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• Is the Scala 2.8 collections library a case of "the longest suicide note in history" ?

  - by oxbow_lakes

  First note the inflammatory subject title is a quotation made about the manifesto of a UK political party in the early 1980s. This question is subjective but it is a genuine question, I've made it CW and I'd like some opinions on the matter. Despite whatever my wife and coworkers keep telling me, I don't think I'm an idiot: I have a good degree in mathematics from the University of Oxford and I've been programming commercially for almost 12 years and in Scala for about a year (also commercially). I have just started to look at the Scala collections library re-implementation which is coming in the imminent 2.8 release. Those familiar with the library from 2.7 will notice that the library, from a usage perspective, has changed little. For example... > List("Paris", "London").map(_.length) res0: List[Int] List(5, 6) ...would work in either versions. The library is eminently useable: in fact it's fantastic. However, those previously unfamiliar with Scala and poking around to get a feel for the language now have to make sense of method signatures like: def map[B, That](f: A => B)(implicit bf: CanBuildFrom[Repr, B, That]): That For such simple functionality, this is a daunting signature and one which I find myself struggling to understand. Not that I think Scala was ever likely to be the next Java (or /C/C++/C#) - I don't believe its creators were aiming it at that market - but I think it is/was certainly feasible for Scala to become the next Ruby or Python (i.e. to gain a significant commercial user-base) Is this going to put people off coming to Scala? Is this going to give Scala a bad name in the commercial world as an academic plaything that only dedicated PhD students can understand? Are CTOs and heads of software going to get scared off? Was the library re-design a sensible idea? If you're using Scala commercially, are you worried about this? Are you planning to adopt 2.8 immediately or wait to see what happens? Steve Yegge once attacked Scala (mistakenly in my opinion) for what he saw as its overcomplicated type-system. I worry that someone is going to have a field day spreading fud with this API (similarly to how Josh Bloch scared the JCP out of adding closures to Java). Note - I should be clear that, whilst I believe that Josh Bloch was influential in the rejection of the BGGA closures proposal, I don't ascribe this to anything other than his honestly-held beliefs that the proposal represented a mistake.

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• Am I Leaking ADO.NET Connections?

  - by HardCode

  Here is an example of my code in a DAL. All calls to the database's Stored Procedures are structured this way, and there is no in-line SQL. Friend Shared Function Save(ByVal s As MyClass) As Boolean Dim cn As SqlClient.SqlConnection = Dal.Connections.MyAppConnection Dim cmd As New SqlClient.SqlCommand Try cmd.Connection = cn cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure cmd.CommandText = "proc_save_my_class" cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@param1", s.Foo) cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@param2", s.Bar) Return True Finally Dal.Utility.CleanupAdoObjects(cmd, cn) End Try End Function Here is the Connection factory (if I am using the correct term): Friend Shared Function MyAppConnection() As SqlClient.SqlConnection Dim cn As New SqlClient.SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("MyConnectionString").ToString) cn.Open() If cn.State <> ConnectionState.Open Then ' CriticalException is a custom object inheriting from Exception. Throw New CriticalException("Could not connect to the database.") Else Return cn End If End Function Here is the Dal.Utility.CleaupAdoObjects() function: Friend Shared Sub CleanupAdoObjects(ByVal cmd As SqlCommand, ByVal cn As SqlConnection) If cmd IsNot Nothing Then cmd.Dispose() If cn IsNot Nothing AndAlso cn.State <> ConnectionState.Closed Then cn.Close() End Sub I am getting a lot of "Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding." error messages reported by the users. The application's DAL opens a connection, reads or saves data, and closes it. No connections are ever left open - intentionally! There is nothing obvious on the Windows 2000 Server hosting the SQL Server 2000 that would indicate a problem. Nothing in the Event Logs and nothing in the SQL Server logs. The timeouts happen randomly - I cannot reproduce. It happens early in the day with only 1 to 5 users in the system. It also happens with around 50 users in the system. The most connections to SQL Server via Performance Monitor, for all databases, has been about 74. The timeouts happen in code that both saves to, and reads from, the database in different parts of the application. The stack trace does not point to one or two offending DAL functions. It's happened in many different places. Does my ADO.NET code appear to be able to leak connections? I've goolged around a bit, and I've read that if the connection pool fills up, this can happen. However, I'm not explicitly setting any connection pooling. I've even tried to increase the Connection Timeout in the connection string, but timeouts happen long before the 300 second (5 minute) value: <add name="MyConnectionString" connectionString="Data Source=MyServer;Initial Catalog=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=SSPI;Connection Timeout=300;"/> I'm at a total loss already as to what is causing these Timeout issues. Any ideas are appreciated.

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• Updating a deallocated UIWebView from a background thread

  - by Dan Ray

  As you can see from the title, I've programmed myself into a corner and I've got several things working against me... In a UIViewController subclass that manages a large and complex view. One part of it is a UIWebView that contains output from a web request that I had to build and execute, and manually assemble HTML from. Since it takes a second or two to run, I dropped it into the background by calling self performSelectorInBackground:. Then from that method I call there, I use self performSelectorOnMainThread: to get back to the surface of the thread stack to update the UIWebView with what I just got. Like this (which I've cut down to show only the relevant issues): -(void)locationManager:(CLLocationManager *)manager didUpdateToLocation:(CLLocation *)newLocation fromLocation:(CLLocation *)oldLocation { //then get mapquest directions NSLog(@"Got called to handle new location!"); [manager stopUpdatingLocation]; [self performSelectorInBackground:@selector(getDirectionsFromHere:) withObject:newLocation]; } - (void)getDirectionsFromHere:(CLLocation *)newLocation { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; CLLocationCoordinate2D here = newLocation.coordinate; // assemble a call to the MapQuest directions API in NSString *dirURL // ...cut for brevity NSLog(@"Query is %@", dirURL); NSString *response = [NSString stringWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:dirURL] encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding error:NULL]; NSMutableString *directionsOutput = [[NSMutableString alloc] init]; // assemble response into an HTML table in NSString *directionsOutput // ...cut for brevity [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(updateDirectionsWithHtml:) withObject:directionsOutput waitUntilDone:NO]; [directionsOutput release]; [pool drain]; [pool release]; } - (void)updateDirectionsWithHtml:(NSString *)directionsOutput { [self.directionsWebView loadHTMLString:directionsOutput baseURL:nil]; } This all works totally great, UNLESS I've backed out of this view controller before CLLocationManager hits its delegate method. If this happens after I've already left this view, I get: 2010-06-07 16:38:08.508 EverWondr[180:760b] bool _WebTryThreadLock(bool), 0x1b6830: Tried to obtain the web lock from a thread other than the main thread or the web thread. This may be a result of calling to UIKit from a secondary thread. Crashing now... Despite what this says, I can repeatably cause this crash when I back out too early. I'm not at all convinced that attempting a UI update from a background thread is really the issue; I think it's that my UIWebView is deallocated. I suspect that the fact I was just IN a background thread makes the runtime suspect something's up about that, but I feel fairly sure that's not it. So how do I tell CLLocationManager not to worry about it, when I'm backing out of that view? I tried [self.locationManager stopUpdatingLocation] inside my viewWillDisappear method, but that didn't do it. (Incidentally, MapQuest's apis are FANTASTIC. Way WAY better than anything Google provides. I can't recommend them highly enough.)

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• Partial overriding in Java (or dynamic overriding while overloading)

  - by Lie Ryan

  If I have a parent-child that defines some method .foo() like this: class Parent { public void foo(Parent arg) { System.out.println("foo in Function"); } } class Child extends Parent { public void foo(Child arg) { System.out.println("foo in ChildFunction"); } } When I called them like this: Child f = new Child(); Parent g = f; f.foo(new Parent()); f.foo(new Child()); g.foo(new Parent()); g.foo(new Child()); the output is: foo in Parent foo in Child foo in Parent foo in Parent But, I want this output: foo in Parent foo in Child foo in Parent foo in Child I have a Child class that extends Parent class. In the Child class, I want to "partially override" the Parent's foo(), that is, if the argument arg's type is Child then Child's foo() is called instead of Parent's foo(). That works Ok when I called f.foo(...) as a Child; but if I refer to it from its Parent alias like in g.foo(...) then the Parent's foo(..) get called irrespective of the type of arg. As I understand it, what I'm expecting doesn't happen because method overloading in Java is early binding (i.e. resolved statically at compile time) while method overriding is late binding (i.e. resolved dynamically at compile time) and since I defined a function with a technically different argument type, I'm technically overloading the Parent's class definition with a distinct definition, not overriding it. But what I want to do is conceptually "partially overriding" when .foo()'s argument is a subclass of the parent's foo()'s argument. I know I can define a bucket override foo(Parent arg) in Child that checks whether arg's actual type is Parent or Child and pass it properly, but if I have twenty Child, that would be lots of duplication of type-unsafe code. In my actual code, Parent is an abstract class named "Function" that simply throws NotImplementedException(). The children includes "Polynomial", "Logarithmic", etc and .foo() includes things like Child.add(Child), Child.intersectionsWith(Child), etc. Not all combination of Child.foo(OtherChild) are solvable and in fact not even all Child.foo(Child) is solvable. So I'm best left with defining everything undefined (i.e. throwing NotImplementedException) then defines only those that can be defined. So the question is: Is there any way to override only part the parent's foo()? Or is there a better way to do what I want to do?

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• How to make freelance clients understand the costs of developing and maintaining mature products?

  - by John

  I have a freelance web application project where the client requests new features every two weeks or so. I am unable to anticipate the requirements of upcoming features. So when the client requests a new feature, one of several things may happen: I implement the feature with ease because it is compatible with the existing platform I implement the feature with difficulty because I have to rewrite a significant portion of the platform's foundation Client withdraws request because it costs too much to implement against existing platform At the beginning of the project, for about six months, all feature requests fell under category 1) because the system was small and agile. But for the past six months, most feature implementation fell under category 2). The system is mature, forcing me to refactor and test everytime I want to add new modules. Additionally, I find myself breaking things that use to work, and fixing it (I don't get paid for this). The client is starting to express frustration at the time and cost for me to implement new features. To them, many of the feature requests are of the same scale as the features they requested six months ago. For example, a client would ask, "If it took you 1 week to build a ticketing system last year, why does it take you 1 month to build an event registration system today? An event registration system is much simpler than a ticketing system. It should only take you 1 week!" Because of this scenario, I fear feature requests will soon land in category 3). In fact, I'm already eating a lot of the cost myself because I volunteer many hours to support the project. The client is often shocked when I tell him honestly the time it takes to do something. The client always compares my estimates against the early months of a project. I don't think they're prepared for what it really costs to develop, maintain and support a mature web application. When working on a salary for a full time company, managers were more receptive of my estimates and even encouraged me to pad my numbers to prepare for the unexpected. Is there a way to condition my clients to think the same way? Can anyone offer advice on how I can continue to work on this web project without eating too much of the cost myself? Additional info - I've only been freelancing full time for 1 year. I don't yet have the high end clients, but I'm slowly getting there. I'm getting better quality clients as time goes by.

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• Can I get a bitmap of an arbitrary window in another application process?

  - by Chris Farmer

  I am trying to automate a third-party Win32 application where I want to capture the graphics content of a particular window at defined time intervals. I am in the early phases of this, and I'm currently trying to use the Microsoft UI Automation API via C# to do most of the interaction between my client app and the external app. I can now get the external app to do what I want it to do, but now I want to capture the graphics from a specific window that seems to be some third-party owner-drawn control. How can I do this? The window I want to capture is the one marked by the red rectangle in this image: I have an implementation that sort of works, but it's dependent on the external app's UI being on top, and that's not guaranteed for me, so I'd prefer to find something more general. var p = Process.Start("c:\myapp.exe"); var mainForm = AutomationElement.FromHandle(p.MainWindowHandle); // "workspace" below is the window whose content I want to capture. var workspace = mainForm.FindFirst(TreeScope.Descendents, new PropertyCondition(AutomationElement.ClassNameProperty, "AfxFrameOrView70u")); var rect = (Rect) workspace.GetCurrentPropertyValue(AutomationElement.BoundingRectangleProperty); using (var bmp = new Bitmap((int)rect.Width, (int)rect.Height)) { using (var g = Graphics.FromImage(bmp)) { g.CopyFromScreen((int)rect.Left, (int)rect.Top, 0, 0, new Size((int)rect.Width, (int)rect.Height)); bmp.Save(@"c:\screenshot.png", ImageFormat.Png); } } The above works well enough when the automated app is on top, but it just blindly copies the screen in the rectangle, so my code is at the mercy of whatever happens to be running on the machine and might cover my app's window. I have read some suggestions to send the WM_PRINT message to the window. This question/answer from a few months back seemed promising, but when I use this code, I just get a white rectangle with none of my control's actual contents. var prop = (int)workspace.GetCurrentPropertyValue(AutomationElement.NativeWindowHandleProperty); var hwnd = new IntPtr(prop); using ( var bmp2 = new Bitmap((int)rect.Width, (int)rect.Height)) { using (Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage(bmp2)) { g.FillRectangle(SystemBrushes.Control, 0, 0, (int)rect.Width, (int)rect.Height); try { SendMessage(hwnd, WM_PRINT, g.GetHdc().ToInt32(), (int)(DrawingOptions.PRF_CHILDREN | DrawingOptions.PRF_CLIENT | DrawingOptions.PRF_OWNED)); } finally { g.ReleaseHdc(); } bmp2.Save(@"c:\screenshot.bmp"); } } So, first, is it even possible for me to reliably save a bitmap of a window's contents? If so, what is the best way, and what is wrong with my WM_PRINT with SendMessage attempt?

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• Keeping track of business rules within IT department?

  - by evaldas-alexander

  I am looking for the best way to keep track of the business rules for both developers and everybody else (support staff / management) in a startup enviroment. The challenge is that our business model requires quite a lot of different business rules, which are created pretty much on the fly and evolving organically after that. After running this project for 3+ years, we have so many of such rules that often the only way to be sure about what the application is supposed to do in a certain situation is to go find the module responsible for that process and analyze its code and comments. That is all fine as long as you have one single developer who created the entire application from the scratch, but every new developer needs to go over pretty much entire codebase in order to understand how the application works. Even bigger problem is that non technical employees don't even have that option and therefore are forced to ask me pretty much every day how some certain case would be handled by the application. Quick example - we only start charging for our customer campaigns once they have been active for at least 72 hours, but at the same time we stop creating invoices for campaigns that belong to insolvent accounts and close such accounts within a month of the first failed charge. That does not apply to accounts that are set to "non-chargeable" which most commonly belongs to us since we are using the service ourselves. The invoices are created on the 1st of each month and include charges from the previous month + any current balance that the account might have. However, some customers are charged only 4 days after their invoice has been generated due to issues with their billing department. In addition to that, invoices are also created when customer deactivates his campaign, but that can only be done once the campaign is not longer under mandatory 6 month contract, unless account manager approves early deactivation. I know, that's quite a lot of rules that need to be taken into account when answering a question "when do we bill our customers", but actually I could still append an asterisk at the end of each sentence in order to disclose some rare exceptions. Of course, it would be easiest just to keep the business rules to the minimum, but we need to adapt to changing marketplace - i.e. less than a year ago we had no contracts whatsoever. One idea that I had so far was a simplistic wiki with categories corresponding to areas such as "Account activation", "Invoicing", "Collection procedures" and so on. Another idea would be to have giant interactive flowchart showing the entire customer "life cycle" from prospecting to account deactivation. What are your experiences / suggestions?

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• JSF inner datatable not respecting rendered condition of outer table.

  - by Marc

  <h:dataTable cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" styleClass="list_table" id="OuterItems" value="#{valueList.values}" var="item" border="0"> <h:column rendered="#{item.typeA"> <h:dataTable cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" styleClass="list_table" id="InnerItems" value="#{item.options}" var="option" border="0"> <h:column > <h:outputText value="Option: #{option.displayValue}"/> </h:column> </h:dataTable> </h:column> <h:column rendered="#{item.typeB"> <h:dataTable cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" styleClass="list_table" id="InnerItems" value="#{item.demands}" var="demand" border="0"> <h:column > <h:outputText value="Demand: #{demand.displayValue}"/> </h:column> </h:dataTable> </h:column> </h:dataTable> public class Item{ ... public boolean isTypeA(){ return this instanceof TypeA; } public boolean isTypeB(){ return this instanceof TypeB; } ... } public class typeA extends Item(){ ... public List getOptions(){ .... } ... } public class typeB extends Item(){ ... public List getDemands(){ ... } .... } I'm having an issue with JSF. I've abstracted the problem out here, and I'm hoping someone can help me understand how what I'm doing fails. I'm looping over a list of Items. These Items are actually instances of the subclasses TypeA and TypeB. For Type A, I want to display the options, for Type B I want to display the demands. When rendering the page for the first time, this works fine. However, when I post back to the page for some action, I get an error: [3/26/10 12:52:32:781 EST] 0000008c SystemErr R javax.faces.FacesException: Error getting property 'options' from bean of type TypeB at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.ApplyRequestValuesPhase.execute(ApplyRequestValuesPhase.java:89) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.LifecycleImpl.phase(LifecycleImpl.java(Compiled Code)) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.LifecycleImpl.execute(LifecycleImpl.java:91) at com.ibm.faces.portlet.FacesPortlet.processAction(FacesPortlet.java:193) My grasp on the JSF lifecyle is very rough. At this point, i understand there is an error in the ApplyRequestValues Phases which is very early and so the previous state is restored and nothing changes. What I don't understand is that in order to fufill the condition for rendering "item.typeA" that object has to be an instance of TypeA. But here, it looks like that object passed the condition even though it was an instance of TypeB. It is like it is evaluating the inner dataTable (InnerItems) before evaluating the outer (outerItems). My working assumption is that I just don't understand how/when the rendered attribute is actually evaluated.

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• PHP GD Allowed memory size exhausted

  - by gurun8

  I'm trying to process a directory of JPEG images (roughly 600+, ranging from 50k to 500k) using PHP: GD to resize and save the images but I've hit a bit of a snag quite early in the process. After correctly processing just 3 images (30K, 18K and 231K) I get a Allowed memory size of 16777216 bytes exhausted PHP Fatal error. I'm cycling through the images and calling the code below: list($w, $h) = getimagesize($src); if ($w > $it->width) { $newwidth = $it->width; $newheight = round(($newwidth * $h) / $w); } elseif ($w > $it->height) { $newheight = $it->height; $newwidth = round(($newheight * $w) / $h); } else { $newwidth = $w; $newheight = $h; } // create resize image $img = imagecreatetruecolor($newwidth, $newheight); $org = imagecreatefromjpeg($src); // Resize imagecopyresized($img, $org, 0, 0, 0, 0, $newwidth, $newheight, $w, $h); imagedestroy($org); imagejpeg($img, $dest); // Free up memory imagedestroy($img); I've tried to free up memory with the imagedestroy function but it doesn't seem to have any affect. The script just keeps consistently choking at the imagecreatefromjpeg line of code. I checked the php.ini and the memory_limit = 16M setting seems like it's holding correctly. But I can't figure out why the memory is filling up. Shouldn't it be releasing the memory back to the garbage collector? I don't really want to increase the memory_limit setting. This seems like a bad workaround that could potentially lead to more issues in the future. FYI: I'm running my script from a command prompt. It shouldn't affect the functionality but might influence your response so I thought I should mention it. Can anyone see if I'm just missing something simple or if there's a design flaw here? You'd think that this would be a pretty straightforward task. Surely this has to be possible, right?

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• How to learn proper C++?

  - by Chris

  While reading a long series of really, really interesting threads, I've come to a realization: I don't think I really know C++. I know C, I know classes, I know inheritance, I know templates (& the STL) and I know exceptions. Not C++. To clarify, I've been writing "C++" for more than 5 years now. I know C, and I know that C and C++ share a common subset. What I've begun to realize, though, is that more times than not, I wind up treating C++ something vaguely like "C with classes," although I do practice RAII. I've never used Boost, and have only read up on TR1 and C++0x - I haven't used any of these features in practice. I don't use namespaces. I see a list of #defines, and I think - "Gracious, that's horrible! Very un-C++-like," only to go and mindlessly write class wrappers for the sake of it, and I wind up with large numbers (maybe a few per class) of static methods, and for some reason, that just doesn't seem right lately. The professional in me yells "just get the job done," the academic yells "you should write proper C++ when writing C++" and I feel like the point of balance is somewhere in between. I'd like to note that I don't want to program "pure" C++ just for the sake of it. I know several languages. I have a good feel for what "Pythonic" is. I know what clean and clear PHP is. Good C code I can read and write better than English. The issue is that I learned C by example, and picked up C++ as a "series of modifications" to C. And a lot of my early C++ work was creating class wrappers for C libraries. I feel like my own personal C-heavy background while learning C++ has sort of... clouded my acceptance of C++ in it's own right, as it's own language. Do the weathered C++ lags here have any advice for me? Good examples of clean, sharp C++ to learn from? What habits of C does my inner-C++ really need to break from? My goal here is not to go forth and trumpet "good" C++ paradigm from rooftops for the sake of it. C and C++ are two different languages, and I want to start treating them that way. How? Where to start? Thanks in advance! Cheers, -Chris

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• How can I create the XML::Simple data structure using a Perl XML SAX parser?

  - by DVK

  Summary: I am looking a fast XML parser (most likely a wrapper around some standard SAX parser) which will produce per-record data structure 100% identical to those produced by XML::Simple. Details: We have a large code infrastructure which depends on processing records one-by-one and expects the record to be a data structure in a format produced by XML::Simple since it always used XML::Simple since early Jurassic era. An example simple XML is: <root> <rec><f1>v1</f1><f2>v2</f2></rec> <rec><f1>v1b</f1><f2>v2b</f2></rec> <rec><f1>v1c</f1><f2>v2c</f2></rec> </root> And example rough code is: sub process_record { my ($obj, $record_hash) = @_; # do_stuff } my $records = XML::Simple->XMLin(@args)->{root}; foreach my $record (@$records) { $obj->process_record($record) }; As everyone knows XML::Simple is, well, simple. And more importantly, it is very slow and a memory hog—due to being a DOM parser and needing to build/store 100% of data in memory. So, it's not the best tool for parsing an XML file consisting of large amount of small records record-by-record. However, re-writing the entire code (which consist of large amount of "process_record"-like methods) to work with standard SAX parser seems like an big task not worth the resources, even at the cost of living with XML::Simple. I'm looking for an existing module which will probably be based on a SAX parser (or anything fast with small memory footprint) which can be used to produce $record hashrefs one by one based on the XML pictured above that can be passed to $obj->process_record($record) and be 100% identical to what XML::Simple's hashrefs would have been. I don't care much what the interface of the new module is; e.g whether I need to call next_record() or give it a callback coderef accepting a record.

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• Rails learn's confusion

  - by Steve

  This is a beginner's rails learning confusion. When I learn rails, from time to time, I feel frustrated on rails' principle "Convention over Configuration". Rails uses heavily on conventions. A lot of them are just naming conventions. If I forget a convention, I will either use the wrong naming and get unexpected result or get things magically done but don't understand how. Sometimes, I think of configuration. At least configuration lists everything clearly and nothing is in fog. In rails, there seems a hidden, dark contract between you and the machine. If you follow the contract, you communicate well. But a beginner usually forgets items listed on the contract and this usually leads to confusion. That's why when I first pick up rails, I feel like it is somehow difficult to learn. Besides, there are many other things that could be new to a learner, such as using git, using plugins from community, using RESTful routing style, using RSpec. All these are new and come together in learning ruby and rails. This definitely adds up difficulties for a beginner. In contrast, if you learn php, it wouldn't be that bad. You can forget many things and focus on learning php itself. You don't need to learn database handling if you know SQL already(in rails, you need to learn a whole new concept migration), you don't have to learn a new decent unit test(in rails, usually they teach RSpec along the way because rails is agile and you should learn test-driven development in the early learning stage), you don't have to learn a new version control(in rails, you will be taught about git anyway), you don't have to use complicated plugins(in rails, they usually use third-party plugins in textbook examples! what the hell? why not teach how to do a simplified similar thing in rails?), you don't have to worry RESTful style. All in all, when I learn php, I learn it quick and soon I start to write things myself. Learning php is similar to learning C/java. It tastes like those traditional languages. When I learn rails, it is more difficult. And I need to learn ruby as well (I believe many of you learn ruby just because of rails). Does anyone have the similar feeling as I have? How do you overcome it and start to master rails? Hints will be welcomed. Thank you.

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• .Net Remote Log Querying

  - by jlafay

  I have a Win Service that I'm working on that consists of the service, WF Service (using WorkflowServiceHost), a Workflow (WorkflowApplication) that queries/processes data from a SQL Server DB, and a Comm Marshall class that handles data flow between the service and the WF. The WF does a lot of heavy data processing and the original app (early VB6) logged all the processing and displayed the results on the screen of the host machine. Critical events will be committed to eventlog because I strongly believe that should be common practice because admins naturally will look there and because it already has support for remote viewing. The workflow will also need to write logging events as it processes and iterates according to our business logic. Such as: records queried, records returned, processed records, etc. The data is very critical and we need to log actions as they occur. The logs are currently kept as text files on disk and I think that is ok. Ideally I would like to record log events in XML so it's easier to query and because it is less costly than a DB, especially since our DB servers do a lot of heavy processing anyways. Since we are replacing essentially a VB6 application with a robust windows service (taking advantage of WF 4.0), it has been requested that a remote client also be created. It receives callbacks from the service after subscribing to it and being added to a collection of subscribers. Basic statistics and summaries are updated client side after receiving basic monitoring data of what is going on with the service. We would like to also provide a way to provide details when we need to examine what is going on further because this is a long running data processing service and issues need to be addressed immediately. What is the best way to implement some type of query from the client that is sent to the service and returned to the client? Would it be efficient to implement another method to expose on the service and then have that pass that off to some querying class/object to examine the XML files by whichever specification and then return it to the client? That's the main concern. I don't want the service to processing to bottleneck much while this occurs. It seems that WF already auto-magically threads well for the most part but I want to make sure this is the right way to go about it. Any suggestions/recommendations on how to architect and implement a small log querying framework for a remote service would be awesome.

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• asp:Button is not calling server-side function

  - by Richard Neil Ilagan

  Hi guys, I know that there has been much discussion here about this topic, but none of the threads I got across helped me solve this problem. I'm hoping that mine is somewhat unique, and may actually merit a different solution. I'm instantiating an asp:Button inside a data-bound asp:GridView through template fields. Some of the buttons are supposed to call a server-side function, but for some weird reason, it doesn't. All the buttons do when you click them is fire a postback to the current page, doing nothing, effectively just reloading the page. Below is a fragment of the code: <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" CssClass="l2 submissions" ShowHeader="false"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate><asp:Panel ID="swatchpanel" CssClass='<%# Bind("status") %>' runat="server"></asp:Panel></ItemTemplate> <ItemStyle Width="50px" CssClass="sw" /> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField DataField="description" ReadOnly="true"> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="owner" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Font-Italic="true" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="last-modified" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Width="100px" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Button ID="viewBtn" cssclass='<%# Bind("sid") %>' runat="server" Text="View" OnClick="viewBtnClick" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> The viewBtn above should call the viewBtnClick() function on server-side. I do have that function defined, along with a proper signature (object,EventArgs). One thing that may be of note is that this code is actually inside an ASCX, which is loaded in another ASCX, finally loaded into an ASPX. Any help or insight into the matter will be SO appreciated. Thanks! (oh, and please don't mind my trashy HTML/CSS semantics - this is still in a very,very early stage :p)

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• HTTP Handlers in Win2008/IIS7

  - by Keith Barrows

  We are migrating our web sites from Win2003/IIS6 to Win2008/IIS7. Our .NET code is in a WAP form with compiled binaries. I do dev work on a Win7/IIS7 box so had to learn early how to set up HTTP Handlers in this newer environment. What I have that has worked fine on my box is: <system.webServer> <handlers> <remove name="WebServiceHandlerFactory-Integrated" /> <remove name="ScriptHandlerFactory" /> <remove name="ScriptHandlerFactoryAppServices" /> <remove name="ScriptResource" /> <add name="RivWorks" path="*.riv" verb="*" modules="IsapiModule" scriptProcessor="C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\aspnet_isapi.dll" resourceType="Unspecified" requireAccess="Script" preCondition="classicMode,runtimeVersionv2.0,bitness32" /> <add name="RivWorks2" path="*.riv2" verb="*" modules="IsapiModule" scriptProcessor="C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\aspnet_isapi.dll" resourceType="Unspecified" requireAccess="Script" preCondition="classicMode,runtimeVersionv2.0,bitness32" /> <add name="ScriptHandlerFactory" verb="*" path="*.asmx" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="ScriptHandlerFactoryAppServices" verb="*" path="*_AppService.axd" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="ScriptResource" verb="GET,HEAD" path="ScriptResource.axd" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> </handlers> All I am getting on the new web site when I try to call into the *.riv handler is: 404 - File or directory not found. The resource you are looking for might have been removed, had its name changed, or is temporarily unavailable. OK. You see interesting things when writing out these questions. Our server is setup in integrated mode and runs on a x64 system. So, I changed the precondition clause to: preCondition="integratedMode,runtimeVersionv2.0,bitness64" Now I get this instead: 500 - Internal server error. There is a problem with the resource you are looking for, and it cannot be displayed. Any ideas of what I should be doing, where I should be looking? TIA

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• Refactoring Singleton Overuse

  - by drharris

  Today I had an epiphany, and it was that I was doing everything wrong. Some history: I inherited a C# application, which was really just a collection of static methods, a completely procedural mess of C# code. I refactored this the best I knew at the time, bringing in lots of post-college OOP knowledge. To make a long story short, many of the entities in code have turned out to be Singletons. Today I realized I needed 3 new classes, which would each follow the same Singleton pattern to match the rest of the software. If I keep tumbling down this slippery slope, eventually every class in my application will be Singleton, which will really be no logically different from the original group of static methods. I need help on rethinking this. I know about Dependency Injection, and that would generally be the strategy to use in breaking the Singleton curse. However, I have a few specific questions related to this refactoring, and all about best practices for doing so. How acceptable is the use of static variables to encapsulate configuration information? I have a brain block on using static, and I think it is due to an early OO class in college where the professor said static was bad. But, should I have to reconfigure the class every time I access it? When accessing hardware, is it ok to leave a static pointer to the addresses and variables needed, or should I continually perform Open() and Close() operations? Right now I have a single method acting as the controller. Specifically, I continually poll several external instruments (via hardware drivers) for data. Should this type of controller be the way to go, or should I spawn separate threads for each instrument at the program's startup? If the latter, how do I make this object oriented? Should I create classes called InstrumentAListener and InstrumentBListener? Or is there some standard way to approach this? Is there a better way to do global configuration? Right now I simply have Configuration.Instance.Foo sprinkled liberally throughout the code. Almost every class uses it, so perhaps keeping it as a Singleton makes sense. Any thoughts? A lot of my classes are things like SerialPortWriter or DataFileWriter, which must sit around waiting for this data to stream in. Since they are active the entire time, how should I arrange these in order to listen for the events generated when data comes in? Any other resources, books, or comments about how to get away from Singletons and other pattern overuse would be helpful.

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• Not seeing Sync Block in Object Layout

  - by bob-bedell

  It's my understanding the all .NET object instances begin with an 8 byte 'object header': a synch block (4 byte pointer into a SynchTableEntry table), and a type handle (4 byte pointer into the types method table). I'm not seeing this in VS 2010 RC's (CLR 4.0) debugger memory windows. Here's a simple class that will generate a 16 byte instance, less the object header. class Program { short myInt = 2; // 4 bytes long myLong = 3; // 8 bytes string myString = "aString"; // 4 byte object reference // 16 byte instance static void Main(string[] args) { new Program(); return; } } An SOS object dump tells me that the total object size is 24 bytes. That makes sense. My 16 byte instance plus an 8 byte object header. !DumpObj 0205b660 Name: Offset_Test.Program MethodTable: 000d383c EEClass: 000d13f8 Size: 24(0x18) bytes File: C:\Users\Bob\Desktop\Offset_Test\Offset_Test\bin\Debug\Offset_Test.exe Fields: MT Field Offset Type VT Attr Value Name 632020fc 4000001 10 System.Int16 1 instance 2 myInt 632050d8 4000002 4 System.Int64 1 instance 3 myLong 631fd2b8 4000003 c System.String 0 instance 0205b678 myString Here's the raw memory: 0x0205B660 000d383c 00000003 00000000 0205b678 00000002 ... And here are some annotations: offset 0 000d383c ;TypeHandle (pointer to MethodTable), 4 bytes offset 4 00000003 00000000 ;myLong, 8 bytes offset 12 0205b678 ;myString, 4 byte reference to address of "myString" on GC Heap offset 16 00000002 ;myInt, 4 bytes My object begins a address 0x0205B660. But I can only account for 20 bytes of it, the type handle and the instance fields. There is no sign of a synch block pointer. The object size is reported as 24 bytes, but the debugger is showing that it only occupies 20 bytes of memory. I'm reading Drill Into .NET Framework Internals to See How the CLR Creates Runtime Objects, and expected the first 4 bytes of my object to be a zeroed synch block pointer, as shown in Figure 8 of that article. Granted, this is an article about CLR 1.1. I'm just wondering if the difference between what I'm seeing and what this early article reports is a change in either the debugger's display of object layout, or in the way the CLR lays out objects in versions later than 1.1. Anyway, can anyone account for my 4 missing bytes?

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• Should the argument be passed by reference in this .net example?

  - by Hamish Grubijan

  I have used Java, C++, .Net. (in that order). When asked about by-value vs. by-ref on interviews, I have always done well on that question ... perhaps because nobody went in-depth on it. Now I know that I do not see the whole picture. I was looking at this section of code written by someone else: XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); AppendX(doc); // Real name of the function is different AppendY(doc); // ditto When I saw this code, I thought: wait a minute, should not I use a ref in front of doc variable (and modify AppendX/Y accordingly? it works as written, but made me question whether I actually understand the ref keyword in C#. As I thought about this more, I recalled early Java days (college intro language). A friend of mine looked at some code I have written and he had a mental block - he kept asking me which things are passed in by reference and when by value. My ignorant response was something like: Dude, there is only one kind of arg passing in Java and I forgot which one it is :). Chill, do not over-think and just code. Java still does not have a ref does it? Yet, Java hackers seem to be productive. Anyhow, coding in C++ exposed me to this whole by reference business, and now I am confused. Should ref be used in the example above? I am guessing that when ref is applied to value types: primitives, enums, structures (is there anything else in this list?) it makes a big difference. And ... when applied to objects it does not because it is all by reference. If things were so simple, then why would not the compiler restrict the usage of ref keyword to a subset of types. When it comes to objects, does ref serve as a comment sort of? Well, I do remember that there can be problems with null and ref is also useful for initializing multiple elements within a method (since you cannot return multiple things with the same easy as you would do in Python). Thanks.

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• How can I automatically update Flash Player whenever a new version is released? [closed]

  - by user219950

  Summary: Flash Player Update Service doesn't run on a reliable schedule, and doesn't automatically download and apply updates when it does run. Given the importance of having an up-to-date version of Flash Player installed (for those of us who don't use Chrome with its built-in player), I would like to find a way to ensure that new updates are promptly detected and installed. What follows are the details of my efforts to solve this problem on my own... Appendix A: Flash Player Update Service OK, way back in Flash Player 11.2 (or so?) Adobe added the Flash Player Update Service (FlashPlayerUpdateService.exe), it was supposed to keep the Flash Player updated... Upon installation, FPUS is configured to run as a Windows Service, with Start Type set to Manual. A Scheduled Task (Adobe Flash Player Updater.job) is added to start this service every hour. So far, so good - this set-up avoids having a constantly-running service, but makes sure that the checks are run often enough to catch any updates quickly. Google's software updater is configured in a similar fashion, and that works just fine... ...And yet, when I checked the version of my installed Flash Player, I found it was 11.6.602.180, which, based on looking at the timestamps of the files in C:\Windows\System32\Macromed\Flash was last updated (or installed) on Tue, Mar 12, 2013 --- 3/12/13, 5:00:08pm. I made this observation on Thu, Apr 25, 2013 --- 4/25/13, 7:00:00pm, and upon checking Adobe's website found that the current version of Flash Player was 11.7.700.169. That's over a month since the last update, with a new one clearly available on the website but with no indication that the hourly check running on my machine has noticed it or has any intention of downloading it. Appendix B: running the Flash Player updater manually Once upon a time, running FlashUtil32_<version_Plugin.exe -update plugin would give you a window with an Install button; pressing it would download the installer for the current version (automatically, without opening a browser) and run it, then you'd click thru that installer & be done. It was manual, but it worked! Finding my current installation out of date (see Appendix A), I first tried this manual update process. However... Running FlashUtil32_<version_ActiveX.exe -update activex (in my case, that's FlashUtil32_11_6_602_180_ActiveX.exe -update activex) ...only presents a window with a Download button, clicking that Download button opens my browser to the URL https://get3.adobe.com/flashplayer/update/activex. Running FlashUtil32_<version_Plugin.exe -update plugin (in my case, that's FlashUtil32_11_6_602_180_Plugin.exe -update plugin) ...only presents a window with a Download button, clicking that Download button opens my browser to the URL https://get3.adobe.com/flashplayer/update/plugin. I could continue with the Download page it sent me to, uncheck the foistware box ("Free! McAfee Security Scan Plus"), download that installer (ActiveX, no foistware: install_flashplayer11x32axau_mssd_aih.exe, Plugin, no foistware: install_flashplayer11x32au_mssd_aih.exe) & probably have an updated Flash...but then, what is the point of the Flash Player Update Service if I have to manually download & run another exe? Epilogue I've since come to suspect that the update service is intentionally hobbled to drive early adopters to the manual download page. If this is true, there's probably no solution to this short of writing my own updater; hopefully I am wrong.

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• How do I determine if my controller is in IDE or AHCI mode in Linux?

  - by philcolbourn

  I have an old MacBook Pro 4,1 (early 2008) - but I suspect an answer would apply to many MacBook Pros. It has an Intel IDE/SATA controller (ICH8M/ICH8M-E). I have installed a patched MBR that is supposed to put my controller into AHCI mode. It does this by setting some controller port value that I don't understand. This seems to work as I get this from lspci: 00:1f.1 IDE interface: Intel Corporation 82801HM/HEM (ICH8M/ICH8M-E) IDE Controller (rev 03) 00:1f.2 IDE interface: Intel Corporation 82801HM/HEM (ICH8M/ICH8M-E) SATA Controller [AHCI mode] (rev 03) Now most, perhaps all, sites that provide a solution (enabling AHCI) suggest that after a sleep/wake cycle that a controller will revert to IDE mode due to how Apple support Windows. They recommend disabling sleep. From author of patchedcode.bin I think Enabling AHCI for Windows on MacBooks NB: I do not have bootcamp installed and I do not have Windows installed. Is there a way to prove that my controller is in IDE or AHCI mode? Background Data Using patchedcode.bin MBR I get this in syslog: Jun 12 22:33:22 max kernel: [ 1.860955] ahci 0000:00:1f.2: version 3.0 Jun 12 22:33:22 max kernel: [ 1.861052] ahci 0000:00:1f.2: irq 45 for MSI/MSI-X Jun 12 22:33:22 max kernel: [ 1.861117] ahci 0000:00:1f.2: AHCI 0001.0100 32 slots 3 ports 1.5 Gbps 0x1 impl SATA mode Jun 12 22:33:22 max kernel: [ 1.861120] ahci 0000:00:1f.2: flags: 64bit ncq sntf pm led clo pio slum part ccc ems Jun 12 22:33:22 max kernel: [ 1.861130] ahci 0000:00:1f.2: setting latency timer to 64 Jun 12 22:33:22 max kernel: [ 1.880880] ACPI: Video Device [GFX0] (multi-head: yes rom: no post: no) Jun 12 22:33:22 max kernel: [ 1.880983] scsi2 : ahci Jun 12 22:33:22 max kernel: [ 1.884552] scsi3 : ahci Jun 12 22:33:22 max kernel: [ 1.886932] scsi4 : ahci Jun 12 22:33:22 max kernel: [ 1.886998] ata3: SATA max UDMA/133 abar m2048@0xdb504000 port 0xdb504100 irq 45 Jun 12 22:33:22 max kernel: [ 1.887000] ata4: DUMMY Jun 12 22:33:22 max kernel: [ 1.887002] ata5: DUMMY Jun 12 22:33:22 max kernel: [ 2.204103] ata3: SATA link up 1.5 Gbps (SStatus 113 SControl 300) Jun 12 22:33:22 max kernel: [ 2.204656] ata3.00: ATA-8: FUJITSU MHY2200BH, 0081000D, max UDMA/100 Jun 12 22:33:22 max kernel: [ 2.204662] ata3.00: 390721968 sectors, multi 16: LBA48 NCQ (depth 31/32), AA Jun 12 22:33:22 max kernel: [ 2.205324] ata3.00: configured for UDMA/100 Jun 12 22:33:22 max kernel: [ 2.205554] scsi 2:0:0:0: Direct-Access ATA FUJITSU MHY2200B 0081 PQ: 0 ANSI: 5 Using my original MBR I get this from syslog: Jun 13 18:07:13 max kernel: [ 0.622861] ata_piix 0000:00:1f.1: version 2.13 Jun 13 18:07:13 max kernel: [ 0.622869] ata_piix 0000:00:1f.1: power state changed by ACPI to D0 Jun 13 18:07:13 max kernel: [ 0.622924] ata_piix 0000:00:1f.1: setting latency timer to 64 Jun 13 18:07:13 max kernel: [ 0.623339] scsi0 : ata_piix Jun 13 18:07:13 max kernel: [ 0.623730] scsi1 : ata_piix Jun 13 18:07:13 max kernel: [ 0.623765] ata1: PATA max UDMA/100 cmd 0x8108 ctl 0x811c bmdma 0x80e0 irq 21 Jun 13 18:07:13 max kernel: [ 0.623767] ata2: PATA max UDMA/100 cmd 0x8100 ctl 0x8118 bmdma 0x80e8 irq 21 Jun 13 18:07:13 max kernel: [ 0.623810] ata_piix 0000:00:1f.2: MAP [ Jun 13 18:07:13 max kernel: [ 0.623811] P0 -- -- -- ] Jun 13 18:07:13 max kernel: [ 0.623866] ata_piix 0000:00:1f.2: setting latency timer to 64 Jun 13 18:07:13 max kernel: [ 0.624241] scsi2 : ata_piix Jun 13 18:07:13 max kernel: [ 0.624558] scsi3 : ata_piix Jun 13 18:07:13 max kernel: [ 0.624862] ata3: SATA max UDMA/133 cmd 0x80f8 ctl 0x8114 bmdma 0x8020 irq 18 Jun 13 18:07:13 max kernel: [ 0.624865] ata4: SATA max UDMA/133 cmd 0x80f0 ctl 0x8110 bmdma 0x8028 irq 18 Jun 13 18:07:13 max kernel: [ 1.208879] ata3.00: ATA-8: FUJITSU MHY2200BH, 0081000D, max UDMA/100 Jun 13 18:07:13 max kernel: [ 1.208882] ata3.00: 390721968 sectors, multi 16: LBA48 NCQ (depth 0/32) Jun 13 18:07:13 max kernel: [ 1.208961] ata1.01: ATAPI: MATSHITA DVD+/-RW UJ-867S, 1.00, max UDMA/33 Jun 13 18:07:13 max kernel: [ 1.216186] ata3.00: configured for UDMA/100 Jun 13 18:07:13 max kernel: [ 1.224396] ata1.01: configured for UDMA/33

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• Graphics card initialisation problems when booting - requires a "double" boot

  - by DMA57361

  Problem Outline When booting from cold (and my machine is disconnected from main power when off, but leaving it connected doesn't help) the graphics card (single PCI-e card GeForce 460) will not initialise on the first boot, leaving me with the motherboards on-board graphics (which kick in automatically if no PCI-e card is found). However, if I restart the computer - normally I do this by powering it off just after the numlock lights up on the keyboard (ie, just after POST/BIOS and before Windows takes over), wait for the system to whirr down, and power up again - the graphics card will work correctly. Once double-booted in this matter the system seems to work correctly - with no noticeable problems. This is reproducible every time I try to boot - it has been working like this for about a month now. Background Information Sept 2010 - I suffered a hardware malfunction (crashes in Windows and graphics corruption on BIOS screens). By way of spare hardware I determined that replacing the PSU removed the issue, so I replaced the PSU with a brand new one of slightly higher power (460W replaced with 500W). Oct 2010 - The problem resurfaced. I purchased a new graphics card (GeForce 460), which removed the problem. The new graphics card immediately started having the boot initialisation problems mentioned. I presumed there was a motherboard fault all along, but because the system worked once booted, and I was temporarily out of spare money, I left the system alone and continued to use it. Early/Mid Dec 2010 - In the space of 5 days I recieved 3 instances of hard drive corruption (seemlingly fixed by chkdsk and sfc in each case...). Since I was already under the impression the motherboard was faulty, I purchased a new one ASAP, this also required new RAM (as I dropped from 4 slots to 2 and didn't want to drop mem quantity). Past 3-4 weeks - With a brand new PSU, Graphics Card, Motherboard and RAM I'm suffering the problem outlined above. So, what could be causing this and how do I can resolve it? Additional Notes Once double-booted the system seems to work entirely correctly. The graphics card problem has occured on two entirely different motherboards. I do not have the opportunity to test the graphics card in a different computer (I've only the old motherboard, which is dubious, or a really old desktop that still has an AGP port). Under load (ie, modern games for long enough for temperatures to plateau) the system remains stable and performs as expected. The software that came with the new motherboard and SpeenFan both report all voltages and temperatures are within nominal bounds, when idle and when under load. I've looking over the BIOS settings for my motherboard multiple times and can find nothing that helps. This system is configured to run with everything at standard levels - no overclocking. I've tried booting the system with only the mobo and graphics card connected (thinking maybe my new PSU was too weak for the new gfx card, even though it meets the quoted PSU requirements for the card) but the same problem persists (and really if the PSU was weak I'd have problems with the system under load). When the gfx card does not initialise the fan on its cooling unit is running, possibly slower than otherwise - but this measurement is by eye and so unreliable.

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• SSH-forwarded X11 display from Linux to Mac lost after some time

  - by mklein9

  I have a new and vexing problem with ssh forwarding my X11 connection when logging in from a Mac (10.7.2) to Linux (Ubuntu 8.04). I have no trouble using ssh -X to log in to the remote machine and starting an X11-based application from that shell. What has recently started happening is that additional invocations of X11 applications from that same shell, after a while (on the order of hours), are unable to start because the forwarded display is being blocked (I presume). When attempting to start xterm, for example, I get the usual message about a bad DISPLAY setting, such as: xterm Xt error: Can't open display: localhost:10.0 But the X11 application I started right when I logged in is still running along just fine, using that exact same display (localhost:10.0), just that it was started earlier. I turned on verbose logging in sshd_config and I see this in the /var/log/auth.log file in response to the failed xterm startup attempt: sshd[22104]: channel 8: open failed: administratively prohibited: open failed If I ssh -X to the server again, starting a new shell and getting assigned a new display (localhost:11.0), the same process repeats: the X11 applications started early on run just fine for as long as I keep them open (days), but after a few hours I cannot start any new ones from that shell. Particulars: OpenSSH sshd server running on Ubuntu 8.04, display forwarded to a Mac running Lion (10.7.2) with the default Apple X server. The systems are connected on an Ethernet LAN with a single switch between them. Neither machine is running a firewall. Until recently (a few days ago) this setup worked perfectly so I am mystified as to where to look next. I am by no means an X11 or SSH expert but have good UNIX/Linux experience. Nothing obvious has changed in either client or server configuration although I have tried changing a few options to try to debug this, like setting sshd_config's TCPKeepAlive to no, and setting "host +localhost" (you can tell I've been Googling). When logging in from a Linux 11.10 laptop to the same remote host over the same network and switch, this problem does not occur -- an xterm can be invoked successfully hours later from the same ssh login shell while the same experiment from the Mac fails (tested this morning to be sure), so it would appear to be a Mac-specific issue. With "LogLevel DEBUG3" set on the remote machine (sshd server), and no change made in the client connections by me, /var/log/auth.log shows one slight change in connection status reports overnight, which is the port number used by the one successful ssh session from the Linux machine (I think), connection #7 below: sshd[20173]: debug3: channel 7: status: The following connections are open:\r\n #0 server-session (t4 r0 i0/0 o0/0 fd 14/13 cfd -1)\r\n #3 X11 connection from 127.0.0.1 port 57564 (t4 r1 i0/0 o0/0 fd 16/16 cfd -1)\r\n #4 X11 connection from 127.0.0.1 port 57565 (t4 r2 i0/0 o0/0 fd 17/17 cfd -1)\r\n #5 X11 connection from 127.0.0.1 port 57566 (t4 r3 i0/0 o0/0 fd 18/18 cfd -1)\r\n #6 X11 connection from 127.0.0.1 port 57567 (t4 r4 i0/0 o0/0 fd 19/19 cfd -1)\r\n #7 X11 connection from 127.0.0.1 port 59007 In this report, everything is the same between status reports except the port number used by connection #7 which I believe is the Linux client -- the only one still maintaining a display connection. It continues to increment over time, judging by a sequence of these reports overnight. Thanks for any help, -Mike

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• Did a recent WinXP update break CD/DVD read speeds? SP2/SP3

  - by quack quixote

  I have two systems with fresh installations of Windows XP Pro SP3 (SP3 slipstreamed into the installer; fully updated after install). One's a refurbished 2.4GHz Pentium4 system; the other is a new 1.6GHz Atom330 build. Both have brand-new dual-layer CD/DVD burners (one's a LiteOn IDE, the other an LG SATA). Both take a really looooong time to read a single-layer DVD in Windows with Cygwin tools. Specifically, 40 minutes or more. I burn backup data to single-layer DVD+/-R and use MD5 hashes for data verification (made with the standard md5sum tool in Unix or Cygwin). The hashes are burned to disc with the data files, and I use this command to verify: $ cd /path/to/disc/mountpoint ; time md5sum -c < md5.txt Here's how long that takes to run on a full single-layer DVD+/-R disc: Old system (WinXP SP2, 1.8GHz Athlon 2500+, last summer): ~10 minutes Old system (Ubuntu 9.04, 1.8GHz Athlon 2500+): ~10 minutes Old system (Debian 5, dual 550MHz P3): ~10 minutes New Pentium4 system (running Ubuntu 9.04): ~5 minutes New Pentium4 system (running WinXP SP3, file copy from Win Explorer): ~6 minutes New Atom330 system (running WinXP SP3, file copy from Win Explorer): ~6 minutes Now the weird stuff: Old system (WinXP SP2, 1.8GHz Athlon 2500+, today): ~25 minutes New Pentium4 system (running WinXP SP3, read from Cygwin): ~40-50 minutes (?!!) New Atom330 system (running WinXP SP3, read from Cygwin): ~40 minutes (can do it in ~30 minutes ...if i have another program spin up the drive first) Since both systems will copy files in 6 minutes using Windows Explorer, I know it's not a hardware problem. Windows just never spins up the drive during the Cygwin read, so it stays super-slow the whole time. Other programs like EAC and DVD Decrypter seem to spin up the disc just fine during their processing. DMA is enabled on both systems. (Can confirm in Windows' Device Manager on the Atom330, not on the P4.) Nero's DriveSpeed tool doesn't seem to have any effect. Copy times are comparable from commandline with Windows' xcopy. Copying with Cygwin's cp looks more like the problem state -- it will spin up the drive for a short time, never reaches full speed, and lets it spin back down again for most of the copy. What I need is to get full read speeds from Cygwin. Is this a known issue with SP3 or some other recent Windows update? Any other ideas? Update: More testing; Windows will spin up the drive when data is copied with Windows tools, but not when read in place or copied with Cygwin tools. It doesn't make sense to me that Windows spins up the drive for copying, but not for other reads. Might be more of a Cygwin problem? Update 2: GUI activity is sluggish during the problem state -- during the Cygwin verifies, there's a slight but noticable delay when dragging windows or icons around on the desktop, switching windows, Alt-Tabbing through open applications, opening new windows, etc. It reminds me of the delay when opening a Windows Explorer window on My Computer just after inserting a DVD. I've tried updating Cygwin (from 1.5.x to 1.7.x), but no change in the problem behavior. I've also noticed this issue occurs on WinXP SP2, but it's not exactly the same -- some spin-up occurs, so the read happens in ~25-30 minutes instead of 40+. The SP2 system used to run the verifies in ~10 minutes, and when it first changed (not sure exactly when, maybe in late November or early December 2009) I thought it was dying hardware. This is why I suspect an official update of breaking this functionality; this has worked for years on that SP2 box.

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• Windows XP Video Configuration Issues

  - by Matt

  Recently I had my motherboard burn out on me. Needing the machine for work, I purchased a different motherboard and installed that. Generally a reinstall of windows is good at that point but I am not in a position to do that so I just decided I would live with it for now. When I can log-in, everything works fine, what doesn't is getting to the log-in prompt to begin with. Basically when I first installed the new mobo, every time I rebooted the machine, I would not get the windows login prompt. One of the monitors would receive a signal but the screen would be black. Moving the mouse would not show the cursor and hitting the up arrow key and typing my password and hitting enter (which will normally log you in without mouse) wouldn't change anything. I would then change the monitor configuration around (2 lcd's and a crt) and reboot and at least one of the monitors would work and display the login prompt. I could then go into display properties and turn on the other monitors. However if I rebooted again, I would get the black screen on one monitor again. I would then have to change the configuration again to one not used before and I could re-do the manual setup at that point. I think windows saves the configurations so I had to keep giving it new ones. Needless to say I've been trying to not turn off my machine. Early this week I actually got the prompt to come up without playing musical monitors. Thinking everything was getting better, I found no harm in rebooting to install the latest windows updates. Boy was I wrong. Now no matter what I do I can't get a windows log-in prompt to display. I've tried almost every conceivable combination. The new mobo has onboard video so I set that in the bios (yea bios screen always displays fine, its not until windows boots that there is a problem) to be the primary video. Still no luck. I have two other graphics cards in the machine which I'm using. Tried all kinds of configurations between those and on-board but still get this black screen of death. I read somewhere that deleting the video drivers would reset the configurations. I logged into safe mode (which works on one monitor), and uninstalled the display drivers. Still no luck and when I booted back into safe mode, it wanted to install new hardware and the display adapters weren't there as expected. Anyone have any ideas? A fresh install would be a pain and I might be getting my old board back from RMA soon so not sure I want to go through with that just yet. Only thing I can think of is to continue to try other combinations like physically removing the graphics cards. They are both EVGA 8600 cards and the windows boot screen does display fwiw.

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• SNTP, why do you mock me?!

  - by Matthew

  --- SOLVED SEE EDIT 5 --- My w2k3 pdc is configured as an authoritative time server. Other servers on the domain are able to sync with it if I manually specify it in the peer list. By if I try to sync from flags 'domhier', it wont resync; I get the error message The computer did not resync because no time data was available. I can only think that it is not querying the pdc. I also tried setting the registry as shown here (http://support.microsoft.com/kb/193825). But no luck (I have not restarted the server, I am hoping I wont have to since it is the pdc) If you would like any further information on my config, please let me know. Edit 1: I have set the w32time service config AnnouceFlags to 0x05 as documented here www.krr.org/microsoft/authoritative_time_servers.php and a number of other places. The PDC syncs to an external time source (ntp). I can get the stripchart on the client from the pdc no problems. The loginserver for the host I am trying to configure is shown as the pdc. Edit 2: The packet capture has revealed something interesting. The client is contacting the correct server, and getting a valid response but I still get the same error message. Here is the NTP excerpt from the client to the server Flags: 11.. .... = Leap Indicator: alarm condition (clock not synchronized) (3) ..01 1... = Version number: NTP Version 3 (3) .... .011 = Mode: client (3) Peer Clock Stratum: unspecified or unavailable (0) Peer Polling Interval: 10 (1024 sec) Peer Clock Precision: 0.015625 sec Root Delay: 0.0000 sec Root Dispersion: 1.0156 sec Reference Clock ID: NULL Reference Clock Update Time: Sep 1, 2010 05:29:39.8170 UTC Originate Time Stamp: NULL Receive Time Stamp: NULL Transmit Time Stamp: Nov 8, 2010 01:44:44.1450 UTC Key ID: DC080000 Here is the reply NTP excerpt from the server to the client Flags: 0x1c 00.. .... = Leap Indicator: no warning (0) ..01 1... = Version number: NTP Version 3 (3) .... .100 = Mode: server (4) Peer Clock Stratum: secondary reference (3) Peer Polling Interval: 10 (1024 sec) Peer Clock Precision: 0.00001 sec Root Delay: 0.1484 sec Root Dispersion: 0.1060 sec Reference Clock ID: 192.189.54.17 Reference Clock Update Time: Nov 8,2010 01:18:04.6223 UTC Originate Time Stamp: Nov 8, 2010 01:44:44.1450 UTC Receive Time Stamp: Nov 8, 2010 01:46:44.1975 UTC Transmit Time Stamp: Nov 8, 2010 01:46:44.1975 UTC Key ID: 00000000 Edit 3: dumpreg for paramters on pdc Value Name Value Type Value Data ------------------------------------------------------------------------ ServiceMain REG_SZ SvchostEntry_W32Time ServiceDll REG_EXPAND_SZ C:\WINDOWS\system32\w32time.dll NtpServer REG_SZ bhvmmgt01.domain.com,0x1 Type REG_SZ AllSync and config Value Name Value Type Value Data -------------------------------------------------------------------------- LastClockRate REG_DWORD 156249 MinClockRate REG_DWORD 155860 MaxClockRate REG_DWORD 156640 FrequencyCorrectRate REG_DWORD 4 PollAdjustFactor REG_DWORD 5 LargePhaseOffset REG_DWORD 50000000 SpikeWatchPeriod REG_DWORD 900 HoldPeriod REG_DWORD 5 LocalClockDispersion REG_DWORD 10 EventLogFlags REG_DWORD 2 PhaseCorrectRate REG_DWORD 7 MinPollInterval REG_DWORD 6 MaxPollInterval REG_DWORD 10 UpdateInterval REG_DWORD 100 MaxNegPhaseCorrection REG_DWORD -1 MaxPosPhaseCorrection REG_DWORD -1 AnnounceFlags REG_DWORD 5 MaxAllowedPhaseOffset REG_DWORD 300 FileLogSize REG_DWORD 10000000 FileLogName REG_SZ C:\Windows\Temp\w32time.log FileLogEntries REG_SZ 0-300 Edit 4: Here are some notables from the ntp log file on the pdc. ReadConfig: failed. Use default one 'TimeJumpAuditOffset'=0x00007080 DomainHierachy: we are now the domain root. ClockDispln: we're a reliable time service with no time source: LS: 0, TN: 864000000000, WAIT: 86400000 Edit 5: F&^%ING SOLVED! Ok so I was reading about people with similar problems, some mentioned w32time server settings applied by GPO, but I tested this early on and there were no settings applied to this service by gpo. Others said that the reporting software may not be picking up some old gpo settings applied. So I searched the registry for all w32time instaces. I came across an interesting key that indicated there may be some other ntp software running on the server. Sure enough, I look through the installed software list and there the little F*&%ER is. Uninstalled and now working like a dream. FFFFFFFUUUUUUUUUUUU

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