Search Results

Search found 20933 results on 838 pages for 'jeff post'.

Page 705/838 | < Previous Page | 701 702 703 704 705 706 707 708 709 710 711 712  | Next Page >

  • SQL Database Schema Design For Large 3 Billion Relationship Database.

    - by K-Bell
    Get your geek on. Can you solve this? I am designing a products database for SQL Server 2008 R2 Ed. (not Enterprise Ed.) that will be used to store custom product configurations for over 30,000 distinct products. The database will have up to 500 users at a time. Here is the design problem… Each Product has a collection of Parts (up to 50 parts per product). So if I have 30,000 Products and each of them can have up to 50 Parts, that’s 1.5 million distinct Product-to-Part relationships …or as an equation… 30,000 (Products) X 50 (Parts) = 1.5 million Product-to-Parts records. …and If… Each Part can have up to 2000 finish options (A finish is a paint color). NOTE: Only one finish will be selected by a user at run-time. The 2000 finish options I need to store are the allowed options for a specific part on a specific product. So if I have 1.5 million distinct product-to-part relationships/records and each of those parts can have up to 2,000 finishes that is 3 billion allowable product-to-part-to finish relationships/records …or as an equation… 1.5 million (Parts) x 2,000 (Finishes) = 3 Billion Product-to-Part-to-Finishes records. How can I design this database so that I can execute fast and efficient queries for a specific product and return its list of Parts and all the allowable Finishes for each part without 3 Billion Product-to-Part-to-Finish records? Read time is more important then write time. Please post your thoughts/suggestions if you have experience with large databases. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How can I measure the time it takes a file to upload to a PHP script?

    - by Gustav Bertram
    I am trying to measure the time a script takes to upload a file to a PHP script, inside the receiving script. Here's a short example: <form action="#" enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post"> Upload: <input type="file" name="datafile" size="40"> <input type="submit" value="Send"> </form> <?php $upload_time = time() - $_SERVER['REQUEST_TIME']; echo $upload_time . " seconds."; I've submitted 4MB, 25MB, 100MB and 1.4GB files. They took anything from a fraction of a second, to almost a minute, yet the script above always yielded 0 seconds. NOTE: I know that this is a duplicate question, but the accepted answer on the other question did not work for me (at least, initially): Detect how long it takes for a file to upload (PHP) I've tried it using PHP 5.3.3 with Apache 2.2.16 on Ubuntu 10.4. UPDATE: I've discovered that both the Apache header and Ajax solutions work. In fact, the solution on the duplicate question also works. The critical element to making these solutions work is to ensure that the following values in the php.ini are sufficiently high: memory_limit = 1000M upload_max_filesize = 1000M post_max_size = 1000M I am accepting the Apache header solution, since it only uses PHP.

    Read the article

  • Can't display image with Imageview on Android

    - by user1029167
    In my \drawable-mdpi folder, I have an image named: test.jpg In my main.xml file, in my LinearLayout section, I have: <ImageView android:id="@+id/test_image" android:src="@drawable/test" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> In my src folder, I have only 1 file, HelloAndroidActivity.java with only the following method: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); ImageView image = new ImageView(this); image = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.test_image); setContentView(image); } This seems to be correct, yet whenever I try to run it, I get The application HelloAndroid (process xxxxx) has stopped unexpectedly. Please try again. The strange part is it previously did display the image, but now it won't and I don't know why. Also, when I comment out the ImageDisplay code, and replace it with TextDisplay code. i.e. TextView tv = new TextView(this); tv.setText("Does this work?"); setContentView(tv); It does display the text. Edit: was asked to post logcat. Link to pastebin.

    Read the article

  • multiple form submission with one submit

    - by skylab
    I've been trying to think this through and figure out if it is possible or not. I'm using zen-cart as shopping cart software, but what I'd like to do, is hard code a page that is basically a list of 7-9 products, next to each product is a checkbox, so I'd like to figure out a way, via html,javascript or jquery to submit whichever forms(products) are checked to the cart. The typical form submission for a product looks something like this(sometimes there may be one or two additional hidden fields): <form name="cart_quantity" action="index.php?action=add_product" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <input type="hidden" name="cart_quantity" value="1"> <input type="hidden" name="products_id" value="7"> <input type="hidden" name="id[6]" value="9" id="attrib-6-9"> <input type="image" src="buy_button.png" alt="Add to Cart" title="Instructional Video Part 1: Add to Cart"> </form> There would be 7-9 of these on the page, each with a checkbox, so I'm assuming a script would need to figure out which ones where checked and submit them via the form action? Maybe there is a better way of going about this that I'm not thinking of because a)it's over my head or b)just haven't figured it out yet. Anyway is something like this possible?

    Read the article

  • How to resize a UISwitch?

    - by mshsayem
    I have made a custom UISwitch (from this post). But the problem is, my custom texts are a bit long. Is there any way to resize the switch? [I tried setBounds, did not work] Edit: Here is the code I used: @interface CustomUISwitch : UISwitch - (void) setLeftLabelText: (NSString *) labelText; - (void) setRightLabelText: (NSString *) labelText; @end @implementation CustomUISwitch - (UIView *) slider { return [[self subviews] lastObject]; } - (UIView *) textHolder { return [[[self slider] subviews] objectAtIndex:2]; } - (UILabel *) leftLabel { return [[[self textHolder] subviews] objectAtIndex:0]; } - (UILabel *) rightLabel { return [[[self textHolder] subviews] objectAtIndex:1]; } - (void) setLeftLabelText: (NSString *) labelText { [[self leftLabel] setText:labelText]; } - (void) setRightLabelText: (NSString *) labelText { [[self rightLabel] setText:labelText]; } @end mySwitch = [[CustomUISwitch alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero]; //Tried these, but did not work //CGRect aFrame = mySwitch.frame; //aFrame.size.width = 200; //aFrame.size.height = 100; //mySwitch.frame = aFrame; [mySwitch setLeftLabelText: @"longValue1"]; [mySwitch setRightLabelText: @"longValue2"];

    Read the article

  • Delay android PlusClient login request

    - by jamesakadamingo
    I am trying to implement the new PlayServices API within my android application to use a +1 button. I have it working nicely, all the expected functionality is there. However it has one rather annoying feature (seriously google!). When you instance the plusclient: mPlusClient = new PlusClient(this, this, this, Scopes.PLUS_PROFILE); Your user is presented with a "Pick your account" dialog (if they have more than one account) followed by a "grant access" dialog. I understand the need for these steps, however they really get in the way of the user experience! My initial activity (post splash screen) now has the +1 button, which means that you have to instance the PlusClient. Doing so in the onCreate() method (as google suggests) means that my user is given the "authorisation" screen before they even know what is going on! What I want to do it delay that untill they actually click the +1 button. That way they will know why they are being asked to authorise access to their account! Any ideas? I have tried using an onClick listener on the +1 button to instance but it didn't work.

    Read the article

  • best database design for city zip & state tables

    - by ryan a
    My application will need to reference addresses. Street info will be stored with my main objects but the rest needs to be stored seperately to reduce redundancy. How should I store/retrieve ZIPs, cities and states? Here are some of my ideas. single table solution (cant do relationships) [locations] locationID locationParent (FK for locationID - 0 for state entries) locationName (city, state) locationZIP two tables (with relationships, FK constraints, ref integrity) [state] stateID stateName [city] cityID stateID (FK for state.stateID) cityName zipCode three tables [state] stateID stateName [city] cityID stateID (FK for state.stateID) cityName [zip] zipID cityID (FK for city.cityID) zipName Then I read into ZIP codes amd how they are assigned. They aren't specifically related to cities. Some cities have more than one ZIP (ok will still work) but some ZIPs are in more than one city (oh snap) and some other ZIPs (very few) are in more than one state! Also some ZIPs are not even in the same state as the address they belong to at all. Seems ZIPs are made for carrier route identification and some remote places are best served by post offices in neighboring cities or states. Does anybody know of a good (not perfect) solution that takes this into consideration to minimize discrepencies as the database grows?

    Read the article

  • PHP Form multiple buttons

    - by Ken
    I have a form with 2 buttons, that depending on which is selected will either be deleted or edited from the database. Those are each individual pages using SQL statements (questionedit and questiondelete). However, when i press a button, nothing happens...Any Ideas Here is my javascript <script type="text/javascript"> function SelectedButton(button) { if(button == 'edit') { document.testedit_questionform.action ="testedit_questionedit.php"; } else if(button == 'delete') { document.testedit_questionform.action ="testedit_questiondelete.php"; } document.forms[].testedit_questionform.submit(); } </script> Here is my form (being echoed from a loop) <form name=\"testedit_questionform\" action=\"SelectedButton\" method=\"POST\"> <span class=\"grid_11 prefix_1\" id=\"\" > Question:<input type=\"text\" name=\"QuestionText\" style=\"width:588px; margin-left:10px;\" value=\"$row[0]\"/> <input type=\"button\" value=\"Edit\" name=\"Operation\"onclick=\"submitForm(\'edit\')\" /> <input type=\"button\" value=\"Delete\" name=\"Operation\"onclick=\"submitForm(\'delete\')\" /> <input type=\"hidden\" name=\"QId\" value=\"$row[3]\" /><br />"); </form>

    Read the article

  • Obfuscating ids in Rails app

    - by fphilipe
    I'm trying to obfuscate all the ids that leave the server, i.e., ids appearing in URLs and in the HTML output. I've written a simple Base62 lib that has the methods encode and decode. Defining—or better—overwriting the id method of an ActiveRecord to return the encoded version of the id and adjusting the controller to load the resource with the decoded params[:id] gives me the desired result. The ids now are base62 encoded in the urls and the response displays the correct resource. Now I started to notice that subresources defined through has_many relationships aren't loading. e.g. I have a record called User that has_many Posts. Now User.find(1).posts is empty although there are posts with user_id = 1. My explanation is that ActiveRecord must be comparing the user_id of Post with the method id of User—which I've overwritten—instead of comparing with self[:id]. So basically this renders my approach useless. What I would like to have is something like defining obfuscates_id in the model and that the rest would be taken care of, i.e., doing all the encoding/decoding at the appropriate locations and preventing ids to be returned by the server. Is there any gem available or does somebody have a hint how to accomplish this? I bet I'm not the first trying this.

    Read the article

  • What prevents a user from adding controls to an ASP.NET page client side?

    - by Curtis White
    This goes back to my other question which I thought was sufficiently answers but upon reflect am not sure that it was (sorry). Backgrounder: I am generating a form dynamically. I am pulling from the database the controls. I must associate each control with a database ID which is not the user's session id. I do this currently by storing my ID in the ID for the web control with some other stuff to make it unique/clear what I am doing. On the post back, I iterate through all the controls on my web page checking for my special identifier, ie, MyGeneratedTextBox_ID_Unique. This process enables for 2 important steps, identifying the control was one I generated and also getting the ID for this input field. And, all of this works but I'm still concerned about the security of it. I do not see a security issue with showing the actual database ID's in this case, although agree it is not desirable. However, I am concerned of the following possibilities: If a user could add a nefarious control to my collection and use that for a SQL injection attack. More academic, but if a user could somehow store data for fields they do not have access too by changing the id's. I agree this is a "hack" of a way to do it. But my question is, is it a security risk and is there an 'easy' way to do it in a less hack way? I assume that only the controls that are created/instantiated on the page are added to the controls list.. thus all controls must be created server side and thus the security issue is address but just wanted to validate. Thanks again. PS: I could see adding a property for each control and encrypting the viewstate would be a little more secure.

    Read the article

  • How to wait for ajax validation to complete before submitting a form?

    - by Jung
    Having a problem where the form submits before the validateUsername function has a chance to complete the username check on the server-side. How do I submit the form only after the validateUsername function completes? Hope this is clear... form.submit(function(){ if (validateUsername() & validateEmail() & validatePassword()) { return true; } else { return false; } }); function validateUsername(){ usernameInfo.addClass("sign_up_drill"); usernameInfo.text("checking..."); var b = username.val(); var filter = /^[a-zA-Z0-9_]+$/; $.post("../username_check.php",{su_username:username.val()},function(data) { if (data=='yes') { username.addClass("error"); usernameInfo.text("sorry, that one's taken"); usernameInfo.addClass("error"); return false; } else if (!filter.test(b)) { username.addClass("error"); usernameInfo.text("no funny characters please"); usernameInfo.addClass("error"); return false; } else { username.removeClass("error"); usernameInfo.text("ok"); usernameInfo.removeClass("error"); return true; } }); }

    Read the article

  • When is it safe to use a broken hash function?

    - by The Rook
    It is trivial to use a secure hash function like SHA256 and continuing to use md5 is reckless behavior. However, there are some complexities to hash function vulnerabilities that I would like to better understand. Collisions have been generated for md4 and md5. According to NIST md5() is not a secure hash function. It only takes 2^39th operations to generate a collision and should never be used for passwords. However SHA1 is vulnerable to a similar collision attack in which a collision can be found in 2^69 operations, where as brute force is 2^80th. No one has generated a sha1 collision and NIST still lists sha1 as a secure message digest function. So when is it safe to use a broken hash function? Even though a function is broken it can still be "big enough". According to Schneier a hash function vulnerable to a collsion attack can still be used as an HMAC. I believe this is because the security of an HMAC is Dependant on its secret key and a collision cannot be found until this key is obtained. Once you have the key used in a HMAC its already broken, so its a moot point. What hash function vulnerabilities would undermine the security of an HMAC? Lets take this property a bit further. Does it then become safe to use a very weak message digest like md4 for passwords if a salt is perpended to the password? Keep in mind the md4 and md5 attacks are prefixing attacks, and if a salt is perpended then an attacker cannot control the prefix of the message. If the salt is truly a secret, and isn't known to the attacker, then does it matter if its a appended to the end of the password? Is it safe to assume that an attacker cannot generate a collision until the entire message has been obtained? Do you know of other cases where a broken hash function can be used in a security context without introducing a vulnerability? (Please post supporting evidence because it is awesome!)

    Read the article

  • Uploading File Problem in PHP on Drupal

    - by Nitz
    I don't know why but i had written clear cut code for uploading file in my page. i had written like this... on the client side. <form id="recipeform" onsubmit="return checkAll()" action="submit.php" method="post" class="niceform" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <input name="uploaded" type="file" /> And on submit.php... i am writting like this..... $target = "newupload/"; $target = $target . basename( $_FILES['uploaded']['name']) ; $ok=1; if(move_uploaded_file($_FILES['uploaded']['tmp_name'], $target)){ echo "The file ". basename( $_FILES['uploaded']['name']). " has been uploaded"; } else{ echo "Sorry, there was a problem uploading your file."; } simple code but then also i can't able to upload the file.. And i had made my webiste in Drupal. Thanks in advance. www.panchjanyacorp.com

    Read the article

  • How to control access to third party HTML pages

    - by Wylie
    Hello, We have a Learning Management System (LMS) that runs on its own server (IIS/Server 2003). Students must login with Forms authentication to gain access to the content. We want to offer access to third party flash and audio that is embedded in HTML pages hosted on the third party server (IIS/Server 2003). Currently we use a frame in a pop-up window that is populated via a simple URL to the third party HTML pages. How can the third party control access to their content, so that only students who launch the pop-up windows from our site can access their content? Since the content is mostly video and flash, we would prefer not to stream all of their content through our server to the Student. We have a programming staff, so we could maybe... - either post or get for our HTTP request to the third party server - we could use SSL - we could programmatically assign a global NT user account to all of our users and then do some kind of Active Directory login from the LMS server to the third party server - could the third party content be hosted at Amazon S3? Would this allow for secure access/download? These are just ideas. We really have no idea. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. TIA, Wylie

    Read the article

  • Gearman client doBackground always returns GEARMAN_TIMEOUT

    - by Ascherer
    So, ive got a simple gearman system running right now, with a worker running. The worker basically just takes the payload (a random number in this case, and is supposed to echo it back to the screen. Literally an echo, not returning to the client. The client sends the random number. Im trying to do a $client->doBackground( 'post', 65482, md5(uniqid())); but its coming back with a 47 error (GEARMAN_TIMEOUT) every time. getErrNo() returns 0, error() returns something about GEARMAN_TIMEOUT However, when i change it to just $client->do(blah, blah, blah), it works just fine. I've even occasionally seen it where the worker still echo's the number, even after getting the timeout error... public function execute() { $method = 'do'; if( !$this->getBlock() ) { $method .= ( $this->getPriority() == 'Normal' ? '' : $this->getPriority() ) . 'Background'; } else { $method .= $this->getPriority(); } echo "Method: $method \t Worker: {$this->getName()} \t Payload: {$this->getPayload()} \t Hash: {$this->getHash()}\n"; $this->setResult( $this->getClient() ->$method( $this->getName(), $this->getPayload(), $this->getHash() ) ); if( $this->getClient()->returnCode() != GEARMAN_SUCCESS ) { echo "Code: " . $this->getClient()->returnCode() . "\t" . GEARMAN_TIMEOUT . "\n"; } }

    Read the article

  • linux bash script: set date/time variable to auto-update (for inclusion in file names)

    - by user1859492
    Essentially, I have a standard format for file naming conventions. It breaks down to this: target_dateUTC_timeUTC_tool So, for instance, if I run tcpdump on a target of 'foo', then the file would be foo_dateUTC_timeUTC_tcpdump. Simple enough, but a pain for everyone to constantly (and consistently) enter... so I've tried to create a bash script which sets system variables like so: FILENAME=$TARGET\_$UTCTIME\_$TOOL Then, I can just call the variable at runtime, like so: tcpdump -w $FILENAME.lpc All of this works like a champ. I've got a menu-driven .sh which gives the user the options of viewing the current variables as well as setting them... file generation is a breeze. Unfortunately, by setting the date/time variable, it is locked to the value at the time of creation (naturally). I set the variable like so: UTCTIME=$(/bin/date --utc +"%Y%m%d_%H%M%Z") What I really need is either a way to create a variable which updates at runtime, or (more likely) another way to skin this cat. While scouring for solutions, I came across a similar issues... like this. But, to be honest, I'm stumped on how to marry the two approaches and create a simple, distributable solution. I can post the entire .sh if anyone cares to review (about 120 lines)

    Read the article

  • Booking logic and architecture, database sync: Hotels, tennis courts reservation system ...

    - by coulix
    Hello Stackers, Imagine that you want to design a tennis booking system. You have 5 tennis clubs as partenrs with no online api allowing you to check on their side if a court is booked or not: You have to build this part as well. Every time a booking is done on their side you want it to be know by our system. Probably using a POST request form tennis partner to our server. Every time a booking is done on our website, we want to push the booking to their system. The difficulty is that their system need to be online and accessible from outside. Ip may change, we have to use a dns updater. In case their system is not available we still accept the booking and fallback to an async email with 'i confirm booking/reject booking' link sent to the club. I find the whole process quite complex and was wondering about the way online hotel booking system and hotel were working. Do they all have their data open and online ? The good thing is that the data will grow large and fits nicely to some no SQL ;) like couch db

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to specify a per-host deploy_to path with Capistrano?

    - by Chad Johnson
    I have searched and searched and asked a question already and have not received a clear answer. I have the following deploy script (snippet): set :application, "testapplication" set :repository, "ssh://domain.com//srv/hg/#{application}" set :scm, :mercurial set :deploy_to, "/srv/www/#{application}" role :web, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :app, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :db, "domain1.com", :primary => true, :norelease => true role :db, "domain2.com", :norelease => true As you see, I have set deploy_to to a specific path. And, I also have specified multiple web servers. However, each web server should have a different deployment path. I want to be able to run "cap deploy" and deploy to all hosts in one shot. I am NOT trying to deploy to staging and then to production. This is all production. My question is: how exactly do I specify a path per server? I have read the "Roles" documentation for Capistrano, and this is unclear. Can someone please post a deploy file example? I have read the documentation, and it is unclear how to do this. Does anyone know? Am I crazy? Am I thinking of this wrong or something? No answers anywhere online. Nowhere. Nothing. Please, someone help.

    Read the article

  • jQuery enclose text before and after anchor tag in separate spans.

    - by Devashish Bahri
    hey dere, first of all, thnx a ton for taking out time to see my post. i have a big problem with jQuery. i have this code: <p>Hi. I am your friend. you are my friend.<br> we <a href="both.html">both</a> are friends.</p> My aim is to enclose the text before the anchor tag as well as after the anchor tag into separate spans. Thus, i want something like this in the DOM: <p><span>Hi. I am your friend. you are my friend.<br> we </span><a href="both.html">both</a><span> are friends.</span></p> Can anybody please help me and tell me how to do it in jQuery. PLease... its very important..!! Thnx in advance...

    Read the article

  • contentscript, dynamic created iframe, postmessage

    - by thefoyer
    I'm attempting to inject an iframe from a content script. From the content script, post a message to the iframe, without much success. This is the closest I have got. No errors/warnings in the console but it doesn't work (alert test). contentscript: var iframe = document.createElement("iframe"); iframe.setAttribute("src", "https://www.com/iframe.php"); iframe.id = "iframe01"; document.getElementsByTagName("body")[0].appendChild(iframe); //then I inject this "web_accessible_resources" script var script = document.createElement("script"); script.type = "text/javascript"; script.src = chrome.extension.getURL("postMessage.js"); document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0].appendChild(script); postMessage.js window.postMessage({msg: "test"}, "*"); I've also tried top.postMessage({msg: "test"}, "*"); And var iframe = document.getElementById('iframe01'); iframe.contentWindow.postMessage({msg: "test"}, "*"); EDIT: I tried to make sure the iframe was loaded before postMessage, even if I put an alert there, it would alert telling me the iframe was loaded. var iframe = document.getElementById('iframe01'); if (ifrm_prsto.contentWindow.document) //do postMessage EDIT2: I did get it to work by moving the iframe from the contentscript to the inject.js script. Wasn't totally ideal but I do have it working now, I guess. iframe.php window.addEventListener("message", function(e) {alert("test");}); I am however able to do the reverse, talk to the parent script from the iframe.

    Read the article

  • forcing a download using PHP / jQuery

    - by Dirty-flow
    I know there are already many questions about forcing a download with PHP, but I can't find what I'm doing wrong and what should I do. I'm having an list with filenames, and I want to download one of them by clicking a button. My jQuery: $(".MappeDownload").on("click",function(e){ e.stopPropagation(); fileId=$(this).val() $.post("ajax/DownloadFile.php",{ id : fileId}) }) and on the server side I have a table with the file names and the file path. $sql = "SELECT vUploadPfad, vUploadOriginname FROM tabUpload WHERE zUploadId='$_POST[id]'"; $result = mysql_query($sql) or die(""); $file = mysql_fetch_array($result); $localfile = $file["vUploadPfad"]; $name=$file["vUploadOriginname"]; $fp = fopen($localfile, 'rb'); header("Cache-Control: "); header("Pragma: "); header("Content-Type: application/octet-stream"); header("Content-Length: " . filesize($localfile)); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename='".$name."';"); header("Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary\n"); fpassthru($fp); exit; The AJAX request is successful, I'm getting the right header(filesize, filename etc...) but the download are not starting.

    Read the article

  • Prototype: Form.serialize missing some inputs (due to table?)

    - by Chris
    I'm using JavaScript Prototype (through Ruby on Rails) to handle some Ajax calls; but in one particular case I'm missing a field from the form. I have a layout like this: +---------+---------+ | Thing 1 | Thing 2 | +---------+---------+-----------+ | o Opt 1 | o Opt 1 | <Confirm> | | o Opt 2 | o Opt 2 | | +---------+---------+-----------+ Opt 1 and 2 are Radio buttons, Confirm is a button. The entire table is wrapped in a form, with code like: <form action="javascript:void(0)"> <input type="hidden" name="context" value="foo" /> <input type="hidden" name="subcontext" value="bar" /> <table> <tr><td>Thing 1</td><td>Thing2</td></tr> <tr><td> <input type="radio" name="choice" value="1.1" />Opt 1<br /> <input type="radio" name="choice" value="1.2" />Opt 2<br /> </td><td> <input type="radio" name="choice" value="2.1" />Opt 1<br /> <input type="radio" name="choice" value="2.2" />Opt 2<br /> </td><td> <input name="choice_btn" type="button" value="Confirm" onclick="new AJAX.Updater('my_form', '/process_form', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, parameters:Form.serialize(this.form)}); return false;" /> </td></tr> </table> </form> But I can see that the POST generated by clicking the Confirm button contains the foo and bar values for the hidden fields, but not the choice of the radio buttons. Is this because I've got a table inside my form? How can I get around this?

    Read the article

  • What does P mean in Sort(Expression<Func<T, P>> expr, ListSortDirection direction)?

    - by Grasshopper
    I am attempting to use the answer in post: How do you sort an EntitySet<T> to expose an interface so that I can sort an EntitySet with a Binding list. I have created the class below and I get the following compiler error: "The type or namespace 'P' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or assembly reference?). Can someone tell me what the P means and which namespace I need to include to get the method below to compile? I am very new to delegates and lamba expressions. Also, can someone confirm that if I create a BindingList from my EntitySet that any modifications I make to the BindingList will be made to the EntitySet? Basically, I have an EntitySet that I need to sort and make changes to. Then, I will need to persist these changes using the original Entity that the BindingList came from. public class EntitySetBindingWrapper<T> : BindingList<T> { public EntitySetBindingWrapper(BindingList<T> root) : base(root) { } public void Sort(Expression<Func<T, P>> expr, ListSortDirection direction) { if (expr == null) base.RemoveSortCore(); MemberExpression propExpr = expr as MemberExpression; if (propExpr == null) throw new ArgumentException("You must provide a property", "expr"); PropertyDescriptorCollection descriptorCol = TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(typeof(T)); IEnumerable<PropertyDescriptor> descriptors = descriptorCol.Cast<PropertyDescriptor>(); PropertyDescriptor descriptor = descriptors.First(pd => pd.Name == propExpr.Member.Name); base.ApplySortCore(descriptor, direction); } }

    Read the article

  • Jquery.Validate plugin + realPerson plugin

    - by Dave Watts
    I can't figure out how to make it so the form wont fire unless the realPerson captcha is "valid". I can see that when the user types in the correct/valid letters and clicks submit it adds a class of "valid" to the input. So Ive been trying to figure out how to get the jquery.validate plugin to only fire when the class "valid" is present. <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#defaultReal').realperson(); $('#contact_form2').validate({ submitHandler: function(form) { var str = $("form").serialize(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "contactpage.php", data: str, success: function(){ $('#contact_form2').html("<div id='message'></div>"); $('#message').html("<h2>Contact Form Submitted!</h2>") .append("<p>We will be in touch soon.</p>") .hide() .fadeIn(1500, function() { $('#message').append("<img id='checkmark' src='images/check.png' />"); }); }}); return false; } }); Thank you in advanced! -Dave

    Read the article

  • Load ascx via jQuery

    - by Raika
    Is there a way to load ascx file by jQuery? UPDATE: thanks to @Emmett and @Yads.i am use the handler and the ajax: jQuery.ajax({ type: "POST", //GET url: "Foo.ashx", data: '{}', contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (response) { jQuery('#controlload').append(response.d); // or response }, error: function () { jQuery('#controlload').append('error'); } }); but i,m just getting an error. my ajax is wrong? Another Update : i am using error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { jQuery('#controlload').append(thrownError); } and this what i get : Invalid JSON: Test =(this test is label inside my ascx) and my ascx file after Error!!! Another Update : my ascx file is somthing like this: <asp:DropDownList ID="ddl" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true"> <asp:ListItem>1</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem>2</asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server">Test</asp:Label> but when I call ajax i get this error in asp: :( Control 'ctl00_ddl' of type 'DropDownList' must be placed inside a form tag with runat=server.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 701 702 703 704 705 706 707 708 709 710 711 712  | Next Page >