Search Results

Search found 1765 results on 71 pages for 'ddl triggers'.

Page 7/71 | < Previous Page | 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14  | Next Page >

  • Multi table Triggers SQL Server noob

    - by Chin
    I have a load of tables all with the same 2 datetime columns (lastModDate, dateAdded). I am wondering if I can set up global Insert Update trigger for these tables to set the datetime values. Or if not, what approaches are there? Any pointers much appreciated

    Read the article

  • jquery window.unload triggers post after unload

    - by index
    I am trying to do a post to server before unloading a page and I followed this and it's working fine. My problem is the $.post on window.unload is triggered after it has unloaded. I tried it with a signout link and checking on my logs, I get the following: Started GET "/signout" for 127.0.0.1 at 2012-11-22 00:15:08 +0800 Processing by SessionsController#destroy as HTML Redirected to http://localhost:3000/ Completed 302 Found in 1ms Started GET "/" for 127.0.0.1 at 2012-11-22 00:15:08 +0800 Processing by HomeController#index as HTML Rendered home/index.html.erb within layouts/application (0.4ms) Rendered layouts/_messages.html.erb (0.1ms) Completed 200 OK in 13ms (Views: 12.9ms) Started POST "/unloading" for 127.0.0.1 at 2012-11-22 00:15:08 +0800 Processing by HomeController#unloading as */* Parameters: {"p1"=>"1"} WARNING: Can't verify CSRF token authenticity Completed 500 Internal Server Error in 0ms NoMethodError (undefined method `id' for nil:NilClass): app/controllers/home_controller.rb:43:in `unloading' First part is the signout and then user gets redirected to root then it runs the post ('/unloading'). Is there a way to make the '/unloading' execute first then execute whatever the unload action was? I have this as my jquery post $(window).unload -> $.ajax { async: false, beforeSend: (xhr) -> xhr.setRequestHeader('X-CSRF-Token', $('meta[name="csrf-token"]').attr('content')) , url: '/unloading' , type: 'Post' , data: { p1: '1' } }

    Read the article

  • JQuery event that triggers after CSS is loaded?

    - by Dave
    (I posted this on the jquery forums but it's still awaiting moderation, so I thought I'd try my luck here since stackoverflow is so awesome. If I get an answer I'll post it here.) Maybe someone can help me with this, I have a couple of links on my page (inside a <div id="theme-selector">) which allow you to change the CSS stylesheets: $('#theme-selector a').click(function(){ var path = $(this).attr('href'); $('head link').remove(); $('head').append('<link type="text/css" href="'+path+'" rel="stylesheet" />'); return false; }); Now, after I've changed the style on the page, I want to get the new background color, using the following code (which I put after the $('head').append call): var bgcolor = $('body').css('background-color'); alert(bgcolor); The problem is, I think, that it takes some time for the browser to download the new stylesheet and I sometimes get the old background color in my alert message. Is there some event I can bind that will only alert me after all the stylesheets are loaded on the page? At the moment, all I can think of is using a setTimeout(function(){}, 5000); which isn't great, because what if it takes longer/shorter to load all the CSS on the page. Let me know if I need to clarify anything and I can provide more code. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Mysql: how do I make an exact working copy of a table?

    - by epo
    I am working on a restructuring of a legacy database and its associated applications. To keep old and new working in parallel I have created a development database and copied the tables of interest to it, e.g. create database devdb; drop table if exists devdb.tab1; CREATE TABLE devdb.tab1 like working.tab1; insert into devdb.tab1 select * from working.tab1; Having done this I notice that triggers affecting tab1 have not been copied over. Is there any way in which I can produce a working copy of tab1, i.e. data, permissions, triggers, everything?

    Read the article

  • ORACLE and TRIGGERS (inserted, updated, deleted)

    - by vandalo
    Hello, I would like to use a trigger on table which will be fired every time a row is inserted, updated, deleted. I wrote something like this: CREATE or REPLACE TRIGGER test001 AFTER INSERT OR DELETE OR UPDATE ON tabletest001 REFERENCING OLD AS old_buffer NEW AS new_buffer FOR EACH ROW WHEN (new_buffer.field1 = 'HBP00') and it works. Since I would like to do the same things if the row is inserted, updated or deleted I would like to know what's happening in the trigger. I think I can manage to find if the row in inserted or updated (I can check the old_buffer with the new_buffer). How can I know if the row has been deleted? Alberto

    Read the article

  • jQuery responds to click() differently for user and programmatic triggers

    - by Moss
    Here's the code: this.Form.find("input[type=checkbox]").click(function(event) { if ($(this).is(":checked")) { console.log("checked"); } else { console.log("unchecked"); } }); If the checkbox is not checked, and I click with the mouse, I get "checked". If I trigger it programmatically like $("#someCheckbox").click(), I get "unchecked". How to make the two behave the same way?

    Read the article

  • DAQ Triggers in Matlab

    - by RidePlanet
    I'm writing a program that detects the speed of a object by hall effect sensors that are run into MATLAB through a DAQ (MCC USB-1408FS) The problem that has arisen is that I'm using a non-stop scan technique to detect the state of one of 3 sensors. Unfortunately this means that unless the object is rotating past each sensor at the exact rate the program runs, I will see an instantaneous speed (done by comparing the time between two sensors) of zero. I need the sensors to signal the program to count when they are hit, instead of constantly scanning for the signal. How can this be done?

    Read the article

  • Test Column exists, Add Column, and Update Column

    - by david.clarke
    I'm trying to write a SQL Server database update script. I want to test for the existence of a column in a table, then if it doesn't exist add the column with a default value, and finally update that column based on the current value of a different column in the same table. I want this script to be runnable multiple times, the first time updating the table and on subsequent runs the script should be ignored. My script currently looks like the following: IF NOT EXISTS(SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.COLUMNS WHERE TABLE_NAME = 'PurchaseOrder' AND COLUMN_NAME = 'IsDownloadable') BEGIN ALTER TABLE [dbo].[PurchaseOrder] ADD [IsDownloadable] bit NOT NULL DEFAULT 0 UPDATE [dbo].[PurchaseOrder] SET [IsDownloadable] = 1 WHERE [Ref] IS NOT NULL END SQL Server returns error "Invalid column name 'IsDownloadable'", i.e. I need to commit the DDL before I can update the column. I've tried various permutations but I'm getting nowhere fast.

    Read the article

  • how to submit a form without losing values already selected at the same form

    - by kawtousse
    Hi everyone, I am using jstl with dropdown lists. When i click submit button i success the specification but values int dropdownlists are reinitialized. So I want to submit form without loosing the values already selected in the form because I need to stay always at the same level in the form.To be more clear, user choose a value from ddl and click edit button to show other options and fill them at the same form without loosing what he has selected. I have tried to deal like that... <form action="myjsp.jsp" method="post"> <input type="Submit" value="Edit"> ...but it doesn't work. Thank you for your help.

    Read the article

  • how create a sql database fom a stongly typed dataset

    - by Keith Vinson
    I'm looking for an easy way to transfer a database schema I have developed inside visual studio as a strongly typed dataset (xsd file) into a corresponding sql server database. Silly me I assumed the process would be forthright, but I can't find out how to do it. I assume I could duplicate the tables column by column, but that seems so error prone. Does anyone know of a way to perform the schema transfer like this? Maybe a tool to translate the xsd file into a corresponding sql server ddl file? Final thought once I have the schema transferred moving data around between the two data stores will be straight forward, its just getting the schemas synced that has me stumped... Thanks, Keith

    Read the article

  • guarantee child records either in one table or another, but not both?

    - by user151841
    I have a table with two child tables. For each record in the parent table, I want one and only one record in one of the child tables -- not one in each, not none. How to I define that? Here's the backstory. Feel free to criticize this implementation, but please answer the question above, because this isn't the only time I've encountered it: I have a database that holds data pertaining to user surveys. It was originally designed with one authentication method for starting a survey. Since then, requirements have changed, and now there are two different ways someone could sign on to start a survey. Originally I captured the authentication token in a column in the survey table. Since requirements changed, there are three other bits of data that I want to capture in authentication. So for each record in the survey table, I'm either going to have one token, or a set of three. All four of these are of different types, so my thought was, instead of having four columns where either one is going to be null, or three are going to be null ( or even worse, a bad mashup of either of those scenarios ), I would have two child tables, one for holding the single authentication token, the other for holding the three. Problem is, I don't know offhand how to define that in DDL. I'm using MySQL, so maybe there's a feature that MySQL doesn't implement that lets me do this.

    Read the article

  • Async trigger for an update panel refreshes entire page when triggering too much in too short of tim

    - by Matt
    I have a search button tied to an update panel as a trigger like so: <asp:Panel ID="CRM_Search" runat="server"> <p>Search:&nbsp;<asp:TextBox ID="CRM_Search_Box" CssClass="CRM_Search_Box" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="CRM_Search_Button" CssClass="CRM_Search_Button" runat="server" Text="Search" OnClick="SearchLeads" /></p> </asp:Panel> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="CRM_Search_Button" /> </Triggers> <ContentTemplate> /* Content Here */ </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> In my javascript I use jQuery to grab the search box and tie it's keyup to make the search button click: $($(".CRM_Search_Box")[0]).keyup( function () { $($(".CRM_Search_Button")[0]).click(); } ); This works perfectly, except when I start typing too fast. As soon as I type too fast (my guess is if it's any faster than the data actually returns) the entire page refreshes (doing a postback?) instead of just the update panel. I've also found that instead of typing, if I just click the button really fast it starts doing the same thing. Is there any way to prevent it from doing this? Possibly prevent 2nd requests until the first has been completed? If I'm not on the right track then anyone have any other ideas? Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • Conflict When Two Storyboards Sets the Opacity Property?

    - by kennethkryger
    Hi, Background: I have a WPF UserControl (MainControl - not shown in code below) that contains another one (called MyControl in the code below). MainControl has it's DataContext set to an object, that has a Project-property. When MainControl loads, the Project-property is always null. The problem: When MainControl loads, I want to fade in the MyControl using a special storyboard (only used this one time (this "specialFadeInStoryboard" changes Opacity-property of MyControl from 0 to 1). When the Project-property is set to a value other than null, I want the MyControl to fade out using the "fadeOutStoryboard" (changes Opacity-property of MyControl to 0) and if it's set to null afterwards I want to fade it in again this time using the "fadeInStoryboard" (changes Opacity-property of MyControl to 1). However, after adding the code for the "specialFadeInStoryboard", the MyControl is never faded out... What am I doing wrong? <local:MyControl Visibility="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=Opacity, Converter={StaticResource opacityToVisibilityConverter}, Mode=OneWay}"> <local:MyControl.Style> <Style> <Style.Triggers> <EventTrigger RoutedEvent="FrameworkElement.Loaded"> <BeginStoryboard Storyboard="{StaticResource specialFadeInStoryboard}"/> </EventTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Project, Converter={StaticResource nullToBooleanConverter}, Mode=OneWay}" Value="True"> <DataTrigger.EnterActions> <BeginStoryboard Storyboard="{StaticResource fadeOutStoryboard}"/> </DataTrigger.EnterActions> <DataTrigger.ExitActions> <BeginStoryboard Storyboard="{StaticResource fadeInStoryboard}"/> </DataTrigger.ExitActions> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </local:MyControl.Style> </local:MyControl>

    Read the article

  • What is the behavior of a WPF 4 ControlStoryboardAction trigger?

    - by jonathan_ou
    Hi all! I have a question that's been bugging me for a while: I have a lengthy IO operation which I invoke asynchronously, and I want my UI to show a blinking text to tell the users that the data is loading. I have an IsLoading boolean property in my ViewModel, and I used a ControlStoryboardAction to kickoff the blinking animation, which is set to repeat forever. For my ControlStoryboardAction trigger, I configured a data trigger to see if IsLoading is true, and start my storyboard if true. My problem is, when my IO operation returns, and I set IsLoading back to false, the animation continues to play. I thought once the trigger condition evaluated to false, it would stop the animation? I then added a second ControlStoryboardAction to stop the animation if IsLoading evaluted to false, but this didn't have any effect. The animation continued to play after IsLoading was false. Can anyone explain to me how trigger works in ControlStoryboardAction? In normal data triggers in WPF, once the condition evaluated to false, the property would be set back to its original state. It seems triggers in WPF actions don't work the same way? Thanks in advance for your help!

    Read the article

  • Why is button background defaulting to grey when IsPressed is true

    - by Dave Colwell
    Hey all, I have a simple problem. Using the IsPressed trigger i want to be able to set the background color of a button to something other than the default grey. Here is what the button looks like when it is not pressed and here is what it looks like when it is clicked Here is the trigger for the button. I know the trigger is firing correctly because of the glow effect around the edge of the button when it is clicked. I also know that the brush is correct because i tried it out as a background brush to see what it looked like. <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsMouseOver" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="{DynamicResource ButtonHoverBrush}"/> <Setter Property="BitmapEffect" Value="{DynamicResource ButtonHoverGlow}"/> </Trigger> <!-- This is the trigger which is working but the background color wont change --> <Trigger Property="IsPressed" Value="True"> <Setter Property="BitmapEffect" Value="{DynamicResource ButtonHoverGlow}"/> <Setter Property="Background" Value="{DynamicResource ButtonPressedBrush}" /> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers>

    Read the article

  • Extract primary key from MySQL in PHP

    - by Parth
    I have created a PHP script and I am lacking to extract the primary key, I have given flow below, please help me in how can i modify to get primary key I am using MySQL DB, working for Joomla, My requirement is tracking the activity like insert/update/delete on any table and store it in another audit table using triggers, i.e. I am doing Auditing. DB's table structure: Few tables dont have any PK nor auto increment key Flow of my script is : I fetch out all table from DB. I check whether the table have any trigger or not. If yes then it moves to check nfor next table and so on. If it does'nt find any trigger then it creates the triggers for the table, such that, -it first checks if the table has any primary key or not(for inserting in Tracking audit table for every change made) if it has the primary key then it uses it further in creation of trigger. if it doesnt find any PK then it proceeds further in creating the trigger without inserting any id in audit table Now here, My problem is I need the PK every time so that I can record the id of any particular table in which the insert/update/delete is performed, so that further i can use this audit track table to replicate in production DB.. Now as I haave mentioned earlier that I am not available with PK/auto-incremented in some table, then what should I do get the particular id in which change is done? please guide me...GEEKS!!!

    Read the article

  • How can I bind another DependencyProperty to the IsChecked Property of a CheckBox?

    - by speedmetal
    Here's an example of what I'm trying to accomplish: <Window x:Class="CheckBoxBinding.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <StackPanel> <CheckBox Name="myCheckBox">this</CheckBox> <Grid> <Grid.Resources> <Style TargetType="ListBox"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="{Binding ElementName=myCheckBox, Path=IsChecked}" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Red" /> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </Grid.Resources> <ListBox> <ListBoxItem>item</ListBoxItem> <ListBoxItem>another</ListBoxItem> </ListBox> </Grid> </StackPanel> </Window> When I try to run it, I get this XamlParseException: A 'Binding' cannot be set on the 'Property' property of type 'Trigger'. A 'Binding' can only be set on a DependencyProperty of a DependencyObject. So how can I bind a property on the ListBox to the IsChecked property of a CheckBox?

    Read the article

  • MySQL db Audit Trail Trigger

    - by Natkeeran
    I need to track changes (audit trail) in certain tables in a MySql Db. I am trying to implement the solution suggested here. I have an AuditLog Table with the following columns: AuditLogID, TableName, RowPK, FieldName, OldValue, NewValue, TimeStamp. The mysql stored procedure is the following (this executes fine, and creates the procedure): The call to the procedure such as: CALL addLogTrigger('ProductTypes', 'ProductTypeID'); executes, but does not create any triggers (see the image). SHOW TRIGGERS returns empty set. Please let me know what could be the issue, or an alternate way to implement this. DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS addLogTrigger; DELIMITER $ CREATE PROCEDURE addLogTrigger(IN tableName VARCHAR(255), IN pkField VARCHAR(255)) BEGIN SELECT CONCAT( 'DELIMITER $\n', 'CREATE TRIGGER ', tableName, '_AU AFTER UPDATE ON ', tableName, ' FOR EACH ROW BEGIN ', GROUP_CONCAT( CONCAT( 'IF NOT( OLD.', column_name, ' <=> NEW.', column_name, ') THEN INSERT INTO AuditLog (', 'TableName, ', 'RowPK, ', 'FieldName, ', 'OldValue, ', 'NewValue' ') VALUES ( ''', table_name, ''', NEW.', pkField, ', ''', column_name, ''', OLD.', column_name, ', NEW.', column_name, '); END IF;' ) SEPARATOR ' ' ), ' END;$' ) FROM information_schema.columns WHERE table_schema = database() AND table_name = tableName; END$ DELIMITER ;

    Read the article

  • How to display combo box as textbox in WPF via a style template trigger?

    - by Greg R
    I would like to display a combobox drop down list as a textbox when it's set to be read only. For some reason I can't seem to bind the text of the selected item in the combo box to the textbox. This is my XAML: <Style x:Key="EditableDropDown" TargetType="ComboBox"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsReadOnly" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="#FFFFFF" /> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="ComboBox"> <TextBox Text="{TemplateBinding SelectedItem, Converter={StaticResource StringCaseConverter}}" BorderThickness="0" Background="Transparent" FontSize="{TemplateBinding FontSize}" HorizontalAlignment="{TemplateBinding HorizontalAlignment}" FontFamily="{TemplateBinding FontFamily}" Width="{TemplateBinding Width}" TextWrapping="Wrap"/> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> <ComboBox IsReadOnly="{Binding ReadOnlyMode}" Style="{StaticResource EditableDropDown}" Margin="0 0 10 0"> <ComboBoxItem IsSelected="True">Test</ComboBoxItem> </ComboBox> When I do this, I get the following as the text: System.Windows.Controls.ComboBoxItem: Test I would really appreciate the help!

    Read the article

  • I have created a PHP script and I am lacking to extract the primary key, I have given flow below, pl

    - by Parth
    I am using MySQL DB, working for Joomla, My requirement is tracking the activity like insert/update/delete on any table and store it in another audit table using triggers, i.e. I am doing Auditing. DB's table structure: Few tables dont have any PK nor auto increment key Flow of my script is : I fetch out all table from DB. I check whether the table have any trigger or not. If yes then it moves to check nfor next table and so on. If it does'nt find any trigger then it creates the triggers for the table, such that, -it first checks if the table has any primary key or not(for inserting in Tracking audit table for every change made) if it has the primary key then it uses it further in creation of trigger. if it doesnt find any PK then it proceeds further in creating the trigger without inserting any id in audit table Now here, My problem is I need the PK every time so that I can record the id of any particular table in which the insert/update/delete is performed, so that further i can use this audit track table to replicate in production DB.. Now as I haave mentioned earlier that I am not available with PK/auto-incremented in some table, then what should I do get the particular id in which change is done? please guide me...GEEKS!!!

    Read the article

  • Where does a Server trigger save in SQL Server?

    - by Mostafa
    A couple of days ago , I was practicing and I wrote some triggers like these : create trigger trg_preventionDrop on all server for drop_database as print 'Can not Drop Database' rollback tran go create trigger trg_preventDeleteTable on database for drop_table as print 'you can not delete any table' rollback tran But the problem is I don't know where it has saved and How can I delete or edit those. Thank you

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14  | Next Page >