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• Can the Subversion client (svn) derefence symbolic links as if they were files?

  - by Ryan B. Lynch

  I have a directory on a Linux system that mostly contains symlinks to files on a different filesystem. I'd like to add the directory to a Subversion repository, dereferencing the symlinks in the process (treating them as the files they point to, rather than links). Generally, I'd like to be able to handle any working-copy operations with this behavior, but the 'svn add' command is where it starts, I think. The SVN client utility doesn't appear to have any options related to symlink dereferencing in the working copy. I didn't find any references to this in the manual (http://svnbook.red-bean.com/en/1.5/index.html), either. I found a poster on the SVN users mailing list who asked the same question but never received an answer, here: http://markmail.org/message/ngchfnzlmm43yj7h (That poster ended up using hard links instead of symlinks. That technique is not an option, in my case, because the real underlying files reside on a separate filesystem.) I'm using Subversion v1.6.1 on Fedora 11. For what it's worth, I know that there are alternative tools/techniques that could help approximate this behavior, but which I have to discard for various reasons. I've already considered [and dust-binned] these possibilities: - a "union" mount, merging all of the the directories containing the real files, with the SVN working-copy directory as the "top" layer in the union; - copying/moving the real files to the same filesystem as the SVN working-copy, and using hardlinks instead of symlinks; - non-SVN version control systems. These were all neat ideas, and I'm sure they are good solutions to other problems, but they won't work given the constraints of this environment and situation.

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• What is a good automated data import method for SQL Server?

  - by Joel Potter

  I'm in the process of porting some SQL Server 2005 databases to SQL Server 2008. One of these databases has an associated import application (Windows task) which uses SSIS with a DTS package to import a large dataset from an MS Access database nightly. In upgrading to SQL Server 2008, I discovered that I can't run the same console application which has been performing the imports due to the missing manageddts DLL in SQL Server 2008. It's several years old and in need of a rewrite for various reason, plus, I've been fairly unhappy with DTS in general. The original reason DTS was chosen was for speed (5 min import time compared to 30+ for ADO.NET). The format of the data to import is out of my control (the client likes Access). I would also like to be able to run the import from a machine completely separate from the server hosting SQL Server and preferably with minimal SQL features installed. Options I've considered: Creating an Access application to connect to both databases (SQL Server and Access) and perform the import (Ugh!) Revisiting ADO.NET to see if the original implementation was poorly written. Updated SSIS packages. What other technologies should I be considering for this job?

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• Reporting Services: Tablix RepeatColumnHeaders doesn't work on some reports

  - by I Have the Hat

  So I've got various reports that consist of a DataSet rendered in a Tablix... pretty garden variety stuff. There is a property for the Tablix control named RepeatColumnHeaders, which I have set to True for each report in question. The explanation for this property states “Indicates whether column headers are repeated on each page on which part of the data region appear.” Sounds pretty straightforward, but on some reports it works and on others it does not. I can't seem to find what's different about the reports that might affect this. On one report where the headers do repeat, there is some fairly arcane grouping mojo, but in an example where it doesn't work the Tablix only has one level--no grouping. I would expect the multi-nested one to be the problem, not the flat one. Maybe it's a different problem altogether. I threw together a simple Tablix rendering SELECT * FROM Foo, accepted all the default values, which results in RepeatColumnHeaders being set to False, and lo and behold the column headers do repeat for that report... Grrr. Any insights greatly appreciated.

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• Code smells galore. Can this be a good company?

  - by Paperflyer

  I am currently doing some contract work for a company. Now they want to hire me for real. I have been reading on SO about code smells lately. The thing is, I have worked with some of their code and it smells. Badly. They use incredibly old versions of MSVC (2003), they do not seem to use version control systems, most code is completely undocumented, variable names with more than three letters are a rarity, there is commented out code all over the place, some methods take huge amounts of arguments, UI design is seemingly done by blind people... Yet they seem to be quite successful with what they do and their actual algorithms seem to be pretty sound and rather sophisticated. Since they mostly do DSP stuff, I am willing to ignore the UI side of things, but really these code smells are worrying. What would you think of a company that doesn't seem to value readable code? The people are nice enough and payment would be good. How much would you value code smells in this context? You see, this is my first job and SO got me worried, so I turn to you for suggestions ;-)

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• How to deserialize implementation classes in OSGi

  - by Daniel Schneller

  In an eRCP OSGi based application the user can push a button and go to a lock screen similar to that of Windows or Mac OS X. When this happens, the current state of the application is serialized to a file and control is handed over to the lock screen. In this mobile application memory is very tight, so we need to get rid of the original view/controller when the lock screen comes up. This works fine and we end up with a binary serialized file. Once the user logs back in, the file is read in again and the original state of the application restored. This works fine as well, except when the controller that was serialized contained a reference to an object which comes from a different bundle. In my concrete case the original controller (from bundle A) can call a web service and gets a result back. Nothing fancy, just some Strings and Numbers in a simple value holder class. However the controller only sees this as a Result interface; the actual runtime object (ResultImpl) is defined and created in a different bundle (bundle B, the webservice client implementation) and returned via a service call. When the deserialization now tries to thaw the controller from the file, it throws a ClassNotFound exception, complaining about not being able to deserialize the result object, because deserialization is called from bundle A, which cannot see the ResultImpl class from bundle B. Any ideas on how to work around that? The only thing I could come up with is to clone all the individual values into another object, defined in the controller's bundle, but this seems like quite a hassle.

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• Multi-threaded library calls in ASP.NET page request.

  - by ProfK

  I have an ASP.NET app, very basic, but right now too much code to post if we're lucky and I don't have to. We have a class called ReportGenerator. On a button click, method GenerateReports is called. It makes an async call to InternalGenerateReports using ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem and returns, ending the ASP.NET response. It doesn't provide any completion callback or anything. InternalGenerateReports creates and maintains five threads in the threadpool, one report per thread, also using QueueUserWorkItem, by 'creating' five threads, also with and waiting until calls on all of them complete, in a loop. Each thread uses an ASP.NET ReportViewer control to render a report to HTML. That is, for 200 reports, InternalGenerateReports should create 5 threads 40 times. As threads complete, report data is queued, and when all five have completed, report data is flushed to disk. My biggest problems are that after running for just one report, the aspnet process is 'hung', and also that at around 200 reports, the app just hangs. I just simplified this code to run in a single thread, and this works fine. Before we get into details like my code, is there anything obvious in the above scendario that might be wrong?

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• How to stream pdf document from servlet?

  - by Kumar

  Hi,I am creating pdf document using jasper report and i need to stream that pdf document from servlet.Can anyone help me where i did mistake.This is the code snippet which i am using in my application. ServletOutputStream servletOutputStream = response.getOutputStream(); String fileName="test.pdf"; response.setContentType("application/pdf"); response.setHeader("Content-Disposition","attachment; filename=\"" + fileName + "\""); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); try { Map parameters = new HashMap(); parameters.put("SUBREPORT_DIR", JasperReportFilepath); parameters.put("TestId", testID); JasperPrint jprint=JasperFillManager.fillReport(filePath, parameters, conn); byte[] output=JasperExportManager.exportReportToPdf(jprint); System.out.println("Size====>"+output.length); servletOutputStream.write(output); servletOutputStream.flush(); servletOutputStream.close(); System.out.println("===============>Streaming perfectly"); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("===============>+JasperException"+e.getMessage()); } and i could not get any error message also.Everything is working fine but document is not streaming. Please help me to sort out the problem.

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• Why do I get an error while trying to set the content of a tabspec in android?

  - by rushinge

  I have an android activity in which I'm using tabs. public class UnitActivity extends TabActivity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.unit_view); TabHost tabHost = getTabHost(); TabSpec spec; spec = tabHost.newTabSpec("controls"); spec.setIndicator("Control"); spec.setContent(R.layout.unit_control); tabHost.addTab(spec); spec = tabHost.newTabSpec("data"); spec.setIndicator("Data"); spec.setContent(R.layout.unit_data); tabHost.addTab(spec); } } However when I run the program it crashes with the error: "Could not create tab content because could not find view with id 2130903042". I don't understand what the problem is because R.layout.unit_data refers to a layout file in my resource directory (res/layout/unit_data.xml) as far as I can tell unit_data.xml is well formed and I've even referenced it successfully in another activity class UnitData extends Activity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.unit_data); Toast.makeText(this, "Hi from UnitData.onCreate", 5); } } which does not give an error and renders the layout just fine. What's going on? Why can't I reference this layout when creating a tab?

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• PHP check http referer for form submitted by AJAX, secure?

  - by Michael Mao

  Hi all: This is the first time I am working for a front-end project that requires server-side authentication for AJAX requests. I've encountered problems like I cannot make a call of session_start as the beginning line of the "destination page", cuz that would get me a PHP Warning : Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\ajaxInsert Book.php:1) in C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\common.php on line 10 I reckon this means I have to figure out a way other than checking PHP session variables to authenticate the "caller" of this PHP script, and this is my approach : I have a "protected" PHP page, which must be used as the "container" of my javascript that posts the form through jQuery $.ajax(); method In my "receiver" PHP script, what I've got is: <?php define(BOOKS_TABLE, "books"); define(APPROOT, "/comic/"); define(CORRECT_REFERER, "/protected/staff/addBook.php"); function isRefererCorrect() { // the following line evaluates the relative path for the referer uri, // Say, $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] returns "http://localhost/comic/protected/staff/addBook.php" // Then the part we concern is just this "/protected/staff/addBook.php" $referer = substr($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], 6 + strrpos($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], APPROOT)); return (strnatcmp(CORRECT_REFERER, $referer) == 0) ? true : false; } //http://stackoverflow.com/questions/267546/correct-http-header-for-json-file header('Content-type: application/json charset=UTF-8'); header('Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate'); echo json_encode(array ( "feedback"=>"ok", "info"=>isRefererCorrect() )); ?> My code works, but I wonder is there any security risks in this approach? Can someone manipulate the post request so that he can pretend that the caller javascript is from the "protected" page? Many thanks to any hints or suggestions.

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• JDBC call not executing

  - by dbyrne

  I am working on one of the DAOs for a medium sized web application. Unfortunately, it contains very convoluted logic, and makes hundreds of JDBC stored proc calls in loops. This is out of my control. I am working on a method inside the DAO which makes a single JDBC call. The simplified version of what this method looks like is this: DriverManager.registerDriver(new com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybDriver()); Connection con = DriverManager.getConnection((String)connectionDetails.get("DATABASE_URL") (String)connectionDetails.get("USERID"), (String)connectionDetails.get("PASSWORD")); String sqlToExecute = "{call " + STORED_PROC + "(?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)}"; CallableStatement stmt = con.prepareCall(sqlToExecute); //Maybe I should try calling clearParameters here? stmt.setString(1,someData); //....Set of parameters.... if (!stmt.execute()) { //execute method never returns false } stmt.close(); Its pretty much a textbook JDBC call. All this stored proc does is insert a single row. Here is where things get crazy: This code works when you run it through a debugger line by line, but fails when you run it "full speed". Not only does it fail, but it doesn't throw any exception! The execute method always returns true. It just breezes right through the JDBC call without inserting a row to the database. If you go through the log files, copy the stored proc call and run it manually, it works (just like it does in debug mode). Whats strange is that the rest of the DAO, with all its hundreds of looped stored proc calls, works fine. My thinking is that Connection or CallableStatement is caching some value behind the scenes that is screwing things up. Has anyone ever seen anything like this before? A JDBC call failing with no exceptions? I know it will be impossible to provide a complete solution to this without seeing the whole application, I am just looking for suggestions on possible issues to investigate.

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• what makes a Tomcat5.5 cannot be "aware" of new Java Web Applications?

  - by Michael Mao

  This is for uni homework, but I reckon it is more a generic problem to the Tomcat Server(version 5.5.27) on my uni. The problem is, I first did a skeleton Java Web Application (Just a simple Servlet and a welcome-file, nothing complicated, no lib included) using NetBeans 6.8 with the bundled Tomcat 6.0.20 (localhost:8084/WSD) Then, to test and prove it is "portable" and "auto-deploy-able", I cleaned and built a WSD.war file and dropped it onto my Xampp Tomcat (localhost:8080/WSD). The war extracted everything accordingly and I can see identical output from this Tomcat. So far, so good. However, after I tried to drop to war onto uni server, funny thing happens: uni server Even though I've changed the war permission to 755, it is simply not "responding". I then copied the extracted files to uni server, the MainServlet cannot be recognized from within its Context Path "/WSD", basically nothing works, expect the static index.jsp. I tried several times to stop and restart uni Tomcat, it doesn't help? I wonder what makes this happen? Is there anything I did wrong with my approach? To be frank I paid no attention to a server not under my control, and I am unfortunately not a real active day-to-day Java Programmer now. I understand the fundamentals of MVC, Servelets, JSPs, JavaBeans, but I really feel frustrated by this, as I cannot see why... Or, should I ask, a Java Web Application, after cleaned and built by NetBeans6.8, is self-contained and self-configured so ready to be deployed to any Java Web Container? I know, I can certainly program everything in plain old JSP, but this is soooo... unacceptable to myself... Update : I am now wondering if there is any free Tomcat Hosting so that I would like to see if my war file and/or my web app can go with them without any configuration at all?

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• How to: Simulating keystroke inputs in shell to an app running in an embedded target

  - by fzkl

  I am writing an automation script that runs on an embedded linux target. A part of the script involves running an app on the target and obtaining some data from the stdout. Stdout here is the ssh terminal connection I have to the target. However, this data is available on the stdout only if certain keys are pressed and the key press has to be done on the keyboard connected to the embedded target and not on the host system from which I have ssh'd into the target. Is there any way to simulate this? Edit: Elaborating on what I need - I have an OpenGL app that I run on the embedded linux (works like regular linux) target. This displays some graphics on the embedded system's display device. Pressing f on the keyboard connected to the target outputs the fps data onto the ssh terminal from which I control the target. Since I am automating the process of running this OpenGL app and obtaining the fps scores, I can't expect a keyboard to be connected to the target let alone expect a user to input a keystroke on the embedded target keyboard. How do I go about this? Thanks.

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• NSTimer as a timeout mechanism

  - by alexantd

  I'm pretty sure this is really simple, and I'm just missing something obvious. I have an app that needs to download data from a web service for display in a UITableView, and I want to display a UIAlertView if the operation takes more than X seconds to complete. So this is what I've got (simplified for brevity): MyViewController.h @interface MyViewController : UIViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { NSTimer *timer; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSTimer *timer; MyViewController.m @implementation MyViewController @synthesize timer; - (void)viewDidLoad { timer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:20 target:self selector:@selector(initializationTimedOut:) userInfo:nil repeats:NO]; [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime]; [timer invalidate]; } - (void)doSomethingThatTakesALongTime { sleep(30); // for testing only // web service calls etc. go here } - (void)initializationTimedOut:(NSTimer *)theTimer { // show the alert view } My problem is that I'm expecting the [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime] call to block while the timer keeps counting, and I'm thinking that if it finishes before the timer is done counting down, it will return control of the thread to viewDidLoad where [timer invalidate] will proceed to cancel the timer. Obviously my understanding of how timers/threads work is flawed here because the way the code is written, the timer never goes off. However, if I remove the [timer invalidate], it does.

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• JQuery date picker does not firing in ajax page using Rails

  - by prabu

  Hi Here I have using datepicker from JQueryUI in my public/javascript folder as effects,prototype,control,dragdrop js files. in my public folder contains jqueryui development buddle. (css,js,development-bundle) in layout/application.rhtml <%= stylesheet_link_tag 'application' %> <%=javascript_include_tag :defaults%> <%= stylesheet_link_tag '/jquery-ui/css/custom-theme/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.css' %> <%=javascript_include_tag "/jquery-ui/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"%> <%=javascript_include_tag "/jquery-ui/js/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.min.js"%> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ var $j=jQuery.noConflict(); $j( '#date' ).datepicker({ dateFormat: 'dd-mm-yy' }); }); </script> in home/index.rhtml <%title "Home"%> <%=link_to "Add Details" ,:action=>"add"%> <%=link_to_remote "Ajax Add Details", :update=>"add" , :url=>{ :action=>"add" }%> <div id='add' /> in home/add.rhtml <%title "Add details"%> <%form_tag :action=>"create" do%> Name : <%=text_field_tag "name" ,"",:size=>15%> DOB : <%=text_field_tag "dob","",:id=>"date"%> <%=submit_tag "Save"%> <%end%> the datepicker works when I run home/add.rhtml directly but the datepicker not work when i run ajax page home/index.rhtml Any solutions for that,????

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• Populate a column as a result of performing math on two columns in a jqGrid.

  - by HacksawOnRye

  Background: Our company selected a workflow tool that has some "interersting" UI restrictions. jqGrid has been identified as one of best ways to overcome these restrictions. Consequently, the answers to this question need to be restricted to functionlity available within the jqGrid space. It pains me to pose this question and I know you will tempted to go down a million other paths - most that we have already traveled before. :( Question: Can jqGrid populate a column as a result of performing math on two other columns. The source of those two columns is in our control so we can "guarantee" that numeric data will be returned. Also, the result is something that we simplay want to display on demand but not store yet. On the example below, is there a function that allow the 'total' column to be populated from the following calculation: 'amount' * 'tax' Example jqGrid javascript: jQuery("#list3").jqGrid({ url:'server.php?q=2', datatype: "json", colNames:['Inv No','Date', 'Client', 'Amount','Tax','Total','Notes'], colModel:[ {name:'id',index:'id', width:60, sorttype:"int"}, {name:'invdate',index:'invdate', width:90, sorttype:"date"}, {name:'name',index:'name', width:100}, {name:'amount',index:'amount', width:80, align:"right",sorttype:"float"}, {name:'tax',index:'tax', width:80, align:"right",sorttype:"float"}, {name:'total',index:'total', width:80,align:"right",sorttype:"float"}, {name:'note',index:'note', width:150, sortable:false} ], rowNum:20, rowList:[10,20,30], pager: '#pager3', sortname: 'id', viewrecords: true, sortorder: "desc", loadonce: true, caption: "Load Once Example" });

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• Disable validation in an object in Ruby on Rails

  - by J. Pablo Fernández

  I have an object which whether validation happens or not should depend on a boolean, or in another way, validation is optional. I haven't found a clean way to do it. What I'm currently doing is this (disclaimer: you cannot unsee, leave this page if you are too sensitive): def valid? if perform_validation super else super # Call valid? so that callbacks get called and things like encrypting passwords and generating salt in before_validation actually happen errors.clear # but then clear the errors true # and claim ourselves to be valid. This is super hacky! end end Any better ways? Before you point to the :if argument of many validations, this is for a user model which is using authlogic so it has a lot of validation rules. You can stop reading here if you belive me. If you don't, authlogic already sets some :ifs like: :if => :email_changed? which I have to turn into :if => Proc.new {|user| user.email_changed? and user.perform_validation} and in some other cases, since I'm also using authlogic-oid (OpenID) I just don't have control over the :if, authlogic-oid sets it in a way I cannot change it (in time) without further monkey patching. So I have to override seemingly unrelated functions, catch exceptions if a method doesn't exist, etc. The previous hacky solution if the best of my two attempts.

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• Firefox extension: How to inject javascript into page and run it?

  - by el griz

  I'm writing a Firefox extension to allow users to annotate any page with text and/or drawings and then save an image of the page including the annotations. Use cases would be clients reviewing web pages, adding feedback to the page, saving the image of this and emailing it back to the web developer or testers taking annotated screenshots of GUI bugs etc. I wrote the annotation/drawing functionality in javascript before developing the extension. This script adds a <canvas> element to the page to draw upon as well as a toolbar (in a <div>) that contains buttons (each <canvas> elements) for the different draw tools e.g. line, box, ellipse, text, etc. This works fine when manually included in a page. I now need a way for the extension to: Inject this script into any page including pages I don't control. This needs to occur when the user invokes the extension, which can be after the page has loaded. Once injected the init() function in this script that adds the canvas and toolbar elements etc. needs to be run somehow, but I can't determine how to call this from the extension. Note that once injected I don't need this script to interact with the extension (as the extension just takes a screenshot of the entire document (and removes the added page elements) when the user presses the save button in the extension chrome).

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• mercurial fails with a file named ---.config - any way around this?

  - by Travis Laborde

  We are just beginning to learn and evaluate Mercurial, due to an increasing number of nightmare merges, and various other problems we've had with SVN lately. A client wants us to pull down a live copy of their site, do some SEO work on it, and push it back to them. They have no source control at all. I figure this is a great project to work on with Mercurial. Instead of putting it into our SVN and exporting when we are done, we'll use Mercurial... But right away it seems I have some problem :) They have a file called "---.config" (without quotes) which seems to cause our Mercurial to barf. It just can't commit that file. I've created the repo and committed everything else, but I just can't get this one file committed. We are running on Windows 2008 x64 with TortoiseHG 1.0. I suppose I could ignore the file since it is unlikely we'll need to work with it, but still - I'd like to learn how to use Mercurial a bit better. Is there a way around this?

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• Accepting more simultaneous keyboard inputs

  - by unknownthreat

  Sometimes, a normal computer keyboard will only accept user's inputs up to a certain key simultaneously. I got a logitech keyboard that can accept up to 3-4 key presses at the same time. The computer does not accept any more input if you press more than 4 keys for this keyboard. And it also depends on certain areas of your keyboard as well. Some locations allow more key to be pressed (like the arrow keys), while some locations permit you to press only 1-2 keys. This also differs from keyboard to keyboard as well. Some older keyboards only accept up 1-2 keys. This isn't problematic with usual office work, but when it comes to gaming. For instance, imagine a platform game, where you have to jump, attack, and control direction at the same time. This implies several key presses and some keyboards cannot accept such simultaneous input. However, I've tried this on several games and the amount of possible keyboard inputs seem to be also different. Therefore, we have two issues: Keyboards have different amount of simultaneous inputs. Some games can accept more keyboard inputs than other games. At first, I thought this is hardware only problem, but why do some programs behave differently? Why some programs can accept more keyboard inputs than other programs? So how can we write our programs to accept more keyboard inputs?

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• Basic Team Foundation Server 2010 Question - System Resource Usage?

  - by user127954

  Guys / Gals i have a real basic Team Foundation Server 2010 question. For those of you who have played around with tfs 2010 is it a lot more light weight than tfs2008 is? I remember installing all the pieces needed for TFS 2008 one one machine at work. I remember it being a pain to install (i know 2010 is supposed to be much better) We wanted to play around with it a little bit to see if it met our needs. Well it brought that machine to a screeching halt. I'm needing a source control repository for home and i thought why not just install tfs 2010 so i can get familiar with it and maybe in the future i can make a better sell to my organization and FINALLY get them to move off of Source Safe but my concern is i only have one server at home (granted i already have SQL Server installed) and don't want to buy a machine just for this purpose. I'd also like to get more familiar with CI too. Anyways, if team is going to be to heavy i'll just use subversion but i'd like to use TFS if possible. Any help would be appreciated. thanks, Ncage

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• Online file storage similar to Amazon S3

  - by Joel G

  I am looking to code a file storage application in perl similar to amazon s3. I already have a amazon s3 clone that I found online called parkplace but its in ruby and is old also isn't built for high loads. I am not really sure what modules and programs I should use so id like some help picking them out. My requirements are listed below (yes I know there are lots but I could start simple then add more once I get it going): Easy API implementation for client side apps. (maybe RESTful but extras like mkdir and cp (?) Centralized database server for the USERDB (maybe PostgreSQL (?). Logging of all connections, bandwidth used, well pretty much everything to a centralized server (maybe PostgreSQL again (?). Easy server side configuration (config file(s) stored on the servers). Web based control panel for admin(s) and user(s) to show logs. (could work just running queries from the databases) Fast High Uptime Low memory usage Some sort of load distribution/load balancer (maybe a dns based or pound or perlbal or something else (?). Maybe a cache of some sort (memcached or parlbal or something else (?). Thanks in advance

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• Extjs 4.1 How to call controller action method from form

  - by Omar Faruq

  Extjs 4.1 How to call controller action method from form which is already use in a button action but i want this method reuse from a form field but do not how i can do? // here is my controller code init: function() { this.control({ 'itemsgrid': { removeitem: this.removeUser }, 'salewindow button[action=resetAll]': { click: this.resertform }, 'salewindow button[action=saveOrder]' : { click : this.onsaveOrder }, 'salewindow button[action=PDF]' : { click : this. pdfreport } }); }, resertform : function(button){ var store = Ext.data.StoreManager.get('Items'); store.destroy(); var vatstore = Ext.data.StoreManager.get('Vats'); vatstore.reload(); var rebatestore = Ext.data.StoreManager.get('Rebates'); rebatestore.reload(); Ext.getCmp('calculation-form').getForm().reset(); Ext.getCmp('itemform2').getForm().reset(); Ext.getCmp('itemsgrid').subtotalquantity(p=0); store.reload(); var co=store.getCount(); console.log(co); Ext.getCmp('customerID').setValue('0'); var a = Ext.getCmp('customerID').getValue(); Ext.getCmp('itemform2').customerinfo(a); } //and here is my from field listener { xtype : 'textfield', name : 'BranchId', fieldLabel : 'Branch Id', allowNegative : false, id : 'branchid', value : '1', onBlur: function(){ restoreItem();// i want call this method from here whis is stay in controller } }

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• Using a "take-home" coding component in interview process

  - by Jeff Sargent

  In recent interviews I have been asking candidates to code through some questions on the whiteboard. I don't feel I'm getting a clear enough picture of the candidates technical ability with this approach. Granted, the questions might not be good enough, maybe the interview needs to be longer, etc, but I'm wondering if a different approach would be better. What I'd like to try is to create a simple, working project in Visual Studio and have it checked into source control. The candidate can check that code out from home/wherever and then check back in work representing their response to the assignment that I'll provide. I'm thinking that if the window of time is short enough and the assignment clear enough then the solution will be safe enough from all-out Googling (i.e. they couldn't search for and find the entire solution online). I would then be able to review the candidates work. Has enough worked with something like this before, either to vet a candidate or as a candidate yourself? Any thoughts in general? P.S. my first StackOverflow question - hi guys and gals. EDIT: I've seen comments about asking someone to work for free - I wouldn't mind paying the person for their time.

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• How do I dispatch to a method based on a parameter's runtime type in C# < 4?

  - by Evan Barkley

  I have an object o which guaranteed at runtime to be one of three types A, B, or C, all of which implement a common interface I. I can control I, but not A, B, or C. (Thus I could use an empty marker interface, or somehow take advantage of the similarities in the types by using the interface, but I can't add new methods or change existing ones in the types.) I also have a series of methods MethodA, MethodB, and MethodC. The runtime type of o is looked up and is then used as a parameter to these methods. public void MethodA(A a) { ... } public void MethodB(B b) { ... } public void MethodC(C c) { ... } Using this strategy, right now a check has to be performed on the type of o to determine which method should be invoked. Instead, I would like to simply have three overloaded methods: public void Method(A a) { ... } // these are all overloads of each other public void Method(B b) { ... } public void Method(C c) { ... } Now I'm letting C# do the dispatch instead of doing it manually myself. Can this be done? The naive straightforward approach doesn't work, of course: Cannot resolve method 'Method(object)'. Candidates are: void Method(A) void Method(B) void Method(C)

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• How do I bind arrays to columns in a WPF datagrid

  - by user1432917

  I have a Log object that contains a list of Curve objects. Each curve has a Name property and an array of doubles. I want the Name to be in the column header and the data below it. I have a user control with a datagid. Here is the XAML; <UserControl x:Class="WellLab.UI.LogViewer" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignHeight="500" d:DesignWidth="500"> <Grid> <StackPanel Height="Auto" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" Margin="0" Name="stackPanel1" VerticalAlignment="Stretch" Width="Auto"> <ToolBarTray Height="26" Name="toolBarTray1" Width="Auto" /> <ScrollViewer Height="Auto" Name="scrollViewer1" Width="Auto" HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Visible" CanContentScroll="True" Background="#E6ABA4A4"> <DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="True" Height="Auto" Name="logDataGrid" Width="Auto" ItemsSource="{Binding}" HorizontalAlignment="Left"> </DataGrid> </ScrollViewer> </StackPanel> </Grid> In the code behind I have figured out how to create columns and name them, but I have not figured out how to bind the data. public partial class LogViewer { public LogViewer(Log log) { InitializeComponent(); foreach (var curve in log.Curves) { var data = curve.GetData(); var col = new DataGridTextColumn { Header = curve.Name }; logDataGrid.Columns.Add(col); } } } I wont even show the code I tried to use to bind the array "data", since nothing even came close. I am sure I am missing something simple, but after hours of searching the web, I have to come begging for an answer.

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