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  • Can't display image with Imageview on Android

    - by user1029167
    In my \drawable-mdpi folder, I have an image named: test.jpg In my main.xml file, in my LinearLayout section, I have: <ImageView android:id="@+id/test_image" android:src="@drawable/test" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> In my src folder, I have only 1 file, HelloAndroidActivity.java with only the following method: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); ImageView image = new ImageView(this); image = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.test_image); setContentView(image); } This seems to be correct, yet whenever I try to run it, I get The application HelloAndroid (process xxxxx) has stopped unexpectedly. Please try again. The strange part is it previously did display the image, but now it won't and I don't know why. Also, when I comment out the ImageDisplay code, and replace it with TextDisplay code. i.e. TextView tv = new TextView(this); tv.setText("Does this work?"); setContentView(tv); It does display the text. Edit: was asked to post logcat. Link to pastebin.

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  • Filling a region draws it off canvas

    - by Xanyx
    Hi Using the following code in Delphi 2007: procedure TfrmTest.PaintBox1Paint(Sender: TObject); const Rect_Size = 10; begin PaintBox1.Canvas.Brush.Color := clYellow; PaintBox1.Canvas.FillRect(Rect(0, 0, PaintBox1.width, PaintBox1.height)); PaintBox1.Canvas.Brush.Color := clRed; DrawARect(PaintBox1.Canvas, 0, 0, Rect_Size, Rect_Size); end; procedure TfrmTest.DrawARect(ACanvas: TCanvas; iLeft, iTop, iWidth, iHeight: Integer); var rgnMain: HRGN; begin rgnMain := CreateRectRgn(iLeft, iTop, iLeft + iWidth, iTop + iHeight); try SelectClipRgn(ACanvas.handle, rgnMain); ACanvas.FillRect(ACanvas.ClipRect); SelectClipRgn(ACanvas.handle, 0); finally DeleteObject(rgnMain); end; end; I get this: (Yellow area shows boundaries of PaintBox1). HMMM, NOT ALLOWED TO POST IMAGE Please go to: http://www.freeimagehosting.net/uploads/62cf687d29.jpg (Linked image shows a form with a yellow box [PaintBox1] in the center. However my red rectange [rgnMain] has been drawn at pos 0,0 on the form) My expectation was that the red rectangle would be at the top left of the PaintBox1 canvas, not the form's canvas. Why is it not? Can regions only be used with controls that have a Windows handle? Thanks

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  • Retain numerical precision in an R data frame?

    - by David
    When I create a dataframe from numeric vectors, R seems to truncate the value below the precision that I require in my analysis: data.frame(x=0.99999996) returns 1 (see update 1) I am stuck when fitting spline(x,y) and two of the x values are set to 1 due to rounding while y changes. I could hack around this but I would prefer to use a standard solution if available. example Here is an example data set d <- data.frame(x = c(0.668732936336141, 0.95351462456867, 0.994620622127435, 0.999602102672081, 0.999987126195509, 0.999999955814133, 0.999999999999966), y = c(38.3026509783688, 11.5895099585560, 10.0443344234229, 9.86152339768516, 9.84461434575695, 9.81648333804257, 9.83306725758297)) The following solution works, but I would prefer something that is less subjective: plot(d$x, d$y, ylim=c(0,50)) lines(spline(d$x, d$y),col='grey') #bad fit lines(spline(d[-c(4:6),]$x, d[-c(4:6),]$y),col='red') #reasonable fit Update 1 Since posting this question, I realize that this will return 1 even though the data frame still contains the original value, e.g. > dput(data.frame(x=0.99999999996)) returns structure(list(x = 0.99999999996), .Names = "x", row.names = c(NA, -1L), class = "data.frame") Update 2 After using dput to post this example data set, and some pointers from Dirk, I can see that the problem is not in the truncation of the x values but the limits of the numerical errors in the model that I have used to calculate y. This justifies dropping a few of the equivalent data points (as in the example red line).

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  • Kohana Auth Library Deployment

    - by Steve
    My Kohana app runs perfectly on my local machine. When I deployed my app to a server (and adjust the config files appropriately), I can no longer log into the app. I've traced through the app login routine on both my local version and the server version and they both agree with each other all the way through until you get to the auth.php controller logged_in() routine where suddenly, at line 140 - the is_object($this-user) test - the $user object no longer exists!?!?!? The login() function call that calls the logged_in() function successfully passes the following test, which causes a redirect to the logged_in() function. if(Auth::instance()->login($user, $post['password'])) Yes, the password and hash, etc all work perfectly. Here is the offending code: public function logged_in() { if ( ! is_object($this->user)) { // No user is currently logged in url::redirect('auth/login'); } etc... } As the code is the same between my local installation and the server, I reckon it must be some server setting that is messing with me. FYI: All the rest of the code works because I have a temporary backdoor available that allows me to use the application (view pages of tables, etc) without being logged in. Any ideas?

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  • Allow login from another site

    - by tunmise fasipe
    I have web application where I store users' password and username. If you logon to this site, you can login with the password and username to have access to your profile. There is another option that requires you to login to my site from your site and have your profile within your site. This is because you might already have a site that your clients know you with. This latter part is what I don't know to implement. I have these ideas: Have a fixed IFrame within your site to contain my site: but I am concerned about size/layout since different clients have different layout/size for their content section. I am thinking of how to maintain session too A webservice: I don't know how feasible this is since the Password and ID are on my server. You may have to send them back and forth. It means client would have to code with my API. But I am not just returning data, I have to show them a page that contains the profile details OpenID, Single-SignOn: Just guessing - but the authentication and data resides on my server. there is nothing to access on your side in this case Any other methods/better approach Examples: like login into facebook within my site and still be able to do post updates, receive notifications Facebook implement some of these with IFrame e.g. the Like button

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  • Sorting the output from XmlSerializer in C#

    - by prosseek
    In this post, I could get an XML file generated based on C# class. Can I reorder the XML elements based on its element? My code uses var ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Module)); ser.Serialize(WriteFileStream, report, ns); WriteFileStream.Close(); to get the XML file, but I need to have the XML file sorted based on a BlocksCovered variable. public class ClassInfo { public string ClassName; public int BlocksCovered; public int BlocksNotCovered; public double CoverageRate; public ClassInfo() {} public ClassInfo(string ClassName, int BlocksCovered, int BlocksNotCovered, double CoverageRate) { this.ClassName = ClassName; this.BlocksCovered = BlocksCovered; this.BlocksNotCovered = BlocksNotCovered; this.CoverageRate = CoverageRate; } } [XmlRoot("Module")] public class Module { [XmlElement("Class")] public List<ClassInfo> ClassInfoList; public int BlocksCovered; public int BlocksNotCovered; public string moduleName; public Module() { ClassInfoList = new List<ClassInfo>(); BlocksCovered = 0; BlocksNotCovered = 0; moduleName = ""; } } Module report = new Module(); ... TextWriter WriteFileStream = new StreamWriter(xmlFileName); XmlSerializerNamespaces ns = new XmlSerializerNamespaces(); ns.Add("", ""); var ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Module)); ser.Serialize(WriteFileStream, report, ns); WriteFileStream.Close();

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  • Uploading File Problem in PHP on Drupal

    - by Nitz
    I don't know why but i had written clear cut code for uploading file in my page. i had written like this... on the client side. <form id="recipeform" onsubmit="return checkAll()" action="submit.php" method="post" class="niceform" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <input name="uploaded" type="file" /> And on submit.php... i am writting like this..... $target = "newupload/"; $target = $target . basename( $_FILES['uploaded']['name']) ; $ok=1; if(move_uploaded_file($_FILES['uploaded']['tmp_name'], $target)){ echo "The file ". basename( $_FILES['uploaded']['name']). " has been uploaded"; } else{ echo "Sorry, there was a problem uploading your file."; } simple code but then also i can't able to upload the file.. And i had made my webiste in Drupal. Thanks in advance. www.panchjanyacorp.com

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  • Usage Rails 3.0 beta 3 without ActiveRecoord ORM

    - by Anton
    Hi everybody! Just installed Rails 3.0 beta 3 in Windows 7. And started playing with some easy examples class SignupController < ApplicationController def index @user = User.new(params[:user]) if method.post? and @user.save redirect_to :root end end end class User def initialize(params = {}) @email = params[:email] @passw = params[:passw] end def save end end <div align="center"> <% form_for :user do |form| %> <%= form.label :email %> <%= form.text_field :email %><br /> <%= form.label :password %> <%= form.text_field :password %><br /> <%= form.submit :Register! %> <% end %> </div> When I go to /signup I'm getting this error NoMethodError in SignupController#index You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! You might have expected an instance of Array. The error occurred while evaluating nil.[] Is there a problem with constructor or what's wrong?Please, need your help!

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  • Automatically update php loop with data pulled from database

    - by John Svensson
    SQL STRUCTURE CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `map` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `x` int(11) NOT NULL, `y` int(11) NOT NULL, `type` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=3 ; http://localhost/map.php?x=0&y=0 When I update the x and y via POST or GET, I would like to pull the new data from the database without refreshing the site, how would I manage that? Could someone give me some examples, because I am really stuck here. <?php mysql_connect('localhost', 'root', ''); mysql_select_db('hol'); $startX = $_GET['x']; $startY = $_GET['y']; $fieldHeight = 6; $fieldWidth = 6; $sql = "SELECT id, x, y, type FROM map WHERE x BETWEEN ".$startX." AND ".($startX+$fieldWidth). " AND y BETWEEN ".$startY." AND ".($startY+$fieldHeight); $result = mysql_query($sql); $positions = array(); while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $positions[$row['x']][$row['y']] = $row; } echo "<table>"; for($y=$startY; $y<$startY+$fieldHeight; $y++) { echo "<tr>"; for($x=$startX; $x<$startX+$fieldWidth; $x++) { echo "<td>"; if(isset($positions[$x][$y])) { echo $positions[$x][$y]['type']; } else { echo "(".$x.",".$y.")"; } echo "</td>"; } echo "</tr>"; } echo "</table>"; ?>

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  • Jquery.Validate plugin + realPerson plugin

    - by Dave Watts
    I can't figure out how to make it so the form wont fire unless the realPerson captcha is "valid". I can see that when the user types in the correct/valid letters and clicks submit it adds a class of "valid" to the input. So Ive been trying to figure out how to get the jquery.validate plugin to only fire when the class "valid" is present. <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#defaultReal').realperson(); $('#contact_form2').validate({ submitHandler: function(form) { var str = $("form").serialize(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "contactpage.php", data: str, success: function(){ $('#contact_form2').html("<div id='message'></div>"); $('#message').html("<h2>Contact Form Submitted!</h2>") .append("<p>We will be in touch soon.</p>") .hide() .fadeIn(1500, function() { $('#message').append("<img id='checkmark' src='images/check.png' />"); }); }}); return false; } }); Thank you in advanced! -Dave

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  • writing javascripts function using jquery

    - by tazim
    Some template written using jquery is as follows . it is not working . Any suggestions to use jquery efficiently . <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="/jquerycall/"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { self.setInterval("clock()",1000); $("button").click(function() { clock; }); function clock() { clock(); time=new Date(); var s = "<p>" + time + "</p>"; $(s).appendTo("div"); } }); </script> </head> <body> <form method="post"> <button type="button">Click Me</button> <div id="someid"></div> </form> </body> </html>

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  • PHP checking/refreashing functions

    - by user1284360
    ok i have a main document that displays a chatbox, what i want is for the chatbox to refreash on everyone who is logged in's screen whenever someone posts a new message... ive tried many methods including sleep timers and new functions that call then sleep and get recalled but this just generates an endless line of the same or little diffrent data making the form unusable until error... this is my code <?php // set error reporting level if (version_compare(phpversion(), "5.3.0", ">=") == 1) error_reporting(E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE & ~E_DEPRECATED); else error_reporting(E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE); require_once('inc/login.inc.php'); require_once('inc/chat.inc.php'); // initialization of login system and generation code $oSimpleLoginSystem = new SimpleLoginSystem(); $oSimpleChat = new SimpleChat(); // draw login box echo $oSimpleLoginSystem->getLoginBox(); // draw chat application $sChatResult = '<font color="0x99000"> <a href="Register_form.html">New Account</a><br> login to send a message<br> or register for a new account</font>'; if ($_COOKIE['member_name'] && $_COOKIE['member_pass']) { if ($oSimpleLoginSystem->check_login($_COOKIE['member_name'], $_COOKIE['member_pass'])) { $sChatResult = ""; if($oSimpleLoginSystem->check_privledges($_COOKIE['member_name']) >= 2) { $sChatResult .= "<br>privledge check Working<br>"; } $sChatResult .= "<form action=$_SERVER[PHP_SELF] method='post'> <input type='hidden' name='foo' value='<?= $foo ?>' /> <input type='submit' name='submit' value='Refresh Messages' /> </form>"; $sChatResult .= $oSimpleChat->acceptMessages(); $sChatResult .= "<br><br>"; $sChatResult .= $oSimpleChat->getMessages(); } } echo $sChatResult; ?>

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  • novice needing help on shuffeling an array

    - by steffen Myklebust
    Please help a TOTAL beginner.! I found this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/56648/whats-the-best-way-to-shuffle-an-nsmutablearray And as i try to deploy this in my own code, I cant get it working... :-( Can anyone help me to resolve this code? To me it looks like the shuffle function is not called..? here is my code: // // shuffle2ViewController.h // shuffle2 #import @interface shuffle2ViewController : UIViewController { NSMutableArray *puzzles; int *randomSort; } - (void)shuffle; @end //============================= // shuffle2ViewController.m ´#import "shuffle2ViewController.h" @implementation shuffle2ViewController (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSMutableArray *puzzles = [NSMutableArray arrayWithObjects:@"1",@"2",@"3", @"4",@"5",@"6",@"7",@"8",@"9", @"10",@"11",@"12", nil]; // Call the shuffle function [self shuffle]; // print to log int i; NSLog(@"NEW OLD"); NSLog(@"================="); for (i = 0; i < 12; ++i) NSLog(@" %2i %@", i + 1, [puzzles objectAtIndex:i]); } int randomSort(id obj1, id obj2, void *context ) { // returns random number -1 0 1 return (random()%3 - 1); } (void)shuffle { // call custom sort function [puzzles sortUsingFunction:randomSort context:nil]; } Giving this result: NEW OLD ================= 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8 8 9 9 10 10 11 11 12 12

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  • When is it safe to use a broken hash function?

    - by The Rook
    It is trivial to use a secure hash function like SHA256 and continuing to use md5 is reckless behavior. However, there are some complexities to hash function vulnerabilities that I would like to better understand. Collisions have been generated for md4 and md5. According to NIST md5() is not a secure hash function. It only takes 2^39th operations to generate a collision and should never be used for passwords. However SHA1 is vulnerable to a similar collision attack in which a collision can be found in 2^69 operations, where as brute force is 2^80th. No one has generated a sha1 collision and NIST still lists sha1 as a secure message digest function. So when is it safe to use a broken hash function? Even though a function is broken it can still be "big enough". According to Schneier a hash function vulnerable to a collsion attack can still be used as an HMAC. I believe this is because the security of an HMAC is Dependant on its secret key and a collision cannot be found until this key is obtained. Once you have the key used in a HMAC its already broken, so its a moot point. What hash function vulnerabilities would undermine the security of an HMAC? Lets take this property a bit further. Does it then become safe to use a very weak message digest like md4 for passwords if a salt is perpended to the password? Keep in mind the md4 and md5 attacks are prefixing attacks, and if a salt is perpended then an attacker cannot control the prefix of the message. If the salt is truly a secret, and isn't known to the attacker, then does it matter if its a appended to the end of the password? Is it safe to assume that an attacker cannot generate a collision until the entire message has been obtained? Do you know of other cases where a broken hash function can be used in a security context without introducing a vulnerability? (Please post supporting evidence because it is awesome!)

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  • How do I vertcally align thumbnails of unknown height using jQuery?

    - by playahabana
    Ok, I am a complete beginner to this, in fact I am still building my first website. I am attempting to do this all by hand-coding without a CMS in order to try and learn as much possible as quickly as possible. If this post is in the wrong place I apologise, and a pointer to right place would be appreciated. Here goes, I am trying to peice together a bit of jQuery that will automatically vertically align my thumbnails in my image gallery (they are all different sizes). They are within fixed size div's and the function I am attempting looks something like this: <script type="text/javascript"> $('#ul.photo).bind(function() { var smartVert=$(this); var phty=ob.("ul.photo img").height(); //get height of photos var phtdif=Math.floor(208 - phty); //subtract height of photo from div height var phttop=Math.floor(phtdif / 2); //gets padding reqd. $ob.("ul.photo").css({'padding-top' : phttop}) //sets padding to center thumbnail }); smartVert(); unsurprisingly this doesn't work, if some kindly soul could take pity on a total noob, and point out where I am going wrong (probably in writing complete gibberish would be my first guess) it would be greatly appreciated- even if you could just point me in the direcion of a tutorial regarding these things, I have looked and found one reference that said such a function was easy to create, but it did not elaborate. thankyou in advance

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  • What prevents a user from adding controls to an ASP.NET page client side?

    - by Curtis White
    This goes back to my other question which I thought was sufficiently answers but upon reflect am not sure that it was (sorry). Backgrounder: I am generating a form dynamically. I am pulling from the database the controls. I must associate each control with a database ID which is not the user's session id. I do this currently by storing my ID in the ID for the web control with some other stuff to make it unique/clear what I am doing. On the post back, I iterate through all the controls on my web page checking for my special identifier, ie, MyGeneratedTextBox_ID_Unique. This process enables for 2 important steps, identifying the control was one I generated and also getting the ID for this input field. And, all of this works but I'm still concerned about the security of it. I do not see a security issue with showing the actual database ID's in this case, although agree it is not desirable. However, I am concerned of the following possibilities: If a user could add a nefarious control to my collection and use that for a SQL injection attack. More academic, but if a user could somehow store data for fields they do not have access too by changing the id's. I agree this is a "hack" of a way to do it. But my question is, is it a security risk and is there an 'easy' way to do it in a less hack way? I assume that only the controls that are created/instantiated on the page are added to the controls list.. thus all controls must be created server side and thus the security issue is address but just wanted to validate. Thanks again. PS: I could see adding a property for each control and encrypting the viewstate would be a little more secure.

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  • SQL Database Schema Design For Large 3 Billion Relationship Database.

    - by K-Bell
    Get your geek on. Can you solve this? I am designing a products database for SQL Server 2008 R2 Ed. (not Enterprise Ed.) that will be used to store custom product configurations for over 30,000 distinct products. The database will have up to 500 users at a time. Here is the design problem… Each Product has a collection of Parts (up to 50 parts per product). So if I have 30,000 Products and each of them can have up to 50 Parts, that’s 1.5 million distinct Product-to-Part relationships …or as an equation… 30,000 (Products) X 50 (Parts) = 1.5 million Product-to-Parts records. …and If… Each Part can have up to 2000 finish options (A finish is a paint color). NOTE: Only one finish will be selected by a user at run-time. The 2000 finish options I need to store are the allowed options for a specific part on a specific product. So if I have 1.5 million distinct product-to-part relationships/records and each of those parts can have up to 2,000 finishes that is 3 billion allowable product-to-part-to finish relationships/records …or as an equation… 1.5 million (Parts) x 2,000 (Finishes) = 3 Billion Product-to-Part-to-Finishes records. How can I design this database so that I can execute fast and efficient queries for a specific product and return its list of Parts and all the allowable Finishes for each part without 3 Billion Product-to-Part-to-Finish records? Read time is more important then write time. Please post your thoughts/suggestions if you have experience with large databases. Thanks!

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  • log activity. intrusion detection. user event notification ( interraction ). messaging

    - by Julian Davchev
    Have three questions that I somehow find related so I put them in same place. Currently building relatively large LAMP system - making use of messaging(activeMQ) , memcache and other goodies. I wonder if there are best practices or nice tips and tricks on howto implement those. System is user aware - meaning all actions done can be bind to particular logged user. 1. How to log all actions/activities of users? So that stats/graphics might be extracted later for analysing. At best that will include all url calls, post data etc etc. Meaning tons of inserts. I am thinking sending messages to activeMQ and later cron dumping in DB and cron analysing might be good idea here. Since using Zend Framework I guess I may use some request plugin so I don't have to make the log() call all over the code. 2.How to log stuff so may be used for intrusion detection? I know most things might be done on http level using apache mods for example but there are also specific cases like (5 failed login attempts in a row (leads to captcha) etc etc..) This also would include tons of inserts. Here I guess direct usage of memcache might be best approach as data don't seem vital to be permanantly persisted. Not sure if cannot use data from point 1. 3.System will notify users of some events. Like need approval , something broke..whatever.Some events will need feedback(action) from user, others are just informational. Wonder if there is common solutions for needs like this. Example: Based on occuring event(s) user will be notifed (user inbox for example) what happend. There will be link or something to lead him to details of thingy that happend and take action accordingly. Those seem trivial at first look but problem I see if coding it directly is becoming really fast hard to maintain.

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  • reset TextView scroll to top

    - by JayAvon
    Okay well I apologize for how sloppy this code is, but I still cant figure out how to post a code tag on here correctly. So I am making an Android application (Java) and i have a scrolling text field. If the user scrolls a long row down and stays at the end when they click the next row and if it is short, it will be scrolled down on that element too even though it may be a 1 line(and non scrollable) row. I was wondering if there is any way I can call something to right after txtLvlInfo.setText to reset the x-scroll value to 0 or something so it is always reset to the top of the content, long or short. Thanks for any help with this and please let me know if I need to clarify more. TextView txtLvlInfo = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.txtLevelInfo); txtLvlInfo.setMovementMethod(new ScrollingMovementMethod()); switch (v.getId()){ case R.id.row1: txtLvlInfo.setText("1: My text view is only two lines max and so I set it to scroll, if the user clicks row2 to load that text while having me scrolled down they have to click and pull to drag back down to the top of text view 2 row."); break; case R.id.row2: txtLvlInfo.setText("I only fill line 1 of the two."); break; android:textColor="#052027" android:text="" android:id="@+id/txtLevelInfo" android:scrollbars="vertical" android:layout_alignParentLeft="true" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_toRightOf="@+id/minimizeBtn" android:layout_marginRight="38dip"

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  • .NET - Unable to get values from Value property of HtmlInputHidden

    - by user245123
    I have a custom control that inherits from .NET's CompositeControl class. This control overrides the CreateChildControls in order to build its child controls dynamically. I need the page to post back after a couple different javascript events occur on the client side. In order to accomplish this, I create two hidden controls on the page so I can set their values with javascript, submit the page, and read the values out on server side. Here's is the code I use to create these two hiddens: Protected Overrides Sub CreateChildControls() hdEventName = New HiddenField() Controls.Add(hdEventName) hdEventName.ID = "hdEventName" hdEventArgs = New HiddenField() Controls.Add(hdEventArgs) hdEventArgs.ID = "hdEventValue" ' other controls ' ... End Sub When a javascript event occurs I set the value attribute of the two hiddens and submit the page, like so: hdEventName.value = 'EventName'; hdEventArgs.value = 'arg1,arg2'; document.forms[0].submit(); In the OnLoad method of my control, I attempt to check the Value property of the hdEventName and hdEventArgs controls, but it is always empty. However, Page.Request.Form(hdEventName.UniqueID) and Page.Request.Form(hdEventArgs.UniqueID) return correct values. The actual HTML in the markup also shows correct values after the page posts back. Why is the Value property of the HtmlInputHiddens disconnected from the actual value that appears on the client?

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  • ASP .NET: Cannot call Page WebMethod using jQuery

    - by John
    I created a WebMethod in the code-behind file of my page as such: [System.Web.Services.WebMethod()] public static string Test() { return "TEST"; } I created the following HTML page to test it out: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"/></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function test() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://localhost/TestApp/TestPage.aspx/Test", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "text", success: function(msg) { alert(msg.d); } }); } </script> </head> <body> <button onclick="test();">Click Me</button> </body> </html> When I click the button, the AJAX fires off, but nothing is returned. When I debug my code, the method Test() doesn't even get called. Any ideas?

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  • CakePHP – 2 controllers, 1 form

    - by user1327
    I need to create a review form. I have 2 models and 2 controllers – Products and Reviews with 'Products' hasMany 'Reviews' relationship, the review form will be displayed on the current product page (Products controller, 'view' action), and this form will be use another controller (Reviews). Also I need validation with validation errors being displayed for this form. In my Products controller view.ctp I have: // product page stuff... echo $this->Form->create($model = 'Review', array('url' => '/reviews/add')); echo $this->Form->input('name', array('label' => 'Your name:')); echo $this->Form->input('email', array('label' => 'Your e-mail:')); echo $this->Form->input('message', array('rows' => '6', 'label' => 'Your message:')); echo $this->Form->end('Send'); echo $this->Session->flash(); ReviewsController - add: public function add() { if ($this->request->is('post')) { $this->Review->save($this->request->data); $this->redirect(array('controller' => 'products', 'action' => 'view', $this->request->data['Review']['product_id'], '#' => 'reviews')); } } Somehow this horrible code works.. in part. Review saves, but I don't get validation errors, and I can't add 'if ($this->Review->save($this->request->data);) { //... } because it will break this action (missed view error). My question is how to properly deal with this situation to achieve functionality that I need? Should I use elements with request action or I should move adding reviews to the ProductsController?

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  • Multiselect tranfer in zend

    - by niriza
    I want to transfer the selected value of Zend_Form_Element_Multiselect to another multiselect element of zend form. I tried this with JQuery it works but when I try to populate the form I get a problem what should I do in my controller. My code look like this: Form: $form['core'] = new Zend_Form_Element_Multiselect('core'); foreach ($results as $row) { $form['core']-addMultiOption($row['id'],$row['competencies']); } $form['core']-setLabel('Core competencies')-setAttrib('id','select1'); $form['core_competency'] = new Zend_Form_Element_Multiselect('core_competency'); foreach ($results as $row) { $form['core_competency']-addMultiOption($row['id'], ''); } $form['core_competency']-setAttrib('id','select2'); $form['subsidiary'] = new Zend_Form_Element_Multiselect('subsidiary'); foreach($results as $row) { $form['subsidiary']-addMultiOption($row['id'],$row['competencies']); } $form['subsidiary']-setLabel('Subsidiary competencies'); $form['subsidiary_competency'] = new Zend_Form_Element_Multiselect('subsidiary_competency'); $form['subsidiary_competency']-addMultiOption('',''); $form['save'] = new Zend_Form_Element_Submit('competencies'); $form['save']-setLabel('Save')-setValue('competencies') -setAttrib('id','competencies-save'); $this-addElements($form); $this-setMethod('post');

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  • stop form during submission if it validates incorrectly

    - by muqman
    I am trying to use JavaScript to validate forms but if the form doesn't validate, I don't want the form to be sent to the "action" page. The validator: <script> function formSubmit() { document.getElementById("signup_form").submit(); var x=document.forms["signup_form"]["tname"].value; if (x==null || x=="") { alert("First name must be filled out"); return false; } } </script> The form itself: <form action="some_file.php" method="post" id="signup_form" name="signup_form" onsubmit="return formSubmit()"> But all this does is if the tname field empty, it will return an alert but as soon as the user hits ok, the form then redirects to some_file.php. What have I missed here? The submit button: <a href="" onclick="return formSubmit(); return false" class="purplebutton">Signup</a> So what have I missed? How do I avoid this in the future?

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  • Is there a way to specify a per-host deploy_to path with Capistrano?

    - by Chad Johnson
    I have searched and searched and asked a question already and have not received a clear answer. I have the following deploy script (snippet): set :application, "testapplication" set :repository, "ssh://domain.com//srv/hg/#{application}" set :scm, :mercurial set :deploy_to, "/srv/www/#{application}" role :web, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :app, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :db, "domain1.com", :primary => true, :norelease => true role :db, "domain2.com", :norelease => true As you see, I have set deploy_to to a specific path. And, I also have specified multiple web servers. However, each web server should have a different deployment path. I want to be able to run "cap deploy" and deploy to all hosts in one shot. I am NOT trying to deploy to staging and then to production. This is all production. My question is: how exactly do I specify a path per server? I have read the "Roles" documentation for Capistrano, and this is unclear. Can someone please post a deploy file example? I have read the documentation, and it is unclear how to do this. Does anyone know? Am I crazy? Am I thinking of this wrong or something? No answers anywhere online. Nowhere. Nothing. Please, someone help.

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