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  • Can addition of an ActionListener be short? Can I add arguments to the actionPerformed?

    - by Roman
    I have a big table containing a button in each cell. These buttons are very similar and do almost the same. If I add an action listener to every button in this way: tmp.addActionListener(new ActionListener(){ @Override public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent evt) { proposition = proposition + action; SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { updatePropositionPanel(); } }); } }); Actually, every action listener differ from all others by the value of the action. proposition and updatePropositionPanel are a field and a method of the class. First i thought that I can make it shorter if I do not use inner classes. So, I decided to program a new ActionListener class. But than I realized that in this case "proposition" will not be visible to the instances of this class. Then I decided to add the actionPerformed method to the current class and do that: addActionListener(this). But than I realized that I do not know how give arguments to the actionPerformed method. So, how does it work. Can I add an action listener in a short and elegent way?

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  • System.Design cannot be referenced in Class Library?

    - by Alex Yeung
    Hi all, I have a very strange problem that I cannot fix and don't know what's going on... I am using VS 2010 Premium and .NET 4.0. Here are my steps to simulate the problem. Step 1. Create a new VB class library project named "MyClassLib" Step 2. Create a new class named "MyTestingClass". Public Class MyTestingClass Inherits System.ComponentModel.Design.CollectionEditor Public Sub New() MyBase.New(GetType(List(Of String))) End Sub End Class Step 3. Add two .net reference. "System.Design" and "System.Drawing". Step 4. Create a new VB console application named "MyClassExe" Step 5. Add "MyClassLib" reference to "MyClassExe". Step 6. Open Module1.vb in "MyClassExe" project Step 7. In the Main method, type Dim a = New MyClassLib.MyTestingClass() Step 8. Try to compile "MyClassLib". It doesn't have problem. Step 9. Try to compile "MyClassExe". It cannot compile because the WHOLE MyClassLib cannot be found!!! I have no idea what's going on? Moreover, the same case happens in C#. Does anyone know what's the problem with "System.Design"? Thank!!!

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  • How to lazy load scripts in YUI that accompany ajax html fragments

    - by Chris Beck
    I have a web app with Tabs for Messages and Contacts (think gmail). Each Tab has a Y.on('click') event listener that retrieves an HTML fragment via Y.io() and renders the fragment via node.setContent(). However, the Contact Tab also requires contact.js to enable an Edit button in the fragment. How do I defer the cost of loading contact.js until the user clicks on the Contacts tab? How should contact.js add it's listener to the Edit button? The Complete function of my Tab's on('click') event could serialize Get.script('contact.js') after Y.io('fragment'). However, for better performance, I would prefer to download the script in parallel to downloading the HTML fragment. In that case, I would need to defer adding an event listener to the Edit button until the Edit button is available. This seems like a common RIA design pattern. What is the best way to implement this with YUI? How should I get the script? How should I defer sections of the script until elements in the fragment are available in the DOM?

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  • How to return proper 404 for google while providing user friendly content to the user?

    - by Marek
    I am bouncing between posting this here and on Superuser. Please excuse me if you feel this does not belong here. I am observing the behavior described here - Googlebot is requesting random urls on my site, like aecgeqfx.html or sutwjemebk.html. I am sure that I am not linking these urls from anywhere on my site. I suspect this may be google probing how we handle non existent content - to cite from an answer to the linked question: [google is requesting random urls to] see if your site correctly handles non-existent files (by returning a 404 response header) We have a custom page for nonexistent content - a styled page saying "Content not found, if you believe you got here by error, please contact us", with a few internal links, served (naturally) with a 200 OK. The URL is served directly (no redirection to a single url). I am afraid this may discriminate the site at google - they may not interpret the user friendly page as a 404 - not found and may think we are trying to fake something and provide duplicate content. How should I proceed to ensure that google will not think the site is bogus while providing user friendly message to users in case they click on dead links by accident?

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  • Best practice - When to evaluate conditionals of function execution

    - by Tesserex
    If I have a function called from a few places, and it requires some condition to be met for anything it does to execute, where should that condition be checked? In my case, it's for drawing - if the mouse button is held down, then execute the drawing logic (this is being done in the mouse movement handler for when you drag.) Option one says put it in the function so that it's guaranteed to be checked. Abstracted, if you will. public function Foo() { DoThing(); } private function DoThing() { if (!condition) return; // do stuff } The problem I have with this is that when reading the code of Foo, which may be far away from DoThing, it looks like a bug. The first thought is that the condition isn't being checked. Option two, then, is to check before calling. public function Foo() { if (condition) DoThing(); } This reads better, but now you have to worry about checking from everywhere you call it. Option three is to rename the function to be more descriptive. public function Foo() { DoThingOnlyIfCondition(); } private function DoThingOnlyIfCondition() { if (!condition) return; // do stuff } Is this the "correct" solution? Or is this going a bit too far? I feel like if everything were like this function names would start to duplicate their code. About this being subjective: of course it is, and there may not be a right answer, but I think it's still perfectly at home here. Getting advice from better programmers than I is the second best way to learn. Subjective questions are exactly the kind of thing Google can't answer.

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  • Algorithm possible amounts (over)paid for a specific price, based on denominations

    - by Wrikken
    In a current project, people can order goods delivered to their door and choose 'pay on delivery' as a payment option. To make sure the delivery guy has enough change customers are asked to input the amount they will pay (e.g. delivery is 48,13, they will pay with 60,- (3*20,-)). Now, if it were up to me I'd make it a free field, but apparantly higher-ups have decided is should be a selection based on available denominations, without giving amounts that would result in a set of denominations which could be smaller. Example: denominations = [1,2,5,10,20,50] price = 78.12 possibilities: 79 (multitude of options), 80 (e.g. 4*20) 90 (e.g. 50+2*20) 100 (2*50) It's international, so the denominations could change, and the algorithm should be based on that list. The closest I have come which seems to work is this: for all denominations in reversed order (large=>small) add ceil(price/denomination) * denomination to possibles baseprice = floor(price/denomination) * denomination; for all smaller denominations as subdenomination in reversed order add baseprice + (ceil((price - baseprice) / subdenomination) * subdenomination) to possibles end for end for remove doubles sort Is seems to work, but this has emerged after wildly trying all kinds of compact algorithms, and I cannot defend why it works, which could lead to some edge-case / new countries getting wrong options, and it does generate some serious amounts of doubles. As this is probably not a new problem, and Google et al. could not provide me with an answer save for loads of pages calculating how to make exact change, I thought I'd ask SO: have you solved this problem before? Which algorithm? Any proof it will always work?

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  • TypeScript - separating code output

    - by Andrea Baccega
    i'm trying typescript and I find it very useful. I've a quite large project and i was considering rewriting it using typescript. The main problem here is the following: file A.ts: class A extends B { // A stuff } file B.ts: class B { // B stuff } If I compile A.ts with this command: tsc --out compiledA.js A.ts I'll get error from the compiler cause he doesn't know how to threat the "B" after extends. So, a "solution" would be including in A.ts (as first line of code): /// <reference path="./B.ts" /> Compiling again A.ts with the same command tsc --out compiledA.js A.ts Will result in compiledA.js containing both B.ts and A.ts code. ( which could be very nice ) In my case, I only need to compile the A.ts code in the compiledA.js file and I don't want the B.ts stuff to be in there. Indeed, what I want is: tsc --out A.js A.ts = compile only the A.ts stuff tsc --out B.js B.ts = compile only the B.ts stuff I can do it by removing the "extends" keyword but doing that I'll loose most of the typescript goodness. Can someone telll me if there's a way to do this ?

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  • UIViewController remaining

    - by Guy
    Hi Guys. I have a UIViewController named equationVC who's user interface is being programmatically created from another NSObject class called equationCon. Upon loading equationVC, a method called chooseInterface is called from the equationCon class. I have a global variable (globalVar) that points to a user defined string. chooseInterface finds a method in the equationCon class that matches the string globalVar points to. In this case, let's say that globalVar points to a string that is called "methodThatMatches." In methodThatMatches, another view controller needs to show the results of what methodThatMatches did. methodThatMatches creates a new equationVC that calls upon methodThatMatches2. As a test, each method changes the color of the background. When the application starts up, I get a purple background, but as soon as I hit backwards I get another purple screen, which should be yellow. I do not think that I am release the view properly. Can anyone help? -(void)chooseInterface { NSString* equationTemp = [globalVar stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@" " withString:@""]; equationTemp = [equationTemp stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"'" withString:@""]; SEL equationName = NSSelectorFromString(equationTemp); NSLog(@"selector! %@",NSStringFromSelector(equationName)); if([self respondsToSelector:equationName]){ [self performSelector:equationName]; } } -(void)methodThatMatches{ self.equationVC.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor yellowColor]; [setGlobalVar:@"methodThatMatches2"]; EquationVC* temp = [[EquationVC alloc] init]; [[self.equationVC navigationController] pushViewController:temp animated:YES ]; [temp release]; } -(void)methodThatmatches2{ self.equationVC.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor purpleColor]; }

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  • rails Creating a model instance automatically when another is created

    - by bob
    Hello I have a user model and a ratings model. Whenever a new user is created I want to create a new feedback model with it automatically. Each user model has one feedback model and each feedback model has many ratings. My Classes class User < ActiveRecord::Base end class Feedback < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user has_many :ratings end class Rating < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :feedback end My database tables -user doesn't have anything special -feedback has user_id. This user_id should be the same as the user that has just been created. For example, user_id of 1 is created, then a feedback model should be created that belongs to user_id of 1. So the user_id column in the feedback database will also be 1. - Rating has a feedback_id and a user_id the user_id in this case is the id of the person who submitted the rating. I am having it assigned through the build command. I believe my process is correct here. The Goal The goal is to have each user have a feedback table that has many ratings from other users. So if someone goes to the feedback page, they will see all the ratings given and by who. Is there a better way to approach this? How do you create a model of feedback with the same id as the user being created right when a new user is created. The idea is that when a user is created a feedback is created associated with that user so people can then go to http://localhost:3000/users/1/feedback/ and submit new ratings. I'm trying to bypass having a user rate another user with just a ratings model because I'm not sure how to do it.

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  • EAGLContext, EAGLSharegroups, RenderBuffers, FrameBuffers, oh my!

    - by quixoto
    Hi all, I'm trying to wrap my head around the OpenGL object model on iPhone OS. I'm currently rendering into a few different UIViews (build on CAEAGLayers) on the screen. I currently have each of these as using separate EAGLContext, each of which has a color renderbuffer and a framebuffer. I'm rendering similar things in them, and I'd like to share textures between these instances to save memory overhead. My current understanding is that I could use the same setup (some number of contexts, each with a FBO/RBO) but if I spawn the later ones using the EAGLShareGroup of the first one, then I can simply use the texture names (GLuints) from the first one in the later ones. Is this accurate? If this is the case, I guess the followup question is: what's the benefit to having it be a "sharegroup"? Could I just reuse the same context, and attach multiple FBOs/RBOs to that context? I think I'm struggling with the abstraction layer of a sharegroup, which seems to share "objects" (textures and other named things) but not "state" (matrices, enabled/disabled states) which are owned by the context. What's the best way to think of this? Thanks for any enlightenment!

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  • How do you get Microsoft Access 2007 32bit to show 64bit ODBC Drivers on Windows 7 64bit?

    - by johnny
    I followed the advice here: Windows 7 64 bit odbc drivers for Ms Access Missing but it does not apply. I have Oracle drivers that are 64bit. If I click the ODBC mmc in my admin tools I can see the DSN. In my properties of the ODBC administrator, it appears to be pointing to the 64bit version of the ODBC administrator, which is good: %windir%\system32\odbcad32.exe If I use this version of the ODBC administrator, I can see the Oracle drivers and my DSN via the mmc. When I go to Microsoft Access 2007 (32bit), however, and click external data, ODBC, my 32bit ODBC administrator is opening, which does not have the driver. Can Access 2007 32bit use a 64bit driver to connect to a database (oracle in this case)? The driver works fine in all other applications, just not Access. How can I get Access to use the 64bit ODBC administrator? EDIT: For clarification, the problem is that Access is opening the 32bit version, the syswow64 version. I need it to open the native 64bit version, which it is not opening. The problem is that Microsoft Access keeps opening the 32bit version. I need it to open the 64bit version. The MMC of the ODBC administrator is pointing to the 64bit version, but Microsoft Access keeps opening the 32bit version. I need it to open the 64bit version. Thanks for help.

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  • Messaging pattern question

    - by Al Bundy
    Process A is calculating values for objects a1, a2, a3 etc. and is sending results to the middleware queue (RabbitMQ). Consumers read the queue and process these results further. Periodically process A has to send a snapshot of these values, so consumers could do some other calculations. Values for these objects might change independently. The queue might look like this a1, a1, a2, a1, a2, a2, a3... Consumers process each item in the queue. The snapshot has to contain all objects and consumers will process this message for all objects in one go. So the requirement is to have a queue like this: a1, a1, a3, a2, a2, [snapshot, a1, a2, a3], a3, a1 ... The problem is that these items are of different types: one type for objects like a1, a2 and other for a snapshot. This means that they should be processed in a diferent queues, but in that case there is a race condition: consumers might process objects before processing a snapshot. Is there any pattern to solve this (quite common) problem? We are using RabbitMQ for message queueing.

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  • If attacker has original data and encrypted data, can they determine the passphrase?

    - by Brad Cupit
    If an attacker has several distinct items (for example: e-mail addresses) and knows the encrypted value of each item, can the attacker more easily determine the secret passphrase used to encrypt those items? Meaning, can they determine the passphrase without resorting to brute force? This question may sound strange, so let me provide a use-case: User signs up to a site with their e-mail address Server sends that e-mail address a confirmation URL (for example: https://my.app.com/confirmEmailAddress/bill%40yahoo.com) Attacker can guess the confirmation URL and therefore can sign up with someone else's e-mail address, and 'confirm' it without ever having to sign in to that person's e-mail account and see the confirmation URL. This is a problem. Instead of sending the e-mail address plain text in the URL, we'll send it encrypted by a secret passphrase. (I know the attacker could still intercept the e-mail sent by the server, since e-mail are plain text, but bear with me here.) If an attacker then signs up with multiple free e-mail accounts and sees multiple URLs, each with the corresponding encrypted e-mail address, could the attacker more easily determine the passphrase used for encryption? Alternative Solution I could instead send a random number or one-way hash of their e-mail address (plus random salt). This eliminates storing the secret passphrase, but it means I need to store that random number/hash in the database. The original approach above does not require storage in the database. I'm leaning towards the the one-way-hash-stored-in-the-db, but I still would like to know the answer: does having multiple unencrypted e-mail addresses and their encrypted counterparts make it easier to determine the passphrase used?

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  • Setting nested object to null when selected option has empty value

    - by Javi
    Hello, I have a Class which models a User and another which models his country. Something like this: public class User{ private Country country; //other attributes and getter/setters } public class Country{ private Integer id; private String name; //other attributes and getter/setters } I have a Spring form where I have a combobox so the user can select his country or can select the undefined option to indicate he doen't want to provide this information. So I have something like this: <form:select path="country"> <form:option value="">-Select one-</form:option> <form:options items="${countries}" itemLabel="name" itemValue="id"/> </form:select> In my controller I get the autopopulated object with the user information and I want to have country set to null when the "-Select one-" option has been selected. So I have set a initBinder with a custom editor like this: @InitBinder protected void initBinder(WebDataBinder binder) throws ServletException { binder.registerCustomEditor(Country.class, "country", new CustomCountryEditor()); } and my editor do something like this: public class CustomCountryEditor(){ @Override public String getAsText() { //I return the Id of the country } @Override public void setAsText(String str) { //I search in the database for a country with id = new Integer(str) //and set country to that value //or I set country to null in case str == null } } When I submit the form it works because when I have country set to null when I have selected "-Select one-" option or the instance of the country selected. The problem is that when I load the form I have a method like the following one to load the user information. @ModelAttribute("user") public User getUser(){ //loads user from database } The object I get from getUser() has country set to a specific country (not a null value), but in the combobox is not selected any option. I've debugged the application and the CustomCountryEditor works good when setting and getting the text, thoughgetAsText method is called for every item in the list "countries" not only for the "country" field. Any idea? Is there a better way to set null the country object when I select no country option in the combobox? Thanks

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  • C# Uploading files to file server

    - by JustFoo
    Hello All, Currently I have an application that receives an uploaded file from my web application. I now need to transfer that file to a file server which happens to be located on the same network (however this might not always be the case). I was attempting to use the webclient class in C# .NET. string filePath = "C:\\test\\564.flv"; try { WebClient client = new WebClient(); NetworkCredential nc = new NetworkCredential(uName, password); Uri addy = new Uri("\\\\192.168.1.28\\Files\\test.flv"); client.Credentials = nc; byte[] arrReturn = client.UploadFile(addy, filePath); Console.WriteLine(arrReturn.ToString()); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } The machine located at 192.168.1.28 is a file server and has a share c:\Files. As of right now I am receiving an error of Login failed bad user name or password, but I can open explorer and type in that path login successfully. I can also login using remote desktop, so I know the user account works. Any ideas on this error? Is it possible to transfer a file directly like that? With the webclient class or maybe some other class? Thanks

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  • How to genrate a monochrome bit mask for a 32bit bitmap

    - by Mordachai
    Under Win32, it is a common technique to generate a monochrome bitmask from a bitmap for transparency use by doing the following: SetBkColor(hdcSource, clrTransparency); VERIFY(BitBlt(hdcMask, 0, 0, bm.bmWidth, bm.bmHeight, hdcSource, 0, 0, SRCCOPY)); This assumes that hdcSource is a memory DC holding the source image, and hdcMask is a memory DC holding a monochrome bitmap of the same size (so both are 32x32, but the source is 4 bit color, while the target is 1bit monochrome). However, this seems to fail for me when the source is 32 bit color + alpha. Instead of getting a monochrome bitmap in hdcMask, I get a mask that is all black. No bits get set to white (1). Whereas this works for the 4bit color source. My search-foo is failing, as I cannot seem to find any references to this particular problem. I have isolated that this is indeed the issue in my code: i.e. if I use a source bitmap that is 16 color (4bit), it works; if I use a 32 bit image, it produces the all-black mask. Is there an alternate method I should be using in the case of 32 bit color images? Is there an issue with the alpha channel that overrides the normal behavior of the above technique? Thanks for any help you may have to offer! ADDENDUM: I am still unable to find a technique that creates a valid monochrome bitmap for my GDI+ produced source bitmap. I have somewhat alleviated my particular issue by simply not generating a monochrome bitmask at all, and instead I'm using TransparentBlt(), which seems to get it right (but I don't know what they're doing internally that's any different that allows them to correctly mask the image). It might be useful to have a really good, working function: HBITMAP CreateTransparencyMask(HDC hdc, HBITMAP hSource, COLORREF crTransparency); Where it always creates a valid transparency mask, regardless of the color depth of hSource. Ideas?

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  • URL "fragment identifier" semantics for HTML documents

    - by Pointy
    I've been working with a new installation of the "MoinMoin" wiki software. As I was playing with it, typing in mostly random test pages, I created a link with a fragment blah blah see also [[SomeStuff#whatever|some other stuff about whatever]] Then I needed to figure out how to create the anchor for that "whatever" fragment identifier. I don't recall having to do that with MediaWiki, so I had to dig around, but finally I found that MoinMoin has an "Anchor" macro: == Whatever == <<Anchor(whatever)>> Looking at the generated HTML, I was surprised to see an empty <span> tag with an "id" value of "whatever". I expected that it'd be an <a> tag with a "name" attribute of "whatever". I dug around and found the source, and there's a comment that says they changed it from an <a> tag in order to avoid some IE problem with <pre> sections. This confused me — not because of the IE thing, but because it looked to me as if their "fix" had left the whole anchor mechanism completely broken. Much to my surprise, however, further testing indicated that it worked fine. I wrote a test page with 300 <span> tags all with "id" values, and I further shocked myself when Firefox behaved exactly as I would have expected it to had I used <a> tags. It also worked when I changed all the <span> tags to <em>. So by this time, you're either as surprised as I was, or else you're thinking "how can somebody that dumb have so many reputation points?" If you're in the second category, is it really the case that I've been typing in HTML for about 15 years now — a lot of HTML — and it's somehow escaped my notice that browsers use the HTML fragment to find any sort of element with a matching "id"? mind status: blown

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  • MEF GetExports<T, TMetaDataView> returning nothing with AllowMultiple = True

    - by sohum
    I don't understand MEF very well, so hopefully this is a simple fix of how I think it works. I'm trying to use MEF to get some information about a class and how it should be used. I'm using the Metadata options to try to achieve this. My interfaces and attribute looks like this: public interface IMyInterface { } public interface IMyInterfaceInfo { Type SomeProperty1 { get; } double SomeProperty2 { get; } string SomeProperty3 { get; } } [MetadataAttribute] [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class, AllowMultiple = true)] public class ExportMyInterfaceAttribute : ExportAttribute, IMyInterfaceInfo { public ExportMyInterfaceAttribute(Type someProperty1, double someProperty2, string someProperty3) : base(typeof(IMyInterface)) { SomeProperty1 = someProperty1; SomeProperty2 = someProperty2; SomeProperty3 = someProperty3; } public Type SomeProperty1 { get; set; } public double SomeProperty2 { get; set; } public string SomeProperty3 { get; set; } } The class that is decorated with the attribute looks like this: [ExportMyInterface(typeof(string), 0.1, "whoo data!")] [ExportMyInterface(typeof(int), 0.4, "asdfasdf!!")] public class DecoratedClass : IMyInterface { } The method that is trying to use the import looks like this: private void SomeFunction() { // CompositionContainer is an instance of CompositionContainer var myExports = CompositionContainer.GetExports<IMyInterface, IMyInterfaceInfo>(); } In my case myExports is always empty. In my CompositionContainer, I have a Part in my catalog that has two ExportDefinitions, both with the following ContractName: "MyNamespace.IMyInterface". The Metadata is also loaded correctly per my exports. If I remove the AllowMultiple setter and only include one exported attribute, the myExports variable now has the single export with its loaded metadata. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Printing a sideways triangle in java

    - by Will
    I'm trying to print a sideways triangle in java. If the user enters 5, the output should be: * *** ***** *** * If the user enters 6, the output should be: * *** ***** ***** *** * I've gotten it to work for the case when the user enters 5, 3, or 1 but my code seems to work for those three cases only. I was wondering if anyone could help me get my code working for more cases. Here it is: public void printArrow( int n ) { int asterisks = 1; for ( int i = 0; i <= n/2; i++ ) { for ( int j = i; j < asterisks; j++ ) { System.out.print( "*" ); } asterisks += 3; System.out.println(); } asterisks = asterisks / 2 - 2; for ( int i = 0; i < n/2; i++ ) { for ( int k = i; k < asterisks; k++ ) { System.out.print( "*" ); } if ( i == 1 ) { System.out.print( "*" ); } asterisks -= 2; System.out.println(); } }

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  • write html content from javascript

    - by Nikita Rybak
    There's one thing I want to do with javascript, but don't know how. In a perfect world it would look like this: <p>My very cool page!</p> <script type="text/javascript"> document.write('<div>some content</div>'); </script> And this script would insert <div>some content</div> right before (or after, or instead of) script tag. But in the real world, document.write starts writing html anew, removing any static content in the page (<p> tag, in this case). This is simplified example, but should give you the idea. I know that I can statically put <div id="some_id"></div> before script tag and insert html in it from js, but I wanna be able to use multiple instances of this snippet without changing it (generating random id manually) each time. I'm ok to use jquery or any other existing library as well. Is there any way to achieve this? Thanks!

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  • Playing wave file ends immediatly (C++, Windows)

    - by TyBoer
    I've got a following situation. On a machine there is a Fritz ISDN card. There is a process that is responsible for playing a certain wave file on this device's wave out (ISDN connection is made at startup and made persistent). The scenario is easy, whenever needed the process calls waveOutWrite() on the previously opened wave device (everything initialized without any problems of course) and a callback function waits for MMWOMDONE msg to know that the playback has been finished. Since a few days however (nothing changed neither in the process nor the machine) the MMWOMDONE message comes immediately after calling waveOutWrite() even though the wave lasts a couple of seconds. Again no error is reported, it looks like the file was played but had zero length (which is not the case). I am also sure that waveOutReset() was not called by my process (it would also trigger sending the mentioned message). I already used to have some strange problems in the past that where solved simply by reinstalling TAPI drivers. This time for some reason it is problematic form me to perform that once again and am trying more analytical approach :). Any suggestions what might cause such a behavior? Maybe sth on the other end of the ISDN line?

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  • Password Cracking in 2010 and Beyond

    - by mttr
    I have looked a bit into cryptography and related matters during the last couple of days and am pretty confused by now. I have a question about password strength and am hoping that someone can clear up my confusion by sharing how they think through the following questions. I am becoming obsessed about these things, but need to spend my time otherwise :-) Let's assume we have an eight-digit password that consists of upper and lower-case alphabetic characters, numbers and common symbols. This means we have 8^96 ~= 7.2 quadrillion different possible passwords. As I understand there are at least two approaches to breaking this password. One is to try a brute-force attack where we try to guess each possible combination of characters. How many passwords can modern processors (in 2010, Core i7 Extreme for eg) guess per second (how many instructions does a single password guess take and why)? My guess would be that it takes a modern processor in the order of years to break such a password. Another approach would consist of obtaining a hash of my password as stored by operating systems and then search for collisions. Depending on the type of hash used, we might get the password a lot quicker than by the bruteforce attack. A number of questions about this: Is the assertion in the above sentence correct? How do I think about the time it takes to find collisions for MD4, MD5, etc. hashes? Where does my Snow Leopard store my password hash and what hashing algorithm does it use? And finally, regardless of the strength of file encryption using AES-128/256, the weak link is still my en/decryption password used. Even if breaking the ciphered text would take longer than the lifetime of the universe, a brute-force attack on my de/encryption password (guess password, then try to decrypt file, try next password...), might succeed a lot earlier than the end of the universe. Is that correct? I would be very grateful, if people could have mercy on me and help me think through these probably simple questions, so that I can get back to work.

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  • rails semi-complex STI with ancestry data model planning the routes and controllers

    - by ere
    I'm trying to figure out the best way to manage my controller(s) and models for a particular use case. I'm building a review system where a User may build a review of several distinct types with a Polymorphic Reviewable. Country (has_many reviews & cities) Subdivision/State (optional, sometimes it doesnt exist, also reviewable, has_many cities) City (has places & review) Burrow (optional, also reviewable ex: Brooklyn) Neighborhood (optional & reviewable, ex: williamsburg) Place (belongs to city) I'm also wondering about adding more complexity. I also want to include subdivisions occasionally... ie for the US, I might add Texas or for Germany, Baveria and have it be reviewable as well but not every country has regions and even those that do might never be reviewed. So it's not at all strict. I would like it to as simple and flexible as possible. It'd kinda be nice if the user could just land on one form and select either a city or a country, and then drill down using data from say Foursquare to find a particular place in a city and make a review. I'm really not sure which route I should take? For example, what happens if I have a Country, and a City... and then I decide to add a Burrow? Could I give places tags (ie Williamsburg, Brooklyn) belong_to NY City and the tags belong to NY? Tags are more flexible and optionally explain what areas they might be in, the tags belong to a city, but also have places and be reviewable? So I'm looking for suggestions for anyone who's done something related. Using Rails 3.2, and mongoid.

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  • iPhone OS: Is there a way to set up KVO between two ManagedObject Entities?

    - by nickthedude
    I have 2 entities I want to link with KVO, one a single statTracker class that keeps track of different stats and the other an achievement class that contains information about achievements. Ideally what I want to be able to do is set up KVO by having an instance of the achievement class observe a value on the statTracker class and also set up a threshold value at which the achievement instance should be "triggered"(triggering in this case would mean showing a UIAlertView and changing a property on the achievement class.) I'd like to also set these relationships up on instantiation of the achievement class if possible so kind of like this: Achievement *achievement1 = (Achievement *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Achievement" inManagedObjectContext:[[CoreDataSingleton sharedCoreDataSingleton] managedObjectContext]]; [achievement1 setAchievementName:@"2 time launcher"]; [achievement1 setAchievementDescription:@"So you've decided to come back for more eh? Here are some achievement points to get you going"]; [achievement1 setAchievementPoints:[NSNumber numberWithInt:300]; [achievement1 setObjectToObserve:@"statTrackerInstace" propertyToObserve:@"timesLaunched" valueOfPropertToSatisfyAchievement:2] Anyone out there know how I would set this up? Is there some way I could do this by way of relationships that I'm not seeing? Thanks, Nick

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  • Side by side madness - running binaries on different computer (with a twist)

    - by sbk
    Here's my configuration: Computer A - Windows 7, MS Visual Studio 2005 patched for Win7 compatibility (8.0.50727.867) Computer B - Windows XP SP2, MS Visual Studio 2005 installed (8.0.50727.42) My project has some external dependencies (prebuilt DLLs - either build on A or downloaded from the Internet), a couple of DLLs built from sources and one executable. I am mostly developing on A and all is fine there. At some point I try to build my project on computer B, copying the prebuilt DLLs to the output folder. Everything builds fine, but trying to start my application I get The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0150002).... The event log contains two of those: Dependent Assembly Microsoft.VC80.CRT could not be found and Last Error was The referenced assembly is not installed on your system. plus the slightly more amusing Generate Activation Context failed for some.dll. Reference error message: The operation completed successfully. At this point I'm trying my Google-Fu, but in vain - virtually all hits are about running binaries on machines without Visual Studio installed. In my case, however, the executables fail to run on the computer they are built. Next step was to try dependency walker and it baffled me even more - my DLLs built from sources on the same box cannot find MSVCR80.DLL and MSVCP80.DLL, however the executable seems to be alright in respect to those two DLLs i.e. when I open the executable with dependency walker it shows that the MSVC?80.DLLs can be found, but when I open one of my DLLs it says they cannot. That's where I am completely out of ideas what to do so I'm asking you, dear stackoverflow :) I admit I'm a bit blurry on the whole side-by-side thing, so general reading on the topic will also be appreciated.

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