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  • How hide some nodes in Richfaces Tree (do not render nodes by condition)?

    - by VestniK
    I have a tree of categories and courses in my SEAM application. Courses may be active and inactive. I want to be able to show only active or all courses in my tree. I've decided to always build complete tree in my PAGE scope component since building this tree is quite expensive operation. I have boolean flag courseActive in the data wrapped by TreeNode<T>. Now I can't find the way to show courses node only if this flag is true. The best result I've achieved with the following code: <h:outputLabel for="showInactiveCheckbox" value="show all courses: "/> <h:selectBooleanCheckbox id="showInactiveCheckbox" value="#{categoryTreeEditorModel.showAllCoursesInTree}"> <a4j:support event="onchange" reRender="categoryTree"/> </h:selectBooleanCheckbox> <rich:tree id="categoryTree" value="#{categoryTree}" var="item" switchType="ajax" ajaxSubmitSelection="true" reRender="categoryTree,controls" adviseNodeOpened="#{categoryTreeActions.adviseRootOpened}" nodeSelectListener="#{categoryTreeActions.processSelection}" nodeFace="#{item.typeName}"> <rich:treeNode type="Category" icon="..." iconLeaf="..."> <h:outputText value="#{item.title}"/> </rich:treeNode> <rich:treeNode type="Course" icon="..." iconLeaf="..." rendered="#{item.courseActive or categoryTreeEditorModel.showAllCoursesInTree}"> <h:outputText rendered="#{item.courseActive}" value="#{item.title}"/> <h:outputText rendered="#{not item.courseActive}" value="#{item.title}" style="color:#{a4jSkin.inactiveTextColor}"/> </rich:treeNode> </rich:tree> the only problem is if some node is not listed in any rich:treeNode it just still shown with title obtained by Object.toString() method insted of being hidden. Does anybody know how to not show some nodes in the Richfases tree according to some condition?

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  • Running processes at different times stops events from working - C

    - by Jamie Keeling
    Hello, This is a question which follows on from my previously answered question here At first I assumed I had a problem with the way I was creating my events due to the handles for OpenEvent returning NULL, I have managed to find the real cause however I am not sure how to go about it. Basically I use Visual Studio to launch both Process A and B at the same time, in the past my OpenEvent handle wouldn't work due to Process A looking for the address of the event a fraction of a second before Process B had time to make it. My solution was to simply allow Process B to run before Process A, fixing the error. The problem I have now is that Process B now reads events from Process A and as you expect it too returns a null handle when trying to open the events from Process A. I am creating the events in WM_CREATE message of both processes, furthermore I also create a thread at the same time to open/read/act upon the events. It seems if I run them at the same time they don't get chance to see each other, alternatively if I run one before the other one of them misses out and can't open a Handle. Can anyone suggest a solution? Thanks.

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  • GWT + Seam, cannot fetch scoped beans from gwt servlet in seam resource servlet.

    - by David Göransson
    Hello all I am trying to get session and conversation scoped beans to a gwt servlet in the seam resource servlet. I have a conversation scoped bean: @Name ("viewFormCopyAction") @Scope (ScopeType.CONVERSATION) public class ViewFormCopyAction {} and a session scoped bean: @Name ("authenticator") @Scope (ScopeType.SESSION) public class AuthenticatorAction {} There is a RemoteService interface: @RemoteServiceRelativePath ("strokesService") public interface StrokesService extends RemoteService { public Position getPosition (int conversationId); } with corresponding async interface: public interface StrokesServiceAsync extends RemoteService { public void getPosition (int conversationId, AsyncCallback callback); } and implementation: @Name ("com.web.actions.forms.gwt.client.StrokesService") @Scope (ScopeType.EVENT) public class StrokesServiceImpl implements StrokesService { @In Manager manager; @Override @WebRemote public Position getPosition (int conversationId) { manager.switchConversation( "" + conversationId ); ViewFormCopyAction vfca = (ViewFormCopyAction) Component.getInstance( "viewFormCopyAction" ); AuthenticatorAction aa = (AuthenticatorAction) Component.getInstance( "authenticator" ); return null; } } The gwt page is within an IFrame in a regular seam page and the conversationId is propagted with the src attribute of the IFrame. Both bean objects end up with only null values. Can anyone see anything wrong with the code? I know that I could use strings instead of the int, but never mind that at this point.

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  • C# Step by Step Execution

    - by Sheldon
    Hi. I'm building an app that uses and scanner API and a image to other format converter. I have a method (actually a click event) that do this: private void ButtonScan&Parse_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { short scan_result = scanner_api.Scan(); if (scan_result == 1) parse_api.Parse(); // This will check for a saved image the scanner_api stores on disk, and then convert it. } The problem is that the if condition (scan_result == 1) is evaluated inmediatly, so it just don't work. How can I force the CLR to wait until the API return the convenient result. NOTE Just by doing something like: private void ButtonScan&Parse_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { short scan_result = scanner_api.Scan(); MessageBox.Show("Result = " + scan_result); if (scan_result == 1) parse_api.Parse(); // This will check for a saved image the scanner_api stores on disk, and then convert it. } It works and display the results. Is there a way to do this, how? Thank you very much!

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  • autocomplete: how do I avoid a duplicate search?

    - by dnagirl
    I use JQuery plugin autocomplete as a kind of dataset chooser. If the user chooses a value from the autocomplete lookup, the database is queried for the matching dataset. If the user types in a new value, the user can enter a new dataset. An issue arises when the user types in an existing value rather than choosing it from the autocomplete lookup. When this is done, the autocomplete .result() method is not called and no dataset is retrieved. To fix this I added a .blur(function(){$(this).search();}); to the input element. This fixed the original problem. Now I have the problem that .result() fires on selection from lookup AND on blur. I would like .result() to fire on selection from lookup OR on blur. How do I make that happen? Here is my code: $('#groupset').autocomplete('ajax/php/leeruns.php'); $('#groupset').result( function(event, data, formatted) { if(data){ $('#groupsetdesc').val(formatted); groups.load(data[1]); //retrieve matching dataset } else { $('#groupsetdesc').val(''); } } ).blur(function(){$(this).search();});

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  • Mouse management in JavaScript games

    - by Jakob
    Im using JavaScript, the HTML5 canvas-element and WebGL to make a simple 3D-game in first person view for fun. Ideally, I would like to control my movement by using the keyboard to move and the mouse to look around, like you usually do in FPS-games. As you probably understand, there are some limits to this in the browser, since the mouse cant be captured: When using the onmousemove event, no further movement will be detected when the mouse pointer reaches the border of my screen (which means that I wont be able to run in a circle for example) Seeing the mouse move across the screen is not the end of the world, but it is a little annoying From what I know, it's impossible to hide the mouse as well as setting it's position in JavaScript. Hence, my question is this: If we cant to those things, what can we do in order to get close to the desktop gaming experience when it comes to the mouse in the browser? And I mean right now, using current APIs. Not "what could be changed in some standard to make life easier". Also, I realize that I could use the keyboard to look around, but then we're back in 1995 when Quake were actually played like that. And of course I know that it would be easier to write a desktop application or use Flash at least, but Im trying to push JavaScript's limits here. Apart from those things, what are your suggestions? Any kind of reference, existing game, crazy idea, hack or even browser specific solution would be appreciated.

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  • Updating UI objects in windows forms

    - by P a u l
    Pre .net I was using MFC, ON_UPDATE_COMMAND_UI, and the CCmdUI class to update the state of my windows UI. From the older MFC/Win32 reference: Typically, menu items and toolbar buttons have more than one state. For example, a menu item is grayed (dimmed) if it is unavailable in the present context. Menu items can also be checked or unchecked. A toolbar button can also be disabled if unavailable, or it can be checked. Who updates the state of these items as program conditions change? Logically, if a menu item generates a command that is handled by, say, a document, it makes sense to have the document update the menu item. The document probably contains the information on which the update is based. If a command has multiple user-interface objects (perhaps a menu item and a toolbar button), both are routed to the same handler function. This encapsulates your user-interface update code for all of the equivalent user-interface objects in a single place. The framework provides a convenient interface for automatically updating user-interface objects. You can choose to do the updating in some other way, but the interface provided is efficient and easy to use. What is the guidance for .net Windows Forms? I am using an Application.Idle handler in the main form but am not sure this is the best way to do this. About the time I put all my UI updates in the Idle event handler my app started to show some performance problems, and I don't have the metrics to track this down yet. Not sure if it's related.

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  • StackPanel loded is not getting fired in.cs page

    - by prince23
    <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Loaded ="SPImage_Loaded" Orientation="Horizontal" Background="Transparent" > <Button x:Name="myButton" Click="Btn_Click"> <Image x:Name="imgMarks" " Stretch="None"/> </Button> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> in .cs i have defined the event for stack panel private void SPImage_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { try { var TargetMarks = sender as StackPanel; Image imgMarks= (Image)TargetScore.FindName("imgMarks"); Marks obj = (Marks )TargetMarks.DataContext; // here marks oject would be containg the details // here if marks.score object value is 1 then bind the image //else // dnt bind the image . that is logic i am trying to do. imgMarks.Source = new BitmapImage(new Uri("/Images/a1.png", UriKind.Relative)); } catch (Exception) { throw; } } any solution on this would be great. is there any better solution to achive this. plz help me out. thank you.

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  • Only want "Required field" error to appear ONCE in ASP.NET Validation Summary

    - by PapillonUK
    I have a form with several fields with a RequiredFieldValidator on them. If any of these fields are not filled in I only want the message "Please enter the items marked with an asterisk" to appear once in the ValidationSummary control and an asterisk to appear next to each field. I have done this using the method here. i.e. by setting Text to "*" and ValidationSummary.HeaderText to my message. Great, but no cigar as I also have other fields with other validators e.g. a RegEx for an Email field. This means that if all the required fields are entered but the email is incorrect, the ValidationSummary with "Please enter the items marked with an asterisk" will appear along with the message for the invalid email. Crap! I then tried using a ValidationGroup called "ReqField" and have a one ValidationSummary for this group (with my HeaderText) and another for the other validators, but alas, my Submit button only allows one ValidationGroup to be triggered upon the click event. Does anyone have any ideas as to how I can get this to work? Thanks in adavnce.

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  • Error while reading custom configuration file(app.config)

    - by Newbie
    I am making a custom configuration in my winform application. (It will represent a country-corrency list) First the CountryList class namespace UtilityMethods { public class CountryList : ConfigurationSection { public CountryList() { // // TODO: Add constructor logic here // } [ConfigurationProperty("CountryCurrency", IsRequired = true)] public Hashtable CountryCurrencies { get { return CountryCurrency.GetCountryCurrency(); } } } } The GetCountryCurrency() method is defined in CountryCurrency class as under namespace UtilityMethods { public static class CountryCurrency { public static Hashtable GetCountryCurrency() { Hashtable ht = new Hashtable(); ht.Add("India", "Rupees"); ht.Add("USA", "Dollar"); return ht; } } } The app.config file looks like <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name ="CountryList1" type ="UtilityMethods.CountryList,CountryList,Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral"/> </configSections> <appSettings /> </configuration> And I am calling this from a button_click's event as try { CountryList cList = ConfigurationManager.GetSection("CountryList") as CountryList; Hashtable ht = cList.CountryCurrencies; } catch (Exception ex) { string h = ex.Message; } Upon running the application and clicking on the button I am getting this error Could not load type 'UtilityMethods.CountryList' from assembly 'System.Configuration, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a' Please help (dotnet framework : 3.5 Language: C#)

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  • MVC2 Json request not actually hitting the controller

    - by SlackerCoder
    I have a JSON request, but it seems that it is not hitting the controller. Here's the jQuery code: $("#ddlAdminLogsSelectLog").change(function() { globalLogSelection = $("#ddlAdminLogsSelectLog").val(); alert(globalLogSelection); $.getJSON("/Administrative/AdminLogsChangeLogSelection", { NewSelection: globalLogSelection }, function(data) { if (data.Message == "Success") { globalCurrentPage = 1; } else if (data.Message == "Error") { //Do Something } }); }); The alert is there to show me if it actually fired the change event, which it does. Heres the method in the controller: public ActionResult AdminLogsChangeLogSelection(String NewSelection) { String sMessage = String.Empty; StringBuilder sbDataReturn = new StringBuilder(); try { if (NewSelection.Equals("Application Log")) { int i = 0; } else if (NewSelection.Equals("Email Log")) { int l = 0; } } catch (Exception e) { //Do Something sMessage = "Error"; } return Json(new { Message = sMessage, DataReturn = sbDataReturn.ToString() }, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); } I have a bunch of Json requests in my application, and it seems to only happen in this area. This is a separate area (I have 6 "areas" in the app, 5 of which work fine with JSON requests). This controller is named "AdministrativeController", if that matters. Does anything jump out anyone as being incorrect or why the request would not pass to the server side?

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  • validation controls are not validating on enabling on client side using java script, plz guide

    - by haansi
    Hi, As per requirement I disabled all validation controls in page on PageLoad event in server side. On clicking submit button I want to activate them and validate the page and if the page is ok submit other wise not. I am able to enable all validaters but one thing that I am unable to understand is that they do not validate the page. I set alerts and check they are being enabled but they do not validate the page and let the page submit. I am sorry I couldn't get where I am wrong, may be there need to call some validation method as well or I should prevent default behavior of button. please guide me. Below is my script: <script type="text/javascript"> function NextClicked() { var _ddlStatus = document.getElementById("<%=ddlEmpStatus.ClientID%>"); var _selectedIndex = _ddlStatus.selectedIndex; if (_selectedIndex == 0) { alert("Nothing selected"); }<br/> else<br/> if (_selectedIndex == 1) { for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { Page_Validators[i].Enabled = true; } } } </script> thanks in anticipation.

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  • Implementing client callback functionality in WCF

    - by PoweredByOrange
    The project I'm working on is a client-server application with all services written in WCF and the client in WPF. There are cases where the server needs to push information to the client. I initially though about using WCF Duplex Services, but after doing some research online, I figured a lot of people are avoiding it for many reasons. The next thing I thought about was having the client create a host connection, so that the server could use that to make a service call to the client. The problem however, is that the application is deployed over the internet, so that approach requires configuring the firewall to allow incoming traffic and since most of the users are regular users, that might also require configuring the router to allow port forwarding, which again is a hassle for the user. My third option is that in the client, spawns a background thread which makes a call to the GetNotifications() method on server. This method on the server side then, blocks until an actual notification is created, then the thread is notified (using an AutoResetEvent object maybe?) and the information gets sent to the client. The idea is something like this: Client private void InitializeListener() { Task.Factory.StartNew(() => { while (true) { var notification = server.GetNotifications(); // Display the notification. } }, CancellationToken.None, TaskCreationOptions.LongRunning, TaskScheduler.Default); } Server public NotificationObject GetNotifications() { while (true) { notificationEvent.WaitOne(); return someNotificationObject; } } private void NotificationCreated() { // Inform the client of this event. notificationEvent.Set(); } In this case, NotificationCreated() is a callback method called when the server needs to send information to the client. What do you think about this approach? Is this scalable at all?

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  • Broken JS Loop with Google Maps...

    - by Oscar Godson
    My code is below, and I had an issue with nearly the same code, and it was fixed here on StackOverflow, but, again, its not working. I haven't changed the working code, but i did wrap it in the for...in loop youll see below. The issue is that no matter what marker I click it always triggers the last marker/infoWindow that was placed. $(function(){ var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(45.522015,-122.683811); var settings = { zoom: 10, center: latlng, disableDefaultUI:true, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.SATELLITE }; var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), settings); $.getJSON('api',function(json){ for (var property in json) { if (json.hasOwnProperty(property)) { var json_data = json[property]; var the_marker = new google.maps.Marker({ title:json_data.item.headline, map:map, clickable:true, position:new google.maps.LatLng( parseFloat(json_data.item.geoarray[0].latitude), parseFloat(json_data.item.geoarray[0].longitude) ) }); var infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow({ content: '<div><h1>'+json_data.item.headline+'</h1><p>'+json_data.item.full_content+'</p></div>' }); new google.maps.event.addListener(the_marker, 'click', function() { infowindow.open(map,the_marker); }); } } }); }); Thank you for whoever figures this out!

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  • addEventListener pass caller as argument

    - by Ryan
    Hi, I have the following code. And my problem is that when clicking, the event is firing but the argument passed is not the correct one. It is passing the last dynamically created row i.e. dataStructure.length value. Anyone knows a solution how to get around this? var table = document.getElementById('output'); for(i =0; i<dataStructure.length; i++){ var row = document.createElement('tr'); row.setAttribute('id', i); var url = dataStructure[i].url; if(document.addEventListener) row.addEventListener('click', function(){handleRowClick(i);}, false); var obj = dataStructure[i]; var cellCount = 0; for(field in obj){ var cell = document.createElement('td'); cell.setAttribute('id', cellCount++); //cell.addEventListener('click', function(){window.open(dataStructureObj.links[i].url);}, false); cell.innerHTML = obj[field]; row.appendChild(cell); } cellCount = 0; table.appendChild(row); } } function handleRowClick(rowClicked){ var rowHTML = rowClicked.innerHTML; var cells = rowHTML.getElementsByTagName('td'); for(cell in cells) { alert(cell.value); } window.open(cells[1].innerHTML); }

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  • Flash - can't access classes in another SWF

    - by Ashley Muller
    Hi, I'm trying to load a local SWF file and use the classes in that SWF (its a code only SWF, nothing in library). Here's the code that loads the library: var AD:ApplicationDomain = ApplicationDomain.currentDomain; var context:LoaderContext = new LoaderContext(false, AD); SA_gamecore_loader = new Loader(); SA_gamecore_loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, onGameCoreLibraryDataComplete); SA_gamecore_loader.load(new URLRequest("GameCore.swf"), context); Here's the code that tries to instantiate a class from GameCore.swf: var test:Class = GetClassFromDefinition("MenuArt") as Class; var testInstance:Object = new test(); public function GetClassFromDefinition(theStr:String):Object { var theClass:Object; try { theClass = GameCoreLibraryData.applicationDomain.getDefinition(theStr); } catch(e:ReferenceError) { trace(e); return null; } return theClass; } And this is the message that's traced: ReferenceError: Error #1065: Variable MenuArt is not defined. The GameCore.swf is in the same location as the parent swf. I'm using Flash Develop if that helps. Anyone able to point out what I'm doing wrong?

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  • Failed to load resource: the server responded with a status of 406 (Not Acceptable)

    - by skip
    I am trying to send json data and get back json data as well. I've <annotation-driven /> configured in my servlet-context.xml and I am using Spring framework version 3.1.0.RELEASE. When I send the request the browser tells me that it is not happy with the data returned from the server and gives me 406 error. And when I see the response from the server I see the whole 406 page returned by tomcat 6 server. I have got following in my pom for Jackson/Jackson processor: <!-- Jackson --> <dependency> <groupId>org.codehaus.jackson</groupId> <artifactId>jackson-core-asl</artifactId> <version>1.9.4</version> </dependency> <dependency> <groupId>org.codehaus.jackson</groupId> <artifactId>jackson-mapper-asl</artifactId> <version>1.9.4</version> </dependency> <dependency> <groupId>org.codehaus.jackson</groupId> <artifactId>jackson-xc</artifactId> <version>1.9.4</version> </dependency> <!-- Jackson JSON Processor --> <dependency> <groupId>org.codehaus.jackson</groupId> <artifactId>jackson-mapper-asl</artifactId> <version>1.8.1</version> </dependency> Following is the jquery code I am using to send the json request: $(function(){$(".sutmit-button").click(function(){ var dataString=$("#app-form").serialize(); $.ajax({ type:"POST", url:"apply.json", data:dataString, success:function(data, textStatus, jqXHR){ console.log(jqXHR.status); console.log(data); $('.postcontent').html("<div id='message'></div>"); $('#message').html("<h3>Request Submitted</h3>").append("<p>Thank you for submiting your request.</p>").hide().fadeIn(1500,function(){$('#message');}); }, error:function(jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown) { console.log(jqXHR.status); $('.postcontent').html("<div id='message'></div>"); $('#message').html("<h3>Request failed.</h3>").hide().fadeIn(1500,function(){$('#message');}); }, dataType: "json" }); return false;});}); Following is the Controller that is handling the request: @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST, value="apply", headers="Accept=application/json") public @ResponseBody Application processFranchiseeApplicationForm(HttpServletRequest request) { //... Application application = new Application(...); //... logger.debug(application); return application; } I am not able to figure out the reason why I might be getting this error. Could someone help me understand why am I getting the given error? Thanks.

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  • Surely a foolish error, but I can't see it

    - by dnagirl
    I have a form (greatly simplified): <form action='http://example.com/' method='post' name='event_form'> <input type='text' name='foo' value='3'/> <input type='submit' name='event_submit' value='Edit'/> </form> And I have a class "EventForm" to process the form. The main method, process() looks like this: public function process($submitname=false){ $success=false; if ($submitname && isset($_POST[$submitname])){ //PROBLEM: isset($_POST[$submitname] is always FALSE for some reason if($success=$this->ruler->validate()){//check that dependancies are honoured and data types are correct if($success=$this->map_fields()){//divide input data into Event, Schedule_Element and Temporal_Expression(s) $success=$this->eventholder->save(); } } } else {//get the record from the db based on event_id or schedule_element_id foreach($this->gets as $var){//list of acceptable $_GET keys if(isset($_GET[$var])){ if($success= $this->__set($var,$_GET[$var])) break; } } } $this->action=(empty($this->eventholder->event_id))? ADD : EDIT; return $success; } When the form is submitted, this happens: $form->process('event_submit'); For some reason though, isset($_POST['event_submit']) always evaluates to FALSE. Can anyone see why?

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  • Javascript place in header

    - by JibW
    I am not clear why its not working the javascript code when I add it to the header section as follows. We can place a javascript code within the body as follows <html> <head> <title> Simple Test </title> </head> <body> <div id="mydiv"> This is the div content </div> <script type="text/javascript" > document.getElementById("mydiv").innerHTML=Date(); </script> </body> </html> But when I place the same JavaScript code in the header section it doesn't work. <html> <head> <title> Simple Test </title> <script type="text/javascript" > document.getElementById("mydiv").innerHTML=Date(); </script> </head> Can Someone please explain the issue. I know I can Write a JavaScript function in header and call it in an event. But can't we Use in this way. If Can't why.

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  • Javascript document.open asynchronous?

    - by Alex Schneider
    So on my site there is a Javascript function that will load a new site from the server via XMLHttpRequest. After that it replaces the current page with the new one: var post = new XMLHttpRequest(); post.open('POST', data); post.onload = function() { var do = document.open("text/html", "replace"); do.write(post.responseText); do.close(); goOn(); } function goOn() { console.log($('img:visible')); } Some could assume that after do.close() the document has changed and is ready. But it is not, e.g. if i load very much/big data/responseText the function goOn() only logs an empty result. Obviously goOn() gets in that case called before the DOM is ready to be read! Unfortunately the is no "ready" event fired after write() finished.... How can i be sure it is finished? /EDIT: goOn() logs this to Chrome Console: [prevObject: p.fn.p.init[1], context: #document, selector: "img:visible"] context: #document length: 0 prevObject: p.fn.p.init[1] selector: "img:visible" __proto__: Object[0] But if i right after that type $('img:visible') into console manually it shows me all images....

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  • NHibernate: What are child sessions and why and when should I use them?

    - by stefando
    In the comments for the ayende's blog about the auditing in NHibernate there is a mention about the need to use a child session:session.GetSession(EntityMode.Poco). As far as I understand it, it has something to do with the order of the SQL operation which session.Flush will emit. (For example: If I wanted to perform some delete operation in the pre-insert event but the session was already done with deleting operations, I would need some way to inject them in.) However I did not find documentation about this feature and behavior. Questions: Is my understanding of child sessions correct? How and in which scenarios should I use them? Are they documented somewhere? Could they be used for session "scoping"? (For example: I open the master session which will hold some data and then I create 2 child-sessions from the master one. I'd expect that the two child-scopes will be separated but the will share objects from the master session cache. Is this the case?) Are they first class citizens in NHibernate or are they just hack to support some edge-case scenarios? Thanks in advance for any info.

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  • C#; On casting to the SAME class that came from another assembly

    - by G. Stoynev
    For complete separation/decoupling, I've implemented a DAL in an assebly that is simply being copied over via post-build event to the website BIN folder. The website then on Application Start loads that assembly via System.Reflection.Assembly.LoadFile. Again, using reflection, I construct a couple of instances from classes in that assembly. I then store a reference to these instances in the session (HttpContext.Current.Items) Later, when I try to get the object stored in the session, I am not able to cast them to their own types (was trying interfaces initially, but for debugging tried to cast to THEIR OWN TYPES), getting this error: [A]DAL_QSYSCamper.NHibernateSessionBuilder cannot be cast to [B] DAL_QSYSCamper.NHibernateSessionBuilder. Type A originates from 'DAL_QSYSCamper, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'Default' at location 'C:\Users\dull.anomal\AppData\Local\Temp\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\ad6e8bff\70fa2384\assembly\dl3\aaf7a5b0\84f01b09_b10acb01\DAL_QSYSCamper.DLL'. Type B originates from 'DAL_QSYSCamper, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'LoadNeither' at location 'C:\Users\dull.anomal\Documents\Projects\QSYS\Deleteme\UI\MVCClient\bin\DAL_QSYSCa mper.DLL'. This is happening while debugging in VS - VS manages to stop into the source DAL project even though I've loaded from assembly and the project is not refferenced by the website project (they're both in the solution). I do understand the error, but I don't understand how and why the assembly is being used/loaded from two locations - I only load it once from the file and there's no referrence to the project. Should mention that I also use Windsor for DI. The object that tries to extract the object from the session is A) from a class from that DAL assembly; B) is injected into a website class by Windsor. I will work on adding some sample code to this question, but wanted to put it out in case it's obvious what I do wrong.

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  • return unique values from array

    - by Brad
    I have an array that contains cities, I want to return an array of all those cities, but it must be a unique list of the cities. The array below: Array ( [0] => Array ( [eventname] => Wine Tasting [date] => 12/20/2013 [time] => 17:00:00 [location] => Anaheim Convention Center [description] => This is a test description [city] => Anaheim [state] => California ) [1] => Array ( [eventname] => Circus [date] => 12/22/2013 [time] => 18:30:00 [location] => LAX [description] => Description for LAX event [city] => Anaheim [state] => California ) [2] => Array ( [eventname] => Blues Fest [date] => 3/14/2014 [time] => 17:00:00 [location] => Austin Times Center [description] => Blues concert [city] => Austin [state] => Texas ) ) Should return: array('Anaheim', 'Austin'); Any help is appreciated.

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  • What's the "proper" way to retrieve a reference to a ribbon object?

    - by Nick
    For a VSTO workbook project, is there a best practice for retrieving a reference to the Ribbon object from the ThisWorkbook class? Here's what I'm doing: In my Ribbon class, I created a public method called InvalidateControl(string controlID). I need to call that method from the ThisWorkbook class based on when a certain workbook level event fires. But the only way I can see to "get" a reference to that Ribbon object is to do this... // This is all in the ThisWorkbook class Ribbon ribbon; protected override IRibbonExtensibility CreateRibbonExtensibilityObject() { this.ribbon = new Ribbon(); return this.ribbon; } ...which seems a little smelly. I mean, I have to override CreateRibbonExtensibilityObject() regardless; all I'm doing beyond that is maintaining a local reference to the ribbon so I can call methods against it. But it doesn't feel right. Is there another, better way to get that reference in the ThisWorkbook class? Or is this pretty acceptable? Thanks!

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  • jQuery preventing RedirectToAction from working?

    - by DaveDev
    I'm trying to redirect the user if they login successfully but the code I have on my page seems to be preventing the redirection from working. If I remove the jQuery below the redirection works. Can somebody tell me tell me if there's something I'm doing wrong? Thanks I have the following Action: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Login(User user) { var myErrors = new Dictionary<string, string>(); try { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (userRepository.ValidUser(user)) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Group", new {page = (int?)null}); } else { return Json("Username or password seems to be incorrect"); } } else { foreach (KeyValuePair<string, ModelState> keyValuePair in ViewData.ModelState) { if (keyValuePair.Value.Errors.Count > 0) { List<string> errors = new List<string>(); myErrors.Add(keyValuePair.Key, keyValuePair.Value.Errors[0].ErrorMessage); } } return Json(myErrors); } } catch (Exception) { return Json("Invalid"); } } and the following code on my page: <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#SaveSuccess").hide(); $("#btnLogin").click(function() { $("form").submit(function(event) { var formData = $(this).serialize(); $.post($(this).attr("action"), formData, function(res) { ShowErrors(res); if (res == true) { $("#SaveSuccess").text("Saved"); } else { $("#divError").html(res); } $("#SaveSuccess").fadeIn(100); }, "json"); return false; }); }); }); </script>

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