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  • How do I vertcally align thumbnails of unknown height using jQuery?

    - by playahabana
    Ok, I am a complete beginner to this, in fact I am still building my first website. I am attempting to do this all by hand-coding without a CMS in order to try and learn as much possible as quickly as possible. If this post is in the wrong place I apologise, and a pointer to right place would be appreciated. Here goes, I am trying to peice together a bit of jQuery that will automatically vertically align my thumbnails in my image gallery (they are all different sizes). They are within fixed size div's and the function I am attempting looks something like this: <script type="text/javascript"> $('#ul.photo).bind(function() { var smartVert=$(this); var phty=ob.("ul.photo img").height(); //get height of photos var phtdif=Math.floor(208 - phty); //subtract height of photo from div height var phttop=Math.floor(phtdif / 2); //gets padding reqd. $ob.("ul.photo").css({'padding-top' : phttop}) //sets padding to center thumbnail }); smartVert(); unsurprisingly this doesn't work, if some kindly soul could take pity on a total noob, and point out where I am going wrong (probably in writing complete gibberish would be my first guess) it would be greatly appreciated- even if you could just point me in the direcion of a tutorial regarding these things, I have looked and found one reference that said such a function was easy to create, but it did not elaborate. thankyou in advance

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  • Processing forms that generate many rows in DB

    - by Zack
    I'm wondering what the best approach to take here is. I've got a form that people use to register for a class and a lot of times the manager of a company will register multiple people for the class at the same time. Presently, they'd have to go through the registration process multiple times and resubmit the form once for every person they want to register. What I want to do is give the user a form that has a single <input/> for one person to register with, along with all the other fields they'll need to fill out (Email, phone number, etc); if they want to add more people, they'll be able to press a button and a new <input/> will be generated. This part I know how to do, but I'm including it to best describe what I'm aiming to do. The part I don't know how to approach is processing that data the form submits, I need some way of making a new row in the Registrant table for every <input/> that's added and include the same contact information (phone, email, etc) as the first row with that row. For the record, I'm using the Django framework for my back-end code. What's the best approach here? Should it just POST the form x times for x people, or is there a less "brute force" way of handling this?

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  • novice needing help on shuffeling an array

    - by steffen Myklebust
    Please help a TOTAL beginner.! I found this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/56648/whats-the-best-way-to-shuffle-an-nsmutablearray And as i try to deploy this in my own code, I cant get it working... :-( Can anyone help me to resolve this code? To me it looks like the shuffle function is not called..? here is my code: // // shuffle2ViewController.h // shuffle2 #import @interface shuffle2ViewController : UIViewController { NSMutableArray *puzzles; int *randomSort; } - (void)shuffle; @end //============================= // shuffle2ViewController.m ´#import "shuffle2ViewController.h" @implementation shuffle2ViewController (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSMutableArray *puzzles = [NSMutableArray arrayWithObjects:@"1",@"2",@"3", @"4",@"5",@"6",@"7",@"8",@"9", @"10",@"11",@"12", nil]; // Call the shuffle function [self shuffle]; // print to log int i; NSLog(@"NEW OLD"); NSLog(@"================="); for (i = 0; i < 12; ++i) NSLog(@" %2i %@", i + 1, [puzzles objectAtIndex:i]); } int randomSort(id obj1, id obj2, void *context ) { // returns random number -1 0 1 return (random()%3 - 1); } (void)shuffle { // call custom sort function [puzzles sortUsingFunction:randomSort context:nil]; } Giving this result: NEW OLD ================= 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8 8 9 9 10 10 11 11 12 12

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  • How to control access to third party HTML pages

    - by Wylie
    Hello, We have a Learning Management System (LMS) that runs on its own server (IIS/Server 2003). Students must login with Forms authentication to gain access to the content. We want to offer access to third party flash and audio that is embedded in HTML pages hosted on the third party server (IIS/Server 2003). Currently we use a frame in a pop-up window that is populated via a simple URL to the third party HTML pages. How can the third party control access to their content, so that only students who launch the pop-up windows from our site can access their content? Since the content is mostly video and flash, we would prefer not to stream all of their content through our server to the Student. We have a programming staff, so we could maybe... - either post or get for our HTTP request to the third party server - we could use SSL - we could programmatically assign a global NT user account to all of our users and then do some kind of Active Directory login from the LMS server to the third party server - could the third party content be hosted at Amazon S3? Would this allow for secure access/download? These are just ideas. We really have no idea. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. TIA, Wylie

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  • What prevents a user from adding controls to an ASP.NET page client side?

    - by Curtis White
    This goes back to my other question which I thought was sufficiently answers but upon reflect am not sure that it was (sorry). Backgrounder: I am generating a form dynamically. I am pulling from the database the controls. I must associate each control with a database ID which is not the user's session id. I do this currently by storing my ID in the ID for the web control with some other stuff to make it unique/clear what I am doing. On the post back, I iterate through all the controls on my web page checking for my special identifier, ie, MyGeneratedTextBox_ID_Unique. This process enables for 2 important steps, identifying the control was one I generated and also getting the ID for this input field. And, all of this works but I'm still concerned about the security of it. I do not see a security issue with showing the actual database ID's in this case, although agree it is not desirable. However, I am concerned of the following possibilities: If a user could add a nefarious control to my collection and use that for a SQL injection attack. More academic, but if a user could somehow store data for fields they do not have access too by changing the id's. I agree this is a "hack" of a way to do it. But my question is, is it a security risk and is there an 'easy' way to do it in a less hack way? I assume that only the controls that are created/instantiated on the page are added to the controls list.. thus all controls must be created server side and thus the security issue is address but just wanted to validate. Thanks again. PS: I could see adding a property for each control and encrypting the viewstate would be a little more secure.

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  • ASP .NET: Cannot call Page WebMethod using jQuery

    - by John
    I created a WebMethod in the code-behind file of my page as such: [System.Web.Services.WebMethod()] public static string Test() { return "TEST"; } I created the following HTML page to test it out: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"/></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function test() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://localhost/TestApp/TestPage.aspx/Test", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "text", success: function(msg) { alert(msg.d); } }); } </script> </head> <body> <button onclick="test();">Click Me</button> </body> </html> When I click the button, the AJAX fires off, but nothing is returned. When I debug my code, the method Test() doesn't even get called. Any ideas?

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  • Jquery, how to escape quotes

    - by Sandro Antonucci
    I'm using a simple jquery code that grabs html code form a tag and then puts this content into a form input <td class="name_cat" ><span class="name_cat">It&#039;s a &quot;test&quot; </span> (5)</td> jquery gets the content into span.name_catand returns it as It's a "test". So when I print this into an input it becomes <input value="It's a "test"" /> which as you can imagine will only show as It's a , the following double quote will close the value tag. What's the trick here to keep the original string while not showing utf8 code in the input? Jquery code $(".edit_cat").click(function(){ tr = $(this).parents("tr:first"); id_cat = $(this).attr("id"); td_name = tr.find(".name_cat"); span_name = tr.find("span.name_cat").html(); form = '<form action="/admin/controllers/edit_cat.php" method="post" >'+ '<input type="hidden" name="id_cat" value="'+id_cat+'" />'+ '<input type="text" name="name_cat" value="'+span_name+'" />'+ '<input type="submit" value="save" />'+ '</form>'; td_name.html(form); console.log(span_name); } ); I basically need html() not to decode Utf8

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  • Uploading File Problem in PHP on Drupal

    - by Nitz
    I don't know why but i had written clear cut code for uploading file in my page. i had written like this... on the client side. <form id="recipeform" onsubmit="return checkAll()" action="submit.php" method="post" class="niceform" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <input name="uploaded" type="file" /> And on submit.php... i am writting like this..... $target = "newupload/"; $target = $target . basename( $_FILES['uploaded']['name']) ; $ok=1; if(move_uploaded_file($_FILES['uploaded']['tmp_name'], $target)){ echo "The file ". basename( $_FILES['uploaded']['name']). " has been uploaded"; } else{ echo "Sorry, there was a problem uploading your file."; } simple code but then also i can't able to upload the file.. And i had made my webiste in Drupal. Thanks in advance. www.panchjanyacorp.com

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  • ruby on rails basics help

    - by CHID
    Hi, i created a scaffolded application in rails by the name of product. The product_controller.rb file contains the following. class ProductsController ApplicationController def new @product = Product.new respond_to do |format| format.html # new.html.erb format.xml { render :xml = @product } end end def create @product = Product.new(params[:product]) respond_to do |format| if @product.save flash[:notice] = 'Product was successfully created.' format.html { redirect_to(@product) } format.xml { render :xml = @product, :status = :created, :location = @product } else format.html { render :action = "new" } format.xml { render :xml = @product.errors, :status = :unprocessable_entity } end end end Now when the url http://localhost:3000/products/create is given Where new product link is clicked, control is transferred to new definition in the controller class and then an instance variable @product is created. BUT WHERE IS THIS VARIABLE PASSED? The funtion inturn calls new.rhtml which contains <% form_for(@product) do |f| % #all form elments declaration <% f.submit "Create" % <%= end % Here @product is initialized in the controller file and passed to this new.rhtml. So where does form_for(@product) gets the data? How does the control gets tranfered to create function in controller file when submit button is clicked? No where action is specified to the controller file. in the create function, wat does redirec_to(@product) specify where @product is an object received from the new.html file... I am very much confused on the basics of ROR. Somone pls help me clarify this. pardon me for making such a big post. I have lots of doubts in this single piece of code

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  • Booking logic and architecture, database sync: Hotels, tennis courts reservation system ...

    - by coulix
    Hello Stackers, Imagine that you want to design a tennis booking system. You have 5 tennis clubs as partenrs with no online api allowing you to check on their side if a court is booked or not: You have to build this part as well. Every time a booking is done on their side you want it to be know by our system. Probably using a POST request form tennis partner to our server. Every time a booking is done on our website, we want to push the booking to their system. The difficulty is that their system need to be online and accessible from outside. Ip may change, we have to use a dns updater. In case their system is not available we still accept the booking and fallback to an async email with 'i confirm booking/reject booking' link sent to the club. I find the whole process quite complex and was wondering about the way online hotel booking system and hotel were working. Do they all have their data open and online ? The good thing is that the data will grow large and fits nicely to some no SQL ;) like couch db

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  • Synfony2 validation changes invalid integer to 0

    - by Craig
    I've added validation to a form and found that in some cases it is losing the invalid data I am feeding it and saving 0s instead. The output at the bottom shows that if I post the latitude as 'zzzzzz' (clearly not a number nor between -90 and 90) the form is declared as valid and saved with the value 0 How can that happen given that I have declared the input must be a number? ProxyType.php buildForm() $builder ->add('siteName', null, array('label' => 'Site name')) .... ->add('latitude', 'number', array('label' => 'Latitude')) ->add('longitude', 'number', array('label' => 'Longitude')) .... ; ProxyController.php createAction .... $postData = $request->request->get('niwa_pictbundle_proxytype'); $this->get('logger')->info('Posted latitude = '.$postData['latitude']); $form = $this->createForm(new ProxyType(), $entity); $form->bindRequest($request); if ($form->isValid()) { $this->get('logger')->info('Form declared valid : latlong ('.$entity->getLatitude().','.$entity->getLongitude().')'); .... validation.yml Acme\PictBundle\Entity\Proxy: properties: longitude: - Min: { limit: -180 } - Max: { limit: 180 } latitude: - Max: { limit: 90 } - Min: { limit: -90 } Output [2012-09-28 02:05:30] app.INFO: Posted latitude = zzzzzz [] [] [2012-09-28 02:05:30] app.INFO: Form declared valid : latlong (0,0) [] []

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  • Retain numerical precision in an R data frame?

    - by David
    When I create a dataframe from numeric vectors, R seems to truncate the value below the precision that I require in my analysis: data.frame(x=0.99999996) returns 1 (see update 1) I am stuck when fitting spline(x,y) and two of the x values are set to 1 due to rounding while y changes. I could hack around this but I would prefer to use a standard solution if available. example Here is an example data set d <- data.frame(x = c(0.668732936336141, 0.95351462456867, 0.994620622127435, 0.999602102672081, 0.999987126195509, 0.999999955814133, 0.999999999999966), y = c(38.3026509783688, 11.5895099585560, 10.0443344234229, 9.86152339768516, 9.84461434575695, 9.81648333804257, 9.83306725758297)) The following solution works, but I would prefer something that is less subjective: plot(d$x, d$y, ylim=c(0,50)) lines(spline(d$x, d$y),col='grey') #bad fit lines(spline(d[-c(4:6),]$x, d[-c(4:6),]$y),col='red') #reasonable fit Update 1 Since posting this question, I realize that this will return 1 even though the data frame still contains the original value, e.g. > dput(data.frame(x=0.99999999996)) returns structure(list(x = 0.99999999996), .Names = "x", row.names = c(NA, -1L), class = "data.frame") Update 2 After using dput to post this example data set, and some pointers from Dirk, I can see that the problem is not in the truncation of the x values but the limits of the numerical errors in the model that I have used to calculate y. This justifies dropping a few of the equivalent data points (as in the example red line).

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  • Prototype: Form.serialize missing some inputs (due to table?)

    - by Chris
    I'm using JavaScript Prototype (through Ruby on Rails) to handle some Ajax calls; but in one particular case I'm missing a field from the form. I have a layout like this: +---------+---------+ | Thing 1 | Thing 2 | +---------+---------+-----------+ | o Opt 1 | o Opt 1 | <Confirm> | | o Opt 2 | o Opt 2 | | +---------+---------+-----------+ Opt 1 and 2 are Radio buttons, Confirm is a button. The entire table is wrapped in a form, with code like: <form action="javascript:void(0)"> <input type="hidden" name="context" value="foo" /> <input type="hidden" name="subcontext" value="bar" /> <table> <tr><td>Thing 1</td><td>Thing2</td></tr> <tr><td> <input type="radio" name="choice" value="1.1" />Opt 1<br /> <input type="radio" name="choice" value="1.2" />Opt 2<br /> </td><td> <input type="radio" name="choice" value="2.1" />Opt 1<br /> <input type="radio" name="choice" value="2.2" />Opt 2<br /> </td><td> <input name="choice_btn" type="button" value="Confirm" onclick="new AJAX.Updater('my_form', '/process_form', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, parameters:Form.serialize(this.form)}); return false;" /> </td></tr> </table> </form> But I can see that the POST generated by clicking the Confirm button contains the foo and bar values for the hidden fields, but not the choice of the radio buttons. Is this because I've got a table inside my form? How can I get around this?

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  • Filling a region draws it off canvas

    - by Xanyx
    Hi Using the following code in Delphi 2007: procedure TfrmTest.PaintBox1Paint(Sender: TObject); const Rect_Size = 10; begin PaintBox1.Canvas.Brush.Color := clYellow; PaintBox1.Canvas.FillRect(Rect(0, 0, PaintBox1.width, PaintBox1.height)); PaintBox1.Canvas.Brush.Color := clRed; DrawARect(PaintBox1.Canvas, 0, 0, Rect_Size, Rect_Size); end; procedure TfrmTest.DrawARect(ACanvas: TCanvas; iLeft, iTop, iWidth, iHeight: Integer); var rgnMain: HRGN; begin rgnMain := CreateRectRgn(iLeft, iTop, iLeft + iWidth, iTop + iHeight); try SelectClipRgn(ACanvas.handle, rgnMain); ACanvas.FillRect(ACanvas.ClipRect); SelectClipRgn(ACanvas.handle, 0); finally DeleteObject(rgnMain); end; end; I get this: (Yellow area shows boundaries of PaintBox1). HMMM, NOT ALLOWED TO POST IMAGE Please go to: http://www.freeimagehosting.net/uploads/62cf687d29.jpg (Linked image shows a form with a yellow box [PaintBox1] in the center. However my red rectange [rgnMain] has been drawn at pos 0,0 on the form) My expectation was that the red rectangle would be at the top left of the PaintBox1 canvas, not the form's canvas. Why is it not? Can regions only be used with controls that have a Windows handle? Thanks

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  • writing javascripts function using jquery

    - by tazim
    Some template written using jquery is as follows . it is not working . Any suggestions to use jquery efficiently . <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="/jquerycall/"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { self.setInterval("clock()",1000); $("button").click(function() { clock; }); function clock() { clock(); time=new Date(); var s = "<p>" + time + "</p>"; $(s).appendTo("div"); } }); </script> </head> <body> <form method="post"> <button type="button">Click Me</button> <div id="someid"></div> </form> </body> </html>

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  • How to handle single Ajax Error for Entire page using jquery

    - by Thiyagarajan
    In My page i am sending data to server side using 8 ajax call... I don't want to handle ajax error for each and every ajax call...... Single ajax error handle all the ajax error in entire page.... is their any inheritance is possible for the entire page.. function SendConfirmationEmail(ShipmentID, ChannelOrderReference) { var Url = '<%=Url.Action("SendShipmentEmail","Shipments") %>'; $.ajax({ cache: false, type: "POST", data: 'strOrderShipmentId=' + ShipmentID + '&channelOrderReference=' + ChannelOrderReference, url: Url, datatype: "HTML", success: function (data) { if (data == "1") { SucessErrorMessageDisplay('DivStatus', 'lblStatus', 'imgStatus', 0, 'Email is successfully sent for Order#' + ChannelOrderReference + ''); } if (data == "-2") { SucessErrorMessageDisplay('DivStatus', 'lblStatus', 'imgStatus', 0, 'Email Template is not Choosen for this Store'); } if (data == "-1") { SucessErrorMessageDisplay('DivStatus', 'lblStatus', 'imgStatus', 0, 'Problem in Sending Email for Order#' + ChannelOrderReference + ''); } if (data == "0") { SucessErrorMessageDisplay('DivStatus', 'lblStatus', 'imgStatus', 0, 'Connection Failed to Send Email for Order# ' + ChannelOrderReference + ''); } if (data == "-3") { SucessErrorMessageDisplay('DivStatus', 'lblStatus', 'imgStatus', 0, 'ShipTo Email Address is Not Given for Order# ' + ChannelOrderReference + ''); } // SucessErrorMessageDisplay('DivStatus', 'lblStatus', 'imgStatus', 0, 'Order# :' + ChannelOrderReference + ' is voided successfully'); }, error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { if (xhr.status == 403) { window.location.href = '<%: Url.Action( "SessionExpire", "Home" ) %>'; } } }); }

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  • Leftover Nav Bar in Landscape View

    - by Rob Bonner
    Hello, I am working to force a view into landscape mode, and have picked up all kinds of cool tips to make this happen, but am stuck on one item that is left on the screen. I have my XIB file laid out in landscape, and in my code I create the view controller normally: RedeemViewController *aViewController = [[RedeemViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"RedeemViewController" bundle:nil]; aViewController.hidesBottomBarWhenPushed = YES; aViewController.wantsFullScreenLayout = YES; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:aViewController animated:YES]; Inside the controller viewDidLoad I complete the following: [[UIApplication sharedApplication] setStatusBarOrientation:UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight]; [[self navigationController] setNavigationBarHidden:YES animated:YES]; [UIView beginAnimations:@"View Flip" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:.75]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseInOut]; if (self.interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait) { self.view.transform = CGAffineTransformIdentity; self.view.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeRotation(degreesToRadian(90)); self.view.bounds = CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, 480, 320); } [UIView commitAnimations]; What I end up with is a perfectly rotated view, with a grey vertical bar on the left side (see pic). So to the question, how do I get rid of the bar? Edit: I am pretty sure this is the navigation bar that is not being hidden. This is a duplicate of another post, with some modified code, the other question was being answered with the bug.

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  • iPad pushing a split view in navigator-based application

    - by FabioWong
    I had read a lot of post from the web, but I still cannot find out how can I make this out. Please help me in detail. I need to make a split-view inside a navigation because I need to make a login system. After login, then we can see the split view. I found that someone say must need to set it to be root view, some say do not need. However I cannot do it in both way. Can anyone teach me how to do that step by step?? Here is what I did. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; GOTSorOE_EN *gotsORoeEN = [[[GOTSorOE_EN alloc]initWithNibName:@"GOTSorOE_EN" bundle:nil]autorelease]; OEFileList_EN *oeFileListEN = [[[OEFileList_EN alloc]initWithNibName:@"OEFileList_EN" bundle:nil]autorelease]; gotsORoeEN.oeFileListEN = oeFileListEN; splitViewController = [[[UISplitViewController alloc]init]autorelease]; splitViewController.viewControllers = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:gotsORoeEN, oeFileListEN, nil]; self.view = splitViewController.view; }

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  • Trying to move files with specific file names from root directory to a subfolder

    - by Justin Reagan
    Hi I'm still pretty new to powershell so I apologize if I ask something that extremely basic. I have a root directory on a tftp server that pulls down config files from routers and other equipment every night. The files are like this IPaddress_YYYYMMDD_TA5000. There is a limitation in the equipment where the files can't be set to move into the root directory on their own. What I want to do is make a powershell script that will only move the files with the TA5000 part in the filename to the sub directory and only keep the 5 most recent files. I looked but I couldn't seem to find what I would need to do to parse the file for that specific string. I already have the portion of the script to delete the files based on age that was simple. Any help on getting started would be appreciated. Edit: I forgot to post the code I was trying. Move-Item c:\tftptransferfiles c:\tftptransferfiles\sca | Where-Object {_.name -like "*TA5000*"} I keep getting a error saying that the item at C:\tftptransferfiles is in use.

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  • Setting initial state of a JSF component to invalid

    - by user359391
    Hi there I have a small JSF application where the user is required to enter some data about themselves. For each component on the page that has required="true" I want to show an icon depending if there is data in the field or not. My problem is that when the page is initially shown all fields are valid, even if they do not have any data in them. So my question is how I can set a component to be invalid based on if there is data in the field or not? After a submit of the page (or after the component loses focus) the icon is shown properly, it is only on the initial page load I have a problem. (i.e there is no post data) Here is my xhtml for a component that needs to be validated: <s:decorate id="employeeIdDecoration" template="/general/util/errorStyle.xhtml"> <ui:define name="label">#{messages['userdetails.employeeId']}</ui:define> <h:inputText value="#{authenticator.user.employeeId}" required="true"> <a4j:support event="onblur" reRender="employeeIdDecoration" bypassUpdates="true"/> </h:inputText> the template: <s:label styleClass="#{invalid?'error':''}"> <ui:insert name="label"/> <s:span styleClass="required" rendered="#{required}">*</s:span> </s:label> <span class="#{invalid?'error':''}"> <s:validateAll> <ui:insert/> </s:validateAll> <h:graphicImage value="/resources/redx.png" rendered="#{invalid}" height="16" width="16" style="vertical-align:middle;"/> <h:graphicImage value="/resources/Checkmark.png" rendered="#{!invalid}" height="16" width="16" style="vertical-align:middle;"/> </span> Any help will be appreciated.

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  • Complex Quary on cassandra

    - by Sadiqur Rahman
    I have heard on cassandra database engine few days ago and searching for a good documentation on it. after studying on cassandra I got cassandra is more scalable than other data engine. I also read on Amazon SimpleDB but as SimpleDB has a limitation 10GB/table and Google Datastore is slower than Amazon SimpleDB, I prefer not to use them (Google Datastore, Amazon SimpleDB). So for making our site scaled specially high write rates with massive data, I like to use Cassandra as out Data Engine. But before starting using cassandra I am confused on "How to handle complex data using casssandra". I am giving you the MySQL database structure below, Please read this and give me a good suggestion. Users Table hasColum ID Primary hasColum email Unique hasColum FirstName hasColum LastName Category Table hasColum ID Primary hasColum Parent hasColum Category Posts Table hasColum ID Primary hasColum UID Index foreign key linked to users-ID hasColum CID Index foreign key linked to Category-ID hasColum Title hasColum Post Index hasColum PunDate Comments hasColum ID primary hasColum UID Index foreign key linked to users-ID hasColum PID Index foreign key linked to Posts-ID hasColum Comment User Group hasColum ID primary hasColum Name UserToGroup Table (for many to many relation only) hasColum UID foreign key linked to Users-ID hasColum GID foreign key linked to Group-ID Finally for your information, I like to use SimpleCassie PHP Class http://code.google.com/p/simpletools-php/ So, it will be very helpful if you can give me example using SimpleCassie

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  • Can JQuery.Validate plugin prevent submission of an Ajax form

    - by berko
    I am using the JQuery form plugin (http://malsup.com/jquery/form/) to handle the ajax submission of a form. I also have JQuery.Validate (http://docs.jquery.com/Plugins/Validation) plugged in for my client side validation. What I am seeing is that the validation fails when I expect it to however it does not stop the form from submitting. When I was using a traditional form (i.e. non-ajax) the validation failing prevented the form for submitting at all.... which is my desired behaviour. I know that the validation is hooked up correctly as the validation messages still appear after the ajax submit has happened. So what I am I missing that is preventing my desired behaviour? Sample code below.... <form id="searchForm" method="post" action="/User/GetDetails"> <input id="username" name="username" type="text" value="user.name" /> <input id="submit" name="submit" type="submit" value="Search" /> </form> <div id="detailsView"> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> var options = { target: '#detailsView' }; $('#searchForm').ajaxForm(options); $('#searchForm').validate({ rules: { username: {required:true}}, messages: { username: {required:"Username is a required field."}} }); </script>

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  • Is there a way to specify a per-host deploy_to path with Capistrano?

    - by Chad Johnson
    I have searched and searched and asked a question already and have not received a clear answer. I have the following deploy script (snippet): set :application, "testapplication" set :repository, "ssh://domain.com//srv/hg/#{application}" set :scm, :mercurial set :deploy_to, "/srv/www/#{application}" role :web, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :app, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :db, "domain1.com", :primary => true, :norelease => true role :db, "domain2.com", :norelease => true As you see, I have set deploy_to to a specific path. And, I also have specified multiple web servers. However, each web server should have a different deployment path. I want to be able to run "cap deploy" and deploy to all hosts in one shot. I am NOT trying to deploy to staging and then to production. This is all production. My question is: how exactly do I specify a path per server? I have read the "Roles" documentation for Capistrano, and this is unclear. Can someone please post a deploy file example? I have read the documentation, and it is unclear how to do this. Does anyone know? Am I crazy? Am I thinking of this wrong or something? No answers anywhere online. Nowhere. Nothing. Please, someone help.

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  • Returning two or more values from a function

    - by cf_PhillipSenn
    I need to return multiple values from a ColdFusion function in an ajax callback function. Here's what I've got: $('input[name="StateName"]').live('change', function() { var StateID = $(this).parents('tr').attr('id'); var StateName = $(this).val(); $.ajax({ url: 'Remote/State.cfc' ,type: "POST" ,data: { 'method': 'UpdateStateName' ,'StateID': StateID ,'StateName': StateName } ,success: function(result){ if (isNaN(result)) { $('#msg').text(result).addClass('err'); } else { $('#' + result + ' input[name="StateName"]').addClass('changed'); }; } ,error: function(msg){ $('#msg').text('Connection error').addClass('err'); } }); }); If I trap a database error, then the success callback is fired, and the result is Not a Number (It is in fact, the text of the error message). I need the function to also pass back other values. One might be the primary key of the row that caused the error. Another might be the old StateName, so that I can refresh the old value on the screen so that the client will know absolutely for sure that their change did not take effect. I guess I'm breaking the rule of atomicity here and need to fix that, because I'm using result as both the primary key of the row that was updated, or it's the error message if the update fails. I need to return both the primary key and the error message.

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  • Visual Studio internal project references not always working

    - by Chris
    I am using Visual Studio and a solution with 10 or so projects in (mostly VB, some C#) which have various dependencies set up. Usually when I compile the solution it works fine. Occasionally when I do it I get a build error saying that one of the projects referenced is the wrong version (I think always the same one, possibly may be two that can cause problems). In this case going to the solution explorer and right clicking on the mentioned project and saying "rebuild" followed by another full build makes it work fine. I assume there is something set up wrong somewhere but I didn't set up the solution myself initially and a quick look through doesn't show anything immediately wrong. It feels like there is some kind of race condition, that VS is internally setting the version number of the project it needs before that project has been rebuilt and thus gets it wrong or something like that but I'm sure VS should handle all this sort of thing properly. Can anybody please suggest places that I could check for whether this has been correctly set up... And I should finally note that since I don't have reliable repro of this I may not be able to respond to questions too quickly. For example the obvious one of "Could you give the exact error message" will have to wait since I didn't think to copy it this morning, it was only after I cleared it up with the above steps that I thought to post here. Similarly any solutions may take a while to confirm.

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