Search Results

Search found 4593 results on 184 pages for 'constructor injection'.

Page 7/184 | < Previous Page | 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14  | Next Page >

  • DCI: How to implement Context with Dependency Injection?

    - by ciscoheat
    Most examples of a DCI Context are implemented as a Command pattern. When using Dependency Injection though, it's useful to have the dependencies injected in the constructor and send the parameters into the executing method. Compare the Command pattern class: public class SomeContext { private readonly SomeRole _someRole; private readonly IRepository<User> _userRepository; // Everything goes into the constructor for a true encapsuled command. public SomeContext(SomeRole someRole, IRepository<User> userRepository) { _someRole = someRole; _userRepository = userRepository; } public void Execute() { _someRole.DoStuff(_userRepository); } } With the Dependency injected class: public class SomeContext { private readonly IRepository<User> _userRepository; // Only what can be injected using the DI provider. public SomeContext(IRepository<User> userRepository) { _userRepository = userRepository; } // Parameters from the executing method public void Execute(SomeRole someRole) { someRole.DoStuff(_userRepository); } } The last one seems a bit nicer, but I've never seen it implemented like this so I'm curious if there are any things to consider.

    Read the article

  • Accessing the Private Constructor

    - by harigm
    I am java developer, went for an interview. I have been asked a question about the Private constructor 1) Can I access a Private Constructor of a Class and Instantiate the class. I was thinking and gave the answer directly--- "NO" But its wrong, can any one help Why NO? and How we can achieve this

    Read the article

  • Call a constructor from variable arguments with PHP

    - by zneak
    Hello guys, I have a function that takes variadic arguments, that I obtain from func_get_args(). This function needs to call a constructor with those arguments. However, I don't know how to do it. With call_user_func, you can call functions with an array of arguments, but how would you call a constructor from it? I can't just pass the array of arguments to it; it must believe I've called it "normally". Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Define Default constructor Structuremap in a Generic Repository

    - by Ricky
    Hello guys, I have a generic IRepository that has 2 constructors, one have none parameters, other has the datacontext as parameter. I want to define to structuremap to aways in this case use the parameterless constructor. I want a way to create a parameterless contructor, other solutions that I have seen, they create a new Datacontext and pass it to the constructor that has parameters.

    Read the article

  • Calling assignment operator in copy constructor

    - by stas
    Are there some drawbacks of such implementation of copy-constructor? Foo::Foo(const Foo& i_foo) { *this = i_foo; } As I remember, it was recommend in some book to call copy constructor from assignment operator and use well-known swap trick, but I don't remember, why...

    Read the article

  • behaviour of the implicit copy constructor / assignment operator

    - by Tobias Langner
    Hello, I have a question regarding the C++ Standard. Suppose you have a base class with user defined copy constructor and assignment operator. The derived class uses the implicit one generated by the compiler. Does copying / assignment of the derived class call the user defined copy constructor / assignment operator? Or do you need to implement user defined versions that call the base class? Thank you for your help.

    Read the article

  • Perl - Calling subclass constructor from superclass (OO)

    - by Emmel
    This may turn out to be an embarrassingly stupid question, but better than potentially creating embarrassingly stupid code. :-) This is an OO design question, really. Let's say I have an object class 'Foos' that represents a set of dynamic configuration elements, which are obtained by querying a command on disk, 'mycrazyfoos -getconfig'. Let's say that there are two categories of behavior that I want 'Foos' objects to have: Existing ones: one is, query ones that exist in the command output I just mentioned (/usr/bin/mycrazyfoos -getconfig`. Make modifications to existing ones via shelling out commands. Create new ones that don't exist; new 'crazyfoos', using a complex set of /usr/bin/mycrazyfoos commands and parameters. Here I'm not really just querying, but actually running a bunch of system() commands. Affecting changes. Here's my class structure: Foos.pm package Foos, which has a new($hashref-{name = 'myfooname',) constructor that takes a 'crazyfoo NAME' and then queries the existence of that NAME to see if it already exists (by shelling out and running the mycrazyfoos command above). If that crazyfoo already exists, return a Foos::Existing object. Any changes to this object requires shelling out, running commands and getting confirmation that everything ran okay. If this is the way to go, then the new() constructor needs to have a test to see which subclass constructor to use (if that even makes sense in this context). Here are the subclasses: Foos/Existing.pm As mentioned above, this is for when a Foos object already exists. Foos/Pending.pm This is an object that will be created if, in the above, the 'crazyfoo NAME' doesn't actually exist. In this case, the new() constructor above will be checked for additional parameters, and it will go ahead and, when called using -create() shell out using system() and create a new object... possibly returning an 'Existing' one... OR As I type this out, I am realizing it is perhaps it's better to have a single: (an alternative arrangement) Foos class, that has a -new() that takes just a name -create() that takes additional creation parameters -delete(), -change() and other params that affect ones that exist; that will have to just be checked dynamically. So here we are, two main directions to go with this. I'm curious which would be the more intelligent way to go.

    Read the article

  • Require a default constructor in java?

    - by jdc0589
    Is there any way to require that a class have a default (no parameter) constructor, aside from using a reflection check like the following? (the following would work, but it's hacky and reflection is slow) boolean valid = false; for(Constructor<?> c : TParse.class.getConstructors()) { if(c.getParameterTypes().length == 0) { valid = true; break; } } if(!valid) throw new MissingDefaultConstructorException(...);

    Read the article

  • Calling methods in super class constructor of subclass constructor?

    - by deamon
    Calling methods in super class constructor of subclass constructor? Passing configuration to the __init__ method which calls register implicitely: class Base: def __init__(self, *verbs=("get", "post")): self._register(verbs) def _register(self, *verbs): pass class Sub(Base): def __init__(self): super().__init__("get", "post", "put") Or calling register explicitely in the subclass' __init__ method: class Base: def __init__(self): self._register("get", "post") def _register(self, *verbs): pass class Sub(Base): def __init__(self): _register("get", "post", "put") What is better or more pythonic? Or is it only a matter of taste?

    Read the article

  • constructor in objective c

    - by zp26
    HI, I have create my iPhone apps but i have a problem. I have a classViewController where i have implemented my program. I must alloc 3 NSMutableArray but i don't want do it in a grapich methods. There isn't a constructor like java for my class? Thanks so much and sorry for my english XP // I want put it in a method like constructor java arrayPosizioni = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; nomePosizioneCorrente = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"noPosition"];

    Read the article

  • Prevent SQL injection from form-generated SQL - NO PreparedStmts

    - by Markos Fragkakis
    Hi all, I have a search table where user will be able to filter results with a filter of the type: Field [Name], Value [John], Remove Rule Field [Surname], Value [Blake], Remove Rule Field [Has Children], Value [Yes], Remove Rule Add Rule So the user will be able to set an arbitrary set of filters, which will result essentially in a completely dynamic WHERE clause. In the future I will also have to implement more complicated logical expressions, like Where (name=John OR name=Nick) AND (surname=Blake OR surname=Bourne), Of all 10 fields the user may or may not filter by, I don't know how many and which filters the user will set. So, I cannot use a prepared statement (which assumes that at least we know the fields in the WHERE clause). This is why prepared statements are unfortunately out of the question, I have to do it with plain old, generated SQL. What measures can I take to protect the application from SQL Injection (REGEX-wise or any other way)?

    Read the article

  • How to prevent code/option injection in a bash script

    - by asmaier
    I have written a small bash script called "isinFile.sh" for checking if the first term given to the script can be found in the file "file.txt": #!/bin/bash FILE="file.txt" if [ `grep -w "$1" $FILE` ]; then echo "true" else echo "false" fi However, running the script like > ./isinFile.sh -x breaks the script, since -x is interpreted by grep as an option. So I improved my script #!/bin/bash FILE="file.txt" if [ `grep -w -- "$1" $FILE` ]; then echo "true" else echo "false" fi using -- as an argument to grep. Now running > ./isinFile.sh -x false works. But is using -- the correct and only way to prevent code/option injection in bash scripts? I have not seen it in the wild, only found it mentioned in ABASH: Finding Bugs in Bash Scripts.

    Read the article

  • C++: Dependency injection, circular dependency and callbacks

    - by Jonathan
    Consider the (highly simplified) following case: class Dispatcher { public: receive() {/*implementation*/}; // callback } class CommInterface { public: send() = 0; // call } class CommA : public CommInterface { public: send() {/*implementation*/}; } Various classes in the system send messages via the dispatcher. The dispatcher uses a comm to send. Once an answer is returned, the comm relays it back to the dispatcher which dispatches it back to the appropriate original sender. Comm is polymorphic and which implementation to choose can be read from a settings file. Dispatcher has a dependency on the comm in order to send. Comm has a dependency on dispatcher in order to callback. Therefor there's a circular dependency here and I can't seem to implement the dependency injection principle (even after encountering this nice blog post).

    Read the article

  • SQL Injection with Plain-Vanilla NHibernate

    - by James D
    Hello, Plain-vanilla NHibernate setup, eg, no fluent NHibernate, no HQL, nothing except domain objects and NHibernate mapping files. I load objects via: _lightSabers = session.CreateCriteria(typeof(LightSaber)).List<LightSaber>(); I apply raw user input directly to one property on the "LightSaber" class: myLightSaber.NameTag = "Raw malicious text from user"; I then save the LightSaber: session.SaveOrUpdate(myLightSaber); Everything I've seen says that yes, under this situation you are immune to SQL injection, because of the way NHibernate parameterizes and escapes the queries under the hood. However, I'm also a relative NHibernate beginner so I wanted to double-check. *waves hand* these aren't the droids you're looking for. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Prevent SQL injection from form-generated SQL.

    - by Markos Fragkakis
    Hi all, I have a search table where user will be able to filter results with a filter of the type: Field [Name], Value [John], Remove Rule Field [Surname], Value [Blake], Remove Rule Field [Has Children], Value [Yes], Remove Rule Add Rule So the user will be able to set an arbitrary set of filters, which will result essentially in a completely dynamic WHERE clause. In the future I will also have to implement more complicated logical expressions, like Where (name=John OR name=Nick) AND (surname=Blake OR surname=Bourne), Of all 10 fields the user may or may not filter by, I don't know how many and which filters the user will set. So, I cannot use a prepared statement (which assumes that at least we know the fields in the WHERE clause). This is why prepared statements are unfortunately out of the question, I have to do it with plain old, generated SQL. What measures can I take to protect the application from SQL Injection (REGEX-wise or any other way)?

    Read the article

  • Potential for SQL injection here?

    - by Matt Greer
    This may be a really dumb question but I figure why not... I am using RIA Services with Entity Framework as the back end. I have some places in my app where I accept user input and directly ask RIA Services (and in turn EF and in turn my database) questions using their data. Do any of these layers help prevent security issues or should I scrub my data myself? For example, whenever a new user registers with the app, I call this method: [Query] public IEnumerable<EmailVerificationResult> VerifyUserWithEmailToken(string token) { using (UserService userService = new UserService()) { // token came straight from the user, am I in trouble here passing it directly into // my DomainService, should I verify the data here (or in UserService)? User user = userService.GetUserByEmailVerificationToken(token); ... } } (and whether I should be rolling my own user verification system is another issue altogether, we are in the process of adopting MS's membership framework. I'm more interested in sql injection and RIA services in general)

    Read the article

  • Prevent sqlite INJECTION ATTACKS on your own iPhone?

    - by Bonnie
    I always take precautions regarding SQL INJECTION ATTACKS when data is saved between someone's iPhone and a remote database on the cloud. But is it also necessary to do the same... when just saving data (using sqlite) from someone's cell phone, to a database that's just on their own phone? What's the worse they can do? Delete their own data (or tables) on their own phone? (If they really try hard enough.) Thanks.

    Read the article

  • JSR-303 dependency injection and Hibernate

    - by Jam
    Spring 3.0.2, Hibernate 3.5.0, Hibernate-Validator 4.0.2.GA I am trying to inject Spring dependencies into a ConstraintValidator using: @PersistenceContext private EntityManager entityManager; I have configured the application context with: <bean id="validator" class="org.springframework.validation.beanvalidation.LocalValidatorFactoryBean"/> Which, according to the Spring documentation, should allow “custom ConstraintValidators to benefit from dependency injection like any other Spring bean” Within the debugger I can see Spring calling getBean to create the ConstraintValidator. Later when flush triggers the preInsert, a different ConstraintValidator is created and called. The problem is the EntityManager is null within this new ConstraintValidator. I’ve tried injecting other dependencies within the ConstraintValidator and these are always null. Does anyone know if it is possible to inject dependencies into a ConstraintValidator?

    Read the article

  • Why JPA injection not works on @PersistentUnit

    - by Dewfy
    Hello colleagues! It is continues of question ( http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2570976/struts-2-bean-is-not-created ) I'm using struts2 + toplink in my very simple web application under Tomcat. On the page I would like use iteration tag. That is why I've declared some factory (SomeFactory) that resolves collection of entities (Entity). Per article: http://download-uk.oracle.com/docs/cd/B32110_01/web.1013/b28221/usclient005.htm#CIHCEHHG the only thing I need is declaration: @PersistenceContext(unitName="name_in_persistence_xml") public class SomeFactory { @PersistenceUnit(unitName="name_in_persistence_xml") EntityManagerFactory emf; public EntityManager getEntityManager() { assert(emf != null); //HERE every time it is null return emf.createEntityManager(); } public Collection<Entity> getAll() { return getEntityManager().createNamedQuery("Entity.findAll").getResultList(); } } What is wrong? May be i miss something in web.xml? How to pre-init toplink for web application to allow injection happen?

    Read the article

  • Passing ASP.NET User by Dependency Injection

    - by UpTheCreek
    In my web application I have various components that need to access the currently authenticated user (HttpContext.User). There are two obvious ways a component can access this: 1) Accessing getting the User from HttpContext.Current 2) Passing the user around in constructors Is not ideal because it makes testing difficult and ties application components to web concerns, when they really shouldn't know about it. Is just messy and complicates everything. So I've been thinking about passing in the current user (or perhaps just the name/id) to any component that needs it using an IoC container (via dependency injection). Is anyone using this technique to supply the current ASP.NET user to parts of the application? Or, Does this sound like a sensible approach? I would like know how this has worked out for people. Thanks

    Read the article

  • internet explorer, google chrome injection

    - by Volim Te
    I wrote code that injects a function in Internet Explorer/Chrome but it doesn't work with these processes. Basically, it fills one big structure with all the APIs my function needs, strings, and other data, then it opens a process to get a handle, virtualallocex to allocate enough memory to store a function and structure there, and it writes the function and the structure in allocated memory. It then runs createremotethread there with the function as a starting address and structure as parameter. It works all great with calc/notepad/winamp processes but I have problems with browser injection. I'm wondering what could it be, I'm using these APIs. x.xCreateFile x.xWriteFile x.xCloseHandle x.xSleep x.xVirtualAlloc x.xVirtualFree x.xMessageBox x.xLoadLibrary x.xShellExecute Is it because browsers are protected now and they're running with lowest privileges?

    Read the article

  • Dependency Injection -Colloquial explanation

    - by nettguy
    Recently I was asked to express the DI in colloquial explanation. I answered : 1) I am going to a hotel.I ordered food.The hotel management asks me to clean the plates and clean the tables.So here i am a client,I am responsible for managing the service (Instantiating,executing,disposing).But DI decouples such tasks so the service consumer no need not worry about controlling the life cycle of the service. 2) He also asked is there any microsoft API follows DI ?.I answered (This was my guess) In WCF you can create a Proxy using ChannelFactory that controls the life time of your factory. for item (1) he said only 10% is correct for item(2) he said that is factory pattern not dependency injection. Actually what went wrong in my explanation (apart from my bad English) ? What is the real answers for those? I am waiting for your valuable suggestions.

    Read the article

  • Calling MethodBase's Invoke on a constructor (reflection)

    - by Alix
    Hi everyone. First of all, sorry if this has been asked before. I've done a pretty comprehensive search and found nothing quite like it, but I may have missed something. And now to the question: I'm trying to invoke a constructor through reflection, with no luck. Basically, I have an object that I want to clone, so I look up the copy constructor for its type and then want to invoke it. Here's what I have: public Object clone(Object toClone) { MethodBase copyConstructor = type.GetConstructor( new Type[] { toClone.GetType() }); return method.Invoke(toClone, new object[] { toClone }); //<-- doesn't work } I call the above method like so: List list = new List(new int[] { 0, 1, 2 }); List clone = (List) clone(list); Now, notice the invoke method I'm using is MethodBase's invoke. ConstructorInfo provides an invoke method that does work if invoked like this: return ((ConstructorInfo) method).Invoke(new object[] { toClone }); However, I want to use MethodBase's method, because in reality instead of looking up the copy constructor every time I will store it in a dictionary, and the dictionary contains both methods and constructors, so it's a Dictionary<MethodBase>, not Dictionary<ConstructorInfo>. I could of course cast to ConstructorInfo as I do above, but I'd rather avoid the casting and use the MethodBase method directly. I just can't figure out the right parameters. Any help? Thanks so much.

    Read the article

  • Strange constructor

    - by Bilthon
    Well, I'm gonna be pretty straightforward here, I just have a piece of code in c++ which I'm not sure I really understand and need some help with. Ok, to simplify lets just say I have a class that is defined like this: (the real class is a little bit more complicated, but this is what matters) class myClass : public Runnable { Semaphore *m_pMySemaphore; __Queue<Requests> *m_pQueue; Request m_Request; VetorSlotBuffer *m_vetorSlotBuffer; } Up to here nothing is wrong, myClass is just a regular class which has 3 members that actually are pointers to other classes and an object of the class Request, the implementation of those classes not being important for my point here. Then when this person implemented the constructor for myClass he or she did this: myClass::myClass() : m_pMySemaphore(0), m_pQueue(0), m_vetorSlotBuffer(0) { } It's pretty evident that those three variables are treated like that by the constructor because they are pointers, am I right? but what kind of syntax is that? am I setting the pointers to null by doing that? I've seen a little bit of c++ already but never found something like that. And secondly, what's the deal with the ":" after the constructor declaration? that I've seen but never took the time to investigate. Is this like an inner class or something? Thank you very much in advance. Nelson R. Perez

    Read the article

  • Object does not exist after constructor?

    - by openbas
    Hello, I have a constructor that looks like this (in c++): Interpreter::Interpreter() { tempDat == new DataObject(); tempDat->clear(); } the constructor of dataObject does absolutely nothing, and clear does this: bool DataObject::clear() { //clear the object if (current_max_id > 0) { indexTypeLookup.clear(); intData.clear(); doubleData.clear(); current_max_id = 0; } } Those members are defined as follows: std::map<int, int> indexTypeLookup; std::map<int, int> intData; std::map<int, double> doubleData; Now the strange thing is that I'm getting a segfault on tempDat-clear(); gdb says tempDat is null. How is that possible? The constructor of tempDat cannot fail, it looks like this: DataObject::DataObject() : current_max_id(0) { } I know there are probably better way's of making such a data structure, but I really like to know where this segfault problem is coming from..

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14  | Next Page >