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• White Screen of Death (WSOD) in Browser

  - by nickyt

  Here's the specs: ASP.NET 3.5 using ASP.NET AJAX AJAX Control Toolkit jQuery 1.3.2 web services IIS6 on Windows Server 2003 SP1 SP1 SQLServer 2005 SP3 Site is SSL Here's the problem: I'm getting the White Screen of Death (WSOD) in pretty much any browser (at least FireFox and IE 7/8). We have an application that uses one popup window for updating records. Most of the time when you click on the [Edit] button to edit a record, the popup window opens and loads the update page. However, after editing records for a while, all of a sudden the popup window will open, but it stays blank and just hangs. The URL is in the address bar. Loading up Fiddler I noticed that the request for the update page is never sent which leads me to believe it's some kind of lockup on the client-side. If I copy the same URL that's in the popup window into a new browser window, the page generally loads fine. Observations: - Since the request is never sent to the server, it's definitely something client-side - Only appears to happen when there is some semblance of traffic on the site which is weird because this appears to be contained within client-side code - There is a web service being called in the background every few seconds checking if the user is logged on, but this doesn't cause the freeze. I'm really at a loss here. I've googled WSOD but not much seems to appear related to my specific WSOD. Any ideas?

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• Why do I get an error while trying to set the content of a tabspec in android?

  - by rushinge

  I have an android activity in which I'm using tabs. public class UnitActivity extends TabActivity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.unit_view); TabHost tabHost = getTabHost(); TabSpec spec; spec = tabHost.newTabSpec("controls"); spec.setIndicator("Control"); spec.setContent(R.layout.unit_control); tabHost.addTab(spec); spec = tabHost.newTabSpec("data"); spec.setIndicator("Data"); spec.setContent(R.layout.unit_data); tabHost.addTab(spec); } } However when I run the program it crashes with the error: "Could not create tab content because could not find view with id 2130903042". I don't understand what the problem is because R.layout.unit_data refers to a layout file in my resource directory (res/layout/unit_data.xml) as far as I can tell unit_data.xml is well formed and I've even referenced it successfully in another activity class UnitData extends Activity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.unit_data); Toast.makeText(this, "Hi from UnitData.onCreate", 5); } } which does not give an error and renders the layout just fine. What's going on? Why can't I reference this layout when creating a tab?

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• PHP header redirection does not reload <iframe> in IE

  - by Marco Demaio

  When displaying data from DB usually I'm in this situation I'm in page A.php that shows data from DB, user performs some action (like edit/delete etc) and page B.php is loaded to perform the action, once page B performed the action, it redirects browser to page A, page A is auto reloaded during step (3) therefor it shows an updated situation of the data In order to make page B to redirect to page A i use a simple PHP header("Location: " . "A.php", TRUE, 302); This works well in all situations, except when pages A.php is displaied into an <iframe>: in such a case it does not reload (step 4 does not get done). This seems to happen only in IE7 (don't know about IE8), it works perfectly on FF/Safari. And only when using an <iframe>, if page A.php is not in <iframe> it gest refreshed also in IE7. In order to solve this I simply added a couple of headers in page A.php to set it to not be cached: header("Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate"); // HTTP/1.1 header("Expires: Sat, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT"); // Date in the past But I was curious if you might have experienced the same issue too in the past, and if you good give me some advice about this?

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• Visual Studio hangs when deploying a cube

  - by Richie

  Hello All, I'm having an issue with an Analysis Services project in Visual Studio 2005. My project always builds but only occasionally deploys. No errors are reported and VS just hangs. This is my first Analysis Services project so I am hoping that there is something obvious that I am just missing. Here is the situation I have a cube that I have successfully deployed. I then make some change, e.g., adding a hierarchy to a dimension. When I try to deploy again VS hangs. I have to restart Analysis Services to regain control of VS so I can shut it down. I restart everything sometimes once, sometimes twice or more before the project will eventually deploy. This happens with any change I make there seems to be no pattern to this behaviour. Sometimes I have to delete the cube from Analysis Services before restarting everything to get a successful deploy. Also I have successfully deployed the cube, and then subsequently successfully reprocessed a dimension then when I open a query window in SQL Server Management Studio it says that it can find any cubes. As a test I have deployed a cube successfully. I have then deleted it in Analysis Services and attempted to redeploy it, without making any changes to the cube, only to have the same behaviour mentioned above. VS just hangs with no reason so I have no idea where to start hunting down the problem. It is taking 15-20 minutes to make a change as simple as setting the NameColumn of a dimension attribute. As you can imagine this is taking hours of my time so I would greatly appreciate any assistance anyone can give me.

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• How to obtain the panel within a treeview (WPF)

  - by sperling

  How can one obtain the panel that is used within a TreeView? I've read that by default TreeView uses a VirtualizingStackPanel for this. When I look at a TreeView template, all I see is <ItemsPresenter />, which seems to hide the details of what panel is used. Possible solutions: 1) On the treeview instance ("tv"), from code, do this: tv.ItemsPanel. The problem is, this does not return a panel, but an ItemsPanelTemplate ("gets or sets the template that defines the panel that controls the layout of the items"). 2) Make a TreeView template that explicitly replaces <ItemsPresenter /> with your own ItemsControl.ItemsPanel. I am providing a special template anyways, so this is fine in my scenario. Then give a part name to the panel that you place within that template, and from code you can obtain that part (i.e. the panel). The problem with this? see below. (I am using a control named VirtualTreeView which is derived from TreeView, as is seen below): , use following: -- [sorry folks about poor formatting here, this is my first post, I tried 4 spaces for code... doesn't seem to work?] [I stripped out all clutter here for visibility...] The problem with this is: this immediately overrides any TreeView layout mechanism. Actually, you just get a blank screen, even when you have TreeViewItems filling the tree. Well, the reason I want to get a hold of the panel is to take some part in the MeaureOverride, but without going into all of that, I certainly do not want to rewrite the book of how to layout a treeview. I.e., doing this the step #2 way seems to invalidate the point of even using a TreeView in the first place. Sorry if there is some confusion here, thanks for any help you can offer.

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• I would like to interactively detect when an ActiveX component has been installed, and asynchronousl

  - by Brian Stinar

  Hello, I am working on a website, and I would like to refresh a portion of the page after an ActiveX component has been installed. I have a general idea of how to do this with polling, which I am working on getting going : function detectComponentThenSleep(){ try{ // Call what I want ActiveX for, if the method is available, or // ActiveXComponent.object == null --- test for existance document.getElementById("ActiveXComponent").someMethod(); } catch{ // Try again, if the method is not available setTimeout(detectComponentThenSleep, 100); } } However, what I would REALLY like to do is something like this: ActiveXObject.addListener("onInstall", myfunction); I don't actually have the source for the ActiveX component, but I have complete control of the page I am hosting it on. I would like to use JavaScript, if possible, to accomplish this. So, my question is 1.) will this actually work with the polling method? and 2.) Is there an interrupt/listener like way of doing this? I am sure I am missing something with connecting the dots here, I can already detect if the component is present, but I am having trouble doing this asynchronously. Thank you very much for your time and help, -Brian J. Stinar-

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• NSTimer as a timeout mechanism

  - by alexantd

  I'm pretty sure this is really simple, and I'm just missing something obvious. I have an app that needs to download data from a web service for display in a UITableView, and I want to display a UIAlertView if the operation takes more than X seconds to complete. So this is what I've got (simplified for brevity): MyViewController.h @interface MyViewController : UIViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { NSTimer *timer; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSTimer *timer; MyViewController.m @implementation MyViewController @synthesize timer; - (void)viewDidLoad { timer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:20 target:self selector:@selector(initializationTimedOut:) userInfo:nil repeats:NO]; [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime]; [timer invalidate]; } - (void)doSomethingThatTakesALongTime { sleep(30); // for testing only // web service calls etc. go here } - (void)initializationTimedOut:(NSTimer *)theTimer { // show the alert view } My problem is that I'm expecting the [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime] call to block while the timer keeps counting, and I'm thinking that if it finishes before the timer is done counting down, it will return control of the thread to viewDidLoad where [timer invalidate] will proceed to cancel the timer. Obviously my understanding of how timers/threads work is flawed here because the way the code is written, the timer never goes off. However, if I remove the [timer invalidate], it does.

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• Hashing the state of a complex object in .NET

  - by Jan

  Some background information: I am working on a C#/WPF application, which basically is about creating, editing, saving and loading some data model. The data model contains of a hierarchy of various objects. There is a "root" object of class A, which has a list of objects of class B, which each has a list of objects of class C, etc. Around 30 classes involved in total. Now my problem is that I want to prompt the user with the usual "you have unsaved changes, save?" dialog, if he tries to exit the program. But how do I know if the data in current loaded model is actually changed? There is of course ways to solve this, like e.g. reloading the model from file and compare against the one in memory value by value or make every UI control set a flag indicating the model has been changed. Now instead, I want to create a hash value based on the model state on load and generate a new value when the user tries to exit, and compare those two. Now the question: So inspired of that, I was wondering if there exist some way to generate a hash value from the (value)state of some arbitrary complex object? Preferably in a generic way, e.g. no need to apply attributes to each involved class/field. One idea could be to use some of .NET's serialization functionality (assuming it will work out-of-the-box in this case) and apply a hash function to the content of the resulting file. However, I guess there exist some more suitable approach. Thanks in advance.

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• Can the Subversion client (svn) derefence symbolic links as if they were files?

  - by Ryan B. Lynch

  I have a directory on a Linux system that mostly contains symlinks to files on a different filesystem. I'd like to add the directory to a Subversion repository, dereferencing the symlinks in the process (treating them as the files they point to, rather than links). Generally, I'd like to be able to handle any working-copy operations with this behavior, but the 'svn add' command is where it starts, I think. The SVN client utility doesn't appear to have any options related to symlink dereferencing in the working copy. I didn't find any references to this in the manual (http://svnbook.red-bean.com/en/1.5/index.html), either. I found a poster on the SVN users mailing list who asked the same question but never received an answer, here: http://markmail.org/message/ngchfnzlmm43yj7h (That poster ended up using hard links instead of symlinks. That technique is not an option, in my case, because the real underlying files reside on a separate filesystem.) I'm using Subversion v1.6.1 on Fedora 11. For what it's worth, I know that there are alternative tools/techniques that could help approximate this behavior, but which I have to discard for various reasons. I've already considered [and dust-binned] these possibilities: - a "union" mount, merging all of the the directories containing the real files, with the SVN working-copy directory as the "top" layer in the union; - copying/moving the real files to the same filesystem as the SVN working-copy, and using hardlinks instead of symlinks; - non-SVN version control systems. These were all neat ideas, and I'm sure they are good solutions to other problems, but they won't work given the constraints of this environment and situation.

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• Ext JS 4.2.1 loading controller - best practice

  - by Hown_

  I am currently developing a Ext JS application with many views/controlers/... I am wondering myself what the best practice is for loading the JS controllers/views/and so on... currently i have my application defined like this: // enable javascript cache for debugging, otherwise Chrome breakpoints are lost Ext.Loader.setConfig({ disableCaching: false }); Ext.require('Ext.util.History'); Ext.require('app.Sitemap'); Ext.require('app.Error'); Ext.define('app.Application', { name: 'app', extend: 'Ext.app.Application', views: [ // TODO: add views here 'app.view.Viewport', 'app.view.BaseMain', 'app.view.Main', 'app.view.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.view.administration.User' ... ], controllers: [ 'app.controller.Viewport', 'app.controller.Main', 'app.controller.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.controller.administration.User', ... ], stores: [ // stores in there.. ] }); somehow this forces the client to load all my views and controllers at startup and is calling all init methods of all controllers of course.. i need to load data everytime i chnage my view.. and now i cant load it in my controllers init function. I would have to do something like this i assume: init: function () { this.control({ '#administration_User': { afterrender: this.onAfterRender } }); }, Is there a better way to do this? Or just an other event? Though the main thing i am questioning myself is if it is the best practice to load all the javascript at startup. Wouldnt it be better to only load the controllers/views/... which the client does need right now? Or should i load all the JS at startup? If i do want to load the controllers dynamicly how could i do this? I assume a would have to remove them from my application arrays (views, controllers, stores) and create an instance if i do need it and mby set the view in the controllers init?! What's best practice??

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• Intermittent bug - IE6 showing file as text in browser, rather than as file download

  - by Richard Ev

  In an ASP.NET WebForms 2.0 site we are encountering an intermittent bug in IE6 whereby a file download attempt results in the contents of the being shown directly in the browser as text, rather than the file save dialog being displayed. Our application allows the user to download both PDF and CSV files. The code we're using is: HttpResponse response = HttpContext.Current.Response; response.Clear(); response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment;filename=\"theFilename.pdf\""); response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; response.BinaryWrite(MethodThatReturnsFileContents()); response.End(); This is called from the code-behind click event handler of a button server control. Where are we going wrong with this approach? Edit Following James' answer to this posting, the code I'm using now looks like this: HttpResponse response = HttpContext.Current.Response; response.ClearHeaders(); // Setting cache to NoCache was recommended, but doing so results in a security // warning in IE6 //response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.NoCache); response.AppendHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename=\"theFilename.pdf\""); response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; response.BinaryWrite(MethodThatReturnsFileContents()); response.Flush(); response.End(); However, I don't believe that any of the changes made will fix the issue.

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• How to repeatedly show a Dialog with PyGTK / Gtkbuilder?

  - by Julian

  I have created a PyGTK application that shows a Dialog when the user presses a button. The dialog is loaded in my __init__ method with: builder = gtk.Builder() builder.add_from_file("filename") builder.connect_signals(self) self.myDialog = builder.get_object("dialog_name") In the event handler, the dialog is shown with the command self.myDialog.run(), but this only works once, because after run() the dialog is automatically destroyed. If I click the button a second time, the application crashes. I read that there is a way to use show() instead of run() where the dialog is not destroyed, but I feel like this is not the right way for me because I would like the dialog to behave modally and to return control to the code only after the user has closed it. Is there a simple way to repeatedly show a dialog using the run() method using gtkbuilder? I tried reloading the whole dialog using the gtkbuilder, but that did not really seem to work, the dialog was missing all child elements (and I would prefer to have to use the builder only once, at the beginning of the program). [SOLUTION] As pointed out by the answer below, using hide() does the trick. But one has to take care that the dialog is in fact destroyed if one does not catch its "delete-event". A simple example that works is: import pygtk import gtk class DialogTest: def rundialog(self, widget, data=None): self.dia.show_all() result = self.dia.run() def destroy(self, widget, data=None): gtk.main_quit() def closedialog(self, widget, data=None): self.dia.hide() return True def __init__(self): self.window = gtk.Window(gtk.WINDOW_TOPLEVEL) self.window.connect("destroy", self.destroy) self.dia = gtk.Dialog('TEST DIALOG', self.window, gtk.DIALOG_MODAL | gtk.DIALOG_DESTROY_WITH_PARENT) self.dia.vbox.pack_start(gtk.Label('This is just a Test')) self.dia.connect("delete-event", self.closedialog) self.button = gtk.Button("Run Dialog") self.button.connect("clicked", self.rundialog, None) self.window.add(self.button) self.button.show() self.window.show() if __name__ == "__main__": testApp = DialogTest() gtk.main()

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• How can I make keyword order more relevant in my search?

  - by Atomiton

  In my database, I have a keywords field that stores a comma-delimited list of keywords. For example, a Shrek doll might have the following keywords: ogre, green, plush, hero, boys' toys A "Beanie Baby" doll ( that happens to be an ogre ) might have: beanie baby, kids toys, beanbag toys, soft, infant, ogre (That's a completely contrived example.) What I'd like to do is if the consumer searches for "ogre" I'd like the "Shrek" doll to come up higher in the search results. My content administrator feels that if the keyword is earlier in the list, it should get a higher ranking. ( This makes sense to me and it makes it easy for me to let them control the search result relevance ). Here's a simplified query: SELECT p.ProductID AS ContentID , p.ProductName AS Title , p.ProductCode AS Subtitle , 100 AS Rank , p.ProductKeywords AS Keywords FROM Products AS p WHERE FREETEXT( p.ProductKeywords, @SearchPredicate ) I'm thinking something along the lines of replacing the RANK with: , 200 - INDEXOF(@SearchTerm) AS Rank This "should" rank the keyword results by their relevance I know INDEXOF isn't a SQL command... but it's something LIKE that I would like to accomplish. Am I approaching this the right way? Is it possible to do something like this? Does this make sense?

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• Multi-threaded library calls in ASP.NET page request.

  - by ProfK

  I have an ASP.NET app, very basic, but right now too much code to post if we're lucky and I don't have to. We have a class called ReportGenerator. On a button click, method GenerateReports is called. It makes an async call to InternalGenerateReports using ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem and returns, ending the ASP.NET response. It doesn't provide any completion callback or anything. InternalGenerateReports creates and maintains five threads in the threadpool, one report per thread, also using QueueUserWorkItem, by 'creating' five threads, also with and waiting until calls on all of them complete, in a loop. Each thread uses an ASP.NET ReportViewer control to render a report to HTML. That is, for 200 reports, InternalGenerateReports should create 5 threads 40 times. As threads complete, report data is queued, and when all five have completed, report data is flushed to disk. My biggest problems are that after running for just one report, the aspnet process is 'hung', and also that at around 200 reports, the app just hangs. I just simplified this code to run in a single thread, and this works fine. Before we get into details like my code, is there anything obvious in the above scendario that might be wrong?

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• Checking multiple conditions in Ruby (within Rails, which may not matter)

  - by Ev

  Hello rubyists and railers, I have a method which checks over a params hash to make sure that it contains certain keys, and to make sure that certain values are set within a certain range. This is for an action that responds to a POST query by an iPhone app. Anyway, this method is checking for about 10 different conditions - any of which will result in an HTTP error being returned (I'm still considering this, but possibly a 400: bad request error). My current syntax is basically this (paraphrased): def invalid_submission_params?(params) [check one] or [check two] or [check three] or [check four] etc etc end Where each of the check statements returns true if that particular parameter check results in an invalid parameter set. I call it as a before filter with params[:submission] as the argument. This seems a little ugly (all the strung together or statements). Is there a better way? I have tried using case but can't see a way to make it more elegant. Or, perhaps, is there a rails method that lets me check the incoming params hash for certain conditions before handing control off to my action method?

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• PHP check http referer for form submitted by AJAX, secure?

  - by Michael Mao

  Hi all: This is the first time I am working for a front-end project that requires server-side authentication for AJAX requests. I've encountered problems like I cannot make a call of session_start as the beginning line of the "destination page", cuz that would get me a PHP Warning : Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\ajaxInsert Book.php:1) in C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\common.php on line 10 I reckon this means I have to figure out a way other than checking PHP session variables to authenticate the "caller" of this PHP script, and this is my approach : I have a "protected" PHP page, which must be used as the "container" of my javascript that posts the form through jQuery $.ajax(); method In my "receiver" PHP script, what I've got is: <?php define(BOOKS_TABLE, "books"); define(APPROOT, "/comic/"); define(CORRECT_REFERER, "/protected/staff/addBook.php"); function isRefererCorrect() { // the following line evaluates the relative path for the referer uri, // Say, $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] returns "http://localhost/comic/protected/staff/addBook.php" // Then the part we concern is just this "/protected/staff/addBook.php" $referer = substr($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], 6 + strrpos($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], APPROOT)); return (strnatcmp(CORRECT_REFERER, $referer) == 0) ? true : false; } //http://stackoverflow.com/questions/267546/correct-http-header-for-json-file header('Content-type: application/json charset=UTF-8'); header('Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate'); echo json_encode(array ( "feedback"=>"ok", "info"=>isRefererCorrect() )); ?> My code works, but I wonder is there any security risks in this approach? Can someone manipulate the post request so that he can pretend that the caller javascript is from the "protected" page? Many thanks to any hints or suggestions.

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• Why is my Repeater null in code behind?

  - by Rob Stevenson-Leggett

  I'm just starting a new project and I am getting some really weird stuff happening. ASP.NET 3.5, VS2008. I've tried rebuild, close VS, delete everything and get from svn again but I cannot understand why the repeater in the following is null on page_load. I know this is going to be a headslapping moment. Help me out? Markup: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="GalleryControl.ascx.cs" Inherits="Site.UserControls.GalleryControl" %> <asp:Repeater ID="rptGalleries" runat="server"> <HeaderTemplate><ul></HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <li>wqe</li> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate></ul></FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater> Code behind public partial class GalleryControl : System.Web.UI.UserControl { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { rptGalleries.DataSource = new[] {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}; rptGalleries.DataBind(); } } Why is my repeater null? What the F is going on?

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• Determine if the current thread has low I/O priority

  - by Magnus Hoff

  I have a background thread that does some I/O-intensive background type work. To please the other threads and processes running, I set the thread priority to "background mode" using SetThreadPriority, like this: SetThreadPriority(GetCurrentThread(), THREAD_MODE_BACKGROUND_BEGIN); However, THREAD_MODE_BACKGROUND_BEGIN is only available in Windows Server 2008 or newer, as well as Windows Vista and newer, but the program needs to work well on Windows Server 2003 and XP as well. So the real code is more like this: if (!SetThreadPriority(GetCurrentThread(), THREAD_MODE_BACKGROUND_BEGIN)) { SetThreadPriority(GetCurrentThread(), THREAD_PRIORITY_LOWEST); } The problem with this is that on Windows XP it will totally disrupt the system by using too much I/O. I have a plan for a ugly and shameful way of mitigating this problem, but that depends on me being able to determine if the current thread has low I/O priority or not. Now, I know I can store which thread priority I ended up setting, but the control flow in the program is not really well suited for this. I would rather like to be able to test later whether or not the current thread has low I/O priority -- if it is in "background mode". GetThreadPriority does not seem to give me this information. Is there any way to determine if the current thread has low I/O priority?

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• Multiple generic parameters on a html helper extension method

  - by WestDiscGolf

  What I'm trying to do is create an extension method for the HtmlHelper to create a specific output and associated details like TextBoxFor<. What I want to do is specify the property from the model class as per TextBoxFor<, then an associated controller action and other parameters. So far the signature of the method looks like: public static MvcHtmlString Create<TModel, TProperty, TController>(this HtmlHelper<TModel> htmlHelper, Expression<Func<TModel, TProperty>> expression, Expression<Action<TController>> action, object htmlAttributes) where TController : Controller where TModel : class The issue occurs when I go to call it. In my view if I call it as per the TextBoxFor without specifying the Model type I am able to specify the lambda expression to set the property which it's for, but when I go to specify the action I am unable to. However, when I specify the controller type Html.Create<HomeController>( ... ) I am unable to specify the model property that the control is to be created for. I want to be able to call it like <%= Html.Create(x => x.Title, controller => controller.action, null) %> I've been hitting my head for a few hours now on this issue over the past day, can anyone point me in the right direction?

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• JDBC call not executing

  - by dbyrne

  I am working on one of the DAOs for a medium sized web application. Unfortunately, it contains very convoluted logic, and makes hundreds of JDBC stored proc calls in loops. This is out of my control. I am working on a method inside the DAO which makes a single JDBC call. The simplified version of what this method looks like is this: DriverManager.registerDriver(new com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybDriver()); Connection con = DriverManager.getConnection((String)connectionDetails.get("DATABASE_URL") (String)connectionDetails.get("USERID"), (String)connectionDetails.get("PASSWORD")); String sqlToExecute = "{call " + STORED_PROC + "(?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)}"; CallableStatement stmt = con.prepareCall(sqlToExecute); //Maybe I should try calling clearParameters here? stmt.setString(1,someData); //....Set of parameters.... if (!stmt.execute()) { //execute method never returns false } stmt.close(); Its pretty much a textbook JDBC call. All this stored proc does is insert a single row. Here is where things get crazy: This code works when you run it through a debugger line by line, but fails when you run it "full speed". Not only does it fail, but it doesn't throw any exception! The execute method always returns true. It just breezes right through the JDBC call without inserting a row to the database. If you go through the log files, copy the stored proc call and run it manually, it works (just like it does in debug mode). Whats strange is that the rest of the DAO, with all its hundreds of looped stored proc calls, works fine. My thinking is that Connection or CallableStatement is caching some value behind the scenes that is screwing things up. Has anyone ever seen anything like this before? A JDBC call failing with no exceptions? I know it will be impossible to provide a complete solution to this without seeing the whole application, I am just looking for suggestions on possible issues to investigate.

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• Disable validation in an object in Ruby on Rails

  - by J. Pablo Fernández

  I have an object which whether validation happens or not should depend on a boolean, or in another way, validation is optional. I haven't found a clean way to do it. What I'm currently doing is this (disclaimer: you cannot unsee, leave this page if you are too sensitive): def valid? if perform_validation super else super # Call valid? so that callbacks get called and things like encrypting passwords and generating salt in before_validation actually happen errors.clear # but then clear the errors true # and claim ourselves to be valid. This is super hacky! end end Any better ways? Before you point to the :if argument of many validations, this is for a user model which is using authlogic so it has a lot of validation rules. You can stop reading here if you belive me. If you don't, authlogic already sets some :ifs like: :if => :email_changed? which I have to turn into :if => Proc.new {|user| user.email_changed? and user.perform_validation} and in some other cases, since I'm also using authlogic-oid (OpenID) I just don't have control over the :if, authlogic-oid sets it in a way I cannot change it (in time) without further monkey patching. So I have to override seemingly unrelated functions, catch exceptions if a method doesn't exist, etc. The previous hacky solution if the best of my two attempts.

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• How to Detect in Windows Registry if user has .Net Framework installed?

  - by Sarah Weinberger

  How do I detect in the Windows Registry if a user has .Net Framework installed? I am not looking for a .Net based solution, as the query is from InnoSetup. I know from reading another post here on Stack Overflow that .Net Framework is an inplace upgrade to 4.0. I already know how to check if a user has version 4.0 installed on the system, namely by checking the following: function FindFramework(): Boolean; var bVer4x0: Boolean; bVer4x0Client: Boolean; bVer4x0Full: Boolean; bSuccess: Boolean; iInstalled: Cardinal; begin Result := False; bVer4x0Client := False; bVer4x0Full := False; bVer4x0 := RegKeyExists(HKLM, 'SOFTWARE\Microsoft\.NETFramework\policy\v4.0'); bSuccess := RegQueryDWordValue(HKLM, 'Software\Microsoft\NET Framework Setup\NDP\v4 \Client', 'Install', iInstalled); if (1 = iInstalled) AND (True = bSuccess) then bVer4x0Client := True; bSuccess := RegQueryDWordValue(HKLM, 'Software\Microsoft\NET Framework Setup\NDP\v4 \Full', 'Install', iInstalled); if (1 = iInstalled) AND (True = bSuccess) then bVer4x0Full := True; if (True = bVer4x0Full) then begin Result := True; end; end; I checked the registry and there is no v4.5 folder, which makes sense if .Net Framework 4.5 is an inplace upgrade. Still, the Control Panel Programs and Features includes the listing. I know that probably "issuing dotNetFx45_Full_setup.exe /q" will have no bad effect if installing on a system that already has version 4.5, but I still would like to not install the upgrade if the upgrade already exists, faster and less problems.

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• Entity Framework Validation & usage

  - by kmsellers

  I'm aware there is an AssociationChanged event, however, this event fires after the association is made. There is no AssociationChanging event. So, if I want to throw an exception for some validation reason, how do I do this and get back to my original value? Also, I would like to default values for my entity based on information from other entities but do this only when I know the entitiy is instanced for insertion into the database. How do I tell the difference between that and the object getting instanced because it is about to be populated based on existing data? Am I supposed to know? Is that considiered business logic that should be outside of my entity business logic? If that's the case, then should I be designing controller classes to wrap all these entities? My concern is that if I deliver back an entity, I want the client to get access to the properties, but I want to retain tight control over validations on how they are set, defaulted, etc. Every example I've seen references context, which is outside of my enity partial class validation, right? BTW, I looked at the EFPocoAdapter and for the life of me cannot determine how to populate lists of from within my POCO class... anyone know how I get to the context from a EFPoco Class?

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• How do I tweak columns in a Flat File Destination in SSIS?

  - by theog

  I have an OLE DB Data source and a Flat File Destination in the Data Flow of my SSIS Project. The goal is simply to pump data into a text file, and it does that. Where I'm having problems is with the formatting. I need to be able to rtrim() a couple of columns to remove trailing spaces, and I have a couple more that need their leading zeros preserved. The current process is losing all the leading zeros. The rtrim() can be done by simple truncation and ignoring the truncation errors, but that's very inelegant and error prone. I'd like to find a better way, like actually doing the rtrim() function where needed. Exploring similar SSIS questions & answers on SO, the thing to do seems to be "Use a Script Task", but that's ususally just thrown out there with no details, and it's not at all an intuitive thing to set up. I don't see how to use scripting to do what I need. Do I use a Script Task on the Control Flow, or a Script Component in the Data Flow? Can I do rtrim() and pad strings where needed in a script? Anybody got an example of doing this or similar things? Many thanks in advance.

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• What is an elegant way to set up a leiningen project that requires different dependencies based on the build platform?

  - by Savanni D'Gerinel

  In order to do some multi-platform GUI development, I have just switched from GTK + Clojure (because it looks like the Java bindings for GTK never got ported to Windows) to SWT + Clojure. So far, so good in that I have gotten an uberjar built for Linux. The catch, though, is that I want to build an uberjar for Windows and I am trying to figure out a clean way to manage the project.clj file. At first, I thought I would set the classpath to point to the SWT libraries and then build the uberjar. This would require that I set a classpath to the SWT libraries before running the jar, but I would likely need a launcher script, anyway. However, leiningen seems to ignore the classpath in this instance because it always reports that Currently, project.clj looks like this for me: (defproject alyra.mana-punk/character "1.0.0-SNAPSHOT" :description "FIXME: write" :dependencies [[org.clojure/clojure "1.2.0"] [org.clojure/clojure-contrib "1.2.0"] [org.eclipse/swt-gtk-linux-x86 "3.5.2"]] :main alyra.mana-punk.character.core) The relevant line is the org.eclipse/swt-gtk-linux-x86 line. If I want to make an uberjar for Windows, I have to depend on org.eclipse/swt-win32-win32-x86, and another one for x86-64, and so on and so forth. My current solution is to simply create a separate branch for each build environment with a different project.clj. This seems kinda like using a semi to deliver a single gallon of milk, but I am using bazaar for version control, so branching and repeated integrations are easy. Maybe the better way is to have a project.linux.clj, project.win32.clj, etc, but I do not see any way to tell leiningen which project descriptor to use. What are other (preferably more elegant) ways to set up such an environment?

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