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  • What is the purpose of both target API and minSDK

    - by Scott Ferguson
    Can somebody explain to me the difference between the project target and the minimum SDK? I want my app to run on Donut devices, and the APK I built with a target of 7 worked just fine. When I set an explicit minimum SDK in the Android manifest of 4 (1.6) the compiler bitched at me that the target exceeded the minimum. I reset the target to 4 only to see what would happen, and now I've got compiler errors. An example is the START_NOT_STICKY constant in android.app.Service. It doesn't exist in API level 4, but does exist in API level 7. This is also the case with Service.onStartCommand(). In API level 7 you need to explicity override this method, whereas in API level 4 you don't. So why does the app work in 1.6 despite all this? How could 1.6 know how to use SERVICE_NOT_STICKY when the associated API level doesn't know about it?

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  • How to get target element of keypress in designmode iframe

    - by Tom
    Is it possible to get the target element in a keypress event handler in a design mode iframe ? I know it can be done in the mousedown event handler (by accessing event.target), but in the keypress / keydown handlers event.target is always the iframe element. For example, with the following html, if the user types into the div where it says * key press here *, I would like in the keypress / keydown event handler to be able to determine that the target element is the div with id='b'. Is this possible ? <div id='a'> <div id='b'> *** Key press here *** </div> </div>

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  • DirectX: Render to a screen buffer without using a render target

    - by knight666
    Hello, I'm writing an open source 2D game engine, and I want to support as many devices and platforms as possible. I currently only have Windows Mobile though. I'm rendering using DirectX Mobile, with DirectDraw as a fallback path. However, I've run into a bit of trouble. It seems that while the reference driver supports createRenderTarget, many many many physical devices do not. I need some way to render to the screen without using a render target, because I render sprites using textured quads, but I also need to be able to draw individual pixels. This is how I do it right now: // save old values if (Error::Failed(m_D3DDevice->GetRenderTarget(&m_D3DOldTarget))) { ERROR_EXPLAIN("Could not retrieve backbuffer."); return false; } // clear render surface if (Error::Failed(m_D3DDevice->SetRenderTarget(m_D3DRenderSurface, NULL))) { ERROR_EXPLAIN("Could not set render target to render texture."); return false; } if (Error::Failed (m_D3DDevice->Clear( 0, NULL, // target rectangle D3DMCLEAR_TARGET, D3DMCOLOR_XRGB(0, 0, 0), // clear color 1.0f, 0 ) ) ) { ERROR_EXPLAIN("Failed to clear render texture."); return false; } D3DMLOCKED_RECT render_rect; if (Error::Failed(m_D3DRenderSurface->LockRect(&render_rect, NULL, NULL))) { ERROR_EXPLAIN("Failed to lock render surface pixels."); } else { m_D3DBackSurf->SetBuffer((Pixel*)render_rect.pBits); m_D3DRenderSurface->UnlockRect(); } // begin scene if (Error::Failed(m_D3DDevice->BeginScene())) { ERROR_EXPLAIN("Failed to start rendering."); return false; } // ===================== // example rendering // ===================== // some other stuff, but the most important part of rendering a sprite: device->SetTexture(0, m_Texture)); device->SetStreamSource(0, m_VertexBuffer, sizeof(Vertex)); device->DrawPrimitive(D3DMPT_TRIANGLELIST, 0, 2); // plotting a pixel Surface* target = (Surface*)Device::GetRenderMethod()->GetRenderTarget(); buffer = target->GetBuffer(); buffer[somepixel] = MAKECOLOR(255, 0, 0); // end scene if (Error::Failed(device->EndScene())) { ERROR_EXPLAIN("Failed to end scene."); return false; } // clear screen if (Error::Failed(device->SetRenderTarget(m_D3DOldTarget, NULL))) { ERROR_EXPLAIN("Couldn't set render target to backbuffer."); return false; } if (Error::Failed(device->GetBackBuffer ( 0, D3DMBACKBUFFER_TYPE_MONO, &m_D3DBack ) ) ) { ERROR_EXPLAIN("Couldn't retrieve backbuffer."); return false; } RECT dest = { 0, 0, Device::GetWidth(), Device::GetHeight() }; if (Error::Failed( device->StretchRect ( m_D3DRenderSurface, NULL, m_D3DBack, &dest, D3DMTEXF_NONE ) ) ) { ERROR_EXPLAIN("Failed to stretch render texture to backbuffer."); return false; } if (Error::Failed(device->Present(NULL, NULL, NULL, NULL))) { ERROR_EXPLAIN("Failed to present device."); return false; } I'm looking for a way to do the same thing (render sprites using hardware acceleration and plot pixels on a buffer) without using a render target. Thanks in advance.

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  • cannot upgrade current target for ipad

    - by choise
    Hi everyone, i try to upgrade my old existing app to make it a universal application for iphone and ipad. i clicked on my target and tryed to select "upgrade current target for ipad", but i cannot click it, because its not clickable. my project settings are: The Base SDK is set to iPhone Device 3.2 The iPhone OS Deployment Target is set to iPhone OS 3.1 The Targeted Device Family is set to iPhone/iPad are there any other things i have to pay attention? please help, to get my application upgraded.

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  • How to use xcode compiler warnings to determine minimum IOS deployment target

    - by Martin Bayly
    I'm building an iOS app using Xcode 3.2.5 with the Base SDK set to iOS 4.2 I know I've used some api's from 4.0 and 4.1 but not sure about whether I actually require 4.2. According to the iOS Development Guide, "Xcode displays build warnings when it detects that your application is using a feature that’s not available in the target OS release". So I was hoping to use the compiler warnings to derive my minimum OS requirement. However, even when I set my iOS Deployment Target to iOS 3.0, I still don't get any compiler warnings. I must be doing something wrong, but not sure what? Can anyone confirm that they get compiler warnings when the iOS deployment target is less than the base SDK and the code uses base SDK functions? Or do the compiler warnings only show if you link a framework that didn't exist in the iOS deployment target version?

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  • jQuery, drop image on overlaping target

    - by Cinaird
    I am using jQuery to detect drop on target, the target in question is a image. If i drag one image upon another, and then drop it, it shall replace the target source with the dropped source. This works fine until two images lies upon each other. Some of the images lies next to each other and some times the target images overlap. if i drop, both the visible image and the image beneath is replaced with the dragged image. I hope the problem is clear and their is any good solution

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  • jQuery e.target bubbling best practice ?

    - by olouv
    In my heavy-ajax code, i always bind "click" the body tag & act depending on $(e.target) & using $.fn.hasClass(). However when i click on an anchor that has a </span> tag inside, my $(e.target) equals this node, and not the parent anchor as i would like it to. From now on, i have used this trick (var $t = $(e.target);) : /** bubbling **/ if($t.get(0).tagName !== "A" && $t.get(0).tagName !== "AREA") { $t = $t.parent("a"); if(empty($t)) return true; //else console.log("$t.bubble()", $t); } It feels wrong somehow... Do you have any better implementation ? $.fn.live() does not solve my issue as it still returns the span as the target. Moreover i'm looking for speed (running on atom-based touch devices) & live appeared to be way slower (twice) : http://jsperf.com/bind-vs-click/3 In fact, as @Guffa pointed, using $.fn.live() solves the span bubbling issue as i don't need the event.target anymore. I guess there is no other "right" answer here (using bind).

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  • Target Framework does not change in Visual Studio 2010

    - by Adam Driscoll
    When I change the target framework of any project in Visual Studio 2010 it does not actually change the System assembly references. For example if I target v2.0 and check the properties of System and System.Data I can see that they are still both v4.0. If i change the target to v3.5, System stays at v4.0 but System.Core changes to v3.5. Because of this I am truly not targeting anything except v4.0.

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  • Prevent an element from being the target in a document mouseover

    - by Sander
    I'm building an firebug-like inspection tool for my page. When the mouse enters an element, the element should be highlighted. Now I'm creating an element which I position absolute on top of the target element, this however means the next mousemove event (which is bound to the document) will fire with the actual "highlight element" as the target. Is there a way to prevent the "highlight element" from being the target element in the mousemove event? The element already has a transparant background.

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  • [Javascript] Prevent an element from being the target in a document mouseover

    - by Sander
    I'm building an firebug-like inspection tool for my page. When the mouse enters an element, the element should be highlighted. Now I'm creating an element which I position absolute on top of the target element, this however means the next mousemove event (which is bound to the document) will fire with the actual "highlight element" as the target. Is there a way to prevent the "highlight element" from being the target element in the mousemove event? The element already has a transparant background.

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  • Echo target description in Ant

    - by kunjaan
    <target name="compile" description="Compile the File"> <echo>Compile the File </echo> <mkdir dir="${compilation-dir}" /> <javac srcdir="." classpath="another2" destdir="${compilation-dir}" /> </target> I want to echo the description of the target. Is there a better way of doing this other than duplicating it?

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  • VB.NET IF() Coalesce and “Expression Expected” Error

    - by Jeff Widmer
    I am trying to use the equivalent of the C# “??” operator in some VB.NET code that I am working in. This StackOverflow article for “Is there a VB.NET equivalent for C#'s ?? operator?” explains the VB.NET IF() statement syntax which is exactly what I am looking for... and I thought I was going to be done pretty quickly and could move on. But after implementing the IF() statement in my code I started to receive this error: Compiler Error Message: BC30201: Expression expected. And no matter how I tried using the “IF()” statement, whenever I tried to visit the aspx page that I was working on I received the same error. This other StackOverflow article Using VB.NET If vs. IIf in binding/rendering expression indicated that the VB.NET IF() operator was not available until VS2008 or .NET Framework 3.5.  So I checked the Web Application project properties but it was targeting the .NET Framework 3.5: So I was still not understanding what was going on, but then I noticed the version information in the detailed compiler output of the error page: This happened to be a C# project, but with an ASPX page with inline VB.NET code (yes, it is strange to have that but that is the project I am working on).  So even though the project file was targeting the .NET Framework 3.5, the ASPX page was being compiled using the .NET Framework 2.0.  But why?  Where does this get set?  How does ASP.NET know which version of the compiler to use for the inline code? For this I turned to the web.config.  Here is the system.codedom/compilers section that was in the web.config for this project: <system.codedom>     <compilers>         <compiler language="c#;cs;csharp" extension=".cs" warningLevel="4" type="Microsoft.CSharp.CSharpCodeProvider, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089">             <providerOption name="CompilerVersion" value="v3.5" />             <providerOption name="WarnAsError" value="false" />         </compiler>     </compilers> </system.codedom> Keep in mind that this is a C# web application project file but my aspx file has inline VB.NET code.  The web.config does not have any information for how to compile for VB.NET so it defaults to .NET 2.0 (instead of 3.5 which is what I need). So the web.config needed to include the VB.NET compiler option.  Here it is with both the C# and VB.NET options (I copied the VB.NET config from a new VB.NET Web Application project file).     <system.codedom>         <compilers>             <compiler language="c#;cs;csharp" extension=".cs" warningLevel="4" type="Microsoft.CSharp.CSharpCodeProvider, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089">                 <providerOption name="CompilerVersion" value="v3.5" />                 <providerOption name="WarnAsError" value="false" />             </compiler>       <compiler language="vb;vbs;visualbasic;vbscript" extension=".vb" warningLevel="4" type="Microsoft.VisualBasic.VBCodeProvider, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089">         <providerOption name="CompilerVersion" value="v3.5"/>         <providerOption name="OptionInfer" value="true"/>         <providerOption name="WarnAsError" value="false"/>       </compiler>     </compilers>     </system.codedom>   So the inline VB.NET code on my aspx page was being compiled using the .NET Framework 2.0 when it really needed to be compiled with the .NET Framework 3.5 compiler in order to take advantage of the VB.NET IF() coalesce statement.  Without the VB.NET web.config compiler option, the default is to compile using the .NET Framework 2.0 and the VB.NET IF() coalesce statement does not exist (at least in the form that I want it in).  FYI, there is an older IF statement in VB.NET 2.0 compiler which is why it is giving me the unusual “Expression Expected” error message – see this article for when VB.NET got the new updated version. EDIT (2011-06-20): I had made a wrong assumption in the first version of this blog post.  After a little more research and investigation I was able to figure out that the issue was in the web.config and not with the IIS App Pool.  Thanks to the comment from James which forced me to look into this again.

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  • How to connect SAN from CentOS through two iSCSI Targets

    - by garconcn
    I had asked the similar question before. This time I want to use subnet for two iSCSI Targets, hence I start a new question. I have an old Promise VTrak M500i SAN Server. It comes with 2 iSCSI ports. I want to connect to two LUNs on the SAN server through two separate Targets from CentOS 5.7 64bits server. My network setup is as follows: CentOS server: Management network - 192.168.1.1 Storage network 1 - 192.168.5.2 Storage network 2 - 192.168.6.2 Promise SAN server: Management network - 192.168.1.2 iSCSI Port 1 - 192.168.5.1 iSCSI Port 2 - 192.168.6.1 I have two Logical Drives on this SAN and they are mapped as follows: Index Initiator Name LUN Mapping 0 iqn.2011-11:backup (LD0,0) 1 iqn.2011-11:template (LD1,1) Basically, I want the traffic to iqn.2011-11:backup LUN 0 through 192.168.5.1 network the traffic to iqn.2011-11:template LUN 1 through 192.168.6.1 network I don't use MPIO, just want to separate the traffic to avoid traffic jam. How do I achieve this? I am new to SAN stuff, please explain as much detail as you can. Thank you. The following are what I am doing now. After mapping the LUN to my pre-defined Initiators, the CentOS server can discover both Targets. [root@centos ~]# iscsiadm -m discovery -t sendtargets -p 192.168.5.1 192.168.5.1:3260,1 iscsi-1 192.168.6.1:3260,2 iscsi-1 [root@centos ~]# iscsiadm -m discovery -t sendtargets -p 192.168.6.1 192.168.6.1:3260,2 iscsi-1 192.168.5.1:3260,1 iscsi-1 [root@centos ~]# /etc/init.d/iscsi start iscsid is stopped Starting iSCSI daemon: [ OK ] [ OK ] Setting up iSCSI targets: Logging in to [iface: default, target: iscsi-1, portal: 192.168.6.1,3260] Logging in to [iface: default, target: iscsi-1, portal: 192.168.5.1,3260] Login to [iface: default, target: iscsi-1, portal: 192.168.6.1,3260] successful. Login to [iface: default, target: iscsi-1, portal: 192.168.5.1,3260] successful. [ OK ] [root@centos ~]# iscsiadm -m session tcp: [1] 192.168.6.1:3260,2 iscsi-1 tcp: [2] 192.168.5.1:3260,1 iscsi-1 When I check the LUN mapping on the SAN server for the two Logical Drives, both LUNs are connected through Port0-192.168.5.2 with the Initiator defined in CentOS. Assigned Initiator List: Initiator Name Alias IP Address LUN iqn.2011-11.centos centos.mydomain.com Port0-192.168.5.2 0 Initiator Name Alias IP Address LUN iqn.2011-11.centos centos.mydomain.com Port1-192.168.5.2 1 I assume the following is what I want: Initiator Name Alias IP Address LUN iqn.2011-11.backup centos.mydomain.com Port0-192.168.5.2 0 Initiator Name Alias IP Address LUN iqn.2011-11.template centos.mydomain.com Port0-192.168.6.2 1

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  • rewrite condition to target Via: Varnish 1.1

    - by P4ul
    I have a Drupal site that uses Varnish. I am trying to redirect people that come to a url starting with /node when they view the site via Varnish. I have tried the following in the .htaccess file but it gives 500 errors. RewriteCond %{HTTP:Via} =1.1 varnish RewriteRule ^node / [R=301,NC,L] I haven't been able to find anything using google in relation to how to target the 'Via' section of a header. Cheers, Paul

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  • how to update a symbolic link target (ln -f -s not working)

    - by solid
    I'm using ln -f -s /var/www/html/releases/build1390 app-current to update symbolic link "app-current" with a new destination. However, this doesn't work, the link "app-current" keeps it original destination, however, I don't get any errors... I'd rather not remove the link and recreate it, just update the target of an existing link. Is that possible?

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  • Change Windows-E Target

    - by Onion-Knight
    I was wondering how we can change the Win-E key combination to another target besides the default C:\. I've tried changing the shortcut in Start -> Programs -> Accessories -> Windows Explorer to %SystemRoot%\explorer.exe "C:\My Folder\", in case Win-E references this shortcut, but that did not help. Any ideas?

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  • Iptables rule creation error: No chain/target/match by that name

    - by MikO
    I'm trying to create my first VPN on a VPS with CentOS 6, following this tutorial. When I have to create an iptables rule to allow proper routing of VPN subnet, with this command: iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING -s 10.8.0.0/24 -o eth0 -j MASQUERADE It throws this error: iptables: No chain/target/match by that name I was searching and I've found that this error is usually thrown when you misspell something, but as far as I understand, the rule is correct...

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  • Ant target generate empty suite xml file

    - by user200317
    I am using ant for my project and I have been trying to generate JUnit report using ant target. The problem I run in to is that at the end of the execution my TESTS-TestSuites.xml is empty. But all the other individual test xml files have data. And due to this my html reports are empty, in the sense results shows "0". Here is my ant target <!-- JUnit Reporting --> <target name="test-report" depends="build-all" description="Generate Test Results as HTML"> <taskdef name="junitreport" classname="org.apache.tools.ant.taskdefs.optional.junit.XMLResultAggregator"/> <junit printsummary="on" haltonfailure="off" haltonerror="off" fork="yes"> <batchtest fork="yes" todir="${test.reports}" filtertrace="on"> <fileset dir="${build.classes}" includes="**/Test*Selenium.class"/> </batchtest> <formatter type="plain" usefile="false"/> <formatter type="xml" usefile="true"/> <classpath> <path refid="classpath"/> <path refid="application"/> </classpath> </junit> <echo message="running JUnit Report" /> <junitreport todir="${test.reports}"> <fileset dir="${test.reports}"> <include name="Test-*.xml" /> </fileset> <report format="frames" todir="${test.reports.html}" /> </junitreport> </target> This is what I get as ant print summary, [junitreport] Processing C:\YukonSelenium\reports\TESTS-TestSuites.xml to C:\DOCUME~1\user\LOCALS~1\Temp\null1848051184 [junitreport] Loading stylesheet jar:file:/C:/DevApps/apache-ant-1.7.1/lib/ant junit.jar!/org/apache/tools/ant/taskdefs/optional/junit/xsl/junit-frames.xsl [junitreport] Transform time: 859ms [junitreport] Deleting: C:\DOCUME~1\user\LOCALS~1\Temp\null1848051184 Here's how junit report looks like http://www.freeimagehosting.net/image.php?43dd69d3b8.jpg Thanks in advance,

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  • WPF: Selecting the Target of an Animation

    - by Phil Sandler
    I am trying to create a simple (I think) animation effect based on a property change in my ViewModel. I would like the target to be a specific textblock in the control template of a custom control, which inherits from Window. From the article examples I've seen, a DataTrigger is the easiest way to accomplish this. It appears that Window.Triggers doesn't support DataTriggers, which led me to try to apply the trigger in the style. The problem I am currently having is that I can't seem to target the TextBlock (or any other child control)--what happens is which the code below is that the animation is applied to the background of the whole window. If I leave off StoryBoard.Target completely, the effect is exactly the same. Is this the right approach with the wrong syntax, or is there an easier way to accomplish this? <Style x:Key="MyWindowStyle" TargetType="{x:Type Window}"> <Setter Property="Template" Value="{StaticResource MyWindowTemplate}"/> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ChangeOccurred}" Value="True"> <DataTrigger.EnterActions> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard BeginTime="00:00:00" Duration="0:0:2" Storyboard.Target="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=TextBlock}}" Storyboard.TargetProperty="(Background).(SolidColorBrush.Color)"> <ColorAnimation FillBehavior="Stop" From="Black" To="Red" Duration="0:0:0.5" AutoReverse="True"/> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </DataTrigger.EnterActions> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style>

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  • string comparision and counting the key in target [closed]

    - by mesun
    Suppose we want to count the number of times that a key string appears in a target string. We are going to create two different functions to accomplish this task: one iterative, and one recursive. For both functions, you can rely on Python's find function - you should read up on its specifications to see how to provide optional arguments to start the search for a match at a location other than the beginning of the string. For example, find("atgacatgcacaagtatgcat","atgc") #returns the value 5, while find("atgacatgcacaagtatgcat","atgc",6) #returns the value 15, meaning that by starting the search at index 6, #the next match is found at location 15. For the recursive version, you will want to think about how to use your function on a smaller version of the same problem (e.g., on a smaller target string) and then how to combine the result of that computation to solve the original problem. For example, given you can find the first instance of a key string in a target string, how would you combine that result with invocation of the same function on a smaller target string? You may find the string slicing operation useful in getting substrings of string.

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  • Grails target folder doesn't appear to be on application's classpath

    - by Kobi
    I have a grails project with some additional java source files under src/java folder. When compiling/running the server, the files under that directory get compiled into the project's target folder, together with all other groovy/grails classes. So far so good. However, when I try to load one of the java source files (from src/java) using reflection (Class.forName to be exact), a ClassNotFoundException gets thrown. What is peculiar about the whole thing is that if I copy that same class from project's target/ folder into the following location (on windows): <myuser>\.grails\1.2.2\projects\<MyProjectName>\resources then no exception gets thrown and the corresponding class is loaded fine. This seems to indicate to me that the integrated grails server only looks at classes within the user's dynamically generated project folder, and not the actual project's target folder. Is my understanding correct? Is there a way to force grails to copy certain classfiles from target/ folder into the resources folder within the user dir? Is there a different way to load the classfiles using reflection? I was looking at using the grailsApplication's classloader but that didn't seem to work either. Any tips would be more than welcome. Thanks a lot in advance!

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  • Target to a page inside an iframe

    - by Marcelo Srougi
    I will try to explain again: I have 3 images in my index.html that when clicked i'd like to point respectively to ourmission.html, ourvalues.html and ourvision.html. But this 3 pages are inside an iframe located in the page ourcompany.html as you can see below: <aside class="sidebar"> <h4>Our Company</h4> <ul class="nav nav-list primary pull-bottom"> <li><a href="contactus.html"target="conteudo">Contact Us</a></li> <li><a href="ourmission.html" target="conteudo">Our Mission</a></li> <li><a href="ourvalues.html" target="conteudo">Our Values</a></li> <li><a href="ourvision.html"target="conteudo">Our Vision</a></li> </ul> </aside> <iframe src="contactus.html" frameborder='0' name="conteudo" width="700" height="700"> </iframe> How do i to point them directly, so the page ourcompany.html will load with the specific iframe opened.

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