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• PHP $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] vs. $_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'], am I understanding the man pages correctly?

  - by Jeff

  I did a lot of searching and also read the PHP $_SERVER man page. Do I have this right regarding which to use for my PHP scripts for simple link definitions used throughout my site? $_SERVER['SERVER_NAME'] is based on your web servers' config file (Apache2 in my case), and varies depending on a few directives: (1) VirtualHost, (2) ServerName, (3) UseCanonicalName, etc. $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] is based on the request from the client. Therefore, it would seem to me that the proper one to use in order to make my scripts as compatible as possible would be $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST']. Is this assumption correct? Followup comments: I guess I got a little paranoid after reading this article and noting that someone said "they wouldn't trust any of the $_SERVER vars": http://markjaquith.wordpress.com/2009/09/21/php-server-vars-not-safe-in-forms-or-links/ and also: http://www.php.net/manual/en/reserved.variables.server.php (comment: Vladimir Kornea 14-Mar-2009 01:06) Apparently the discussion is mainly about $_SERVER['PHP_SELF'] and why you shouldn't use it in the form action attribute without proper escaping to prevent XSS attacks. My conclusion about my original question above is that it is "safe" to use $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] for all links on a site without having to worry about XSS attacks, even when used in forms. Please correct me if I'm wrong.

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• Visual Studio 2008: Can't connect to known good TFS 2010 beta 2

  - by p.campbell

  A freshly installed TFS 2010 Beta 2 is at http://serverX:8080/tfs. A Windows 7 developer machine with VS 2008 Pro SP1 and the VS2008 Team Explorer (no SP). The TFS 2008 Service Pack 1 didn't work for me - "None of the products that are addressed by this software update are installed on this computer." The developer machine is able to browse the TFS site at the above URL. The Issue is around trying to add the TFS server into the Team Explorer window in Visual Studio 2008. Here's a screenshot showing the error: unable to connect to this Team Foundation Server. Possible reasons for failure include: The Team Foundation Server name, port number or protocol is incorrect. The Team Foundation Server is offline. Password is expired or incorrect. The TFS server is up and running properly. Firewall ports are open, and is accessible via the browser on the dev machine!! larger image Question: how can you connect from VS 2008 Pro to a TFS 2010 Beta 2 server? Resolution Here's how I solved this problem: installed VS 2008 Team Explorer as above. re-install VS 2008 Service Pack 1 when adding a TFS server to Team Explorer, you MUST specify the URL as such: http://[tfsserver]:[port]/[vdir]/[projectCollection] in my case above, it was http://serverX:8080/tfs/AppDev-TestProject you cannot simply add the TFS server name and have VS look for all Project Collections on the server. TFS 2010 has a new URL (by default) and VS 2008 doesn't recognize how to gather that list.

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• Python halts while iteratively processing my 1GB csv file

  - by Dan

  I have two files: metadata.csv: contains an ID, followed by vendor name, a filename, etc hashes.csv: contains an ID, followed by a hash The ID is essentially a foreign key of sorts, relating file metadata to its hash. I wrote this script to quickly extract out all hashes associated with a particular vendor. It craps out before it finishes processing hashes.csv stored_ids = [] # this file is about 1 MB entries = csv.reader(open(options.entries, "rb")) for row in entries: # row[2] is the vendor if row[2] == options.vendor: # row[0] is the ID stored_ids.append(row[0]) # this file is 1 GB hashes = open(options.hashes, "rb") # I iteratively read the file here, # just in case the csv module doesn't do this. for line in hashes: # not sure if stored_ids contains strings or ints here... # this probably isn't the problem though if line.split(",")[0] in stored_ids: # if its one of the IDs we're looking for, print the file and hash to STDOUT print "%s,%s" % (line.split(",")[2], line.split(",")[4]) hashes.close() This script gets about 2000 entries through hashes.csv before it halts. What am I doing wrong? I thought I was processing it line by line. ps. the csv files are the popular HashKeeper format and the files I am parsing are the NSRL hash sets. http://www.nsrl.nist.gov/Downloads.htm#converter UPDATE: working solution below. Thanks everyone who commented! entries = csv.reader(open(options.entries, "rb")) stored_ids = dict((row[0],1) for row in entries if row[2] == options.vendor) hashes = csv.reader(open(options.hashes, "rb")) matches = dict((row[2], row[4]) for row in hashes if row[0] in stored_ids) for k, v in matches.iteritems(): print "%s,%s" % (k, v)

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• Is there the equivalent of cloud computing for modems?

  - by morpheous

  I asked this question on SF, and someone recommended that I ask it here - (I don't think I have enough points to move a question from SF to SO - and in any case, I don't know how to do it - so here is the question again): I am interested in the concept of PAAS (platform as a service). However, all talk about SAAS/PAAS seems to focus on only the computer itself - not its peripherals. Is it possible to 'outsource' modems as a resource - so that an app running remotely can pump data to a modem in the cloud? As a bit of background to the question, a group of us are thinking of starting a company that offers similar services to companies like twilio etc - but I want to 'outsource' both the computing hardware (thats PAAS - the easy bit) and the modems (thats what I cant seem to find any info on). Does anyone know if modems can be bundled as part of a PAAS service? - alternatively, is there a way that an application running on one computer can communicate (i.e. pump data) to a remote modem residing on another machine?. I assume I can come up with some protocol over UDP or TCP - but there is no point reinventing the wheel - if such a protocol like that already exists (or if it some open source software allows one to do this). Any suggestions on how to solve this problem?

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• Calling QAxWidget method outside of the GUI thread

  - by user304361

  I'm beginning to wonder if this is impossible, but I thought I'd ask in case there's a clever way to get around the problems I'm having. I have a Qt application that uses an ActiveX control. The control is held by a QAxWidget, and the QAxWidget itself is contained within another QWidget (I needed to add additional signals/slots to the widget, and I couldn't just subclass QAxWidget because the class doesn't permit that). When I need to interact with the ActiveX control, I call a method of the QWidget, which in turn calls the dynamicCall method of the QAxWidget in order to invoke the appropriate method of the ActiveX control. All of that is working fine. However, one method of the ActiveX control takes several seconds to return. When I call this method, my entire GUI locks up for a few seconds until the method returns. This is undesirable. I'd like the ActiveX control to go off and do its processing by itself and come back to me when it's done without locking up the Qt GUI. I've tried a few things without success: Creating a new QThread and calling QAxWidget::dynamicCall from the new thread Connecting a signal to the appropriate slot method of the QAxWidget and calling the method using signals/slots instead of using dynamicCall Calling QAxWidget::dynamicCall using QtConcurrent::run Nothing seems to affect the behavior. No matter how or where I use dynamicCall (or trigger the appropriate slot of the QAxWidget), the GUI locks until the ActiveX control completes its operation. Is there any way to detach this ActiveX processing from the Qt GUI thread so that the GUI doesn't lock up while the ActiveX control is running a method? Is there something clever I can do with QAxBase or QAxObject to get my desired results?

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• Doctrine 1.2: How do i prevent a contraint from being assigned to both sides of a One-to-many relati

  - by prodigitalson

  Is there a way to prevent Doctrine from assigning a contraint on both sides of a one-to-one relationship? Ive tried moving the definition from one side to the other and using owning side but it still places a constraint on both tables. when I only want the parent table to have a constraint - ie. its possible for the parent to not have an associated child. For example iwant the following sql schema essentially: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); However im getting something like this: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), CONSTRAINT `child_table_child_id_FK_parent_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `child_table` (`child_id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); I could just remove the constraint manually or modify my accessors to return/set a single entity in the collection (using a one-to-many) but it seems like there should built in way to handle this. Also im using Symfony 1.4.4 (pear installtion ATM) - in case its an sfDoctrinePlugin issue and not necessarily Doctrine itself.

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• Configuring zend to use gmail smtp: Windows Apache dev-environment: "Could not open socket" error - repeatedly - going mad

  - by confused

  My dev environment is Win XP SP2 / Apache 2.something PHP 5.something_or_other My prod env is Linux Ubuntu / Apache 2.something_else PHP 5.something_or_other_else The code is all Zend Framework Version: 1.11.1 I can telnet to: smtp.gmail.com 465 from the PC. I have Mercury configured on my PC to use gmail as it's smtp host and it works just fine. (MercuryC SMTP Client). Mercury is set to use port 465 and SSL on smtp.gmail.com -- No problem. Zend mail works just fine on my production environment using the production mail server to send out mail. It's the same basic application.ini but with different values in the mail variables. On my local PC dev setup, my application.ini contains: (same values as I use in Mercury) mail.templatePath = APPLICATION_PATH "/emails" mail.sender.name = "myAccount" mail.sender.email = "[email protected]" mail.host = smtp.gmail.com mail.smtp.auth = "login" mail.smtp.username = "[email protected]" mail.smtp.password = "myPassWord" mail.smtp.ssl = "ssl" mail.smtp.port = 465 I have been doing trial and error for hours trying to get a single email out with no success. In every case, regardless of server or port settings it throws an error and reports: Could not open socket. Both Apache and Mercury Core are exceptions in my Windows Firewall config. Mercury seems to be having no problem. I have searched stackoverflow before posting this and have been googling for hours -- with no success. I am slowly losing my mind I would be very much obliged for any tip as to what might be wrong. Thanks for reading. =================== BTW When I use the SAME application.ini values on my local PC as on the production host, I get the same "Could not open socket" error. Those values are: mail.templatePath = APPLICATION_PATH "/emails" mail.sender.name = "otherUser" mail.sender.email = "[email protected]" mail.host = smtp.otherServer.com mail.smtp.auth = "login" mail.smtp.username = "[email protected]" mail.smtp.password = "otherPAssWord" mail.smtp.ssl = "ssl" mail.smtp.port = 465 I know these work in the production (Ubuntu) environment. I'm utterly baffled.

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• Adaptive user interface/environment algorithm

  - by WowtaH

  Hi all, I'm working on an information system (in C#) that (while my users use it) gathers statistical data on what pieces of information (tables & records) each user is requesting the most, and what parts of the interface he/she uses most. I'm using this statistical data to make the application adaptive to the user's needs, both in the way the interface presents itself (eg: tab/pane-ordering) as in the way of using the frequently viewed information to (eg:) show higher in search results/suggestion-lists. What i'm looking for is an algorithm/formula to determine the current 'hotness'/relevance of these objects for a specific user. A simple 'hitcounter' for each object won't be sufficient because the user might view some information quite frequently for a period of time, and then moving on to the next, making the old information less relevant. So i think my algorithm also needs some sort of sliding/historical principle to account for the changing popularity of the objects in the application over time. So, the question is: Does anybody have some sort of algorithm that accounts for that 'popularity over time' ? Preferably with some explanation on the parameters :) Thanks! PS I've looked at other posts like http://stackoverflow.com/questions/32397/popularity-algorithm but i could't quite port it to my specific case. Any help is appreciated.

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• How does the last integer promotion rule ever get applied in C?

  - by SiegeX

  6.3.1.8p1: Otherwise, the integer promotions are performed on both operands. Then the following rules are applied to the promoted operands: If both operands have the same type, then no further conversion is needed. Otherwise, if both operands have signed integer types or both have unsigned integer types, the operand with the type of lesser integer conversion rank is converted to the type of the operand with greater rank. Otherwise, if the operand that has unsigned integer type has rank greater or equal to the rank of the type of the other operand, then the operand with signed integer type is converted to the type of the operand with unsigned integer type. Otherwise, if the type of the operand with signed integer type can represent all of the values of the type of the operand with unsigned integer type, then the operand with unsigned integer type is converted to the type of the operand with signed integer type. Otherwise, both operands are converted to the unsigned integer type corresponding to the type of the operand with signed integer type. For the bolded rule to be applied it would seem to imply you need to have have an unsigned interger type who's rank is less than the signed integer type and the signed integer type cannot hold all the values of the unsigned integer type. Is there a real world example of such a case or is this statement serving as a catch-all to cover all possible permutations?

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• Maven Mojo & SCM Plugin: Check for a valid working directory

  - by Patrick Bergner

  Hi there. I'm using maven-scm-plugin from within a Mojo and am trying to figure out how to determine if a directory D is a valid working directory of an SCM URL U (i.e. a checkout of U to D already happened). The context is that I want to do a checkout of U if D is a working set or do an update if it isn't. The plan is to check out U to D if D does not exist, update D if D is a valid working directory of U, display an error if D exists and is not a valid working directory of U. What I tried is to call ScmManager.status(), ScmManager.list() and ScmManager.changelog() and try to guess something from their results. But that didn't work. The results from status and changelog always return something positive (isSuccess() = true, getChangedFiles() = valid List, no exceptions to catch), whereas list throws an exception in any case. ScmRepository and ScmFileSet don't seem to provide suitable methods as well. An option would be to always do an update if D exists but then I cannot tell if it is a working directory of U or any SCM working directory at all. The ideal solution would be independent of the actual SCM system and a specific ScmVersion. Thanks for your help! Patrick

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• django powering multiple shops from one code base on a single domain

  - by imanc

  Hey, I am new to django and python and am trying to figure out how to modify an existing app to run multiple shops through a single domain. Django's sites middleware seems inappropriate in this particular case because it manages different domains, not sites run through the same domain, e.g. : domain.com/uk domain.com/us domain.com/es etc. Each site will need translated content - and minor template changes. The solution needs to be flexible enough to allow for easy modification of templates. The forms will also need to vary a bit, e.g minor variances in fields and validation for each country specific shop. I am thinking along the lines of the following as a solution and would love some feedback from experienced django-ers: In short: same codebase, but separate country specific urls files, separate templates and separate database Create a middleware class that does IP localisation, determines the country based on the URL and creates a database connection, e.g. /au/ will point to the au specific database and so on. in root urls.py have routes that point to a separate country specific routing file, e..g (r'^au/',include('urls_au')), (r'^es/',include('urls_es')), use a single template directory but in that directory have a localised directory structure, e.g. /base.html and /uk/base.html and write a custom template loader that looks for local templates first. (or have a separate directory for each shop and set the template directory path in middleware) use the django internationalisation to manage translation strings throughout slight variances in forms and models (e.g. ZA has an ID field, France has 'door code' and 'floor' etc.) I am unsure how to handle these variations but I suspect the tables will contain all fields but allowing nulls and the model will have all fields but allowing nulls. The forms will to be modified slightly for each shop. Anyway, I am keen to get feedback on the best way to go about achieving this multi site solution. It seems like it would work, but feels a bit "hackish" and I wonder if there's a more elegant way of getting this solution to work. Thanks, imanc

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• Combo box in a scrollable panel causing problems

  - by Dennis

  I have a panel with AutoScroll set to true. In it, I am programmatically adding ComboBox controls. If I add enough controls to exceed the viewable size of the panel a scroll bar appears (so far so good). However, if I open one of the combo boxes near the bottom of the viewable area the combo list isn't properly displayed and the scrollable area seems to be expanded. This results in all of the controls being "pulled" to the new bottom of the panel with some new blank space at the top. If I continue to tap on the drop down at the bottom of the panel the scrollable area will continue to expand indefinitely. I'm anchoring the controls to the left, right and top so I don't think anchoring is involved. Is there something obvious that could be causing this? Update: It looks like the problem lies with anchoring the controls to the right. If I don't anchor to the right then I don't get the strange behavior. However, without right anchoring the control gets cut off by the scroll bar. Here's a simplified test case I built that shows the issue: public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); Panel panel = new Panel(); panel.Size = new Size(80, 200); panel.AutoScroll = true; for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { ComboBox cb = new ComboBox(); cb.Anchor = AnchorStyles.Left | AnchorStyles.Right | AnchorStyles.Top; cb.Items.Add("Option 1"); cb.Items.Add("Option 2"); cb.Items.Add("Option 3"); cb.Items.Add("Option 4"); cb.Location = new Point(0, i * 24); panel.Controls.Add(cb); } Controls.Add(panel); } If you scroll the bottom of the panel and tap on the combo boxes near the bottom you'll notice the strange behavior.

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• Are there scenarios where the ViewModel needs to invoke methods on the View w.r.t. MVVM in WPF?

  - by Gishu

  As per the pattern, the ViewModel exposes Properties(with change notification) and Commands (to notify the VM of user actions) that the View binds to. The only communication that flows from the VM to the View is the property change notifications (so that the View can refresh itself with updated data). In MVP or PresentationModel form of the pattern (if I'm not mistaken), the View implements a plain vanilla interface (consisting of methods, properties and/or events). With MVVM, it feels methods on the IView have been outlawed (along with IView itself). One scenario I could think of was to set the focus to a certain control in the View. (When the user does ActionX, the focus should immediately be set to FieldY). In MVP, I'd write this as IView.ActivateField(NameConstant), which the presenter or PM would invoke. In MVVM, this seems to be a fringe case that needs a workaround / little bit of code-behind. The VM implements an ActiveField Property, which it sets to NameConstant. The view picks up the change notification event and in a code-behind event handler, activates the Name control. Is the above just an exception to the norm? Or are there other such scenarios, where the VM needs to invoke a method on the View ?

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• How to make a mapped field inherited from a superclass transient in JPA?

  - by Russ Hayward

  I have a legacy schema that cannot be changed. I am using a base class for the common features and it contains an embedded object. There is a field that is normally mapped in the embedded object that needs to be in the persistence id for only one (of many) subclasses. I have made a new id class that includes it but then I get the error that the field is mapped twice. Here is some example code that is much simplified to maintain the sanity of the reader: @MappedSuperclass class BaseClass { @Embedded private Data data; } @Entity class SubClass extends BaseClass { @EmbeddedId private SubClassId id; } @Embeddable class Data { private int location; private String name; } @Embeddable class SubClassId { private int thingy; private int location; } I have tried @AttributeOverride but I can only get it to rename the field. I have tried to set it to updatable = false, insertable = false but this did not seem to work when used in the @AttributeOverride annotation. See answer below for the solution to this issue. I realise I could change the base class but I really do not want to split up the embedded object to separate the shared field as it would make the surrounding code more complex and require some ugly wrapping code. I could also redesign the whole system for this corner case but I would really rather not. I am using Hibernate as my JPA provider.

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• ClassCastException When Calling an EJB Remotely that Exists on Same Server

  - by aaronvargas

  I have 2 ejbs. Ejb-A that calls Ejb-B. They are not in the same Ear. For portability Ejb-B may or may not exist on the same server. (There is an external property file that has the provider URLs of Ejb-B. I have no control over this.) Example Code: in Ejb-A EjbBDelegate delegateB = EjbBDelegateHelper.getRemoteDelegate(); // lookup from list of URLs from props... BookOfMagic bom = delegateB.getSomethingInteresting(); Use Cases/Outcomes: When Ejb-B DOES NOT EXIST on the same server as Ejb-A, everything works correctly. (it round-robbins through the URLs) When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A happens to call Ejb-B on the same server, everything works correctly. When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A calls Ejb-B on a different server, I get: javax.ejb.EJBException: nested exception is: java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 I'm using Weblogic 10.0, Java 5, EJB3 Basically, if Ejb-B Exists on the server, it must be called ONLY on that server. Which leads me to believe that the class is getting loaded by a local classloader (on deployment?), then when called remotely, a different classloader is loading it. (causing the Exception) But it should work, as it should be Serialized into the destination classloader... What am I doing wrong?? Also, when reproducing this locally, Ejb-A would favor the Ejb-B on the same server, so it was difficult to reproduce. But this wasn't the case on other machines. NOTE: This all worked correctly for EJB2

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• Best way for launching html/jsp to communicate with GWT module

  - by h2g2java

  I asked this at the GWT forum but I'm impatient for the answer and I seem to get rather good responses here. A html or jsp file is used to launch the xxx.nocache.js, which then decides which browser "permutation" to use. <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html;charset=UTF-8"> <title>xxx</title> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="xxx.nocache.js"></script> </head> In my case, I am using a jsp. When the JSP is executed, it discovers some conditions. I wish to pass these conditions as values to the GWT module being launched. The "elegant" GWT way to pass these values would be to persist them as request/memcache attributes and then have the GWT module perform RPC to retrieve those values. For example, the JSP discovers that the current user is Whoopy. Shouldn't I simply have the JSP generate javascript to store user = "Whoopy" as a top or namedframe level javascript variable and use JSNI within the module to retrieve the value for user? I have not tried it yet, but I would like to know how anyone might have done it without having to use RPC.

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• How can I work around SQL Server - Inline Table Value Function execution plan variation based on par

  - by Ovidiu Pacurar

  Here is the situation: I have a table value function with a datetime parameter ,lest's say tdf(p_date) , that filters about two million rows selecting those with column date smaller than p_date and computes some aggregate values on other columns. It works great but if p_date is a custom scalar value function (returning the end of day in my case) the execution plan is altered an the query goes from 1 sec to 1 minute execution time. A proof of concept table - 1K products, 2M rows: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[POC]( [Date] [datetime] NOT NULL, [idProduct] [int] NOT NULL, [Quantity] [int] NOT NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] The inline table value function: CREATE FUNCTION tdf (@p_date datetime) RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN ( SELECT idProduct, SUM(Quantity) AS TotalQuantity, max(Date) as LastDate FROM POC WHERE (Date < @p_date) GROUP BY idProduct ) The scalar value function: CREATE FUNCTION [dbo].[EndOfDay] (@date datetime) RETURNS datetime AS BEGIN DECLARE @res datetime SET @res=dateadd(second, -1, dateadd(day, 1, dateadd(ms, -datepart(ms, @date), dateadd(ss, -datepart(ss, @date), dateadd(mi,- datepart(mi,@date), dateadd(hh, -datepart(hh, @date), @date)))))) RETURN @res END Query 1 - Working great SELECT * FROM [dbo].[tdf] (getdate()) The end of execution plan: Stream Aggregate Cost 13% <--- Clustered Index Scan Cost 86% Query 2 - Not so great SELECT * FROM [dbo].[tdf] (dbo.EndOfDay(getdate())) The end of execution plan: Stream Aggregate Cost 4% <--- Filter Cost 12% <--- Clustered Index Scan Cost 86%

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• What is the general feeling about reflection extensions in std::type_info?

  - by Evan Teran

  I've noticed that reflection is one feature that developers from other languages find very lacking in c++. For certain applications I can really see why! It is so much easier to write things like an IDE's auto-complete if you had reflection. And certainly serialization APIs would be a world easier if we had it. On the other side, one of the main tenets of c++ is don't pay for what you don't use. Which makes complete sense. That's something I love about c++. But it occurred to me there could be a compromise. Why don't compilers add extensions to the std::type_info structure? There would be no runtime overhead. The binary could end up being larger, but this could be a simple compiler switch to enable/disable and to be honest, if you are really concerned about the space savings, you'll likely disable exceptions and RTTI anyway. Some people cite issues with templates, but the compiler happily generates std::type_info structures for template types already. I can imagine a g++ switch like -fenable-typeinfo-reflection which could become very popular (and mainstream libs like boost/Qt/etc could easily have a check to generate code which uses it if there, in which case the end user would benefit with no more cost than flipping a switch). I don't find this unreasonable since large portable libraries like this already depend on compiler extensions. So why isn't this more common? I imagine that I'm missing something, what are the technical issues with this?

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• Float a div in top right corner without overlapping sibling header

  - by Maxime R.

  Having a div and a h1 inside a section, how do i float the div in the top right corner without overlapping the text of the header ? The HTML code is the following: <section> <h1>some long long long long header, a whole line, 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6</h1> <div><button>button</button></div> </section> I tried an absolute position relative to the parent but the text is overlapped, http://jsfiddle.net/FnpS8/2/ Using this CSS code: section { position: relative; } h1 { display: inline; } div { position: absolute; top: 0; right: 0; } I tried floating the div to the right but it doesn't remain in the top right corner, http://jsfiddle.net/P6xCw/2/ Using this CSS code: h1 { display: inline; } div { float: right; } ? I know there is a lot of similar questions but I couldn't find one solving this case.

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• DAL Layer : EF 4.0 or Normal Data access layer with Stored Procedure

  - by Harryboy

  Hello Experts, Application : I am working on one mid-large size application which will be used as a product, we need to decide on our DAL layer. Application UI is in Silverlight and DAL layer is going to be behind service layer. We are also moving ahead with domain model, so our DB tables and domain classes are not having same structure. So patterns like Data Mapper and Repository will definitely come into picture. I need to design DAL Layer considering below mentioned factors in priority manner Speed of Development with above average performance Maintenance Future support and stability of the technology Performance Limitation : 1) As we need to strictly go ahead with microsoft, we can not use NHibernate or any other ORM except EF 4.0 2) We can use any code generation tool (Should be Open source or very cheap) but it should only generate code in .Net, so there would not be any licensing issue on per copy basis. Questions I read so many articles about EF 4.0, on outset it looks like that it is still lacking in features from NHibernate but it is considerably better then EF 1.0 So, Do you people feel that we should go ahead with EF 4.0 or we should stick to ADO .Net and use any code geneartion tool like code smith or any other you feel best Also i need to answer questions like what time it will take to port application from EF 4.0 to ADO .Net if in future we stuck up with EF 4.0 for some features or we are having serious performance issue. In reverse case if we go ahead and choose ADO .Net then what time it will take to swith to EF 4.0 Lastly..as i was going through the article i found the code only approach (with POCO classes) seems to be best suited for our requirement as switching is really easy from one technology to other. Please share your thoughts on the same and please guide on the above questions

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• Algorithm to detect how many words typed, also multi sentence support (Java)

  - by Alex Cheng

  Hello all. Problem: I have to design an algorithm, which does the following for me: Say that I have a line (e.g.) alert tcp 192.168.1.1 (caret is currently here) The algorithm should process this line, and return a value of 4. I coded something for it, I know it's sloppy, but it works, partly. private int counter = 0; public void determineRuleActionRegion(String str, int index) { if (str.length() == 0 || str.indexOf(" ") == -1) { triggerSuggestionList(1); return; } //remove duplicate space, spaces in front and back before searching int num = str.trim().replaceAll(" +", " ").indexOf(" ", index); //Check for occurances of spaces, recursively if (num == -1) { //if there is no space //no need to check if it's 0 times it will assign to 1 triggerSuggestionList(counter + 1); counter = 0; return; //set to rule action } else { //there is a space counter++; determineRuleActionRegion(str, num + 1); } } //end of determineactionRegion() So basically I find for the space and determine the region (number of words typed). However, I want it to change upon the user pressing space bar <space character>. How may I go around with the current code? Or better yet, how would one suggest me to do it the correct way? I'm figuring out on BreakIterator for this case... To add to that, I believe my algorithm won't work for multi sentences. How should I address this problem as well. -- The source of String str is acquired from textPane.getText(0, pos + 1);, the JTextPane. Thanks in advance. Do let me know if my question is still not specific enough.

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• Query on object id in VQL

  - by Banang

  I'm currently working with the versant object database (using jvi), and have a case where I need to query the database based on an object id. What I'm trying to achieve is something along the lines of Employee employee = new Employee("Mr. Pickles"); session.commit(); FundVQLQuery q = new FundVQLQuery(session, "select * from Employee employee where employee = $1"); q.bind(employee); q.execute(); However, I'm finding out the hard way (I get an EVJ_NOT_A_VALID_KEY_TYPE error thrown at me) that this is infact not the way to do it. Anyone got any experience in working with VQL? Your help is much apreciated! A small clarification: The problem is I'm running some performance tests on the database using the pole position framework, and one of the tests in that framework requires me to fetch an object from the database using either an object reference or a low level object id. Thus, I'm not allowed to reference specific fields in the employee object, but must perform the query on the object in its entirety. So, it's not allowed for me to go "select * from Employee e where e.id = 4", I need it to use the entire object. Accepted answer: Since there is some sort of lunacy magic built into SO that prevents me to mark an accepted answer after a bounty has run out, readers should know that the answer posted by Chris Holmes solves this issue. Readers are encouraged to up-vote his post to further signalize the correctness of his answer to any future readers of this thread.

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• HTTP POST prarameters order / REST urls

  - by pq

  Let's say that I'm uploading a large file via a POST HTTP request. Let's also say that I have another parameter (other than the file) that names the resource which the file is updating. The resource cannot be not part of the URL the way you can do it with REST (e.g. foo.com/bar/123). Let's say this is due to a combination of technical and political reasons. The server needs to ignore the file if the resource name is invalid or, say, the IP address and/or the logged in user are not authorized to update the resource. Looks like, if this POST came from an HTML form that contains the resource name first and file field second, for most (all?) browsers, this order is preserved in the POST request. But it would be naive to fully rely on that, no? In other words the order of HTTP parameters is insignificant and a client is free to construct the POST in any order. Isn't that true? Which means that, at least in theory, the server may end up storing the whole large file before it can deny the request. It seems to me that this is a clear case where RESTful urls have an advantage, since you don't have to look at the POST content to perform certain authorization/error checking on the request. Do you agree? What are your thoughts, experiences?

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• Custom basic authentication fails in IIS7

  - by manu08

  I have an ASP.NET MVC application, with some RESTful services that I'm trying to secure using custom basic authentication (they are authenticated against my own database). I have implemented this by writing an HTTPModule. I have one method attached to the HttpApplication.AuthenticateRequest event, which calls this method in the case of authentication failure: private static void RejectWith401(HttpApplication app) { app.Response.StatusCode = 401; app.Response.StatusDescription = "Access Denied"; app.CompleteRequest(); } This method is attached to the HttpApplication.EndRequest event: public void OnEndRequest(object source, EventArgs eventArgs) { var app = (HttpApplication) source; if (app.Response.StatusCode == 401) { string val = String.Format("Basic Realm=\"{0}\"", "MyCustomBasicAuthentication"); app.Response.AppendHeader("WWW-Authenticate", val); } } This code adds the "WWW-Authenticate" header which tells the browser to throw up the login dialog. This works perfectly when I debug locally using Visual Studio's web server. But it fails when I run it in IIS7. For IIS7 I have the built-in authentication modules all turned off, except anonymous. It still returns an HTTP 401 response, but it appears to be removing the WWW-Authenticate header. Any ideas?

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• Grails UrlMappings with .html

  - by Glennn

  I'm developing a Grails web application (mainly as a learning exercise). I have previously written some standard Grails apps, but in this case I wanted to try creating a controller that would intercept all requests (including static html) of the form: <a href="/testApp/testJsp.jsp">test 1</a> <a href="/testApp/testGsp.gsp">test 2</a> <a href="/testApp/testHtm.htm">test 3</a> <a href="/testApp/testHtml.html">test 4</a> The intent is to do some simple business logic (auditing) each time a user clicks a link. I know I could do this using a Filter (or a range of other methods), however I thought this should work too and wanted to do this using a Grails framework. I set up the Grail UrlMappings.groovy file to map all URLs of that form (/$myPathParam?) to a single controller: class UrlMappings { static mappings = { "/$controller/$action?/$id?"{ constraints { } } "/$path?" (controller: 'auditRecord', action: 'showPage') "500"(view:'/error') } } In that controller (in the appropriate "showPage" action) I've been printing out the path information, for example: def showPage = { println "params.path = " + params.path ... render(view: resultingView) } The results of the println in the showPage action for each of my four links are testJsp.jsp testGsp.gsp testHtm.htm testHtml Why is the last one "testHtml", not "testHtml.html"? In a previous (Stack Overflow query) Olexandr encountered this issue and was advised to simply concatenate the value of request.format - which, indeed, does return "html". However request.format also returns "html" for all four links. I'm interested in gaining an understanding of what Grails is doing and why. Is there some way to configure Grails so the params.path variable in the controller shows "testHtml.html" rather than stripping off the "html" extension? It doesn't seem to remove the extension for any other file type (including .htm). Is there a good reason it's doing this? I know that it is a bit unusual to use a controller for static html, but still would like to understand what's going on.

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