Search Results

Search found 4919 results on 197 pages for 'membership provider'.

Page 71/197 | < Previous Page | 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78  | Next Page >

  • Postfix with relayhost - relay access denied for bounces

    - by Alex
    I have set up a Postfix Mailserver, outgoing mail is being sent through a smarthost/relayhost which requires authentification. That works great, internal clients can send to foreign recipients though this relayhost. However, when an external mail for a local, non-existent user arrives at the server, postfix tries to send a non-delivery notification to the sender. This mail is also sent through the relayhost obviously, but it fails with error 554 5.7.1 : Relay access denied This gets logged to the mail.log: Nov 9 10:26:42 mail postfix/local[5051]: 6568CC1383: to=<[email protected]>, relay=local, delay=0.13, delays=0.02/0.02/0/0.09, dsn=5.1.1, status=bounced (unknown user: "test") Nov 9 10:26:42 mail postfix/cleanup[5045]: 85DF9BFECD: message-id=<[email protected]> Nov 9 10:26:42 mail postfix/qmgr[4912]: 85DF9BFECD: from=<>, size=3066, nrcpt=1 (queue active) Nov 9 10:26:42 mail postfix/bounce[5052]: 6568CC1383: sender non-delivery notification: 85DF9BFECD Nov 9 10:26:42 mail postfix/qmgr[4912]: 6568CC1383: removed Nov 9 10:26:43 mail postfix/smtp[5053]: 85DF9BFECD: to=<[email protected]>, relay=mail.provider.com[168.84.25.111]:587, delay=0.48, delays=0.02/0.01/0.26/0.18, dsn=5.7.1, status=bounced (host mail.provider.com[168.84.25.111] said: 554 5.7.1 <[email protected]>: Relay access denied (in reply to RCPT TO command)) Nov 9 10:26:43 mail postfix/qmgr[4912]: 85DF9BFECD: removed According to this error, I suppose that postfix does not login at the relayhost when sending those bounces. Why? Normal outgoing mail works just fine. This is how my main.cf looks like: http://pastebin.com/Uu1Dryxy And of course /etc/postfix/sasl_password contains the correct credentials for the relayhost. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Overriding some DNS entries in BIND for internal networks

    - by Remy Blank
    I have an internal network with a DNS server running BIND, connected to the internet through a single gateway. My domain "example.com" is managed by an external DNS provider. Some of the entries in that domain, say "host1.example.com" and "host2.example.com", as well as the top-level entry "example.com", point to the public IP address of the gateway. I would like hosts located on the internal network to resolve "host1.example.com", "host2.example.com" and "example.com" to internal IP addresses instead of that of the gateway. Other hosts like "otherhost.example.com" should still be resolved by the external DNS provider. I have succeeded in doing that for the host1 and host2 entries, by defining two single-entry zones in BIND for "host1.example.com" and "host2.example.com". However, if I add a zone for "example.com", all queries for that domain are resolved by my local DNS server, and e.g. querying "otherhost.example.com" results in an error. Is it possible to configure BIND to override only some entries of a domain, and to resolve the rest recursively?

    Read the article

  • How to set up port forwarding on a dedicated server running CentOS 5.4 to use Ubuntu 9.0.4

    - by mairtinh
    The basic situation that I have is a dedicated server running CentOS 5.4 At the moment I have one VM running Ubuntu 9.0.4. Later on, I will want to add another VM running Windows Server 2003 but at the moment I am focusing on getting Ubuntu up and running. The Ubuntu installation is working fine but I'm seriously struggling to get port forwarding working so that I can access websites to be hosted on the Ubuntu VM. As a newbie to Linux, I am confused about the relationship between IPTables and VMWare's own port forwarding. Here's what I've tried so far. The IP of my server is xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx and the provider support have told me that the subnet mask is 255.255.255.0, the gateway address is xxx.xxx.xxx.1 and the network address is xxx.xxx.xxx.0. (Those latter two surprise me a bit, I expected private gateway/network address rather than public ones.) First of all I tried Bridged Networking but had no success at all in communicating with the machine other than through the VMware console. I tried pinging it from the host (using ssh into the host) but no joy; also no Inernet access from the VM. I changed the interfaces configuration from DHCP to Static, using a static address of 192.168.1.100 and setting the gateway to xxx.xxx.xxx.1 as advised by the provider. No real difference, still cannot ping the guest from the host or vice versa and no Internet access from the guest. Then I tried NAT. The host automatically set the IP address to 192.168.132.128 with a gateway of 192.168.132.2 Now the guest has Internet access out and when I do a VNC to the host and open Firefox with 192.168.132.128 I can see the hosted website okay but I still cannot get into it from outside. I mentioned that I'm a bit confused about IPtables and VMware port forwarding, what I meant is that I'm not sure whether IPtable forwarding should be set to the IP address of the guest interface (192.168.132.128 in this case) or the gateway address 192.168.132.2 . I have a feeling that I'm missing something very simple here, can anybody tell me what it is?

    Read the article

  • Remote SQL server connection failure

    - by Sevki
    I am trying to connect to my MSSQL server 2008 web instance and im failing horribly... i get the error 26 and before you jump on me i have done these Check the spelling of the SQL Server instance name that is specified in the connection string. Use the SQL Server Surface Area Configuration tool to enable SQL Server to accept remote connections over the TCP or named pipes protocols. For more information about the SQL Server Surface Area Configuration Tool, see Surface Area Configuration for Services and Connections. Make sure that you have configured the firewall on the server instance of SQL Server to open ports for SQL Server and the SQL Server Browser port (UDP 1434). Make sure that the SQL Server Browser service is started on the server. in addition to theese i have disabled the firewall completely and tried other ports nothing works the same credentials work on the server but not on the client. this is the exact error message A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) (.Net SqlClient Data Provider) Can anybody help?

    Read the article

  • How to Load Balance 2 Internet Connections on a Windows 7 machine?

    - by Jimmy Chandra
    It's sort of related to this particular question, but that one is on Mac. I am looking for similar solution on Windows 7. I have 2 network connections: (Connection A) Wireless terminal connecting to ISP A (3G / EVDO internet provider) (Connection B) Broadband wired connection connecting to ISP B (Cable internet provider) Both has access to the internet. When I try connecting to a website and checking the networking tab on my Task Manager, I only see the network traffic being routed to only Connection A. Is there a way to make the computer to utilize both network (in a sense using all the bandwidth available from both the Cable ISP and the 3G / EVDO ISP) at the same time? If so, what do I need to do to set this up ... on Windows 7? Here is a bit more info on my network connections (ipconfig /all): PPP adapter Wireless Terminal: IPv4: aa.bb.ccc.ddd(preferred) Subnet mask: 255.255.255.255 Default Gateway: 0.0.0.0 DNS: aa.ee.f.ggg aa.ee.f.hhh Primary Wins: jjj.ii.k.l Secondary Wins: jjj.ii.k.m Ethernet adapter LAN: IPv4: 192.168.1.100 (connected to a router by wired that itself connect to a cable modem) subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Default gateway: 192.168.1.1 (the wireless router) DHCP: 192.168.1.1 (the wireless router) DNS: xxx.yy.zz.ww rr.sss.t.uuu For my own privacy, I don't believe the actual number matters, the patterns are representative of the ip numbering scheme...

    Read the article

  • Msg 10054, Level 20, State 0, Line 0 Error when altering a stored procedure to add a couple of curso

    - by doug_w
    We have a home-rolled backup stored procedure that uses xp_cmdshell to create and clean up database backups. We have an instance that is 2005 sp3 that we are trying to deploy this script to. I am at a bit of a loss for why it is not working. When I execute the create it runs for about 30 seconds and yields the following error: Msg 10054, Level 20, State 0, Line 0 A transport-level error has occurred when sending the request to the server. (provider: TCP Provider, error: 0 - An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host.) In my tinkering I discovered that by removing the cursors that actually do the work it will allow me to create the stored procedure (not very helpful for me though). If I add the cursors back in using an alter the error returns. I would be curious if someone has experienced this problem and knows of a solution or work around. I am not opposed to posting the source, it is just lengthy. Things I have checked: Error Logs No dump files in the log directory Thanks in advance for the help.

    Read the article

  • Loading dependencies for custom puppet functions

    - by Ben Smith
    I have written a custom puppet function, which is working fine, that depends on the cloudservers gem (a Rackspace client library). This is fine if I have pre-installed the gem on a server before running puppet but totally breaks if I have not installed the gem as the function seems to be run during the 'compilation' sweep, well before my package definition is realised. Here's what my .pp looks like, with get_hosts the function that requires the cloudservers gem. package { "rubygems": ensure => installed, provider => "gem"; } package { "cloudservers": ensure => installed, provider => "gem", require => Package["rubygems"]; } class hosts::us { $hosts = get_hosts("us") hostentry { $hosts: } } define hostentry() { $parts = split($name, ',') $address = $parts[0] $ip = $parts[1] $aliases = $parts[2] host{ $address: ip => $ip, host_aliases => $aliases } } Is there a way to stop the function getting run so early, or at least having it's run depend up the library being installed. Alternatively, is there a way that I can add dependencies somewhere in the functions folder that will be available to the function?

    Read the article

  • Cannot connect to remote mail server for sending emails in ASP.NET

    - by Dave
    I want to migrate a web application from a Windows Server 2003 to a Windows Server 2008 R2. All works fine except sending emails from the application. If I configure the application to use the smtp server on "localhost" it works, but changing it to the "real" host name (e.g. mail.example.org) no mail is sent. The error message says, that the remote server needs a secure connection or smtp authentication. But since it works when using "localhost" instead of the host name I doubt that this is the problem. Also it's unlikely a problem with the mail server, I also tried it with another one. So for me it seems like the firewall is blocking the outgoing connection to the mail server. I tried to open port 25, but it still did not work. Maybe I just did it the wrong way. Update: For clarifying my setup: I have a Windows Server 2008 R2 with hMailServer installed (set up for some of the hosted domains) For the website I'm talking about I need to use an external mail server (totally different hosting provider) Apparently I was a bit off the track. It seems like it works when using connecting to the local mail server either with the host name "localhost" or "mail.somedomain.com" (while somedomain.com is set up in my mail server). But when using the host name of the external mail server ("mail.externaldomain.com") it seems like it tries to connect to the local server again, although this domain is not set up in the mail server. Thanks to Evan Anderson for the tip to use telnet - why I have not thought of it myself?... :-) Note, the website www.externaldomain.com is hosted on my server but the DNS entries are maintained by the other hosting provider. "externaldomain.com" is the only entry which points to my server all other records (MX, subdomains) are pointing to the other server. So I think the question is now, how do i bring my server to connect to the external mailserver. Do I have to configure this in my mail server or is it a windows server thing?

    Read the article

  • Tidy up old Windows Server Backup snapshots

    - by dty
    Hi, I'm running wbadmin from a scheduled job, backing up my C: and D: drives to my E: and (I believe!) including the system state: wbadmin start backup -backuptarget:e: -include:c:,d: -allCritical -noVerify -quiet I'd like to delete old backups, but I'm concerned that all the information I can find says to use wbadmin to delete old system state backups, and vssadmin to delete other backups. As far as I know, my backups ARE system state backups, but are using VSS on E: for storage, so I'm worried about trying either of these techniques for fear of losing all my backups. This is a home network, so I don't have a spare server to test this on. I'm also happy to simply restrict the space used on E:, but I can't make sense of the difference between the /for and /on parameters of the relevant vssadmin command. For reference, here's the output of vssadmin show shadows: Contents of shadow copy set ID: {xxxxxxxx-xxxx-xxxx-xxxx-xxxxxxxxxxxx} Contained 1 shadow copies at creation time: 07/01/2011 08:12:05 Shadow Copy ID: {xxxxxxxx-xxxx-xxxx-xxxx-xxxxxxxxxxxx} Original Volume: (E:)\\?\Volume{xxxxxxxx-xxxx-xxxx-xxxx-xxxxxxxxxxxx}\ Shadow Copy Volume: \\?\GLOBALROOT\Device\HarddiskVolumeShadowCopy83 Originating Machine: x.y.com Service Machine: x.y.com Provider: 'Microsoft Software Shadow Copy provider 1.0' Type: DataVolumeRollback Attributes: Persistent, No auto release, No writers, Differential [... repeated a lot...] vssadmin show shadowstorage: Shadow Copy Storage association For volume: (C:)\\?\Volume{xxxxxxxx-xxxx-xxxx-xxxx-xxxxxxxxxxxx}\ Shadow Copy Storage volume: (C:)\\?\Volume{xxxxxxxx-xxxx-xxxx-xxxx-xxxxxxxxxxxx}\ Used Shadow Copy Storage space: 0 B Allocated Shadow Copy Storage space: 0 B Maximum Shadow Copy Storage space: 5.859 GB Shadow Copy Storage association For volume: (D:)\\?\Volume{xxxxxxxx-xxxx-xxxx-xxxx-xxxxxxxxxxxx}\ Shadow Copy Storage volume: (D:)\\?\Volume{xxxxxxxx-xxxx-xxxx-xxxx-xxxxxxxxxxxx}\ Used Shadow Copy Storage space: 0 B Allocated Shadow Copy Storage space: 0 B Maximum Shadow Copy Storage space: 40.317 GB Shadow Copy Storage association For volume: (E:)\\?\Volume{xxxxxxxx-xxxx-xxxx-xxxx-xxxxxxxxxxxx}\ Shadow Copy Storage volume: (E:)\\?\Volume{xxxxxxxx-xxxx-xxxx-xxxx-xxxxxxxxxxxx}\ Used Shadow Copy Storage space: 168.284 GB Allocated Shadow Copy Storage space: 171.15 GB Maximum Shadow Copy Storage space: UNBOUNDED wbadmin get versions: Backup time: 07/01/2011 03:00 Backup target: 1394/USB Disk labeled xxxxxxxxx(E:) Version identifier: 01/07/2011-03:00 Can Recover: Volume(s), File(s), Application(s), Bare Metal Recovery, System State [... repeated a lot...]

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to have DisplayLink USB display hotplugging with Xorg 1.13 on kernel 3.4?

    - by lkraav
    keithp seems to be the only one on the interwebs to have written anything about the subject and he worked with 3.5_rc. I don't want to go above 3.4 at the moment for various stability reasons and am trying to see whether I can get this to work. Xorg 1.13 recognizes the display on connection, "udl" module is loaded, xorg-video-modesetting driver also loads, display lights up. So everything seems to be good. I emerged xrandr-9999 (not many changes on top of 1.3.5): $ xrandr --listproviders Providers: number : 2 Provider 0: id: 69 cap: 0x0 crtcs: 2 outputs: 4 associated providers: 0 name:Intel Provider 1: id: 338 cap: 0x0 crtcs: 1 outputs: 1 associated providers: 0 name:modesetting But I can't get any further, just like this guy: $ xrandr --setprovideroutputsource 338 69 X Error of failed request: BadValue (integer parameter out of range for operation) Major opcode of failed request: 139 (RANDR) Minor opcode of failed request: 35 () Value in failed request: 0x152 Serial number of failed request: 11 Current serial number in output stream: 12 $ xrandr --setprovideroutputsource 1 0 X Error of failed request: 148 Major opcode of failed request: 139 (RANDR) Minor opcode of failed request: 35 () Serial number of failed request: 11 Current serial number in output stream: 12 Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Can't authorize a server for Amazon RDS

    - by Parris
    We are attempting to slowly migrate a website over to AWS among other things. We decided the first thing to move was the database. We have some dedicated server with a different hosting provider. We only have one IP. I am having trouble authorizing the ip so that the old server can connect to RDS. It simply hangs for a while while using the mysql cli, then responds: ERROR 2003 (HY000): Can't connect to MySQL server on 'db.address.us-east-1.rds.amazonaws.com' (110) It did work on my laptop though. I am not quite sure what is wrong. I have a feeling I don't quite understand CIDR/IP. I simply took the ip address and tacked on /32 at the end. Then I gleaned some information that it also has to do with subnet mask? ifconfig reports: 255.255.255.0 I found a calculator and the IP changed a bit and had /24 at the end. That still didn't work. One other note... perhaps i dont know enough about the differences between OS. The hosting provider is using centOS, while our development machines are all ubuntu. Any insight would be extremely helpful! THANKS :)

    Read the article

  • MX setup for a domain registrar and web host with the same domain name

    - by Honus Wagner
    I have a client that has registered their domain through a registrar, then signed up for hosting on through a different provider, but used the same domain for said provider (didn't re-register the domain, I think the declaration of domain on the host was for CNAME records specifically). The registrar properly routes his emails at his domain name (email hosted by Google), but the problem is, on the hosted site, when an administration action occurs, he is supposed to get an email stating so. The site is sending him an email with PHP and he never receives an email when its to his address with the same domain name; all other domain addresses work just fine. I have to imagine its something misconfigured on the host. From what I can assume, I think that the host sees that the to and from domains are the same, and it decides not to route the email externally. Currently, the registrar uses the proper nameservers for the host, and there are MX records on both the registrar and the host (they are identical entries). I hope I've been clear in my question. If you need further clarification, or additional information of any kind, I can provide it. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • E-mail duplication problem

    - by Gavin Osborn
    I have taken out a hosting agreement with a well respected hosting provider for a couple of internet facing servers. We have deployed several applications to these servers which send various e-mails back to us for reporting purposes. Context: Each server runs Windows Server 2003 R2 with the IIS 6.0 SMTP service installed. Each application is configured to use the local instance of IIS to send e-mails. The external IP address of each server is mapped to a particular domain eg: server1.mydomain.com server2.mydomain.com These e-mails are sent from a company domain name and not the domain name of the hosted servers (eg: [email protected]) Symptoms: A small number (<1%) of e-mails sent from these applications appear to be duplicated. These are exact duplicate in terms of both content and message headers. The Fix: I contacted my hosting provider and they told me this was a common problem & instructed me to: Change the HELO response of your mail server service to a FQDN (server1.mydomain.com && server2.mydomain.com) Create a DNS A record that resolves the FQDN of your mail server to the primary IP address of your sending mail server. Create a PTR record that resolves your primary IP address back to your mail server's FQDN In the sending domain's (mycompanydomain.com) DNS zone file, add the appropriate SPF record for your hosted servers. eg: v=spf1 a mx include:mydomain -all The Problem Continues: I made all of the changes as prescribed above, I was a little hesitant because these steps seemed to suggest they were more for stopping your messages getting blocked than they were for stopping them from being duplicated - but I am certainly no expert in these matters. It has been 5 days since I applied this fix and the problem still persists. I am certain that these problems are not a bug in the software because they are 4 different applications installed on 2 different servers, all of whom are exhibiting this strange behaviour. This behaviour has also not been seen in our UAT environment. Were my hosts correct to suggest this fix? If not, does anyone know what could be the cause of this problem? Many Thanks

    Read the article

  • Site resolves fine without "www", "www" creates database error

    - by PatrickS
    Working with BOA ( Barracuda / Octopus / Aegir ) , I've installed a few Drupal sites without any problems and following the same process for all. BOA is running on Nginx. All sites are going thru Cloudflare's network , where I set the same DNS settings. A example.com points to IPADDRESS A www points to IPADDRESS the nameservers of each domain are pointing to Cloudflare's respective nameservers. It all works , except for one site that works perfectly without "www" , but with "www" returns the typical database error if Drupal can't find the site's database. Site off-line The site is currently not available due to technical problems. Please try again later. Thank you for your understanding. If you are the maintainer of this site, please check your database settings in the settings.php file and ensure that your hosting provider's database server is running. For more help, see the handbook, or contact your hosting provider. In BOA, all sites have the same alias, basically a symlink, redirecting like this... www.example.com - example.com

    Read the article

  • IPSec VPN using ZyWALL IPSec VPN Client: unable to connect from some providers

    - by Reshi
    I'm trying to configure an IPSec VPN to one company from my home. The company has SANET internet service provider. I was able to create a VPN connection from another company that has the same internet service provider. The problem begins when I'm trying to connect from another ISP like Orange or Telekom. Here is the log from ZyWall: 20120816 10:06:18:359 Default (SA Gateway-P1) SEND phase 1 Main Mode [SA] [VID] [VID] [VID] [VID] [VID] 20120816 10:06:18:375 Default (SA Gateway-P1) RECV phase 1 Main Mode [SA] [VID] [VID] [VID] [VID] [VID] [VID] [VID] [VID] 20120816 10:06:18:390 Default (SA Gateway-P1) SEND phase 1 Main Mode [KEY_EXCH] [NONCE] [NAT_D] [NAT_D] 20120816 10:06:18:718 Default (SA Gateway-P1) RECV phase 1 Main Mode [KEY_EXCH] [NONCE] [NAT_D] [NAT_D] 20120816 10:06:18:734 Default (SA Gateway-P1) SEND phase 1 Main Mode [HASH] [ID] 20120816 10:06:18:750 Default (SA Gateway-P1) RECV phase 1 Main Mode [HASH] [ID] 20120816 10:06:18:750 Default phase 1 done: initiator id [email protected], responder id 111.112.113.114 20120816 10:06:18:765 Default (SA Gateway-Tunnel-P2) SEND phase 2 Quick Mode [HASH] [SA] [KEY_EXCH] [NONCE] [ID] [ID] 20120816 10:06:18:953 Default (SA Gateway-Tunnel-P2) RECV phase 2 Quick Mode [HASH] [SA] [KEY_EXCH] [NONCE] [ID] [ID] 20120816 10:06:18:953 Default (SA Gateway-Tunnel-P2) SEND phase 2 Quick Mode [HASH] 20120816 10:06:48:968 Default (SA Gateway-P1) SEND Informational [HASH] [NOTIFY] type DPD_R_U_THERE 20120816 10:06:48:984 Default (SA Gateway-P1) RECV Informational [HASH] [NOTIFY] type DPD_R_U_THERE_ACK ZyWall informs me that the tunnel was opened. But I can't ping or access any computer in the network. My configuration at home: ISP: Orange Optical connection Terminal: GPON OPTICAL NETWORK TERMINAL G-25E Router: TPLink TL-WR941N --> SPI Firewall Enabled --> VPN - IPSEC Passthrough Enabled I was wondering if the problem could not be on ISP side (that he blocks somehow this connection because in SANET ISP it worked fine) or even in my terminal or router. What could I check? Where could be the problem ?

    Read the article

  • Using fedora 17 commandline 'mail' program cannot send to hotmail

    - by Eric Leschinski
    I am trying to use the console in Fedora 17 to send an automated email to myself. I run this: echo "email content" | mail -s "blah" [email protected] It works fine, google treats it as a spam email, but when you mark it not spam everything is cool. For Hotmail there are policies to prevent the email from being sent. I do this: echo "email content" | mail -s "blah" [email protected] And the email returns as undeliverable, the email does not even appear in the spam folder and I get this as a response: ----- Transcript of session follows ----- ... while talking to mx3.hotmail.com.: >>> MAIL From:<[email protected]> SIZE=685 <<< 550 DY-001 (BAY0-MC3-F8) Unfortunately, messages from 184.90.101.28 weren't sent. Please contact your +Internet service provider. You can tell them that Hotmail does not relay dynamically-assigned IP ranges. +You can also refer your provider to http://mail.live.com/mail/troubleshooting.aspx#errors. 554 5.0.0 Service unavailable So apparently hotmail doesn't like spammers so much, they they are blocking anything with a dynamically assigned IP range. Google does not do this. What is the easiest way to just get around this and send an email to hotmail and end up in their spam folder to be unblocked later by the user?

    Read the article

  • Can't authorize a server for Amazon RDS

    - by Parris
    We are attempting to slowly migrate a website over to AWS among other things. We decided the first thing to move was the database. We have some dedicated server with a different hosting provider. We only have one IP. I am having trouble authorizing the ip so that the old server can connect to RDS. It simply hangs for a while while using the mysql cli, then responds: ERROR 2003 (HY000): Can't connect to MySQL server on 'db.address.us-east-1.rds.amazonaws.com' (110) It did work on my laptop though. I am not quite sure what is wrong. I have a feeling I don't quite understand CIDR/IP. I simply took the ip address and tacked on /32 at the end. Then I gleaned some information that it also has to do with subnet mask? ifconfig reports: 255.255.255.0 I found a calculator and the IP changed a bit and had /24 at the end. That still didn't work. One other note... perhaps i dont know enough about the differences between OS. The hosting provider is using centOS, while our development machines are all ubuntu. Any insight would be extremely helpful! THANKS :)

    Read the article

  • iptables to block non-VPN-traffic if not through tun0

    - by dacrow
    I have a dedicated Webserver running Debian 6 and some Apache, Tomcat, Asterisk and Mail-stuff. Now we needed to add VPN support for a special program. We installed OpenVPN and registered with a VPN provider. The connection works well and we have a virtual tun0 interface for tunneling. To archive the goal for only tunneling a single program through VPN, we start the program with sudo -u username -g groupname command and added a iptables rule to mark all traffic coming from groupname iptables -t mangle -A OUTPUT -m owner --gid-owner groupname -j MARK --set-mark 42 Afterwards we tell iptables to to some SNAT and tell ip route to use special routing table for marked traffic packets. Problem: if the VPN failes, there is a chance that the special to-be-tunneled program communicates over the normal eth0 interface. Desired solution: All marked traffic should not be allowed to go directly through eth0, it has to go through tun0 first. I tried the following commands which didn't work: iptables -A OUTPUT -m owner --gid-owner groupname ! -o tun0 -j REJECT iptables -A OUTPUT -m owner --gid-owner groupname -o eth0 -j REJECT It might be the problem, that the above iptable-rules didn't work due to the fact, that the packets are first marked, then put into tun0 and then transmitted by eth0 while they are still marked.. I don't know how to de-mark them after in tun0 or to tell iptables, that all marked packet may pass eth0, if they where in tun0 before or if they going to the gateway of my VPN provider. Does someone has any idea to a solution? Some config infos: iptables -nL -v --line-numbers -t mangle Chain OUTPUT (policy ACCEPT 11M packets, 9798M bytes) num pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination 1 591K 50M MARK all -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 owner GID match 1005 MARK set 0x2a 2 82812 6938K CONNMARK all -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 owner GID match 1005 CONNMARK save iptables -nL -v --line-numbers -t nat Chain POSTROUTING (policy ACCEPT 393 packets, 23908 bytes) num pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination 1 15 1052 SNAT all -- * tun0 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 mark match 0x2a to:VPN_IP ip rule add from all fwmark 42 lookup 42 ip route show table 42 default via VPN_IP dev tun0

    Read the article

  • Mailman delivery troubles

    - by stanigator
    I have apparently posted at the wrong place (superuser.com) for this question, so I'll just repost it here. Hope those of you who read both sites are not going to be offended. It's about mailing list management software called Mailman from GNU. Here are the details: Hosting provider: Vlexofree Domain: www.sysil.com with Google Apps Mailing List created from hosting cpanel: [email protected] I have registered a list of subscribers, and tried sending an email to [email protected]. I got the following error message: Delivery to the following recipient failed permanently: [email protected] Technical details of permanent failure: Google tried to deliver your message, but it was rejected by the recipient domain. We recommend contacting the other email provider for further information about the cause of this error. The error that the other server returned was: 550 550-5.1.1 The email account that you tried to reach does not exist. Please try 550-5.1.1 double-checking the recipient's email address for typos or 550-5.1.1 unnecessary spaces. Learn more at 550 5.1.1 http://mail.google.com/support/bin/answer.py?answer=6596 23si6479194ewy.44 (state 14). ----- Original message ----- MIME-Version: 1.0 Received: by 10.216.90.136 with SMTP id e8mr1469147wef.110.1264220118960; Fri, 22 Jan 2010 20:15:18 -0800 (PST) Date: Fri, 22 Jan 2010 20:15:18 -0800 Message-ID: <[email protected]> Subject: From: Stanley Lee <[email protected]> To: [email protected] Content-Type: multipart/alternative; boundary=0016e6dab0931bccc3047dcd2f1e - Show quoted text - Is there any way of fixing this problem? I would like to be able to have this mailing list to work through my hosting and domain. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2005 SE SP3 on Windows Server 2008 R2 x64 premature query disconnections

    - by southernpost
    New Dell PowerEdge R910, 4x8 Intel X7560, 192GB RAM, hardware NUMA, local RAID, Broadcom NetExtreme II multiport NIC, unteamed, TCP Offload disabled, RSS disabled, NetDMA disabled, Hyperthreading disabled. SQL Server 2005 SE x64 SP3 on Windows Server 2008 R2 EE x64. No other apps on server. Max Mem = 180GB, Max DOP = 4. Existing Windows Server 2003 R2 EE x64 app server connecting to Dell via firewall using SQL Authenticated logins. Symptoms: Intermittent errors at the app server: A transport-level error has occurred when sending the request to the server. (provider: TCP Provider, error: 0 - An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host.) Findings: Running queries from SSMS located on another machine within the same domain as the SQL Server run without error. SQLIO showed good performance. Windows and SQL logs show no related messages. Microsoft reveiwed PssDiag trace and stated that "We are not seeing timeouts from SQL Side. The queries bring run against the database are timing out within 9secs. This is a database connectivity error." "we can also see from the AttnSeq column that we are also not seeing any Attentions from the SQL Side.". Dell has confirmed that we are using the latest Broadcom drivers.

    Read the article

  • iptables to block VPN-traffic if not through tun0

    - by dacrow
    I have a dedicated Webserver running Debian 6 and some Apache, Tomcat, Asterisk and Mail-stuff. Now we needed to add VPN support for a special program. We installed OpenVPN and registered with a VPN provider. The connection works well and we have a virtual tun0 interface for tunneling. To archive the goal for only tunneling a single program through VPN, we start the program with sudo -u username -g groupname command and added a iptables rule to mark all traffic coming from groupname iptables -t mangle -A OUTPUT -m owner --gid-owner groupname -j MARK --set-mark 42 Afterwards we tell iptables to to some SNAT and tell ip route to use special routing table for marked traffic packets. Problem: if the VPN failes, there is a chance that the special to-be-tunneled program communicates over the normal eth0 interface. Desired solution: All marked traffic should not be allowed to go directly through eth0, it has to go through tun0 first. I tried the following commands which didn't work: iptables -A OUTPUT -m owner --gid-owner groupname ! -o tun0 -j REJECT iptables -A OUTPUT -m owner --gid-owner groupname -o eth0 -j REJECT It might be the problem, that the above iptable-rules didn't work due to the fact, that the packets are first marked, then put into tun0 and then transmitted by eth0 while they are still marked.. I don't know how to de-mark them after in tun0 or to tell iptables, that all marked packet may pass eth0, if they where in tun0 before or if they going to the gateway of my VPN provider. Does someone has any idea to a solution? Some config infos: iptables -nL -v --line-numbers -t mangle Chain OUTPUT (policy ACCEPT 11M packets, 9798M bytes) num pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination 1 591K 50M MARK all -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 owner GID match 1005 MARK set 0x2a 2 82812 6938K CONNMARK all -- * * 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 owner GID match 1005 CONNMARK save iptables -nL -v --line-numbers -t nat Chain POSTROUTING (policy ACCEPT 393 packets, 23908 bytes) num pkts bytes target prot opt in out source destination 1 15 1052 SNAT all -- * tun0 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 mark match 0x2a to:VPN_IP ip rule add from all fwmark 42 lookup 42 ip route show table 42 default via VPN_IP dev tun0

    Read the article

  • Login failed for user 'XXX' on the mirrored sql server

    - by hp17
    Hello, We have 4 web servers that host our asp.net (3.5) application. Randomly, we get error messages like : 1) "Login failed for user 'userid'" 2) "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server)" we are running sql2005 and have a principle and a mirror db (sync). When these exceptions are thrown, I look at the SQL error logs on the mirrored db and noticed the failed login messages in there. The principle db is running fine and the other web apps are working great. this will happen for maybe 10 min, then the app pool recycles and it starts hitting the principle db again. Is there a configuration I have incorrect? my theory is that our principle db is forwarding the request to the mirror, but that should never happen. any help??

    Read the article

  • RouterLess, house-wired network using multiple powerline adapters

    - by Cliff Arnell
    related to the 'old days' of one ethernet cable tapped with Ts for each monitor.... my question might be very simple... or not. I have an over-the-air internet provider with a wire dish with a powered transceiver and cat5 cable out of the providers supplied modem. I'm presently connecting the output of the modem into my wireless router which sends the internet signal all over the house. Standard stuff, I believe. My Question. Can I just connect the output of the modem into 1 powerline adapter and tie all my equipment such as computer, printer, laptop, Tivo recorder, etc. into 1-each local powerline adapters located near each devices resulting in a 'house-wired' network and no router? I'm bothered by the idea that my over-the-air provider might be using something in my router to establish and keep my IP connection alive. I did have to configure the router for my IP, a router which, in my proposed scenario, would no longer exist. Thank you for your help.

    Read the article

  • then an error occurred during the login process - Connection Error 233

    - by scott brunner
    We have SQL Server 2008 installed on 64Bit Windows Server 2003. When we try connect to the local SQL Server using SQL Server Management Studio at the console, we get the error: A connection was successfully established with the server, but then an error occurred during the login process. provider: Shared Memory Provider, error: 0 - No process is on the other end of the pipe. When we try TCP from same local SSMS to local server, we get the same error but intead of the pipe message its something like "connection forcibly closed". Now, here is the strange part - we CAN connect to this SQL Server from any other machine on the network using SSMS. - AND - WE CAN'T connect to ANY SQL Server from the problem server. So it seems the SQL Server instance is fine and accepting remote connections. However, the SSMS on that machine will not connect to any SQL Server even remotely. When we try an ADO.NET connection from C# remotely we can connect, run that same code on the console of the trouble server and we get the same errors. How can this be solved?

    Read the article

  • How can I use my cell phone to establish a dial-up networking connection?

    - by gWiz
    I am using Windows 7 and have a BlackBerry with T-Mobile (U.S.). I have paired the phone with my computer over Bluetooth, which automatically creates a serial port for it. I am able to open the port in PuTTY and successfully issue AT commands to the modem, including dialing. However, while using Windows to create and establish a Dial-Up Networking connection, I get an error dialog stating "Error 678. The remote computer did not respond." In my testing, I also tried setting up a connection to dial a number connected to a phone. When attempting to connect over this connection, the phone does ring but the very moment I answer the call, my computer displays the above error dialog. What must be done to successfully establish such a PPP connection? Some special AT initialization string perhaps? To clarify, I'm not referring to the well-described and popular technique known as "tethering," in which the remote host of the data link is the mobile service provider. I am interested specifically in establishing direct data links with remote hosts other than my mobile service provider. Think old-school landline connection to your friend's computer or BBS. Edit 1 As grawity pointed out in comments, the missing piece of the puzzle is the actual modulator that is compatible with v-series protocols, which I expected to be built into the cellphone. So far the best only software alternative I could find is this experimental project. Edit 2 Found this forum discussion today. The participants state that there is no old-school modem in the BlackBerry. Edit 3 When I place a call in PuTTY with ATD, immediately after the call is answered (and the callee is initiating the handshake) the cellphone returns OK. This is not the expected behavior for establishing a data connection. The phone should reciprocate the handshake, and upon success return CONNECT. (Alternatively it should return BUSY or NO CARRIER, but never simply OK.) Windows DUN must be interpreting this as the "Error 678" I was seeing.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78  | Next Page >