structure to fix this problem, and the images are not stretching to fit their containers if they are smaller while keeping their aspect ratio. The only issue remaining, is to center the images. Since setting margin to "0 auto" or "auto 0" are not helping, I've tried setting up multiple containers and setting the margins to position the images. This is also not working: if I put a 120x120 picture in a 120x80 inner container, and I set the container's top and left margin to -50%, the margins become -60px both. Can this be fixed? Or is there yet another way to center images? I'm open to any suggestions! HTML: <div id="roll"> <div class="imgfix"> <div class="outer"> <div class="inner"> @if (ImageDimensionHelper.WhereToAlignImg(item.Width, item.Height, 120, 82) == ImgAlign.Width) <!-- ImageDimensionHelper tells me if the image should fit the container with its width or height. I set the class of the img accordingly. --> { <img class="width" src="@Url.Content(item.URL)" alt="@item.Name"/> } else { <img class="height" src="@Url.Content(item.URL)" alt="@item.Name"/> } </div> </div> </div> </div> CSS: .imgfix{ overflow:hidden; } .imgfix .outer { width:100%; height:100%;} .imgfix .inner { width:100%; height:100%; margin-top:-50%; margin-left:-50%; } /*This div (.inner) gets -60px for both margins every time, regardless of the size of itself, or the image inside it*/ #roll .imgfix { width:120px; height:82px; border: 1px #5b91ba solid; } #roll .imgfix .outer { margin-top:41px; margin-left:60px; } /*since I know specificly what these margins should be, I set them explicitly, because 50% got the wrong size.*/ #roll .imgfix img.width { width:120px; height:auto; margin: auto 0; } #roll .imgfix img.height { height:82px; width:auto; margin: 0 auto; }

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