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  • Weighted round robins via TTL - possible?

    - by Joe Hopfgartner
    I currently use DNS round robin for load balancing, which works great. The records look like this (I have a ttl of 120 seconds) ;; ANSWER SECTION: orion.2x.to. 116 IN A 80.237.201.41 orion.2x.to. 116 IN A 87.230.54.12 orion.2x.to. 116 IN A 87.230.100.10 orion.2x.to. 116 IN A 87.230.51.65 I learned that not every ISP / device treats such a response the same way. For example some DNS servers rotate the addresses randomly or always cycle them through. Some just propagate the first entry, others try to determine which is best (regionally near) by looking at the ip address. However if the userbase is big enough (spreads over multiple ISPs etc) it balances pretty well. The discrepancies from highest to lowest loaded server hardly every exceeds 15%. However now I have the problem that I am introducing more servers into the systems, that not all have the same capacities. I currently only have 1gbps servers, but I want to work with 100mbit and also 10gbps servers too. So what I want is I want to introduce a server with 10 GBps with a weight of 100, a 1 gbps server with a weight of 10 and a 100 mbit server with a weight of 1. I used to add servers twice to bring more traffic to them (which worked nice. the bandwidth doubled almost.) But adding a 10gbit server 100 times to DNS is a bit rediculous. So I thought about using the TTL. If I give server A 240 seconds ttl and server B only 120 seconds (which is about about the minimum to use for round robin, as a lot of dns servers set to 120 if a lower ttl is specified.. so i have heard) I think something like this should occour in an ideal scenario: first 120 seconds 50% of requests get server A -> keep it for 240 seconds. 50% of requests get server B -> keep it for 120 seconds second 120 seconds 50% of requests still have server A cached -> keep it for another 120 seconds. 25% of requests get server A -> keep it for 240 seconds 25% of requests get server B -> keep it for 120 seconds third 120 seconds 25% will get server A (from the 50% of Server A that now expired) -> cache 240 sec 25% will get server B (from the 50% of Server A that now expired) -> cache 120 sec 25% will have server A cached for another 120 seconds 12.5% will get server B (from the 25% of server B that now expired) -> cache 120sec 12.5% will get server A (from the 25% of server B that now expired) -> cache 240 sec fourth 120 seconds 25% will have server A cached -> cache for another 120 secs 12.5% will get server A (from the 25% of b that now expired) -> cache 240 secs 12.5% will get server B (from the 25% of b that now expired) -> cache 120 secs 12.5% will get server A (from the 25% of a that now expired) -> cache 240 secs 12.5% will get server B (from the 25% of a that now expired) -> cache 120 secs 6.25% will get server A (from the 12.5% of b that now expired) -> cache 240 secs 6.25% will get server B (from the 12.5% of b that now expired) -> cache 120 secs 12.5% will have server A cached -> cache another 120 secs ... i think i lost something at this point but i think you get the idea.... As you can see this gets pretty complicated to predict and it will for sure not work out like this in practice. But it should definitely have an effect on the distribution! I know that weighted round robin exists and is just controlled by the root server. It just cycles through dns records when responding and returns dns records with a set propability that corresponds to the weighting. My DNS server does not support this, and my requirements are not that precise. If it doesnt weight perfectly its okay, but it should go into the right direction. I think using the TTL field could be a more elegant and easier solution - and it deosnt require a dns server that controls this dynamically, which saves resources - which is in my opinion the whole point of dns load balancing vs hardware load balancers. My question now is... are there any best prectices / methos / rules of thumb to weight round robin distribution using the TTL attribute of DNS records? Edit: The system is a forward proxy server system. The amount of Bandwidth (not requests) exceeds what one single server with ethernet can handle. So I need a balancing solution that distributes the bandwidth to several servers. Are there any alternative methods than using DNS? Of course I can use a load balancer with fibre channel etc, but the costs are rediciulous and it also increases only the width of the bottleneck and does not eliminate it. The only thing i can think of are anycast (is it anycast or multicast?) ip addresses, but I don't have the means to set up such a system.

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  • How to rename an existing Grails application

    - by Johan Pelgrim
    Hi there, Does anybody know how to (easily) "rename" an existing grails application? I'm running into this because my PaaS provider does not allow me to delete a subscription... So I want to deploy my application under a different name. Of course, I can do this manually, but I think it might be a useful 'top-level' script (i.e. "grails rename-app newappname") Manual hints: When I do a "grails create-app myappname" I can see the myappname exists in the following files (and filenames)... Of course this is done by the create-app script, which replaces @...@ tokens in the template. I guess once they are replaced, it's not trivial to do a rename. ./.project: <name>myappname</name> ./application.properties:app.name=myappname ./build.xml:<project xmlns:ivy="antlib:org.apache.ivy.ant" name="myappname" default="test"> ./ivy.xml: <info organisation="org.example" module="myappname"/> ./myappname-test.launch:<stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.PROJECT_ATTR" value="myappname"/> ./myappname.launch:<listEntry value="/myappname"/> ./myappname.launch:<listEntry value="<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <runtimeClasspathEntry containerPath="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.JRE_CONTAINER" javaProject="myappname" path="1" type="4"/> "/> ./myappname.launch:<stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.PROJECT_ATTR" value="myappname"/> ./myappname.launch:<stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.VM_ARGUMENTS" value="-Dbase.dir="${project_loc:myappname}" -Dserver.port=8080 -Dgrails.env=development"/> ./myappname.tmproj: <string>myappname.launch</string> And of course... the top-level directory name is "myappname" Any hints, or information about ongoing initiatives in this area are welcome Greetz, Johan

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  • RESTful design, how to name pages outside CRUD et al?

    - by sscirrus
    Hi all, I'm working on a site that has quite a few pages that fall outside my limited understanding of RESTful design, which is essentially: Create, Read, Update, Delete, Show, List Here's the question: what is a good system for labeling actions/routes when a page doesn't neatly fall into CRUD/show/list? Some of my pages have info about multiple tables at once. I am building a site that gives some customers a 'home base' after they log on. It does NOT give them any information about themselves so it shouldn't be, for example, /customers/show/1. It does have information about companies, but there are other pages on the site that do that differently. What do you do when you have these situations? This 'home-base' is shown to customers and it mainly has info about companies (but not uniquely so). Second case: I have a table called 'Matchings' in between customers and companies. These matchings are accessed in completely different ways on different parts of the site (different layouts, different CSS sheets, different types of users accessing them, etc. They can't ALL be matchings/show. What's the best way to label the others? Thanks very much. =)

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  • Using Javascript to flip flop a textbox's readonly flag

    - by Velika
    I have a frame with several radio buttons where the user is supposed to select the "Category" that his Occupation falls into and then unconditionally also specify his occupation. If the user selects "Retired", the requirement is to prefill "Retired" in the "Specify Occupation" text box and to disable it to prevent it from being changed. The Specify Occupation text box should also no longer be a tab stop. If the user selects a radio button other than Retired the Specify Occupation text box should be enabled and once again in the normal tab sequence. Originally, I was setting and clearing the disabled property on the Specify occupation textbox, then I found out that, upon submitting the form, disabled fields are excluded from the submit and the REQUIRED validator on the Specify Occupation textbox was being raised because the textbox was being blanked out. What is the best way to solve this? My approach below was to mimic a disabled text box by setting/resetting the readonly attribute on the text box and changing the background color to make it appear disabled. (I suppose I should be changing the forecolor instead of teh background color). Nevertheless, my code to make the textbox readonly and to reset it doesn't appear to be working. function OccupationOnClick(sender) { debugger; var optOccupationRetired = document.getElementById("<%= optOccupationRetired.ClientId %>"); var txtSpecifyOccupation = document.getElementById("<%= txtSpecifyOccupation.ClientId %>"); var optOccupationOther = document.getElementById("<%= optOccupationOther.ClientId %>"); if (sender == optOccupationRetired) { txtSpecifyOccupation.value = "Retired" txtSpecifyOccupation.readonly = "readonly"; txtSpecifyOccupation.style.backgroundColor = "#E0E0E0"; txtSpecifyOccupation.tabIndex = -1; } else { if (txtSpecifyOccupation.value == "Retired") txtSpecifyOccupation.value = ""; txtSpecifyOccupation.style.backgroundColor = "#FFFFFF"; txtSpecifyOccupation.readonly = ""; txtSpecifyOccupation.tabIndex = 0; } } Can someone provide a suggest for the best way to handle this scenario and porovide a tweek to the code above to fix the setting/resetting on the readonly property?

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  • PDO empy result from SELECT when using AND

    - by Jurgen
    Hello, I've come upon a rather interesting thing, which I can't seem to figure out myself. Everytime when executing a SQL statement which contains a '... AND ...' the result is empty. Example: echo('I have a user: ' . $email . $wachtwoord . '<br>'); $dbh = new PDO($dsn, $user, $password); $sql = 'SELECT * FROM user WHERE email = :email AND wachtwoord= :wachtwoord'; $stmt = $dbh->prepare($sql); $stmt->bindParam(:email,$email,PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindParam(:wachtwoord,$wachtwoord,PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->execute(); while($row = $stmt->fetchObject()) { echo($row-email . ',' . $row-wachtwoord); $user[] = array( 'email' = $row-email, 'wachtwoord' = $row-wachtwoord ); } The first echo displays the correct values, however the line with echo($row->email . ',' . $row->wachtwoord); is never reached. A few things I want to add: 1) I am connected to the database since other queries work, only the ones where I add an 'AND' after my 'WHERE's fail. 2) Working with the while works perfectly with queries that do not contain '... AND ...' 3) Error reporting is on, PDO gives no exceptions on my query (or anything else) 4) Executing the query directly on the database does give what I want: SELECT * FROM user WHERE email = '[email protected]' AND wachtwoord = 'jurgen' I can stare at it all day long again (which I already did once, but I managed to work around the 'AND'), but maybe one of you can give me a helping hand. Thank you in advance. Jurgen

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  • Accuracy of OpenGL ES Instrument

    - by Rob Jones
    I'm developing a game for the iPhone. I've decided that 30FPS is plenty so I've written some code that only allows the App to present the render buffer every 1/30 of a second. When I tried to verify this with Instruments I got varying information. On an iPod Touch (2009 edition, 32G) it reports 30 FPS for Core Animation Frames Per Second. On an iPhone 3G I get wildly varying results. And not just less than 30 FPS. I see 30 FPS on a regular basis. It actually seems to hang closer to 36-39. To investigate this anomaly I added my own FPS to the app and update it once per second. I stays right at 29 FPS on both devices. So, does anyone have any suggestions as to what might be going on? I expect Instruments to be accurate so it really concerns me that it appears inaccurate. It makes me think I have a bug somewhere, but I sure can't find it.

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  • Toggle Blind Effect

    - by flipflopmedia
    Is there a way to alter this script to be used as the blind effect. // Andy Langton's show/hide/mini-accordion - updated 23/11/2009 // Latest version @ http://andylangton.co.uk/jquery-show-hide // this tells jquery to run the function below once the DOM is ready $(document).ready(function() { // choose text for the show/hide link - can contain HTML (e.g. an image) var showText=''; var hideText=''; // initialise the visibility check var is_visible = false; // append show/hide links to the element directly preceding the element with a class of "toggle" $('.toggle').prev().append(' '+showText+''); // hide all of the elements with a class of 'toggle' $('.toggle').hide(); // capture clicks on the toggle links $('a.toggleLink').click(function() { // switch visibility is_visible = !is_visible; // toggle the display - uncomment the next line for a basic "accordion" style //$('.toggle').hide();$('a.toggleLink').html(showText); $(this).parent().next('.toggle').toggle('slow'); // return false so any link destination is not followed return false; }); }); FYI- Where it says: var showText=''; var hideText=''; It was originally: var showText='Show'; var hideText='Hide'; I deleted the Show/Hide Text because I am applying the link to different areas of text. I like the Blind effect, vs. this Toggle effect, and need to know how to apply it, if possible. I cannot find a basic Blind effect script that allows the use of applying the link to ANY text, vs. a button or static text. Thanks! Hope you can help! Tracy

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  • Copying a directory that is version controlled

    - by ibz
    I am curious whether it is OK to copy a directory that is under version control and start working on both copies. I know it can be different from one VCS to another, but I intentionally don't specify any VCS since I am curious about different cases. I was talking to a coworker recently about doing it in SVN. I think it should be OK, but I am still not 100% sure, since I don't know what exactly SVN is storing in the working copy. However, if we talk about the DVCS world, things might be even more unclear, since every working copy is a repository by itself. Being faced with doing this in bzr now, I decided to ask the question. Later edit: Some people asked why I would want to do that. Here is the whole story: In the case of SVN it was because being out of the office, the connection to the SVN server was really slow, so me and my coworker decided to check out the sources only once and make a local copy. That's what we did and it worked OK, but I am still wondering whether it is guaranteed to work, or it just happened. In the bzr case, I am planning to move the "main" repo to another server. So I was thinking to just copy it there and start considering that the main repo. I guess the safest is to make a clone though.

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  • resource-ref at application scope in EJB 2.1 Project

    - by Mike Deck
    Is it possible to define resource references that are applicable to all EJBs in an application? Currently I have an ejb-jar.xml that looks something like this: <ejb-jar> <enterprise-beans> <session id="foo"> <!-- snip --> <resource-ref> <res-ref-name>jdbc/myDatasource</res-ref-name> <res-type>javax.sql.DataSource</res-type> <res-auth>Container</res-auth> </resource-ref> </session> <session id="bar"> <!-- snip --> <resource-ref> <res-ref-name>jdbc/myDatasource</res-ref-name> <res-type>javax.sql.DataSource</res-type> <res-auth>Container</res-auth> </resource-ref> </session> </enterprise-beans> </ejb-jar> You'll notice that both EJBs have the same resource-ref defined for both of them. Is there a way to factor this duplication out within a J2EE 1.4 application? Ideally I should be able to define the jdbc/myDatasource resource once within the application and have anything running inside that container be able to access it by doing a JNDI lookup for "java:comp/env/jdbc/myDatasource". Is there any way to accomplish this?

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  • How do I use a custom authentication mechanism for a Java web application with Spring Security?

    - by Adam
    Hi, I'm working on a project to convert an existing Java web application to use Spring Web MVC. As a part of this I will migrate the existing log-on/log-off mechanism to use Spring Security. The idea at this stage is to replicate the existing functionality and replace only the web layer, leaving the service classes and objects in place. The required functionality is simple. Access is controlled to URLs and to access certain pages the user must log on. Authentication is performed with a simple username and password along with an extra static piece of information that comes from the login page. There is no notion of a role: once a user has logged on they have access to all of the pages. Behind the scenes, the service layer has a class with a simple authentication method: doAuthenticate(String username, String password, String info) throws ServiceException An exception is thrown if the login fails. I'd like to leave this existing service object that does the authentication intact but to "plug it into" the Spring Security mechanism. Can somebody suggest the best approach to take for this please? Naturally, I'd like to take the path of least resistance and leave the work where possible to Spring... Thanks in advance, Adam.

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  • BindingList<T> and reflection!

    - by Aren B
    Background Working in .NET 2.0 Here, reflecting lists in general. I was originally using t.IsAssignableFrom(typeof(IEnumerable)) to detect if a Property I was traversing supported the IEnumerable Interface. (And thus I could cast the object to it safely) However this code was not evaluating to True when the object is a BindingList<T>. Next I tried to use t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(IEnumerable)) and didn't have any luck either. Code /// <summary> /// Reflects an enumerable (not a list, bad name should be fixed later maybe?) /// </summary> /// <param name="o">The Object the property resides on.</param> /// <param name="p">The Property We're reflecting on</param> /// <param name="rla">The Attribute tagged to this property</param> public void ReflectList(object o, PropertyInfo p, ReflectedListAttribute rla) { Type t = p.PropertyType; //if (t.IsAssignableFrom(typeof(IEnumerable))) if (t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(IEnumerable))) { IEnumerable e = p.GetValue(o, null) as IEnumerable; int count = 0; if (e != null) { foreach (object lo in e) { if (count >= rla.MaxRows) break; ReflectObject(lo, count); count++; } } } } The Intent I want to basically tag lists i want to reflect through with the ReflectedListAttribute and call this function on the properties that has it. (Already Working) Once inside this function, given the object the property resides on, and the PropertyInfo related, get the value of the property, cast it to an IEnumerable (assuming it's possible) and then iterate through each child and call ReflectObject(...) on the child with the count variable.

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  • jquery 'this' confusion

    - by Elliott
    Hi I have the code below, once the first (only) item in the menu is hovered over, the subtext should appear. I have used 'this' as I thought it should find the class with the "li" and then slideDown. This doesnt seem to work, although 'this' works for when you remove the hover, as it slides up (top part not the subtext). <body> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('li').hover(function() { $(this).stop(true, true).slideDown(); $(this).slideDown("slow"); }, function () { $(this).slideUp("fast"); } ); }); </script> <ul> <li class="hover"> <p><a href="#">Hover</a></p> <p class="subtext">Show More</p> </li> </ul> Any advice? Thanks

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  • Is Software Engineering Dead? [closed]

    - by nik
    Right from Jeff's blog: Software Engineering: Dead? I was utterly floored when I read this new IEEE article by Tom DeMarco (pdf). See if you can tell why. He quotes DeMarco, "I'm gradually coming to the conclusion that software engineering is an idea whose time has come and gone". Further, "What DeMarco seems to be saying -- and, at least, what I am definitely saying -- is that control is ultimately illusory on software development projects." I am writing these lines without context to invoke reading of the related subject. What are the views of the programming community here? I have started to realize that a community wiki is not getting the right amount of participation here. That is the reason I left this question out in the open, while still contemplating a change to CW. It was closed once, and I thought that was the end of it. But, now I see it was reopened and has more answers (all of which I have not yet read). However, I see a lot of CW requests and am forced to reconsider that. This is how I intend to make the CW decision here. There is a comment by Neil Butterworth requesting a CW at 12 upvotes -- "should be community wiki" There is a comment by Lance Roberts requesting no CW at 0 upvotes -- "+1 for not putting it in community wiki" The difference is 12 for a CW request at the moment If this difference becomes 5 more (that is 17), I'll move this question to CW, and it will not return back from there Of course, there is also a close vote at the moment; the question may be closed again.

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  • How to use jQuery .live() with ajax

    - by kylemac
    Currently I am using John Resig's LiveQuery plugin/function - http://ejohn.org/blog/jquery-livesearch/ - to allow users to sort through a long unordered-list of list-items. The code is as follows: $('input#q').liveUpdate('ul#teams').focus(); The issue arises when I use ajaxified tabs to sort the lists. Essentially I use ajax to pull in different lists and the liveUpdate() function doesn't have access to the new li's. I assume I would need to bind this using the .live() function - http://api.jquery.com/live/. But I am unclear how to bind this to an ajax event, I've only used the "click" event. How would I bind the new liveUpdate() to the newly loaded list-items? EDIT: The ajax tabs is run through the wordpress ajax api so the code is fairly complex, but simplified it is something like this: $('div.item-list-tabs').click( function(event) { var target = $(event.target).parent(); var data = {action, scope, pagination}; // Passes action to WP that loads my tab data $.post( ajaxurl, data, function(response) { $(target).fadeOut( 100, function() { $(this).html(response); $(this).fadeIn(100); }); }); return false; }); This is simplified for the sake of this conversation, but basically once the $.post loads the response in place .liveUpdate() doesn't have access to it. I believe the .live() function is the answer to this problem, I'm just unclear on how to implement it with the $.post()

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  • How can I add a "Loading...Please wait..." feature?

    - by Rob
    I have a very simple table on my website, that displays different URL's. I have an input field where I can type in a URL and click 'Submit' to add additional URL's. However, I want to add an MD5 grabbing feature to this, using @md5_file(); to grab the MD5 of the URL and check to make sure it's the MD5 it should be, before adding it to the database. However it may take a few seconds for it to grab the MD5 and compare it, so I would like to add a little bit of text, like "Processing...Please wait..." while it does the comparing, and then once it's compared I want that text to go away. I've never done this before, or even though about doing it so I have no idea where to start. I'll go ahead and put javascript as a tag for this, since I'm guessing it would be done with javascript, but I really have no idea. I don't think it's possible with PHP, but again, I have no idea. Any suggestions?

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  • S3 Backup Memory Usage in Python

    - by danpalmer
    I currently use WebFaction for my hosting with the basic package that gives us 80MB of RAM. This is more than adequate for our needs at the moment, apart from our backups. We do our own backups to S3 once a day. The backup process is this: dump the database, tar.gz all the files into one backup named with the correct date of the backup, upload to S3 using the python library provided by Amazon. Unfortunately, it appears (although I don't know this for certain) that either my code for reading the file or the S3 code is loading the entire file in to memory. As the file is approximately 320MB (for today's backup) it is using about 320MB just for the backup. This causes WebFaction to quit all our processes meaning the backup doesn't happen and our site goes down. So this is the question: Is there any way to not load the whole file in to memory, or are there any other python S3 libraries that are much better with RAM usage. Ideally it needs to be about 60MB at the most! If this can't be done, how can I split the file and upload separate parts? Thanks for your help. This is the section of code (in my backup script) that caused the processes to be quit: filedata = open(filename, 'rb').read() content_type = mimetypes.guess_type(filename)[0] if not content_type: content_type = 'text/plain' print 'Uploading to S3...' response = connection.put(BUCKET_NAME, 'daily/%s' % filename, S3.S3Object(filedata), {'x-amz-acl': 'public-read', 'Content-Type': content_type})

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  • Getting a users Facebook profile url

    - by Greg Pabst
    I am creating a registry site so similar people can find each other easily. I don't want to use Facebook Connect as the primary log in method or use Facebook to store their information. I'll be creating a database on my end to store that info. For security reasons I won't be displaying the users address, phone number or email address so I wanted to provide the next best way for people to connect with each other, this is where Facebook comes in. Normally I would just ask them to type their Facebook URL in a text box but I don't think most people know what their url is which is why I think I need to use Facebook Connect. So here is my idea..when the users signs up there is a check box that when checked signifies they are allowing people to find them on Facebook. I assume once they click the register button that a Facebook Connect popup will show up asking for permission to access their Facebook account. When they "allow" it, then I can get their profile url. All I need is their Facebook profile url, I don't want any other Facebook features or information. Is Facebook Connect the best thing to use for this scenario? Is there an easier way? Several months ago on the Facebook Connect site their used to be examples of doing this, but all the documentation has been rearranged and changed and I can't seem to find the information. Any help you can provide would be great!

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  • Authenticated user cannot log in, "The user does not exist or is not unique."

    - by Aquinas
    This is a weird one. I have a WSS3 site, no MOSS, with a custom membership and role provider that authenticates against CRM. All the users have also been added to the site user list so once logged in they have correct display names. On dev and stage everything works fine, but on UAT the users can't get past the login screen. The login screen is working, in that if you type an incorrect password for a user it comes back with the right message, meaning the custom provider is working fine. If you fill the login form in correctly you are immediately redirected straight back to the login screen, with the IIS logs showing that the login screen sent the authenticated user to the site and then was sent back. Setting the site to allow anonymous access shows that the user is not logged in on the site side after authenticating correctly. The ULS logs show: The user does not exist or is not unique. Found 1 trusted forests nzct.local. Found 0 trusted domains Adding logging code to the site I have verified that the membership provider is correctly set, and can find the user when asked. Also, when accessing the site user list, I can find the SP user with the right name. It just refuses to set the current user to be the authenticated user. Weird.

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  • How to perform spatial partitioning in n-dimensions?

    - by kevin42
    I'm trying to design an implementation of Vector Quantization as a c++ template class that can handle different types and dimensions of vectors (e.g. 16 dimension vectors of bytes, or 4d vectors of doubles, etc). I've been reading up on the algorithms, and I understand most of it: here and here I want to implement the Linde-Buzo-Gray (LBG) Algorithm, but I'm having difficulty figuring out the general algorithm for partitioning the clusters. I think I need to define a plane (hyperplane?) that splits the vectors in a cluster so there is an equal number on each side of the plane. [edit to add more info] This is an iterative process, but I think I start by finding the centroid of all the vectors, then use that centroid to define the splitting plane, get the centroid of each of the sides of the plane, continuing until I have the number of clusters needed for the VQ algorithm (iterating to optimize for less distortion along the way). The animation in the first link above shows it nicely. My questions are: What is an algorithm to find the plane once I have the centroid? How can I test a vector to see if it is on either side of that plane?

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  • C# DllImport with c++ const char* not working correctly

    - by Shammah
    I have the following function in a C++ DLL extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) bool Exist(const char* name) { //if (g_Queues.find(name) != g_Queues.end()) // return true; //else // return false; return false; } Inside my C# class I have the following: [DllImport("Whisper.dll", EntryPoint="Exist", CallingConvention=CallingConvention.Cdecl)] public static extern bool Exist(string name); Yet, whenever I call my function it ALWAYS returns true, even when I commented out my little function and made it return false. I have the feeling there is something wrong with my calling convention or any other issue with P/Invoking my DLL, probably corresponding with the string and const char*, but for now I am completely clueless. What am I doing wrong? Why does it return true instead of false? EDIT: I have figured out this has nothing to do with the const char* or string, because the problem persists with an empty function. I've tried changing the calling convention between Cdecl and StdCall and neither work correctly. I've also managed to debug my DLL and it's being called correctly and does indeed return false, but once back into C# it somehow is true. Changing the CharSet also had no effect. I've made sure I've supplied my C# program with the latest and correct version of my DLL each time, so that shouldn't be an issue aswell. Again, I am completely clueless on why the result is true when I'm in fact returning false. EDIT2: SOReader provided me with a suggestion which fixes another important issue, see my comment. Sadly, it does not fix the return issue.

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  • Java: Is clone() really ever used? What about defensive copying in getters/setters?

    - by GreenieMeanie
    Do people practically ever use defensive getters/setters? To me, 99% of the time you intend for the object you set in another object to be a copy of the same object reference, and you intend for changes you make to it to also be made in the object it was set in. If you setDate(Date dt) and modify dt later, who cares? Unless I want some basic immutable data bean that just has primitives and maybe something simple like a Date, I never use it. As far as clone, there are issues as to how deep or shallow the copy is, so it seems kind of "dangerous" to know what is going to come out when you clone an Object. I think I have only used clone() once or twice, and that was to copy the current state of the object because another thread (ie another HTTP request accessing the same object in Session) could be modifying it. Edit - A comment I made below is more the question: But then again, you DID change the Date, so it's kind of your own fault, hence whole discussion of term "defensive". If it is all application code under your own control among a small to medium group of developers, will just documenting your classes suffice as an alternative to making object copies? Or is this not necessary, since you should always assume something ISN'T copied when calling a setter/getter?

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  • Which Project Management Software is adequate for Software & Non-Software Projects?

    - by cusack
    PMS = (Project Management Software) I used trac for software development some time ago. Right now I'm searching for a new more powerful (scheduling, gantt charts, ...) free solution (as in free beer ;-) and free to install on my server) for my current software project. Besides the current software project, abstract project management features like issue-tracking & scheduling would be great for coordinating a group of volunteers for real-life projects as well. I would want one solution for both purposes, so that I have the hassle of installation, getting used to the system and administration only once. So I tried redmine but the problem is it seems to be designed for software projects only. I can't suggest such a solution for the volunteer-group if tickets/issues would have to be of type bug, feature, ... I shortlisted the following six PMS from the wikipedia comparison http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_project_management_software Project.net Project-Open Redmine Trac Endeavour Software Project Management eGroupWare I guess they are all more or less fine for software development but would you consider any of these to be good for the non-software project as well? Cliff Notes: I would want a start page situation like in trac. The start-page is a wiki presenting the project and not the PMS. But you can log into the PMS from there. Feature-wish list: wiki, Issue tracking, revision control, scheduling & gantt charts, forums (least important) (Btw: I'm very aware that I can't expect everything to be perfect ;-) 1.)Do you know a suitable solution for software and real-life projects or a highly customizable PMS where I can easily remove sth. like "browse source"(trac) and rename things like ticket/issue-types "bug", "feature"? 2.)Any experience good/bad with the above mentioned six PMS? I would personally guess that "Redmine" and "Endeavour Software Project Management" are too focused on software projects.

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  • SignalR - Handling disconnected users

    - by guilhermeGeek
    Hy, I'm using the signalR library on a project to handle an notification and chat modules. I've a table on an database to keep a track of online users. The HUB for chat is inheriting IDisconnect where i disconnect the user. After disconnecting the user, i warm the users about that event. At this point, i check if the disconnect user is the client. If it's, then i call an method on HUB to reconnect the user (just update the table). I do this because with the current implementation, once the user closes a tab on the browser it calls the Disconnect task but he could have another tab opened. I've not tested (with larger requests) this module yet, but on my development server it could take a few seconds between the IDisconnect event, and the request from the user to connect again. I'm concerned with my implementation to handle disconnected users from the chat but i can't see another way to improve this. If possible, could someone give me a advice on this, or this is the only solution that i've?

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  • Efficient way of calculating average difference of array elements from array average value

    - by Saysmaster
    Is there a way to calculate the average distance of array elements from array average value, by only "visiting" each array element once? (I search for an algorithm) Example: Array : [ 1 , 5 , 4 , 9 , 6 ] Average : ( 1 + 5 + 4 + 9 + 6 ) / 5 = 5 Distance Array : [|1-5|, |5-5|, |4-5|, |9-5|, |6-5|] = [4 , 0 , 1 , 4 , 1 ] Average Distance : ( 4 + 0 + 1 + 4 + 1 ) / 5 = 2 The simple algorithm needs 2 passes. 1st pass) Reads and accumulates values, then divides the result by array length to calculate average value of array elements. 2nd pass) Reads values, accumulates each one's distance from the previously calculated average value, and then divides the result by array length to find the average distance of the elements from the average value of the array. The two passes are identical. It is the classic algorithm of calculating the average of a set of values. The first one takes as input the elements of the array, the second one the distances of each element from the array's average value. Calculating the average can be modified to not accumulate the values, but caclulating the average "on the fly" as we sequentialy read the elements from the array. The formula is: Compute Running Average of Array's elements ------------------------------------------- RA[i] = E[i] {for i == 1} RA[i] = RA[i-1] - RA[i-1]/i + A[i]/i { for i > 1 } Where A[x] is the array's element at position x, RA[x] is the average of the array's elements between position 1 and x (running average). My question is: Is there a similar algorithm, to calculate "on the fly" (as we read the array's elements), the average distance of the elements from the array's mean value? The problem is that, as we read the array's elements, the final average value of the array is not known. Only the running average is known. So calculating differences from the running average will not yield the correct result. I suppose, if such algorithm exists, it probably should have the "ability" to compensate, in a way, on each new element read for the error calculated as far.

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  • Javascript: Multiple mouseout events triggered

    - by Channel72
    I'm aware of the different event models in Javascript (the WC3 model versus the Microsoft model), as well as the difference between bubbling and capturing. However, after a few hours reading various articles about this issue, I'm still unsure how to properly code the following seemingly simple behavior: If I have an outer div and an inner div element, I want a single mouse-out event to be triggered when the mouse leaves the outer-div. When the mouse crosses from the inner-div to the outer-div, nothing should happen, and when the mouse crosses from the outer-div to the inner-div nothing should happen. The event should only fire if the mouse moves from the outer-div to the surrounding page. <div id="outer" style = "width:20em; height:20em; border:1px solid #F00" align = "center" onmouseout="alert('mouseout event!')" > <div id="inner" style = "width:18em; height:18em; border:1px solid #000"></div> </div> Now, if I place the "mouseout" event on the outer-div, two mouse-out events are fired when the mouse moves from the inner-div to the surrounding page, because the event fires once when the mouse moves from inner to outer, and then again when it moves from outer to the surrounding page. I know I can cancel the event using ev.stopPropagation(), so I tried registering an event handler with the inner-div to cancel the event propagation. However, this won't prevent the event from firing when the mouse moves from the outer-div to the inner-div. So, unless I'm overlooking something, it seems to me this behavior can't be accomplished without complex mouse-tracking functions. In the future, I plan to reimplement a lot of this code using a more advanced framework, like JQuery, but for now, I'm wondering if there is a simple way to implement the above behavior in regular Javascript.

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