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  • Are game engines developed in the USA?

    - by numerical25
    I just finished talking to a Flashpoint Academy recruiter about their curriculum. I told him that after I graduate, I would like to go more in-depth with learning game engines and how to make games. So I asked him did their school teach anything in regards to learning any graphics API such as DirectX. He asked me to elaborate a little more as if he was not sure what I was talking about. So I asked did their school teach on how to build game engines. He said "no we only teach with the tools at hand, such as XNA, or the Unreal engine". He further said "most jobs that deal with building game engines go overseas and most of creative work is done in the United States." To be honest, I really had no intentions of going to this school. I just wanted to learn more about the school in case I had second thoughts somewhere down the line. To me I thought it was a bunch of BS, but my question is to you guys, "is it" ??

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  • How to extract the Sql Command from a Complied Linq Query

    - by Harry
    In normal (not compiled) Linq to Sql queries you can extract the SQLCommand from the IQueryable via the following code: SqlCommand cmd = (SqlCommand)table.Context.GetCommand(query); Is it possible to do the same for a compiled query? The following code provides me with a delegate to a compiled query: private static readonly Func<Data.DAL.Context, string, IQueryable<Word>> Query_Get = CompiledQuery.Compile<Data.DAL.Context, string, IQueryable<Word>>( (context, name) => from r in context.GetTable<Word>() where r.Name == name select r); When i use this to generate the IQueryable and attempt to extract the SqlCommand it doesn't seem to work. When debugging the code I can see that the SqlCommand returned has the 'very' useful CommandText of 'SELECT NULL AS [EMPTY]' using (var db = new Data.DAL.Context()) { IQueryable<Word> query = Query_Get(db, "word"); SqlCommand cmd = (SqlCommand)db.GetCommand(query); Console.WriteLine(cmd != null ? cmd.CommandText : "Command Not Found"); } I can't find anything in google about this particular scenario, as no doubt it is not a common thing to attempt... So.... Any thoughts?

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  • Building A True Error Handler

    - by Kevin Pirnie
    I am trying to build an error handler for my desktop application. The code Is in the class ZipCM.ErrorManager listed below. What I am finding is that the outputted file is not giving me the correct info for the StackTrace. Here is how I am trying to use it: Try '... Some stuff here! Catch ex As Exception Dim objErr As New ZipCM.ErrorManager objErr.Except = ex objErr.Stack = New System.Diagnostics.StackTrace(True) objErr.Location = "Form: SelectSite (btn_SelectSite_Click)" objErr.ParseError() objErr = Nothing End Try Here is the class: Imports System.IO Namespace ZipCM Public Class ErrorManager Public Except As Exception Public Location As String Public Stack As System.Diagnostics.StackTrace Public Sub ParseError() Dim objFile As New StreamWriter(Common.BasePath & "error_" & FormatDateTime(DateTime.Today, DateFormat.ShortDate).ToString().Replace("\", "").Replace("/", "") & ".log", True) With objFile .WriteLine("-------------------------------------------------") .WriteLine("-------------------------------------------------") .WriteLine("An Error Occured At: " & DateTime.Now) .WriteLine("-------------------------------------------------") .WriteLine("LOCATION:") .WriteLine(Location) .WriteLine("-------------------------------------------------") .WriteLine("FILENAME:") .WriteLine(Stack.GetFrame(0).GetFileName()) .WriteLine("-------------------------------------------------") .WriteLine("LINE NUMBER:") .WriteLine(Stack.GetFrame(0).GetFileLineNumber()) .WriteLine("-------------------------------------------------") .WriteLine("SOURCE:") .WriteLine(Except.Source) .WriteLine("-------------------------------------------------") .WriteLine("MESSAGE:") .WriteLine(Except.Message) .WriteLine("-------------------------------------------------") .WriteLine("DATA:") .WriteLine(Except.Data.ToString()) End With objFile.Close() objFile = Nothing End Sub End Class End Namespace What is happenning is the .GetFileLineNumber() is getting the line number from 'objErr.Stack = New System.Diagnostics.StackTrace(True)' inside my Try..Catch block. In fact, it's the exact line number that is on. Any thoughts of what is going on here, and how I can catch the real line number the error is occuring on?

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  • Conditional execution of EventTriggers in Silverlight 3

    - by Jason
    I'm currently working on the UI of a Silverlight application and need to be able to change the visual state of a control to one of two possible states based on it's current state when handling the same event trigger. For example: I have a control that sits partially in a clipping path, when I click the visible part of the control I want to change the state to "visible" and if I click it again when it is in its "visible" state I want to change to the "hidden" state. Example XAML: <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="MouseLeftButtonUp"> <ic:GoToStateAction StateName="Visible"/> <ic:GoToStateAction StateName="Hidden"/> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> Where "i" is "System.Windows.Interactivity;assembly=System.Windows.Interactivity" and "ic" is "Microsoft.Expression.Interactivity.Core;assembly=Microsoft.Expression.Interactions". I'm currently working in Expression Blend 3 and would prefer to have a XAML only solution but am not opposed to coding this if it is completely necessary. I have tried recording a change in the target state name in Blend but this did not work. Any thoughts on this?

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  • Slope requires a real as parameter 2?

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Question How do you pass the correct value to udf_slope's second parameter type? Attempts CAST(Y.YEAR AS FLOAT), but that failed (SQL error). Y.YEAR + 0.0, but that failed, too (see error message). slope(D.AMOUNT, 1.0), failed as well Error Message Using udf_slope fails due to: Can't initialize function 'slope'; slope() requires a real as parameter 2 Code SELECT D.AMOUNT, Y.YEAR, slope(D.AMOUNT, Y.YEAR + 0.0) as SLOPE, intercept(D.AMOUNT, Y.YEAR + 0.0) as INTERCEPT FROM YEAR_REF Y, DAILY D Here, D.AMOUNT is a FLOAT and Y.YEAR is an INTEGER. Create Function The slope function was created as follows: CREATE AGGREGATE FUNCTION slope RETURNS REAL SONAME 'udf_slope.so'; Function Signature From udf_slope.cc: double slope( UDF_INIT* initid, UDF_ARGS* args, char* is_null, char* is_error ) Example Usages Reading the fine manual reveals: UDF intercept() Calculates the intercept of the linear regression of two sets of variables. Function name intercept Input parameter(s) 2 (dependent variable: REAL, independent variable: REAL) Examples SELECT intercept(income,age) FROM customers UDF slope() Calculates the slope of the linear regression of two sets of variables. Function name slope Input parameter(s) 2 (dependent variable: REAL, independent variable: REAL) Examples SELECT slope(income,age) FROM customers Thoughts? Thank you!

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  • Routing redirection decision

    - by programming late night
    I have really no idea why I'm asking this as this a really completely irrelevant question for which I should have figured out an answer within milliseconds, yet I'm doing it. So in my project I have a Router class which splits up the request and selects the right page to be loaded. Fine so far. Now I have a page displayed when the user requests a page that doesn't exist, you know, 404. So theoretically, if the user entered mydomain.com/404 (I use mod_rewrite with a requests collector via index.php?req=*) the 404 error would be shown to him, but in fact there was no error - the 404 page would be displayed as a perfectly normal page. So if someone would try out requesting the 404 page via /404, he would be shown the page but he can't tell if the 404 page he requested doesn't exist and he is actually getting a, you guessed it, 404 error or if he actually found some flaw in the system that makes him able to see an error page when there is no error. I don't know how dumb this whole thing here is but I'm sure some of you have in fact ran into this problem already. Short version: If the user enters mydomain.com/404 the 404 page is shown even though there is no 404 error. I know this is a completely irrelevant question, please don't tell me, but I just spontaneously wanted to hear your thoughts on it. Strange eh? Should I redirect direct access to my 404-page to the home page? Should I do nothing? Should I just go to bed and stop asking irrelevant stuff?

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  • designing an ASP.NET MVC partial view - showing user choices within a large set of choices

    - by p.campbell
    Consider a partial view whose job is to render markup for a pizza order. The desire is to reuse this partial view in the Create, Details, and Update views. It will always be passed an IEnumerable<Topping>, and output a multitude of checkboxes. There are lots... maybe 40 in all (yes, that might smell). A-OK so far. Problem The question is around how to include the user's choices on the Details and Update views. From the datastore, we've got a List<ChosenTopping>. The goal is to have each checkbox set to true for each chosen topping. What's the easiest to read, or most maintainable way to achieve this? Potential Solutions Create a ViewModel with the List and List. Write out the checkboxes as per normal. While writing each, check whether the ToppingID exists in the list of ChosenTopping. Create a new ViewModel that's a hybrid of both. Perhaps call it DisplayTopping or similar. It would have property ID, Name and IsUserChosen. The respective controller methods for Create, Update, and Details would have to create this new collection with respect to the user's choices as they see fit. The Create controller method would basically set all to false so that it appears to be a blank slate. The real application isn't pizza, and the organization is a bit different from the fakeshot, but the concept is the same. Is it wise to reuse the control for the 3 different scenarios? How better can you display the list of options + the user's current choices? Would you use jQuery instead to show the user selections? Any other thoughts on the potential smell of splashing up a whole bunch of checkboxes?

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  • Data layer refactoring

    - by Joey
    I've taken control of some entity framework code and am looking to refactor it. Before I do, I'd like to check my thoughts are correct and I'm not missing the entity-framework way of doing things. Example 1 - Subquery vs Join Here we have a one-to-many between As and Bs. Apart from the code below being hard to read, is it also inefficient? from a in dataContext.As where ((from b in dataContext.Bs where b.Text.StartsWith(searchText) select b.AId).Distinct()).Contains(a.Id) select a Would it be better, for example, to use the join and do something like this? from a in dataContext.As where a.Bs.Any(b => b.Text.StartsWith(searchText)) select a Example 2 - Explicit Joins vs Navigation Here we have a one-to-many between As and Bs and a one-to-many between Bs and Cs. from a in dataContext.As join b in dataContext.Bs on b.AId equals a.Id join c in dataContext.Cs on c.BId equals b.Id where c.SomeValue equals searchValue select a Is there a good reason to use explicit joins rather than navigating through the data model? For example: from a in dataContext.As where a.Bs.Any(b => b.Cs.Any(c => c.SomeValue == searchValue) select a

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  • Element Content Versus Attribute for Simple XML Value

    - by MB
    I know the elements versus attributes debate has come up many times here and elsewhere (e.g. here, here, here, here, and here) but I haven't seen much discussion of elements versus attributes for simple property values. So which of the following approaches do you think is better for storing a simple value? A: Value in Element Content: <TotalCount>553</TotalCount> <CelsiusTemperature>23.5</CelsiusTemperature> <SingleDayPeriod>2010-05-29</SingleDayPeriod> <ZipCodeLocation>12203</ZipCodeLocation> or B: Value in Attribute: <TotalCount value="553"/> <CelsiusTemperature value="23.5"/> <SingleDayPeriod day="2010-05-29"/> <ZipCodeLocation code="12203"/> I suspect that putting the value in the element content (A) might look a little more familiar to most folks (though I'm not sure about that). Putting the value in an attribute (B) might use less characters, but that depends on the length of the element and attribute names. Putting the value in an attribute (B) might be more extensible, because you could potentially include all sorts of extra information as nested elements. Whereas, by putting the value inside the element content (A), you're restricting extensibility to adding more attributes. But then extensibility often isn't a concern for really simple properties - sometimes you know that you'll never need to add additional data. Bottom line might be that it simply doesn't matter, but it would still be great to hear some thoughts and see some votes for the two options.

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  • Magento: Attribute always returns default value in catalog view, works fine in product view

    - by colinodell
    I've created a new Yes/No attribute for products. I've extended the Product model to do some custom logic and the custom functions are working everywhere. When I initially tried getting the custom attribute value, I ran into some issue. Magento wasn't loading it for me, so calls to $product-getMyAttributeName() did nothing. In the product views, I got it working with this additional function: public function getAttrVal($attr_name) { return $this->getResource()->getAttribute($attr_name)->getFrontend()->getValue($this); } So that worked great when viewing a product on the frontend. It would fetch the assigned value if set, or the default if not. When I view any Category (grid of all products in that category), the same exact code is being executed. But my getAttrVal() function always returns the default value, even if I've explicitly set this value for my product. I can't, for the life of me, figure out why the attribute loads correctly in the Product view but the Category view always grabs the default value, despite running the same exact code. Any thoughts?

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  • Use MySQL trigger to update another table when duplicate key found

    - by Jason
    Been scratching my head on this one, hoping one of you kind people and direct me towards solving this problem. I have a mysql table of customers, it contains a lot of data, but for the purpose of this question, we only need to worry about 4 columns 'ID', 'Firstname', 'Lastname', 'Postcode' Problem is, the table contains a lot of duplicated customers. A new table is being created where each customer is unique and for us, we decide a unique customer is based on 'Firstname', 'Lastname' and 'Postcode' However, (this is the important bit) we need to ensure each new "unique" customer record also can be matched to the original multiple entries of that customer in the original table. I believe the best way to do this is to have a third table, that has 'NewUniqueID', 'OldCustomerID'. So we can search this table for 'NewUniqueID' = '123' and it would return multiple 'OldCustomerID' values where appropriate. I am hoping to make this work using a trigger and the on duplicate key syntax. So what would happen is as follows: An query is run taking the old customer table and inserting it in to the new unique table. (A standard Insert Select query) On duplicate key continue adding records, but add one entry in to the third table noting the 'NewUniqueID' that duped along with the 'OldCustomerID' of the record we were trying to insert. Hope this makes sense, my apologies if it isn't clear. I welcome and appreciate any thoughts on this one! Many thanks Jason

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  • jQuery form zip code to state function

    - by Dakota R.
    I'm trying to convert a preexisting javascript function into a jQuery function. The function comes from http://javascript.internet.com/forms/zip-to-state.html and aims to convert a user-entered zip code into a state. I'm using jQuery 1.3.2, with all the necessary plugins, but I'm not very familiar with jQuery syntax and how to convert this from plain ol' Javascript syntax. The setState function takes two parameters, the zip code element and the state element, so I'm trying to do something like this: $('$zip_code').change( function () { setState($(this), $('#state')); }); Any thoughts on this syntax? Thanks, Dakota function getState(zip) { if ((parseInt(zipString.substr(zip / 4, 1), 16) & Math.pow(2, zip % 4)) && (zip.length == 5)) for (var i = 0; i < stateRange.length; i += 7) if (zip <= 1 * stateRange.substr(i, 5)) return stateRange.substr(i + 5, 2); return null; } function setState(txtZip, optionBox) { if (txtZip.value.length != 5 || isNaN(txtZip.value / 4)) { optionBox.options[0].selected = true; alert("Please enter a 5 digit, numeric zip code."); return; } var state = getState(txtZip.value); for (var i = 0; i < optionBox.options.length; i++) if (optionBox.options[i].value == state) return optionBox.options[i].selected = true; for (var i = 0; i < optionBox.options.length; i++) if (optionBox.options[i].value == "XX") return optionBox.options[i].selected = true; }

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  • Excel 2010 VBA code is stuck when UserForm is shown

    - by Denis
    I've created a UserForm as a progress indicator while a web query (using InternetExplorer object) runs in the background. The code gets triggered as shown below. The progress indicator form is called 'Progerss'. Private Sub Worksheet_Change(ByVal Target As Range) If Target.Row = Range("B2").Row And Target.Column = Range("B2").Column Then Progress.Show vbModeless Range("A4:A65535").ClearContents GetWebData (Range("B2").Value) Progress.Hide End If End Sub What I see with this code is that the progress indicator form pops up when cell B2 changes. I also see that the range of cells in column A gets cleared which tells me that the vbModeless is doing what I want. But then, somewhere within the GetWebData() procedure, things get hung up. As soon as I manually destroy the progress indicator form, the GetWebData() routine finishes and I see the correct results. But if I leave the progress indicator visible, things just get stuck indefinitely. The code below shows what GetWebData() is doing. Private Sub GetWebData(ByVal Symbol As String) Dim IE As New InternetExplorer 'IE.Visible = True IE.navigate MyURL Do DoEvents Loop Until IE.readyState = READYSTATE_COMPLETE Dim Doc As HTMLDocument Set Doc = IE.document Dim Rows As IHTMLElementCollection Set Rows = Doc.getElementsByClassName("financialTable").Item(0).all.tags("tr") Dim r As Long r = 0 For Each Row In Rows Sheet1.Range("A4").Offset(r, 0).Value = Row.Children.Item(0).innerText r = r + 1 Next End Sub Any thoughts?

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  • iPhone Development - calling external JSON API (will Apple reject?)

    - by RPM1984
    Ok guys, so im new to iPhone development, so apologies if this is a silly question, but before i actually create my app i want to know if this is possible, and if Apple will reject this. (Note this is all theoretical) So i'd have a API (.NET) that runs on a cloud server somewhere and can return HTML/JSON/XML. I'll have a website that can access this API and allow customers to do some stuff (but this is not important for this question). I would then like my iPhone app to make a call to this API which would return JSON data. So my iPhone app might make a call to http://myapp/Foos which would return a JSON string of Foo objects. The iPhone app would then parse this JSON and do some funky stuff with it. So, that's the background, now the questions: Is this possible? (that is, call an external cloud API over HTTP, parse JSON response?) What are the chances of Apple rejecting this application (because it would be calling a non-Apple API) Are there any limitations (security, libraries, etc) on the iPhone/Objective-C/Cocoa that might hinder this solution? On this website, they seem to be doing exactly what im asking. Thoughts, suggestions, links would be greatly appreciated...

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  • Git repos over multiple machines - backups and keeping in sync

    - by a-or-b
    I'm new to git so please feel free to RTFM me... I have multiple development sites (none of which can communicate via a network with each other) and am working on a few projects (with a few people) at any one time. What I would ideally have is at each site a centralized repository that can be pulled from but development would occur in our own (personal) repos. Then I would like to be able to sync across the centralized repos (via USB key for example). I want a centralized repo at each location as (1) I'm new to git and do break my (personal) local repo by playing around and (2) some projects get put on hold so I want to be able to free up disk space by deleting them. This is the "backup" part of my question. I was also hoping to be able to use 'git clone --bare' for my centralized repos (and the USB key repos to?) as we don't need the full checkout, just the git benefits. However I can't seem to get a bare repo to work as repo I can push from. I've used 'git remote' to set up an remote origin (similar to http://toolmantim.com/thoughts/setting_up_a_new_remote_git_repository) but I can't get 'git push' to work - it seems I need a checked-out repo. . Does anyone else use this sort of repo/development structure or is there something fundamental about git usage that I'm missing? . A solution that I thought about that might not work - If I had a 'git clone --bare' at each site and then use a git repo on my removable media which has remotes set up for each site then I could ('pull') sync my USB key with each repo. But then can I update the site repo from my USB key? Could I push from USB?

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  • Python list should be empty on class instance initialisation, but it's not. Why?

    - by canavanin
    Hi everyone! I would like to create instances of a class containing a list that's empty by default; instead of later setting this list to the final full list I would like to successively add items to it. Here's a piece of sample code illustrating this: #!/usr/bin/python class test: def __init__(self, lst=[], intg=0): self.lista = lst self.integer = intg name_dict = {} counter = 0 for name in ('Anne', 'Leo', 'Suzy'): counter += 1 name_dict[name] = test() name_dict[name].integer += 1 name_dict[name].lista.append(counter) print name, name_dict[name].integer, name_dict[name].lista When I ran the above program I expected to get Anne 1 [1] Leo 1 [2] Suzy 1 [3] as I assumed lista to always be initialised to an empty list. What I got instead was this: Anne 1 [1] Leo 1 [1, 2] Suzy 1 [1, 2, 3] If I replace self.lista = lst by self.lista = [] it works fine, just like when I add the line name_dict[name].lista = [] to the for loop. Why is it that the contents of the previous objects' lists are retained, yet their values of integer aren't? I am rather new to Python, so it would be great if someone could point out to me where my thoughts/assumptions have gone astray. Thanks a lot in advance for your replies.

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  • Aggregate path counts using HierarchyID

    - by austincav
    Business problem - understand process fallout using analytics data. Here is what we have done so far: Build a dictionary table with every possible process step Find each process "start" Find the last step for each start Join dictionary table to last step to find path to final step In the final report output we end up with a list of paths for each start to each final step: User Fallout Step HierarchyID.ToString() A 1/1/1 B 1/1/1/1/1 C 1/1/1/1 D 1/1/1 E 1/1 What this means is that five users (A-E) started the process. Assume only User B finished, the other four did not. Since this is a simple example (without branching) we want the output to look as follows: Step Unique Users 1 5 2 5 3 4 4 2 5 1 The easiest solution I could think of is to take each hierarchyID.ToString(), parse that out into a set of subpaths, JOIN back to the dictionary table, and output using GROUP BY. Given the volume of data, I'd like to use the built-in HierarchyID functions, e.g. IsAncestorOf. Any ideas or thoughts how I could write this? Maybe a recursive CTE?

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  • facebook graph api does not return all feed items on facebook page

    - by Nick Franceschina
    at the time of this question, if you go here: http://www.facebook.com/realplayer you'll see six posts down, I have posted a photo with a message of "#highfive Cincinnati, OH" but if you to either of these: http://graph.facebook.com/realplayer/feed http://graph.facebook.com/realplayer/tagged the JSON that is returned seemingly includes everything on the wall, except for MY post. there is another photo post from someone else down below mine, and it is showing up (and both my photo and his photo are in the "Fan photos" section) obviously, since I can see everything with these links already, it appears that access_token is not a part of the equation... BUT, some more info: if I use an access_token from a session that isn't me, I can't see the post in the JSON if I use an access_token from MY logged in session, then I DO see the post in the JSON so I'm very confused. if everyone in the world can see those posts on the wall without even authenticating, then I expect all of them to come back in the graph api as well. anyone have thoughts on this? I am aware of the "manage_page" permission... which I can use to get a list of accounts and special offline access tokens for those pages... and that's something I can explore... but it seems like alot of work when my post seemingly SHOULD be there in the graph

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  • How to access a web service behind a NAT?

    - by jr
    We have a product we are deploying to some small businesses. It is basically a RESTful API over SSL using Tomcat. This is installed on the server in the small business and is accessed via an iPhone or other device portable device. So, the devices connecting to the server could come from any number of IP addresses. The problem comes with the installation. When we install this service, it seems to always become a problem when doing port forwarding so the outside world can gain access to tomcat. It seems most time the owner doesn't know router password, etc, etc. I am trying to research other ways we can accomplish this. I've come up with the following and would like to hear other thoughts on the topic. Setup a SSH tunnel from each client office to a central server. Basically the remote devices would connect to that central server on a port and that traffic would be tunneled back to Tomcat in the office. Seems kind of redundant to have SSH and then SSL, but really no other way to accomplish it since end-to-end I need SSL (from device to office). Not sure of performance implications here, but I know it would work. Would need to monitor the tunnel and bring it back up if it goes done, would need to handle SSH key exchanges, etc. Setup uPNP to try and configure the hole for me. Would likely work most of the time, but uPNP isn't guaranteed to be turned on. May be a good next step. Come up with some type of NAT transversal scheme. I'm just not familiar with these and uncertain of how they exactly work. We have access to a centralized server which is required for the authentication if that makes it any easier. What else should I be looking at to get this accomplished?

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  • How to track the touch vector?

    - by mystify
    I need to calculate the direction of dragging a touch, to determine if the user is dragging up the screen, or down the screen. Actually pretty simple, right? But: 1) Finger goes down, you get -touchesBegan:withEvent: called 2) Must wait until finger moves, and -touchesMoved:withEvent: gets called 3) Problem: At this point it's dangerous to tell if the user did drag up or down. My thoughts: Check the time and accumulate calculates vectors until it's secure to tell the direction of touch. Easy? No. Think about it: What if the user holds the finger down for 5 minutes on the same spot, but THEN decides to move up or down? BANG! Your code would fail, because it tried to determine the direction of touch when the finger didn't move really. Problem 2: When the finger goes down and stays at the same spot for a few seconds because the user is a bit in the wind and thinks about what to do now, you'll get a lot of -touchesMoved:withEvent: calls very likely, but with very minor changes in touch location. So my next thought: Do the accumulation in -touchesMoved:withEvent:, but only if a certain threshold of movement has been exceeded. I bet you have some better concepts in place?

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  • The use of getters and setters for different programming languages [closed]

    - by leonhart88
    So I know there are a lot of questions on getters and setters in general, but I couldn't find something exactly like my question. I was wondering if people change the use of get/set depending on different languages. I started learning with C++ and was taught to use getters and setters. This is what I understand: In C++ (and Java?), a variable can either be public or private, but we cannot have a mix. For example, I can't have a read-only variable that can still be changed inside the class. It's either all public (can read and change it), or all private (can't read and can only change inside the class). Because of this (and possibly other reasons), we use getters and setters. In MATLAB, I can control the "setaccess" and "getaccess" properties of variables, so that I can make things read-only (can directly access the property, but can't overwrite it). In this case, I don't feel like I need a getter because I can just do class.property. Also, in Python it is considered "Pythonic" to not use getters/setters and to only put things into properties if needed. I don't really understand why its OK to have all public variables in Python, because that's opposite of what I learned when I started with C++. I'm just curious what other people's thoughts are on this. Would you use getters and setters for all languages? Would you only use it for C++/Java and do direct access in MATLAB and Python (which is what I am currently doing)? Is the second option considered bad? For my purposes, I am only referring to simple getters and setters (just return/set the value and do not do anything else). Thanks!

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  • Publishing WCF .NET 3.5 to IIS 5.1

    - by Adam
    I've been developing a WCF web service using .NET 3.5 with IIS7 and it works perfectly on my local computer. I tried publishing it to a server running IIS 5.1 and even though I can view the WSDL in my browser, the client application doesn't seem to be connecting to it correctly. I launched a packet sniffing app (Charles Proxy) and the response for the first message comes back to the client empty (0 bytes). Every message after the first one times out. The WCF service is part of a larger application that uses ASP .NET 3.5. That application has been working fine on IIS 5.1 for awhile now so I think it's something specific to WCF. I also tried throwing an exception in the SVC file to see if it made it that far and the exception never got thrown so I have a feeling it's something more low level that's not working. Any thoughts? Is there anything I need to install on the IIS5 server? If so how am I still able to view the WSDL in my browser?

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  • Java Input/Output streams for unnamed pipes created in native code?

    - by finrod
    Is there a way to easily create Java Input/Output streams for unnamed pipes created in native code? Motivation: I need my own implementation of the Process class. The native code spawns me a new process with subprocess' IO streams redirected to unnamed pipes. Problem: The file descriptors for correct ends of those pipes make their way to Java. At this point I get stuck as I cannot create a new FileDescriptor which I could pass to FileInput/FileOutput stream. I have used reflection to get around the problem and got communication with a simple bouncer sub-process running. However I have a notion that it is not the cleanest way to go. Have you used this approach? Do you see any problems with this approach? (the platform will never change) Searching around the internets revealed similar solution using native code. Any thoughts before I dive into heavy testing of this approach are very welcome. I would like to give a shot to existing code before writing my own IO stream implementations... Thank you.

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  • PHP Combo Box AJAX Refresh

    - by bhs
    I have a PHP page that currently has 4 years of team positions in columns on the page. The client wants to select the players in positions and have first, second and thrid choices. Currently the page shows 4 columns with sets of combos for each position. Each combo has a full set of players in it and the user chooses the player he wants from the combos. On submit the player positions are stored in the database. However, the client now wants to change the page so that when he selects a player in a year and position then the player is removed from the combo and can no longer be selected for that year. I've used a bit of AJAX but was wondering if anyone had any thoughts/suggestions. The page is currently quite slow so they want it speeded up as well. The page layout is currently like this POISTION YEAR1 YEAR2 YEAR3 YEAR4 1 COMBOC1 COMBOC1 COMBOC1 COMBOC1 COMBOC2 COMBOC2 COMBOC2 COMBOC2 COMBOC3 COMBOC3 COMBOC3 COMBOC3 2 same as above COMBOC1, 2 and 3 all currently have the same players - when a player is selected it needs to be removed for all combos below it. I was thinking of starting by changing the page design and having text boxes for the players and a single player select under each year like this: POISTION YEAR1 YEAR2 YEAR3 YEAR4 1 <PLAYER><POSITION><CHOICE> ... [TEXT BOX CHOICE1] [TEXT BOX CHOICE2] [TEXT BOX CHOICE3] 2 ... Then I only have 1 combo box for each year to worry about - I do however have the same problem of refreshing the combo box and removing the player that has been selected, and I'd prefer to do it withough a page submit. Sorry for the long posting - cheers

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  • NUnit - Multiple properties of the same name? Linking to requirements

    - by Ryan Ternier
    I'm linking all our our System Tests to test cases and to our Requirements. Every requirement has an ID. Every Test Case / System Tests tests a variety of requirements. Every module of code links to multiple requirements. I'm trying to find the best way to link every system test to its driving requirements. I was hoping to do something like: [NUnit.Framework.Property("Release", "6.0.0")] [NUnit.Framework.Property("Requirement", "FR50082")] [NUnit.Framework.Property("Requirement", "FR50084")] [NUnit.Framework.Property("Requirement", "FR50085")] [TestCase(....)] public void TestSomething(string a, string b...) However, that will break because Property is a Key-Value pair. The system will not allow me to have multiple Properties with the same key. The reason I'm wanting this is to be able to test specific requirements in our system if a module changes that touches these requirements. Rather than run over 1,000 system tests on every build, this would allow us to target what to test based on changes done to our code. Some system tests run upwards of 5 minutes (Enterprise healthcare system), so "Just run all of them" isn't a viable solution. We do that, but only before promoting through our environments. Thoughts?

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