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  • how to get response from remote server

    - by ruhit
    I have made a desktop application in asp.net using c# that connecting with remote server.I am able to connect but how do i show that my login is successful or not. After that i want to retrieve data from the remote server..........so plz help me.I have written the below code..............is there any better way try { string strId = UserId_TextBox.Text; string strpasswrd = Password_TextBox.Text; ASCIIEncoding encoding = new ASCIIEncoding(); string postData = "UM_email=" + strId; postData += ("&UM_password=" + strpasswrd); byte[] data = encoding.GetBytes(postData); MessageBox.Show(postData); // Prepare web request... //HttpWebRequest myRequest = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://localhost/ruhit/basic_framework/index.php?menu=login=" + postData); HttpWebRequest myRequest =(HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://www.facebook.com/login.php=" + postData); myRequest.Method = "POST"; myRequest.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; myRequest.ContentLength = data.Length; Stream newStream = myRequest.GetRequestStream(); // Send the data. newStream.Write(data, 0, data.Length); MessageBox.Show("u r now connected"); HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)myRequest.GetResponse(); // WebResponse response = myRequest.GetResponse(); StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream()); string str = reader.ReadLine(); while (str != null) { str = reader.ReadLine(); MessageBox.Show(str); } reader.Close(); newStream.Close(); } catch { MessageBox.Show("error connecting"); }

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  • C++ ambiguous template instantiation

    - by aaa
    the following gives me ambiguous template instantiation with nvcc (combination of EDG front-end and g++). Is it really ambiguous, or is compiler wrong? I also post workaround à la boost::enable_if template<typename T> struct disable_if_serial { typedef void type; }; template<> struct disable_if_serial<serial_tag> { }; template<int M, int N, typename T> __device__ //static typename disable_if_serial<T>::type void add_evaluate_polynomial1(double *R, const double (&C)[M][N], double x, const T &thread) { // ... } template<size_t M, size_t N> __device__ static void add_evaluate_polynomial1(double *R, const double (&C)[M][N], double x, const serial_tag&) { for (size_t i = 0; i < M; ++i) add_evaluate_polynomial1(R, C, x, i); } // ambiguous template instantiation here. add_evaluate_polynomial1(R, C, x, serial_tag());

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  • How to replace auto-implemented c# get body at runtime or compile time?

    - by qstarin
    I've been trying to figure this out all night, but I guess my knowledge of the .Net Framework just isn't that deep and the problem doesn't exactly Google well, but if I can get a nod in the right direction I'm sure I can implement it, one way or another. I'd like to be able to declare a property decorated with a custom attribute as such: public MyClass { [ReplaceWithExpressionFrom(typeof(SomeOtherClass))] public virtual bool MyProperty { get; } } public SomeOtherClass : IExpressionHolder<MyClass, bool> { ... } public interface IExpressionHolder<TArg, TResult> { Expression<Func<TArg, TResult>> Expression { get; } } And then somehow - this is the part I'm having trouble figuring - replace the automatically generated implementation of that getter with a piece of custom code, something like: Type expressionHolderType = LookupAttributeCtorArgTypeInDeclarationOfPropertyWereReplacing(); return ReplaceWithExpressionFromAttribute.GetCompiledExpressionFrom(expressionHolderType)(this); The main thing I'm not sure how to do is replace the automatic implementation of the get. The first thing that came to mind was PostSharp, but that's a more complicated dependency than I care for. I'd much prefer a way to code it without using post-processing attached to the build (I think that's the jist of how PostSharp sinks its hooks in anyway). The other part of this I'm not so sure about is how to retrieve the type parameter passed to the particular instantiation of the ReplaceWithExpressionFrom attribute (where it decorates the property whose body I want to replace; in other words, how do I get typeof(SomeOtherClass) where I'm coding the get body replacement). I plan to cache compiled expressions from concrete instances of IExpressionHolder, as I don't want to do that every time the property gets retrieved. I figure this has just got to be possible. At the very least I figure I should be able to search an assembly for any method decorated with the attribute and somehow proxy the class or just replace the IL or .. something? And I'd like to make the integration as smooth as possible, so if this can be done without explicitly calling a registration or initialization method somewhere that'd be super great. Thanks!

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  • forcing a download using PHP / jQuery

    - by Dirty-flow
    I know there are already many questions about forcing a download with PHP, but I can't find what I'm doing wrong and what should I do. I'm having an list with filenames, and I want to download one of them by clicking a button. My jQuery: $(".MappeDownload").on("click",function(e){ e.stopPropagation(); fileId=$(this).val() $.post("ajax/DownloadFile.php",{ id : fileId}) }) and on the server side I have a table with the file names and the file path. $sql = "SELECT vUploadPfad, vUploadOriginname FROM tabUpload WHERE zUploadId='$_POST[id]'"; $result = mysql_query($sql) or die(""); $file = mysql_fetch_array($result); $localfile = $file["vUploadPfad"]; $name=$file["vUploadOriginname"]; $fp = fopen($localfile, 'rb'); header("Cache-Control: "); header("Pragma: "); header("Content-Type: application/octet-stream"); header("Content-Length: " . filesize($localfile)); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename='".$name."';"); header("Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary\n"); fpassthru($fp); exit; The AJAX request is successful, I'm getting the right header(filesize, filename etc...) but the download are not starting.

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  • Regularly update database without browser/user

    - by Chris M
    I currently have a MySQL database which I was hoping to use to store regularly updated data from a temperature sensor connected to the internet. I currently have a page that, when opened, will grab the current temperature and the current timestamp and add it as an entry to the database, but I was looking for a way to do that without me refreshing the page every 5 seconds. Detail: The data comes from an Arduino Ethernet, posted to an IP address. Currently, I'm using cURL to grab the data from the IP, add a timestamp and save it to the DB. Obviously only updates when the page is refreshed (it uses PHP). Here is a live feed of the data - http://wetdreams.org.uk/ChrisProject/UI/live_graph_two.html TL;DR - Basically I need a middle man to grab the data from the IP and post it to a MySQL Edit: Thanks for all the advice. There might be a little bit of confusion, I'm looking for a solution that (ideally) doesn't require a computer to be on at all (other than the Server containing Database). Since I'm looking to store data over long periods of time (weeks), I'd like to set it up and leave a script running on the server (or Arduino) that gets the temp and posts it to the Database. In my head I would like to have a page on the server that automatically (without any browser open, or any other prompting other than a timer) calls a PHP script. Hope that clears things up!

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  • android populating gridivew from a url string

    - by user1685991
    I am building an android application in which i am trying to read data from a url and want to display the data in a gridview. But i have some problem or dont understand to how to display the array list on grdiview. Here is my code for reading data from php url ArrayList<NameValuePair> nameValuePairs = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(); //http post try{ HttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost httppost = new HttpPost("http://sml.com.pk/a/smldb.php"); httppost.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(nameValuePairs)); HttpResponse response = httpclient.execute(httppost); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); is = entity.getContent(); }catch(Exception e){ Log.e("log_tag", "Error in http connection"+e.toString()); } //convert response to string try{ BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(is,"iso-8859-1"),8); sb = new StringBuilder(); sb.append(reader.readLine() + "\n"); String line="0"; while ((line = reader.readLine()) != null) { sb.append(line + "\n"); } is.close(); result=sb.toString(); }catch(Exception e){ Log.e("log_tag", "Error converting result "+e.toString()); } //paring data double des; double value; try{ jArray = new JSONArray(result); JSONObject json_data=null; for(int i=0;i<jArray.length();i++){ json_data = jArray.getJSONObject(i); LAT=json_data.getDouble("TITLE"); LANG=json_data.getDouble("A"); } } catch(JSONException e1){ Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "No Vehicles Found" ,Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } catch (ParseException e1) { e1.printStackTrace(); } Here TITLE and A are my two columns of DB Table and i want to display them on gridview please any one help me to do this according to my current code. Here is my live url for data string http://sml.com.pk/a/smldb.php

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  • MYSQL/PHP: Inserting data via HTML form, same "input name"

    - by Camen
    I'm new to MySQL and as a learning project I'd like to make a recipe database. I'd like to the user to be able to enter ingredients through a simple HTML form but I'm stuck in how to label the form so that I can enter several ingredients into the database at once. I'd like to do something like this: <form method="post" action="insert.php"> Ingredient 1: <input type="text" name="ingredient"><br /> Ingredient 2: <input type="text" name="ingredient"><br /> Ingredient 3: <input type="text" name="ingredient"><br /> <input type="submit" value="Submit"> </form> When I do this, I add rows to the table but they're all empty. I know it's got something to do with me using "ingredient" (the table value where I want to add the ingredient name) several times in the form, but I just don't know how to solve it. I would absolutely love some input on how to make it work.

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  • Managing My Database in Source Control

    - by Jason
    As I am working with a new database project (within VS2008), and as I have never developed a database from scratch, I immediately began looking into how to manage a database within source control (in this case, Subversion). I found some information on SO, including this post: Keeping development databases in multiple environments in sync. One of the answers in particular pointed to a number of a links, all of which had good, useful information. I was reading a series of posts by K. Scott Allen which describe how he manages database change. From my reading (and please pardon the noobishness of my question), it seems as though the database itself is never checked into a repository. Rather, scripts that can build the database, along with test data (which is also populated from scripts) is checked into the repository. Ultimately, this means that, when a developer is testing his or her app, these scripts, which are part of the build process, are run. This ensures that the database is up-to-date, but is also run locally from every developer's machine. This makes sense to me (if I am indeed reading that correctly). However, if I am missing something, I would appreciate correction or additional guidance. In addition, another question I wanted to ask - does this also mean that I should NOT check in the mdf or ldf files that are created from Visual Studio? Thanks for any help and additional insight. Always appreciated.

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  • How lucene indexing ?

    - by user312140
    Hello I read some document about lucene ; also i read the document in this link ( http://lucene.sourceforge.net/talks/pisa ) . I don't really understand how lucene index documents and don't understand lucene work with which algorithm for indexing ? On above link , said lucene use this algorithm for indexing : * incremental algorithm: o maintain a stack of segment indices o create index for each incoming document o push new indexes onto the stack o let b=10 be the merge factor; M=8 for (size = 1; size < M; size *= b) { if (there are b indexes with size docs on top of the stack) { pop them off the stack; merge them into a single index; push the merged index onto the stack; } else { break; } } How this algorithm help us to have an optimize indexing ? Does lucene use B-tree algorithm or any other algorithm like that for indexing or have a paticular algorithm ? Thank you for reading my post .

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  • sIFR 3 randomly placing text on a single line in FF3.6

    - by bigsweater
    Hello, sIFR 3 is behaving strangely in Firefox. The actual sIFR flash element is set within a box that is 412px wide. In IE, Chrome, Safari, etc., the with of the Flash element is a consistent 412px; however, in Firefox, the Flash element is briefly as wide as the Body element, before correcting itself. When the page finishes loading, sometimes the Flash element remains that wide, breaking the layout (the Flash text flows underneath the sidebar to the right). Setting a width in the CSS for the .sIFR-flash element causes it to remain the proper 412px wide, but the text doesn't wrap at all--it just cuts off at the right edge, and the height of the flash element remains one line high. The markup is simple; it's just an h2 within a div. My sIFR code: var clerkenwell = { src: '/flash/sifr.swf' }; sIFR.activate(clerkenwell); sIFR.replace(clerkenwell, { selector: '.post h2', css: '.sIFR-root { color: #1899c4; text-transform:uppercase; font-size:30px; }', transparent: 'true', }); Setting forceWidth: 'true', just causes the same problem as using a CSS width on the .sIFR-flash element. So: how can I get the sIFR text to remain as wide as its containing element while allowing for line breaks in Firefox? Thanks for any and all help!

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  • Load ascx via jQuery

    - by Raika
    Is there a way to load ascx file by jQuery? UPDATE: thanks to @Emmett and @Yads.i am use the handler and the ajax: jQuery.ajax({ type: "POST", //GET url: "Foo.ashx", data: '{}', contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (response) { jQuery('#controlload').append(response.d); // or response }, error: function () { jQuery('#controlload').append('error'); } }); but i,m just getting an error. my ajax is wrong? Another Update : i am using error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { jQuery('#controlload').append(thrownError); } and this what i get : Invalid JSON: Test =(this test is label inside my ascx) and my ascx file after Error!!! Another Update : my ascx file is somthing like this: <asp:DropDownList ID="ddl" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true"> <asp:ListItem>1</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem>2</asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server">Test</asp:Label> but when I call ajax i get this error in asp: :( Control 'ctl00_ddl' of type 'DropDownList' must be placed inside a form tag with runat=server.

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  • What's the "correct way" to organize this project?

    - by user571747
    I'm working on a project that allows multiple users to submit large data files and perform operations on them. The "backend" which performs these operations is written in Perl while the "frontend" uses PHP to load HTML template files and determines which content to deliver. Data is stored in a database (MySQL, SQLite, Oracle) and while there is data which has not yet been acted upon, Perl adds it to a running queue which delivers data to other threads based on system load. In addition, there may be pre- and post-processing of the data before and after the main Perl script operates (the specifications are unclear) so I may want to allow these processors to be user-selectable plugins. I had been writing this project in a more procedural fashion but I am quickly realizing the benefit of separating concerns as to limit the scope one change has on the rest of the project. I'm quite unexperienced with design patterns and am curious what the best way to proceed is. I've heard MVC thrown around quite a bit but I am unsure of how to apply it. Specifically, what are some good options to structure this code (in terms of design patterns and folder hierarchy)? How can I achieve this with both PHP and Perl while minimizing duplicated code between languages? Should I keep my PHP files in the top level so I don't have ugly paths in the URL? Also, if I want to provide interchangeable databases, does each table need its own DAO implementation?

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  • how to make a ksoap2 request with multiple property in android?

    - by nexusone
    I must make the following soap request, but we can not succeed, I tried in several ways and fails, I always get a blank field in response. Request should look like this: POST /service.asmx HTTP/1.1 Host: host Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: length SOAPAction: "SOAPAction" <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <soap:Body> <GetQuickParkEvents xmlns="NAMESPACE"> <User> <ID>int</ID> <Name>string</Name> <UserName>string</UserName> <Password>string</Password> </User> <Filter> <TimeSpan> <Since>dateTime</Since> <To>dateTime</To> </TimeSpan> <Reg>string</Reg> <Nalog>string</Nalog> <Status>string</Status> <Value>string</Value> </Filter> </GetQuickParkEvents> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope> I thank you in advance if anyone can help me!

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  • Measuring the CPU frequency scaling effect

    - by Bryan Fok
    Recently I am trying to measure the effect of the cpu scaling. Is it accurate if I use this clock to measure it? template<std::intmax_t clock_freq> struct rdtsc_clock { typedef unsigned long long rep; typedef std::ratio<1, clock_freq> period; typedef std::chrono::duration<rep, period> duration; typedef std::chrono::time_point<rdtsc_clock> time_point; static const bool is_steady = true; static time_point now() noexcept { unsigned lo, hi; asm volatile("rdtsc" : "=a" (lo), "=d" (hi)); return time_point(duration(static_cast<rep>(hi) << 32 | lo)); } }; Update: According to the comment from my another post, I believe redtsc cannot use for measure the effect of cpu frequency scaling because the counter from the redtsc does not affected by the CPU frequency, am i right?

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  • FireFox: strange behavior on submiting a form

    - by ilnur777
    Can anyone help with this strange form submiting in FireFox? So this form should be submitted after pushing "go to submit" button. There is an onclick event on the button that should submit form through JavaScript. In the form there is another button "test" without any onclick event. Following the script, the form should be submitted only after pushing the "go to submit" button, but it submits even pushing at "test" button. In the Internet Explorer it works well! But this stupid FireFox browser behaves different. Here is example of HTML page: <script> function func(){ document.form1.submit(); } </script> <form name="form1" method="post" action="somewhere.php"> <button>test</button> <input type="button" value="go to submit" onclick="func();"> </form> I have several buttons with <button onclick="...">option 1</button> options. I want to fix strange submiting a form in FireFox. Help please!

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  • How to wait for ajax validation to complete before submitting a form?

    - by Jung
    Having a problem where the form submits before the validateUsername function has a chance to complete the username check on the server-side. How do I submit the form only after the validateUsername function completes? Hope this is clear... form.submit(function(){ if (validateUsername() & validateEmail() & validatePassword()) { return true; } else { return false; } }); function validateUsername(){ usernameInfo.addClass("sign_up_drill"); usernameInfo.text("checking..."); var b = username.val(); var filter = /^[a-zA-Z0-9_]+$/; $.post("../username_check.php",{su_username:username.val()},function(data) { if (data=='yes') { username.addClass("error"); usernameInfo.text("sorry, that one's taken"); usernameInfo.addClass("error"); return false; } else if (!filter.test(b)) { username.addClass("error"); usernameInfo.text("no funny characters please"); usernameInfo.addClass("error"); return false; } else { username.removeClass("error"); usernameInfo.text("ok"); usernameInfo.removeClass("error"); return true; } }); }

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  • SQL Database Schema Design For Large 3 Billion Relationship Database.

    - by K-Bell
    Get your geek on. Can you solve this? I am designing a products database for SQL Server 2008 R2 Ed. (not Enterprise Ed.) that will be used to store custom product configurations for over 30,000 distinct products. The database will have up to 500 users at a time. Here is the design problem… Each Product has a collection of Parts (up to 50 parts per product). So if I have 30,000 Products and each of them can have up to 50 Parts, that’s 1.5 million distinct Product-to-Part relationships …or as an equation… 30,000 (Products) X 50 (Parts) = 1.5 million Product-to-Parts records. …and If… Each Part can have up to 2000 finish options (A finish is a paint color). NOTE: Only one finish will be selected by a user at run-time. The 2000 finish options I need to store are the allowed options for a specific part on a specific product. So if I have 1.5 million distinct product-to-part relationships/records and each of those parts can have up to 2,000 finishes that is 3 billion allowable product-to-part-to finish relationships/records …or as an equation… 1.5 million (Parts) x 2,000 (Finishes) = 3 Billion Product-to-Part-to-Finishes records. How can I design this database so that I can execute fast and efficient queries for a specific product and return its list of Parts and all the allowable Finishes for each part without 3 Billion Product-to-Part-to-Finish records? Read time is more important then write time. Please post your thoughts/suggestions if you have experience with large databases. Thanks!

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  • asmx web service returning xml instead of json in .net 4.0

    - by Baldy
    i have just upgraded a test copy of my site to asp.net 4.0 and have noticed a strange issue that only arises when i upload the site to my server. the site has an asmx web service that returns json, yet when i run the site on my server it returns xml. it as been working fine in asp.net 3.5 for over a year. the webMethod is decorated with the correct attributes... [WebMethod][ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat = ResponseFormat.Json)] public List<LocationRecentChange> RecentChanges() and on my local machine it returns json. yet on the server (Windows 2008 64bit) it returns xml. you can inspect the response on the test site here... my test site using firebug console you will see a 200 OK response and a bunch of XML, and on my local machine the data returned is the JSON i expect. Here is the javascript that calls the service.. function loadRecentData() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "service/spots.asmx/RecentChanges", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: loadRecentUpdates, failure: function(msg) { //alert(msg); } }); } Any suggestions welcome, this has got me stumped!

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  • jQuery Validate on form submitted by JavaScript

    - by Daniel
    My form is submitted by a link using JavaScript, but I am also trying to validate the from justing jQuery validate. The validation doesn't work when submitted by the link, but it does if I change the link to a submit button. What am I doing wrong? My form: <form id="findmatch" method="post" action="search"> <div> <label class="formlabel">Match Type <input type="text" name="matchtype" id="matchtype" class="forminput" /> </label> <label class="formlabel">Location (postcode) <input type="text" name="location" id="location" class="forminput" /> </label> <label class="formlabel">Radius (miles) <input type="text" name="Radius" id="Radius" class="forminput" /> </label> <label class="formlabel">Keywords <input type="text" onblur="javascript:usePointFromPostcode(document.getElementById('location').value, showCompleteLatLng)" onchange="javascript:usePointFromPostcode(document.getElementById('location').value, showCompleteLatLng)" name="keywords" id="keywords" class="forminput" /> </label> <input id="lat" class="hidden" name="lat" type="text" value="" /> <input id="lon" class="hidden" name="lon" type="text" value="" /> <a href="javascript:document.getElementById('findmatch').submit();" onmouseover="javascript:usePointFromPostcode(document.getElementById('location').value, showCompleteLatLng)" class="submit">Search</a> </div> </form> And my jQuery is <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#findmatch").validate({ rules: { location: "required", Radius: { required: true, digits: true }, keywords: "required" }, messages: { location: "Please enter your postcode", Radius: { required: "Please enter a radius", digits: "Please only enter numbers" }, keywords: "Please enter the keywords you wish to search for" } }); }); </script>

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  • what use does the javascript for each method have (that map can't do)?

    - by JohnMerlino
    Hey all, The only difference I see in map and foreach is that map is returning an array and foreach is not. However, I don't even understand the last line of the foreach method "func.call(scope, this[i], i, this);". For example, isn't "this" and "scope" referring to same object and isn't this[i] and i referring to the current value in the loop? I noticed on another post someone said "Use forEach when you want to do something on the basis of each element of the list. You might be adding things to the page, for example. Essentially, it's great for when you want "side effects". I don't know what is meant by side effects. Array.prototype.map = function(fnc) { var a = new Array(this.length); for (var i = 0; i < this.length; i++) { a[i] = fnc(this[i]); } return a; } Array.prototype.forEach = function(func, scope) { scope = scope || this; for (var i = 0, l = this.length; i < l; i++) func.call(scope, this[i], i, this); } Finally, are there any real uses for these methods in javascript (since we aren't updating a database) other than to manipulate numbers like this: alert([1,2,3,4].map(function(x){ return x + 1})); //this is the only example I ever see of map in javascript. Thanks for any reply.

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  • Obfuscating ids in Rails app

    - by fphilipe
    I'm trying to obfuscate all the ids that leave the server, i.e., ids appearing in URLs and in the HTML output. I've written a simple Base62 lib that has the methods encode and decode. Defining—or better—overwriting the id method of an ActiveRecord to return the encoded version of the id and adjusting the controller to load the resource with the decoded params[:id] gives me the desired result. The ids now are base62 encoded in the urls and the response displays the correct resource. Now I started to notice that subresources defined through has_many relationships aren't loading. e.g. I have a record called User that has_many Posts. Now User.find(1).posts is empty although there are posts with user_id = 1. My explanation is that ActiveRecord must be comparing the user_id of Post with the method id of User—which I've overwritten—instead of comparing with self[:id]. So basically this renders my approach useless. What I would like to have is something like defining obfuscates_id in the model and that the rest would be taken care of, i.e., doing all the encoding/decoding at the appropriate locations and preventing ids to be returned by the server. Is there any gem available or does somebody have a hint how to accomplish this? I bet I'm not the first trying this.

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  • Converting to MVC3 - some views still want 'System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0,

    - by justSteve
    I've used the directions from the release notes and have been able to navigate most pages - my unit tests are not comprehensive but most all pass. However...when I attempt to edit an existing or create a new user I'm getting the error pasted below - notice that it's references version=1... - this project started life as a v1 and was converted to mvc2 at the RTM. I'm still working with V2 projects but no longer any v1. Am i due for a GAC cleansing? Server Error in '/' Application. Could not load file or assembly 'System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. === Pre-bind state information === LOG: User = STUDIO11\mUser LOG: DisplayName = System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35 (Fully-specified) LOG: Appbase = file:///C:/Users/C:\Users\[path to project]/ LOG: Initial PrivatePath = C:\Users\[path to project]\bin Calling assembly : App_Web_qcjylaoc, Version=0.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null. === LOG: This bind starts in default load context. LOG: Using application configuration file: C:\Users\[path to project]\web.config LOG: Using host configuration file: LOG: Using machine configuration file from C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\config\machine.config. LOG: Post-policy reference: System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35 LOG: The same bind was seen before, and was failed with hr = 0x80070002.

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  • Django Many-to-Many Question

    - by DZ
    My questions seems like a common problem that when I have seen any questions on it is never really asked right or not answered. So Im going to try to get the question right, and maybe someone knows how to resolve the issue, or correct my understanding. The problem: When you have a many-to-many relation ship (related_name not through) and you are trying to use the admin interface you are required to input one of the rleationships even though it does not have to exsist for you to create the first entry. Meaning you have to assign a group to an event to create the group. Wow that sounds complicated. So I can see why the question is not getting answered. Lets try the non code explanation example... First and important versions: Django 1.1.1 Phython 2.6 So I have a model where I created a many-to-many realtionship and Im using the related_name Im creating an app that is an event organizer, for simplicty lets say events although they could be anytype). For this first post Im going to stay away from the code and just try to explain. A few keys: (explaining comment) ** - many-to-many So in the model we have 1) The Main Event (this is main model) 2) Groups (link to events and their can be many events for a group) a) Events** I have simplified this example a little becuase I recognize that what does it matter. Just create the event first... But there are specific varations where that will not work. What the many-to-many related_name does it created another table with the indecies of the two other tables. Nothing says that this extra table HAS to be populated. Becuase if I look in the database and work within myPHPadmin I can create a group with out registering an event, since the connection between the two is a seperate table the DB does not care. How do I make the admin interface this realize it? Ok I know thats a lot so I hope I have explained it clearly. Thank you anyone for your comments/thoughts/advice

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  • problem linking vba modules in MS Access 2007

    - by Ted
    I am upgrading a database system from Access 2000 db to Access 2007, which communicates with several chemistry measuring devices(pH meter, scale, etc) via an RS 232 serial port. The first db consists of several modules containing vba code that enables the communications with the ports, as well as supports the code behind the forms in the second db. The user, or lab tech, navigates through the forms in the second db to interact with the lab devices, and also to generate the reports which display the info. from the devices. The reports are also part of the second db. The code works in Access 2000, but once I convert it to 2007, the code in the second db cannot find the function calls in the first db that dictate the progression from screen to screen. I have tried importing the modules into the second db, and I have tried linking them, but it still doesn't work. The error message is #438: "Object doesn't support this property or method." Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Here is the code for the first function that is not being called correctly: Description: ' This routine is used to return to the calling form and close the active form. ' ' Input: ' strFormCalled --- the active form ' strCallingForm --- the form that called the active form ' blnUnhideOrOpen --- whether to open or just unhide form Public Sub basReturnToCallingForm(ByVal strFormCalled As String, ByVal _ strCallingForm As Variant, Optional blnUnhideOrOpen As Boolean = True) On Error GoTo err_basReturnToCaliingForm If Not basIsBlankString(strCallingForm) And blnUnhideOrOpen Then DoCmd.OpenForm strCallingForm, acNormal Else Call basUnHideForm(strCallingForm) End If Call basCloseForm(strFormCalled) exit_basReturnToCaliingForm: Exit Sub err_basReturnToCaliingForm: Err.Raise Err.Number, "basReturnToCaliingForm", Err.Description End Sub I will post the second function shortly, but I have to go to a meeting... The second funtion that isn't 'working' is a cmdStartClick that is supposed to be called when a user initializes a pump. However, within that function, it's also sticking on a line that is supposed to progress to the next form in the db. The other thing is that the code works in Access 2002, but not in Access 2007...

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  • jQuery enclose text before and after anchor tag in separate spans.

    - by Devashish Bahri
    hey dere, first of all, thnx a ton for taking out time to see my post. i have a big problem with jQuery. i have this code: <p>Hi. I am your friend. you are my friend.<br> we <a href="both.html">both</a> are friends.</p> My aim is to enclose the text before the anchor tag as well as after the anchor tag into separate spans. Thus, i want something like this in the DOM: <p><span>Hi. I am your friend. you are my friend.<br> we </span><a href="both.html">both</a><span> are friends.</span></p> Can anybody please help me and tell me how to do it in jQuery. PLease... its very important..!! Thnx in advance...

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