Search Results

Search found 18454 results on 739 pages for 'oracle thoughts'.

Page 699/739 | < Previous Page | 695 696 697 698 699 700 701 702 703 704 705 706  | Next Page >

• Magento: Attribute always returns default value in catalog view, works fine in product view

  - by colinodell

  I've created a new Yes/No attribute for products. I've extended the Product model to do some custom logic and the custom functions are working everywhere. When I initially tried getting the custom attribute value, I ran into some issue. Magento wasn't loading it for me, so calls to $product-getMyAttributeName() did nothing. In the product views, I got it working with this additional function: public function getAttrVal($attr_name) { return $this->getResource()->getAttribute($attr_name)->getFrontend()->getValue($this); } So that worked great when viewing a product on the frontend. It would fetch the assigned value if set, or the default if not. When I view any Category (grid of all products in that category), the same exact code is being executed. But my getAttrVal() function always returns the default value, even if I've explicitly set this value for my product. I can't, for the life of me, figure out why the attribute loads correctly in the Product view but the Category view always grabs the default value, despite running the same exact code. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• Ruby syntax error: unexpected $end, expecting keyword_end

  - by user2839246

  I am supposed to: Capitalize the first letter of string. Capitalize every word except articles (the, a, an), conjunctions (and), and prepositions (in). Capitalize i (as in "I am male."). Specify the first word of a string (I actually have no idea what this means. I'm trying to run the spec file to test other functions). Here's my code: class Book def initialize(string) title(string) end def title(string) arts_conjs_preps = %w{ a an the and but or nor for yet so although because since unless despite in to } array = string.downcase.split array.each do |word| if (word == array[0] || word == "i") then word = word.capitalize if arts_conjs_preps !include?(word) then word = word.capitalize end puts array.join(' ') end end puts Book.new("inferno") Ruby says I'm messing up at: puts Book.new("inferno") <--(right after the last line of code) I get exactly the same error message with this test code: def title(string) array = string.downcase.split array.each do |word| if word == array[0] then word = word.capitalize end array.join(' ') end puts title("dante's inferno") The only other Stack Overflow thread regarding this particular syntax error that did not suggest trailing or missing ends or .s as the root of the problem is here. The last comment recommends deleting and recreating the gemset, Which sounds scary. And I'm not sure how to do. Any thoughts? Simple solution? Resources to help? Solution class Book def initialize(string) title(string) end def title(string) arts_conjs_preps = %w{ a an the and but or nor for yet so although because since unless despite of in to } array = string.downcase.split title = array.map do |word| if (word == array[0] || word == "i") || !arts_conjs_preps.include?(word) word = word.capitalize else word end end puts title.join(' ') end end Book.new("dante's the inferno")

  Read the article

• ColdFusion Session issue - multiple users behind one proxy IP -- cftoken and cfid seems to be shared

  - by smoothoperator

  Hi Everyone, I have an application that uses coldfusion's session management (instead of the J2EE) session management. We have one client, who has recently switched their company's traffic to us to come viaa proxy server in their network. So, to our Coldfusion server, it appears that all traffic is coming from this one IP Address, for all of the accounts of this one company.. Of the session variables, Part 1 is kept in a cflock, and Part 2 is kept in editable session variables. I may be misundestanding, but we have done it this way as we modify some values as needed throughout the application's usage. We are now running into an issue of this client having their session variables mixed up (?). We have one case where we set a timestamp.. and when it comes time to look it up, it's empty. From the looks of it this is happening because of another user on the same token. My initial thoughts are to look into modifying our existing session management to somehow generate a unique cftoken/cfid, or to start using jsession_ID, if this solves the problem at all. I have done some basic research on this issue and couldn't find anything similar, so I thought I'd ask here. Thanks!

  Read the article

• HOWTO: implement a jQuery version of ASP.Net MVC "Strongly Typed Partial Views"

  - by Sam Carleton

  I am working on a multi-page assessment form where the questions/responses are database driven. Currently I the basic system working with Html.BeginForm via standard ASP.Net MVC. At this point in time, the key to the whole system is the 'Strongly Typed Partial Views'. When the question/response is read from the database, the response type determines which derived model is created and added to the collection. The main view it iterates through the collection and uses the 'Strongly Typed Partial Views' system of ASP.Net MVC to determine which view to render the correct type of response (radio button, drop down, or text box). I would like to change this process from a Html.BeginForm to Ajax.BeginForm. The problem is I don't have a clue as to how to implement the dynamic creation of the question/response in the JavaScript/jQuery world. Any thoughts and/or suggestions? Here is the current code to generate the dynamic form: @using (Html.BeginForm(new { mdsId = @Model.MdsId, sectionId = @Model.SectionId })) { <div class="SectionTitle"> <span>Section @Model.SectionName - @Model.SectionDescription</span> <span style="float: right">@Html.CheckBoxFor(x => x.ShowUnansweredQuestions) Show only unaswered questions</span> </div> @Html.HiddenFor(x => x.PrevSectionId) @Html.HiddenFor(x => x.NextSectionId) for (var i = 0; i < Model.answers.Count(); i++) { @Html.EditorFor(m => m.answers[i]); } }

  Read the article

• Refining Search Results [PHP/MySQL]

  - by Dae

  I'm creating a set of search panes that allow users to tweak their results set after submitting a query. We pull commonly occurring values in certain fields from the results and display them in order of their popularity - you've all seen this sort of thing on eBay. So, if a lot of rows in our results were created in 2009, we'll be able to click "2009" and see only rows created in that year. What in your opinion is the most efficient way of applying these filters? My working solution was to discard entries from the results that didn't match the extra arguments, like: while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($query)) { foreach($_GET as $key => $val) { if($val !== $row[$key]) { continue 2; } } // Output... } This method should hopefully only query the database once in effect, as adding filters doesn't change the query - MySQL can cache and reuse one data set. On the downside it makes pagination a bit of a headache. The obvious alternative would be to build any additional criteria into the initial query, something like: $sql = "SELECT * FROM tbl MATCH (title, description) AGAINST ('$search_term')"; foreach($_GET as $key => $var) { $sql .= " AND ".$key." = ".$var; } Are there good reasons to do this instead? Or are there better options altogether? Maybe a temporary table? Any thoughts much appreciated!

  Read the article

• Java Input/Output streams for unnamed pipes created in native code?

  - by finrod

  Is there a way to easily create Java Input/Output streams for unnamed pipes created in native code? Motivation: I need my own implementation of the Process class. The native code spawns me a new process with subprocess' IO streams redirected to unnamed pipes. Problem: The file descriptors for correct ends of those pipes make their way to Java. At this point I get stuck as I cannot create a new FileDescriptor which I could pass to FileInput/FileOutput stream. I have used reflection to get around the problem and got communication with a simple bouncer sub-process running. However I have a notion that it is not the cleanest way to go. Have you used this approach? Do you see any problems with this approach? (the platform will never change) Searching around the internets revealed similar solution using native code. Any thoughts before I dive into heavy testing of this approach are very welcome. I would like to give a shot to existing code before writing my own IO stream implementations... Thank you.

  Read the article

• Alternatives to static methods on interfaces for enforcing consistency

  - by jayshao

  In Java, I'd like to be able to define marker interfaces, that forced implementations to provide static methods. For example, for simple text-serialization/deserialization I'd like to be able to define an interface that looked something like this: public interface TextTransformable<T>{ public static T fromText(String text); public String toText(); Since interfaces in Java can't contain static methods though (as noted in a number of other posts/threads: here, here, and here this code doesn't work. What I'm looking for however is some reasonable paradigm to express the same intent, namely symmetric methods, one of which is static, and enforced by the compiler. Right now the best we can come up with is some kind of static factory object or generic factory, neither of which is really satisfactory. Note: in our case our primary use-case is we have many, many "value-object" types - enums, or other objects that have a limited number of values, typically carry no state beyond their value, and which we parse/de-parse thousands of time a second, so actually do care about reusing instances (like Float, Integer, etc.) and its impact on memory consumption/g.c. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• How to extract the Sql Command from a Complied Linq Query

  - by Harry

  In normal (not compiled) Linq to Sql queries you can extract the SQLCommand from the IQueryable via the following code: SqlCommand cmd = (SqlCommand)table.Context.GetCommand(query); Is it possible to do the same for a compiled query? The following code provides me with a delegate to a compiled query: private static readonly Func<Data.DAL.Context, string, IQueryable<Word>> Query_Get = CompiledQuery.Compile<Data.DAL.Context, string, IQueryable<Word>>( (context, name) => from r in context.GetTable<Word>() where r.Name == name select r); When i use this to generate the IQueryable and attempt to extract the SqlCommand it doesn't seem to work. When debugging the code I can see that the SqlCommand returned has the 'very' useful CommandText of 'SELECT NULL AS [EMPTY]' using (var db = new Data.DAL.Context()) { IQueryable<Word> query = Query_Get(db, "word"); SqlCommand cmd = (SqlCommand)db.GetCommand(query); Console.WriteLine(cmd != null ? cmd.CommandText : "Command Not Found"); } I can't find anything in google about this particular scenario, as no doubt it is not a common thing to attempt... So.... Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• Accurately and securely measure the time spent viewing a web page

  - by balpha

  Suppose the following: You have a web page that presents a simple game to a user (e.g. a quiz, a puzzle, etc). The user solves the puzzle, submits the result, and you want to measure as precisely as possible how long they took to solve it. Assume it's quite simple, so we're talking seconds, not hours. Also assume JavaScript is required anyway, so there's no need to think of JS-disabled browsers. Finally, assume we don't want to use anything like Flash, Silverlight, or the like. I can think of several techniques: Simply take the time between the points when the data was sent from the server and when the submission arrives. Since this is exclusively server-side, there's no chance for cheating. However, issues like network latency and page rendering time might make this unfair for users with slow computers / browsers / internet connections. On the first request, just send the page without the actual game data. When everything is loaded so far, retrieve the game data through an AJAX call and populate it into the page. This is similar to 1., but reduces some of the caveats introduced through time spent on overhead. Have the time measured on the client side using JavaScript and submitted alongside with the solution. This would theoretically be the most accurate, but it introduces the possibility of cheating, because you're relying on client data. Use the request time headers of a "ready to play" AJAX call and the result submission request. Same caveat as 3., as it is still client data. A combination of server side and client side measuring with some kind of plausibility analysis. I can't think of a good way, but maybe you can. Thoughts? Other ideas?

  Read the article

• iPhone Development - calling external JSON API (will Apple reject?)

  - by RPM1984

  Ok guys, so im new to iPhone development, so apologies if this is a silly question, but before i actually create my app i want to know if this is possible, and if Apple will reject this. (Note this is all theoretical) So i'd have a API (.NET) that runs on a cloud server somewhere and can return HTML/JSON/XML. I'll have a website that can access this API and allow customers to do some stuff (but this is not important for this question). I would then like my iPhone app to make a call to this API which would return JSON data. So my iPhone app might make a call to http://myapp/Foos which would return a JSON string of Foo objects. The iPhone app would then parse this JSON and do some funky stuff with it. So, that's the background, now the questions: Is this possible? (that is, call an external cloud API over HTTP, parse JSON response?) What are the chances of Apple rejecting this application (because it would be calling a non-Apple API) Are there any limitations (security, libraries, etc) on the iPhone/Objective-C/Cocoa that might hinder this solution? On this website, they seem to be doing exactly what im asking. Thoughts, suggestions, links would be greatly appreciated...

  Read the article

• Routing redirection decision

  - by programming late night

  I have really no idea why I'm asking this as this a really completely irrelevant question for which I should have figured out an answer within milliseconds, yet I'm doing it. So in my project I have a Router class which splits up the request and selects the right page to be loaded. Fine so far. Now I have a page displayed when the user requests a page that doesn't exist, you know, 404. So theoretically, if the user entered mydomain.com/404 (I use mod_rewrite with a requests collector via index.php?req=*) the 404 error would be shown to him, but in fact there was no error - the 404 page would be displayed as a perfectly normal page. So if someone would try out requesting the 404 page via /404, he would be shown the page but he can't tell if the 404 page he requested doesn't exist and he is actually getting a, you guessed it, 404 error or if he actually found some flaw in the system that makes him able to see an error page when there is no error. I don't know how dumb this whole thing here is but I'm sure some of you have in fact ran into this problem already. Short version: If the user enters mydomain.com/404 the 404 page is shown even though there is no 404 error. I know this is a completely irrelevant question, please don't tell me, but I just spontaneously wanted to hear your thoughts on it. Strange eh? Should I redirect direct access to my 404-page to the home page? Should I do nothing? Should I just go to bed and stop asking irrelevant stuff?

  Read the article

• facebook graph api does not return all feed items on facebook page

  - by Nick Franceschina

  at the time of this question, if you go here: http://www.facebook.com/realplayer you'll see six posts down, I have posted a photo with a message of "#highfive Cincinnati, OH" but if you to either of these: http://graph.facebook.com/realplayer/feed http://graph.facebook.com/realplayer/tagged the JSON that is returned seemingly includes everything on the wall, except for MY post. there is another photo post from someone else down below mine, and it is showing up (and both my photo and his photo are in the "Fan photos" section) obviously, since I can see everything with these links already, it appears that access_token is not a part of the equation... BUT, some more info: if I use an access_token from a session that isn't me, I can't see the post in the JSON if I use an access_token from MY logged in session, then I DO see the post in the JSON so I'm very confused. if everyone in the world can see those posts on the wall without even authenticating, then I expect all of them to come back in the graph api as well. anyone have thoughts on this? I am aware of the "manage_page" permission... which I can use to get a list of accounts and special offline access tokens for those pages... and that's something I can explore... but it seems like alot of work when my post seemingly SHOULD be there in the graph

  Read the article

• PHP Combo Box AJAX Refresh

  - by bhs

  I have a PHP page that currently has 4 years of team positions in columns on the page. The client wants to select the players in positions and have first, second and thrid choices. Currently the page shows 4 columns with sets of combos for each position. Each combo has a full set of players in it and the user chooses the player he wants from the combos. On submit the player positions are stored in the database. However, the client now wants to change the page so that when he selects a player in a year and position then the player is removed from the combo and can no longer be selected for that year. I've used a bit of AJAX but was wondering if anyone had any thoughts/suggestions. The page is currently quite slow so they want it speeded up as well. The page layout is currently like this POISTION YEAR1 YEAR2 YEAR3 YEAR4 1 COMBOC1 COMBOC1 COMBOC1 COMBOC1 COMBOC2 COMBOC2 COMBOC2 COMBOC2 COMBOC3 COMBOC3 COMBOC3 COMBOC3 2 same as above COMBOC1, 2 and 3 all currently have the same players - when a player is selected it needs to be removed for all combos below it. I was thinking of starting by changing the page design and having text boxes for the players and a single player select under each year like this: POISTION YEAR1 YEAR2 YEAR3 YEAR4 1 <PLAYER><POSITION><CHOICE> ... [TEXT BOX CHOICE1] [TEXT BOX CHOICE2] [TEXT BOX CHOICE3] 2 ... Then I only have 1 combo box for each year to worry about - I do however have the same problem of refreshing the combo box and removing the player that has been selected, and I'd prefer to do it withough a page submit. Sorry for the long posting - cheers

  Read the article

• Git repos over multiple machines - backups and keeping in sync

  - by a-or-b

  I'm new to git so please feel free to RTFM me... I have multiple development sites (none of which can communicate via a network with each other) and am working on a few projects (with a few people) at any one time. What I would ideally have is at each site a centralized repository that can be pulled from but development would occur in our own (personal) repos. Then I would like to be able to sync across the centralized repos (via USB key for example). I want a centralized repo at each location as (1) I'm new to git and do break my (personal) local repo by playing around and (2) some projects get put on hold so I want to be able to free up disk space by deleting them. This is the "backup" part of my question. I was also hoping to be able to use 'git clone --bare' for my centralized repos (and the USB key repos to?) as we don't need the full checkout, just the git benefits. However I can't seem to get a bare repo to work as repo I can push from. I've used 'git remote' to set up an remote origin (similar to http://toolmantim.com/thoughts/setting_up_a_new_remote_git_repository) but I can't get 'git push' to work - it seems I need a checked-out repo. . Does anyone else use this sort of repo/development structure or is there something fundamental about git usage that I'm missing? . A solution that I thought about that might not work - If I had a 'git clone --bare' at each site and then use a git repo on my removable media which has remotes set up for each site then I could ('pull') sync my USB key with each repo. But then can I update the site repo from my USB key? Could I push from USB?

  Read the article

• Telerik RadGrid: grid clientside pagination

  - by ram

  I have a web service which returns me some data,I am massaging this data and using this as datasource for my radgrid (telerik). The datasource is quite large, and would like to paginate it. I found couple of problems when I paginate it in the server side I have to bind the grid again for pagination, which essentially means I have to make a call to WS again to get the data. This is an expensive call for me. I would rather forgo the benefits of pagination and would display all the results in the same page, except for it would be a bit clumsy During the postback RadGrid1.Items.Count happens to be the number of items getting paginated (25- in my case) which is expected as all the items in the datasource are not getting bound. This of course is not an issue. The real issue is that we have some checkboxes which get checked based on some business condition. We add this to our business object/DB later. So if the user has not navigated all the pages, these "checked" items do not get added as pagination limits the "Items" in the grid to those which get bound for that particular page index. My Thoughts: I would rather have some sort of client side pagination, where we can hide/show contents than going to the server and doing a databind every time. Though it will return all the results, the UI will not be clumsy and the grid would have "all the items" during postback Is there a way to do it ? If it were a regular asp.net gridView, can someone point me to a good article which would serve my purpose Ram PS: who else think radgrid is crazy ? (unfortunately I did not make this choice)

  Read the article

• Refactoring an ASP.NET 2.0 app to be more "modern"

  - by Wayne M

  This is a hypothetical scenario. Let's say you've just been hired at a company with a small development team. The company uses an internal CRM/ERP type system written in .NET 2.0 to manage all of it's day to day things (let's simplify and say customer accounts and records). The app was written a couple of years ago when .NET 2.0 was just out and uses the following architectural designs: Webforms Data layer is a thin wrapper around SqlCommand that calls stored procedures Rudimentary DTO-style business objects that are populated via the sprocs A "business logic" layer that acts as a gateway between the webform and database (i.e. code behind calls that layer) Let's say that as there are more changes and requirements added to the application, you start to feel that the old architecture is showing its age, and changes are increasingly more difficult to make. How would you go about introducing refactoring steps to A) Modernize the app (i.e. proper separation of concerns) and B) Make sure that the app can readily adapt to change in the organization? IMO the changes would involve: Introduce an ORM like Linq to Sql and get rid of the sprocs for CRUD Assuming that you can't just throw out Webforms, introduce the M-V-P pattern to the forms Make sure the gateway classes conform to SRP and the other SOLID principles. Change the logic that is re-used to be web service methods instead of having to reuse code What are your thoughts? Again this is a totally hypothetical scenario that many of us have faced in the past, or may end up facing.

  Read the article

• is it possible to write a program which prints its own source code utilizing a "sequence-generating-

  - by guest

  is it possible to write a program which prints its own source code utilizing a "sequence-generating-function"? what i call a sequence-generating-function is simply a function which returns a value out of a specific interval (i.e. printable ascii-charecters (32-126)). the point now is, that this generated sequence should be the programs own source-code. as you see, implementing a function which returns an arbitrary sequence is really trivial, but since the returned sequence must contain the implementation of the function itself it is a highly non-trivial task. this is how such a program (and its corresponding output) could look like #include <stdio.h> int fun(int x) { ins1; ins2; ins3; . . . return y; } int main(void) { int i; for ( i=0; i<size of the program; i++ ) { printf("%c", fun(i)); } return 0; } i personally think it is not possible, but since i don't know very much about the underlying matter i posted my thoughts here. i'm really looking forward to hear some opinions!

  Read the article

• iOS: display modal view over the top of a UIWebView

  - by Sly

  Is it possible to display a modal view over the top of a UIWebView? I have a UIViewController that loads a WebView. I then want to push a Modal View Controller over the top so that a modal view covers up the WebView temporarily... The WebView is working fine; here's how it's loaded in the View Controller: - (void)loadView { // Initialize webview and add as a subview to LandscapeController's view myWebView = [[[UIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame]] autorelease]; myWebView.scalesPageToFit = YES; myWebView.autoresizesSubviews = YES; myWebView.autoresizingMask = (UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight); myWebView.delegate = self; self.view = myWebView; } If I attempt to load a Modal View controller from within viewDidLoad, however, no modal view appears: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // Edit dcftable.html with updated figures NSMutableString *updated_html = [self _updateHTML:@"dcftable"]; // Load altered HTML file as an NSURL request [self.myWebView loadHTMLString:updated_html baseURL:nil]; // If user hasn't paid for dcftable, then invoke the covering modal view if (some_condition) { LandscapeCoverController *landscapeCoverController = [[[LandscapeCoverController alloc] init] autorelease ]; [self presentModalViewController:landscapeCoverController animated:YES]; } } I suspect that there's something that needs to be done with the UIWebView delegate to get it to receive the new modal view...but can't find any discussion or examples of this anywhere...again, the objective is to invoke a modal view that covers over the top of the WebView. Thanks for any thoughts in advance!

  Read the article

• Constructor initializer list: code from the C++ Primer, chapter 16

  - by Alexandros Gezerlis

  Toward the end of Chapter 16 of the "C++ Primer" I encountered the following code (I've removed a bunch of lines): class Sales_item { public: // default constructor: unbound handle Sales_item(): h() { } private: Handle<Item_base> h; // use-counted handle }; My problem is with the Sales_item(): h() { } line. For the sake of completeness, let me also quote the parts of the Handle class template that I think are relevant to my question (I think I don't need to show the Item_base class): template <class T> class Handle { public: // unbound handle Handle(T *p = 0): ptr(p), use(new size_t(1)) { } private: T* ptr; // shared object size_t *use; // count of how many Handles point to *ptr }; I would have expected something like either: a) Sales_item(): h(0) { } which is a convention the authors have used repeatedly in earlier chapters, or b) Handle<Item_base>() if the intention was to invoke the default constructor of the Handle class. Instead, what the book has is Sales_item(): h() { }. My gut reaction is that this is a typo, since h() looks suspiciously similar to a function declaration. On the other hand, I just tried compiling under g++ and running the example code that uses this class and it seems to be working correctly. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• SIlverlight Navigate: how does it work? How would you implement in f# w/o VS wizards and helpers?

  - by akaphenom

  After a nights sleep the problem can be stated more accurately as I have a 100% f# / silverlight implementation and am looking to use the built in Navigation components. C# creates page.xaml and page.xaml.cs um - ok; but what is the relationship at a fundamental level? How would I go about doing this in f#? The applcuation is loaded in the default module, and I pull the XAML in and reference it from the application object. Do I need to create instances / references to the pages from within the application object? Or set up some other page management object with the proper name value pairs? When all the Help of VS is stripped away - what are we left with? original post (for those who may be reading replies) I have a 100% silverlight 3.0 / f# 2.0 application I am wrapping my brain around. I have the base application loading correctly - and now I want to add the naigation controls to it. My page is stored as an embedded resource - but the Frame.Navigate takes a URI. I know what I have is wrong but here it is: let nav : Frame = mainGrid ? mainFrame let url = "/page1.xaml" let uri = new System.Uri(url, System.UriKind.Relative) ; nav.Navigate uri Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• How to pass common arguments to Perl modules

  - by Leonard

  I'm not thrilled with the argument-passing architecture I'm evolving for the (many) Perl scripts that have been developed for some scripts that call various Hadoop MapReduce jobs. There are currently 8 scripts (of the form run_something.pl) that are run from cron. (And more on the way ... we expect anywhere from 1 to 3 more for every function we add to hadoop.) Each of these have about 6 identical command-line parameters, and a couple command line parameters that are similar, all specified with Euclid. The implementations are in a dozen .pm modules. Some of which are common, and others of which are unique.... Currently I'm passing the args globally to each module ... Inside run_something.pl I have: set_common_args (%ARGV); set_something_args (%ARGV); And inside Something.pm I have sub set_something_args { (%MYARGS) =@_; } So then I can do if ( $MYARGS{'--needs_more_beer'} ) { $beer++; } I'm seeing that I'm probably going to have additional "common" files that I'll want to pass args to, so I'll have three or four set_xxx_args calls at the top of each run_something.pl, and it just doesn't seem too elegant. On the other hand, it beats passing the whole stupid argument array down the call chain, and choosing and passing individual elements down the call chain is (a) too much work (b) error-prone (c) doesn't buy much. In lots of ways what I'm doing is just object-oriented design without the object-oriented language trappings, and it looks uglier without said trappings, but nonetheless ... Anyone have thoughts or ideas?

  Read the article

• Stage shifts when using addChild?

  - by josh

  I'm having a very odd bug with ActionScript 3 in Flash CS4. I am adding movie clips to a stage in a for loop and then moving them out of view so that I can pull them in and remove them when I need them. I've narrowed down the issue to a point that I know that every time one of the movie clips are added to the stage using addChild(), the stage shifts to the right by one pixel. I know that sounds odd, but it's literally true... the 0 line on the y axis is shifted to the right one pixel every time the movie clip is added. I have no idea how this could be happening. Here's the code that is doing the work: private function setupSlides():void { for(x = 0; x < TOTAL_SLIDES; x++) { var ClassReference:Class = getDefinitionByName("Slide" + (x+1)) as Class; var s:MovieClip = new ClassReference() as MovieClip; s.x = 9999; s.y = 9999; addChild(s); slides[x] = s; } } Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• Unit Testing the Use of TransactionScope

  - by Randolpho

  The preamble: I have designed a strongly interfaced and fully mockable data layer class that expects the business layer to create a TransactionScope when multiple calls should be included in a single transaction. The problem: I would like to unit test that my business layer makes use of a TransactionScope object when I expect it to. Unfortunately, the standard pattern for using TransactionScope is a follows: using(var scope = new TransactionScope()) { // transactional methods datalayer.InsertFoo(); datalayer.InsertBar(); scope.Complete(); } While this is a really great pattern in terms of usability for the programmer, testing that it's done seems... unpossible to me. I cannot detect that a transient object has been instantiated, let alone mock it to determine that a method was called on it. Yet my goal for coverage implies that I must. The Question: How can I go about building unit tests that ensure TransactionScope is used appropriately according to the standard pattern? Final Thoughts: I've considered a solution that would certainly provide the coverage I need, but have rejected it as overly complex and not conforming to the standard TransactionScope pattern. It involves adding a CreateTransactionScope method on my data layer object that returns an instance of TransactionScope. But because TransactionScope contains constructor logic and non-virtual methods and is therefore difficult if not impossible to mock, CreateTransactionScope would return an instance of DataLayerTransactionScope which would be a mockable facade into TransactionScope. While this might do the job it's complex and I would prefer to use the standard pattern. Is there a better way?

  Read the article

• Excel 2010 VBA code is stuck when UserForm is shown

  - by Denis

  I've created a UserForm as a progress indicator while a web query (using InternetExplorer object) runs in the background. The code gets triggered as shown below. The progress indicator form is called 'Progerss'. Private Sub Worksheet_Change(ByVal Target As Range) If Target.Row = Range("B2").Row And Target.Column = Range("B2").Column Then Progress.Show vbModeless Range("A4:A65535").ClearContents GetWebData (Range("B2").Value) Progress.Hide End If End Sub What I see with this code is that the progress indicator form pops up when cell B2 changes. I also see that the range of cells in column A gets cleared which tells me that the vbModeless is doing what I want. But then, somewhere within the GetWebData() procedure, things get hung up. As soon as I manually destroy the progress indicator form, the GetWebData() routine finishes and I see the correct results. But if I leave the progress indicator visible, things just get stuck indefinitely. The code below shows what GetWebData() is doing. Private Sub GetWebData(ByVal Symbol As String) Dim IE As New InternetExplorer 'IE.Visible = True IE.navigate MyURL Do DoEvents Loop Until IE.readyState = READYSTATE_COMPLETE Dim Doc As HTMLDocument Set Doc = IE.document Dim Rows As IHTMLElementCollection Set Rows = Doc.getElementsByClassName("financialTable").Item(0).all.tags("tr") Dim r As Long r = 0 For Each Row In Rows Sheet1.Range("A4").Offset(r, 0).Value = Row.Children.Item(0).innerText r = r + 1 Next End Sub Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• when to clear or make null asp .net mvc models?

  - by SARAVAN

  HI, I am working in an asp .net mvc application. I am using the model and storing some of the values which i need to preserve between the page posts, in the form of datacontexts. Say my model looks something like this: public SelectedUser SelectedUserDetails { //get and set has //this.datacontext.data.SelectedUser = ..... //return this.datacontext.data..... } Now when this model needs to be cleared? I have many such models with many properties and datacontext. But I don't have an idea on when to clear it. Is there a way or an event that can be triggered automatically when the model is not used for a long time? Oneway I thought is when i navigate away from a page which uses my underlying model, I can clear that model if its no longer used anywhere and initialise it back as needed. But I need to clear almost many models at many points. Is there an automatic way that can clear models when it is no longer used beacuse care can be taken by my code to initialise them when I need them, but I don't know when to clear them when I no longer need them. I need this to get rid of any memory related issues. Any thoughts or comments?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 695 696 697 698 699 700 701 702 703 704 705 706  | Next Page >