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• Evaluating creation of GUI via file vs coding

  - by nevets1219

  I'm working on a utility that will be used to test the project I'm currently working on. What the utility will do is allow user to provide various inputs and it will sends out requests and provide the response as output. However, at this point the exact format (which input is required and what is optional) has yet to be fleshed out. In addition, coding in Swing is somewhat repetitive since the overall work is simple though this should be the safest route to go as I have more or less full control and every component can be tweaked as I want. I'm considering using a configuration file that's in XML to describe the GUI (at least one part of it) and then coding the event handling part (in addition to validation, etc). The GUI itself shouldn't be too complicated. For each type of request to make there's a tab for the request and within each tab are various inputs. There seems to be quite a few questions about this already but I'm not asking for a 3rd party library to do this. I'm looking to do this myself, since I don't think it'll be too overly complicated (hopefully). My main consideration for using this is re-usability (later on, for other projects) and for simplifying the GUI work. My question is: are there other pros/cons that I'm overlooking? Is it worth the (unknown) time to do this? I've built GUI in VB.NET and with Flex3 before.

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• PC boot: dl register and drive number

  - by kikou

  I read somewhere in the internet that, before jumping to 0x7c00, the BIOS loads into %dl the "drive number" of the booted device. But what is this "drive number"? Each device attached to the computer is assigned a number by the BIOS? If so, how can I know which number is a given device assigned to? Reading GRUB's source code I found when %dl has bits 0x80 and 0x70 set, it overwrites the whole register with 0x80. Why is that? Here is the code: jmp 3f /* grub-setup may overwrite this jump */ testb $0x80, %dl jz 2f 3: /* Ignore %dl different from 0-0x0f and 0x80-0x8f. */ testb $0x70, %dl jz 1f 2: movb $0x80, %dl 1: By the way. Is there any detailed resource on the boot process of PC's in the web? Specially about what the BIOS does before giving the control to the bootloader and also the standard codes used to communicate with it (like that "drive numer"). I was hoping to write my own bootloader and everything I found is a bit too vague, not technical enough to the point of informing of the exact state of the computer when my bootloader starts to run.

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• Checked and Unchecked operators don't seem to be working when...

  - by flockofcode

  1) Is UNCHECKED operator in effect only when expression inside UNCHECKED context uses an explicit cast ( such as byte b1=unchecked((byte)2000); ) and when conversion to particular type can happen implicitly? I’m assuming this since the following expression throws a compile time error: byte b1=unchecked(2000); //compile time error 2) a) Do CHECKED and UNCHECKED operators work only when resulting value of an expression or conversion is of an integer type? I’m assuming this since in the first example ( where double type is being converted to integer type ) CHECKED operator works as expected: double m = double.MaxValue; b=checked((byte)m); // reports an exception , while in second example ( where double type is being converted to a float type ) CHECKED operator doesn’t seem to be working. since it doesn't throw an exception: double m = double.MaxValue; float f = checked((float)m); // no exception thrown b) Why don’t the two operators also work with expressions where type of a resulting value is of floating-point type? 2) Next quote is from Microsoft’s site: The unchecked keyword is used to control the overflow-checking context for integral-type arithmetic operations and conversions I’m not sure I understand what exactly have expressions and conversions such as unchecked((byte)(100+200)); in common with integrals? Thank you

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• Can foreground threads be aborted on application shutdown in C#.Net?

  - by Cartman

  I inherited a c# winforms app (.NET 2.0) which creates a thread upon startup in a singleton class. This thread handles messages from a messaging topic (Tibco EMS). When the app is shutdown, the thread doesn't remain the the background? How is this possible? Is there something else happening that can abort this thread? Code snippet: public class Startup { public static void main(string [] args) { MySingletonClass.Instance.Init(); // do other things below Application.Run(new MainForm()); } public class MySingletonClass { // singleton code //.. //.. private Thread t; public void Init() { t = new Thread(new ThreadStart(poll)); } private void poll() { while(true} { // listen for messages and process but there is no break clause // exceptions are also handled within to ensure control doesnt go out } } Pls. don't write to tell me this is bad code. I know it and i was going to refactor it when i realised that the app actually shutdowns correctly inspite of this aberration. So i want to understand how this is possible. Thanks for your help

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• What is the best way to get a reference to a spring bean in the backend layers?

  - by java_pill

  I have two spring config files and I'm specifying them in my web.xml as in below. web.xml snippet .. <context-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value>WEB-INF/classes/domain-context.xml WEB-INF/classes/client-ws.xml</param-value> </context-param> <listener> <listener-class>org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener</listener-class> </listener> .. From my domain object I have to invoke a Web Service Client and in order to get a reference to the Web Service client I do this: ApplicationContext context = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext("client-ws.xml"); //b'cos I don't want to use WebApplicationContextUtils ProductServiceClient client = (ProductServiceClient) context.getBean("productClient"); .. client.find(prodID); //calls a Web Service .. However, I have concerns that looking up the client-ws.xml file and getting a reference to the ProductServiceClient bean is not efficient. I thought of getting it using WebApplicationContextUtils. However, I don't want my domain objects to have a dependency on the ServletContext (a web/control layer object) because WebApplicationContextUtils depends on ServletContext. What is the best way to get a reference to a spring bean in the backend layers? Thanks!

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• Help Me With This MS-Access Query

  - by yae

  I have 2 tables: "products" and "pieces" PRODUCTS idProd product price PIECES id idProdMain idProdChild quant idProdMain and idProdChild are related with the table: "products". Other considerations is that 1 product can have some pieces and 1 product can be a piece. Price product equal a sum of quantity * price of all their pieces. "Products" table contains all products (p EXAMPLE: TABLE PRODUCTS (idProd - product - price) 1 - Computer - 300€ 2 - Hard Disk - 100€ 3 - Memory - 50€ 4 - Main Board - 100€ 5 - Software - 50€ 6 - CDroms 100 un. - 30€ TABLE PIECES (id - idProdMain - idProdChild - Quant.) 1 - 1 - 2 - 1 2 - 1 - 3 - 2 3 - 1 - 4 - 1 WHAT I NEED? I need update the price of the main product when the price of the product child (piece) is changed. Following the previous example, if I change the price of this product "memory" (is a piece too) to 60€, then product "Computer" will must change his price to 320€ How I can do it using queries? Already I have tried this to obtain the price of the main product, but not runs. This query not returns any value: SELECT Sum(products.price*pieces.quant) AS Expr1 FROM products LEFT JOIN pieces ON (products.idProd = pieces.idProdChild) AND (products.idProd = pieces.idProdChild) AND (products.idProd = pieces.idProdMain) WHERE (((pieces.idProdMain)=5)); MORE INFO The table "products" contains all the products to sell that it is in the shop. The table "pieces" is to take a control of the compound products. To know those who are the products children. For example of compound product: computers. This product is composed by other products (motherboard, hard disk, memory, cpu, etc.)

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• [C# Thread] I'd like access to a share on the network!

  - by JustLooking

  Some Details I am working with VisualWebGUI, so this app is like ASP.NET, and it is deployed on IIS 7 (for testing) For my 'Web Site', Anonymous Authentication is set to a specific user (DomainName\DomainUser). In my web.config, I have impersonation on. This is how I got my app to access the share in the first place. The Problem There is a point in the the app where we use the Thread class, something similar to: Thread myThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(objInstance.PublicMethod)); myThread.Start(); What I have noticed is that I can write to my logs (text file on the share), everywhere throughout my code, except in the thread that I kicked off. I added some debugging output and what I see for users is: The thread that's kicked off: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Everywhere else in my code: DomainName\DomainUser (described in my IIS setup) OK, for some reason the thread gets a different user (NETWORK SERVICE). Fine. But, my share (and the actual log file) was given 'Full Control' to the NETWORK SERVICE user (this share resides on a different server than the one that my app is running). If NETWORK SERVICE has rights to this folder, why do I get access denied? Or is there a way to have the thread I kick off have the same user as the process?

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• Load ascx via jQuery

  - by Raika

  Is there a way to load ascx file by jQuery? UPDATE: thanks to @Emmett and @Yads.i am use the handler and the ajax: jQuery.ajax({ type: "POST", //GET url: "Foo.ashx", data: '{}', contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (response) { jQuery('#controlload').append(response.d); // or response }, error: function () { jQuery('#controlload').append('error'); } }); but i,m just getting an error. my ajax is wrong? Another Update : i am using error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { jQuery('#controlload').append(thrownError); } and this what i get : Invalid JSON: Test =(this test is label inside my ascx) and my ascx file after Error!!! Another Update : my ascx file is somthing like this: <asp:DropDownList ID="ddl" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true"> <asp:ListItem>1</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem>2</asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server">Test</asp:Label> but when I call ajax i get this error in asp: :( Control 'ctl00_ddl' of type 'DropDownList' must be placed inside a form tag with runat=server.

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• Cant install .NET application in Clients PC

  - by Niraj Doshi

  Hello all, My client's PC runs Windows 7 Ultimate with .netframework 4 client profile. I am unable to install my application developed in VS2008. I tried uninstalling .NET Framework 4 From his PC and running the Clean up tool provided by Microsoft. But still I am unable to install it successfully. It provides Error 1001. I tried running the program as administrator. I also tried to Turn on .net 3.5 feature from add or remove program. Thanks in advance. :) Edit: The error what i get is shown here. Furthermore, I have confirmed that it is a 32bit processor and i run x86 release version of setup The application is developed in a Windows 7 OS with .NET Framework 3.5 I have installed this application in 7 PCs which have .NET 3.5 installed in them and having OS Windows XP,Vista and Windows 7; and all are working fine. In clients PC, when I try to install .NET 3.5 again, the installer starts but then it disappears suddenly without doing anything I have tried turning on .NET 3.5 framework feature from control panel Program and Features. I have tried running the program as Administrator I have tried setting the application setup in Windows XP and Vista compatible mode. But still the issue persists. Thanks :)

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• Design issue when having classes implement different interfaces to restrict client actions

  - by devoured elysium

  Let's say I'm defining a game class that implements two different views: interface IPlayerView { void play(); } interface IDealerView { void deal(); } The view that a game sees when playing the game, and a view that the dealer sees when dealing the game (this is, a player can't make dealer actions and a dealer can't make player actions). The game definition is as following: class Game : IPlayerView, IDealerView { void play() { ... } void deal() { ... } } Now assume I want to make it possible for the players to play the game, but not to deal it. My original idea was that instead of having public Game GetGame() { ... } I'd have something like public IPlayerView GetGame() { ... } But after some tests I realized that if I later try this code, it works: IDealerView dealerView = (IDealerView)GameClass.GetGame(); this works as lets the user act as the dealer. Am I worrying to much? How do you usually deal with this patterns? I could instead make two different classes, maybe a "main" class, the dealer class, that would act as factory of player classes. That way I could control exactly what I would like to pass on the the public. On the other hand, that turns everything a bit more complex than with this original design. Thanks

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• Blocking HTML and Javascript from being displayed on my site

  - by Tim Powell

  I am working on this new social networking site. One of it's various functions is posting. You can post to Facebook and my site, or Twitter and my site. That being said, I couldn't help but try and post HTML as I was testing sql injection. When I did, I noticed that there where ways to manipulate the site to, for instance, using a element to completely screw up the CSS design, or redirect a user to another site using javascript. That being said, I want to make my site a safe environment for my users... not a site that is used to distribute computer viruses, porn, and other things that might make someone tend to stay off of my site. When I searched this topic, I found ways to "strip" the HTML out of the $post variable before submitting it to the database. However, I would just like to make it so you can post any text, including HTML and Javascript, without the browser interpreting it as "run this..." code: I want to display it as plane text. I've seen it on Facebook, and when I looked at it the source code of a post, it showed <, /, and as regular text. I tried "dissecting" Facebook's source code, but found nothing. I have tried using tags such as <pre> and <code>, but because of the lack of ability to style and control them, I gave up and went back to just allowing HTML. Please, anyone who knows how to do this, please help me out. Thanks in advance, TP

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• Parallel doseq for Clojure

  - by andrew cooke

  I haven't used multithreading in Clojure at all so am unsure where to start. I have a doseq whose body can run in parallel. What I'd like is for there always to be 3 threads running (leaving 1 core free) that evaluate the body in parallel until the range is exhausted. There's no shared state, nothing complicated - the equivalent of Python's multiprocessing would be just fine. So something like: (dopar 3 [i (range 100)] ; repeated 100 times in 3 parallel threads... ...) Where should I start looking? Is there a command for this? A standard package? A good reference? So far I have found pmap, and could use that (how do I restrict to 3 at a time? looks like it uses 32 at a time - no, source says 2 + number of processors), but it seems like this is a basic primitive that should already exist somewhere. clarification: I really would like to control the number of threads. I have processes that are long-running and use a fair amount of memory, so creating a large number and hoping things work out OK isn't a good approach (example which uses a significant chunk available mem). update: Starting to write a macro that does this, and I need a semaphore (or a mutex, or an atom i can wait on). Do semaphores exist in Clojure? Or should I use a ThreadPoolExecutor? It seems odd to have to pull so much in from Java - I thought parallel programming in Clojure was supposed to be easy... Maybe I am thinking about this completely the wrong way? Hmmm. Agents?

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• javascript style.visibility doesn't seem to work....

  - by Pandiya Chendur

  In my aspx page i have a tr which is set visible="false" by default... But on a selected index of a dropdown i make it visible="true" ..... On the form submit i am validating the control within the tr but couldn't find whether the tr is visinle or not using javascript... My aspx: <tr id="MeasurementTr" runat="server" visible="false"> <td> &nbsp;</td> <td class="table_label"> Measurement</td> <td> &nbsp;</td> <td> <asp:DropDownList ID="DlMeasurement" runat="server"> </asp:DropDownList> </td> <td> &nbsp;</td> </tr> and my javascript, alert(document.getElementById("ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_MeasurementTr").style.visibility); if (document.getElementById("ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_MeasurementTr").style.visibility=="visible"){ if (document.getElementById("ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_DlMeasurement").selectedIndex == 0) { document.getElementById("ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_ErrorMsg").innerHTML = "Please Select Your Measurement"; document.getElementById("ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_DlMeasurement").focus(); return false; } } But my alert shows nothing... It didnt show null or undefined...

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• How can multiple variables be passed to a function cleanly in C?

  - by aquanar

  I am working on an embedded system that has different output capabilities (digital out, serial, analog, etc). I am trying to figure out a clean way to pass many of the variables that will control those functions. I don't need to pass ALL of them too often, but I was hoping to have a function that would read the input data (in this case from a TCP network), and then parse the data (IE, the 3rd byte contains the states of 8 of the digital outputs (according to which bit in that byte is high or low)), and put that into a variable where I can then use elsewhere in the program. I wanted that function to be separate from the main() function, but to do so would require passing pointers to some 20 or so variables that it would be writing to. I know I could make the variables global, but I am trying to make it easier to debug by making it obvious when a function is allowed to edit that variable, by passing it to the function. My best idea was a struct, and just pass a pointer to it, but wasn't sure if there was a more efficient way, especially since there is only really 1 function that would need to access all of them at once, while most others only require parts of the information that will be stored in this bunch of state variables. So anyway, is there a clean way to send many variables between functions at once that need to be edited?

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• Help me find article on Multi-threading and Event Handling in Java

  - by JDR

  I once read an article on how to properly write event handlers for multi-threading in Java, but I can't for the life of me find it anymore. It described the pitfalls and potentials for deadlocks that can occur when firing events (not Swing events mind you, but general events like model update notifications). To clarify, the situation would be as such: // let's say this is code from an MVC model somewhere public void setSomeProperty(String myProperty){ if(!this.myProperty.equals(myProperty)){ this.myProperty = myProperty; fireMyPropertyChangedEvent(...); } } The article described how passing control to arbitrary external listener code was a potential cause for deadlock. I now find myself in a situation where I need to fire such events in a multithreaded environment and I would very much like to read the article again to see what it has to say before I continue. Does anyone know the article I'm referring to? I believe it came as a (fairly short) PDF. It started off with an initial naive implementation and incrementally pointed out flaws and improved upon it. It ended with a sort of final proper-way-to-fire-multithreaded-events. I've searched endlessly in my browse history and on google, but all I could find were endless amounts topics on Swing event dispatch threads. Thank you.

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• How can I parse_url in PHP when there is a URL in a string variable?

  - by Eric O

  I am admittedly a PHP newbie, so I need some help. I am creating a self-designed affiliate program for my site and have the option for an affiliate to add a SubID to their link for tracking. Without having control over what is entered, I have been testing different scenarios and found a bug when a full URL is entered (i.e. "http://example.com"). In my PHP I can grab the variable from the string no problem. My problem comes from when I get the referring URL and parse it (since I need to parse the referring URL to get the host mane for other uses). Code below: $refURL = getenv("HTTP_REFERER"); $parseRefURL = parse_url($refURL); WORKS when incoming link is (for example): http://example.com/?ref=REFERRER'S-ID&sid=www.test.com ERROR when incoming link is (notice the addition of "http://" after "sid="): http://example.com/?ref=REFERRER'S-ID&sid=http://www.test.com Here is the warning message: Warning: parse_url(/?ref=REFERRER'S-ID&sid=http://www.test.com) [function.parse-url]: Unable to parse url in /home4/'directory'/public_html/hosterdoodle/header.php on line 28 Any ideas on how to keep the parse-url function from being thrown off when someone may decide to place a URL in a variable? (I actually tested this problem down to the point that it will throw the error with as little as ":/" in the variable)

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• Automatically converting an A* into a B*

  - by Xavier Nodet

  Hi, Suppose I'm given a class A. I would like to wrap pointers to it into a small class B, some kind of smart pointer, with the constraint that a B* is automatically converted to an A* so that I don't need to rewrite the code that already uses A*. I would therefore want to modify B so that the following compiles... struct A { void foo() {} }; template <class K> struct B { B(K* k) : _k(k) {} //operator K*() {return _k;} //K* operator->() {return _k;} private: K* _k; }; void doSomething(A*) {} void test() { A a; A* pointer_to_a (&a); B<A> b (pointer_to_a); //b->foo(); // I don't need those two... //doSomething(b); B<A>* pointer_to_b (&b); pointer_to_b->foo(); // 'foo' : is not a member of 'B<K>' doSomething(pointer_to_b); // 'doSomething' : cannot convert parameter 1 from 'B<K> *' to 'A *' } Note that B inheriting from A is not an option (instances of A are created in factories out of my control)... Is it possible? Thanks.

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• Use jquery ':contains' to find specific javascript within a span

  - by Rob

  This is my first time here, I hope that this is clear. So i will have code similar to this this. <span class="mediaSource ui-draggable" id="purchsePlay7915504"> <a href="" onclick="return popup_window(this, 'MediaView', 850, 680)" class="control" enter code hereid="GenericLink"></a> <img id="Any_71" alt="Media Source" src="images/9672web.gif" class="mediaStationIcons mediaWin"/> <img class="player" alt="Media Source" src="images/playmedia.gif" style="display: none;"/> </span> The href portion is generated on the backend, and I have no access to it. I need to modify some existing jquery code to do something based on what the 'onclick' function is(there are different ones e.g. popup_window1,popup_window2 etc.) . I tried something like this: $('.segmentLeft span.mediaSource').click(function(){ if ($('span:contains("popup_window")').length > 0) { do something } }); but it does not seem to work.

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• Modifying resource contents of a running executable

  - by mrwoik

  All, I store my application settings in a resource. When my program first loads, I read the specified resource using WinAPI. I then parse the retrieved byte data. This works flawlessly for me. Now let's say that a user alters a setting in my application. He/she checks a checkbox control. I would like to save the updated setting to my resource. However, it seems that my call to UpdateResource will not work while my application is running. I can't modify my resource data even though it is the same size. First, is it possible to modify a running image's resource data? Second, if that is not possible, what alternatives do I have for storing settings internally within my application? NOTE: I must have the settings within my running executable. They cannot be on the harddrive or in the registry. Please don't even suggest that as an option.

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• Problem Binding to a Brush Property in WPF

  - by Krisc

  Working in WPF, writing a custom user control. I am trying to change the background property of the Border element when I change the value of a property of the class. Right now I am working on simply binding it to a DP, though if there is a better way I am open to suggestions. Here is the XAML for the UserControl <UserControl x:Class="MyProject.MyControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:js="clr-namespace:MyProject" mc:Ignorable="d" x:Name="MyControlRootLayout" Background="Transparent" d:DesignHeight="300" d:DesignWidth="300" Cursor="Hand"> <Border x:Name="RootBorder" Background="{Binding Path=CoreBackground, ElementName=MyControlRootLayout}" > </Border> </UserControl> And the code... public partial class MyControl : UserControl { public static DependencyProperty IsSelectedProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsSelected", typeof(bool), typeof(MyControl)); public static DependencyProperty CoreBackgroundProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("CoreBackground", typeof(Brush), typeof(MyControl)); public MyControl() { CoreBackground = new SolidColorBrush(Color.FromArgb(0, 255, 245, 104)); InitializeComponent(); Margin = new Thickness(5); } public Brush CoreBackground { get { return (Brush)GetValue(CoreBackgroundProperty); } set { SetValue(CoreBackgroundProperty, value); } } public bool IsSelected { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsSelectedProperty); } private set { SetValue(IsSelectedProperty, value); } } } Instead, the background comes out as transparent.

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• forcing a download using PHP / jQuery

  - by Dirty-flow

  I know there are already many questions about forcing a download with PHP, but I can't find what I'm doing wrong and what should I do. I'm having an list with filenames, and I want to download one of them by clicking a button. My jQuery: $(".MappeDownload").on("click",function(e){ e.stopPropagation(); fileId=$(this).val() $.post("ajax/DownloadFile.php",{ id : fileId}) }) and on the server side I have a table with the file names and the file path. $sql = "SELECT vUploadPfad, vUploadOriginname FROM tabUpload WHERE zUploadId='$_POST[id]'"; $result = mysql_query($sql) or die(""); $file = mysql_fetch_array($result); $localfile = $file["vUploadPfad"]; $name=$file["vUploadOriginname"]; $fp = fopen($localfile, 'rb'); header("Cache-Control: "); header("Pragma: "); header("Content-Type: application/octet-stream"); header("Content-Length: " . filesize($localfile)); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename='".$name."';"); header("Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary\n"); fpassthru($fp); exit; The AJAX request is successful, I'm getting the right header(filesize, filename etc...) but the download are not starting.

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• page variable in a repeater

  - by carrot_programmer_3

  Hi I'm having a bit of an issue with a asp.net repeater I'm building a categories carousel with the dynamic categories being output by a repeater. Each item is a LinkButton control that passes an argument of the category id to the onItemClick handler. a page variable is set by this handler to track what the selected category id is.... public String SelectedID { get { object o = this.ViewState["_SelectedID"]; if (o == null) return "-1"; else return (String)o; } set { this.ViewState["_SelectedID"] = value; } } problem is that i cant seem to read this value while iterating through the repeater as follows... <asp:Repeater ID="categoriesCarouselRepeater" runat="server" onitemcommand="categoriesCarouselRepeater_ItemCommand"> <ItemTemplate> <%#Convert.ToInt32(Eval("CategoryID")) == Convert.ToInt32(SelectedID) ? "<div class=\"selectedcategory\">":"<div>"%> <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" CommandName="select_category" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("CategoryID")%>' runat="server"><img src="<%#Eval("imageSource")%>" alt="category" /><br /> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> calling <%=SelectedID%> in the item template works but when i try the following expression the value of SelectedID returns empty.. <%#Convert.ToInt32(Eval("CategoryID")) == Convert.ToInt32(SelectedID) ? "match" : "not a match"%> the value is being set as follows... protected void categoriesCarouselRepeater_ItemCommand(object source, RepeaterCommandEventArgs e) { SelectedID = e.CommandArgument); } Any ideas whats wrong here?

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• Elegant solution to retrieve custom date and time?

  - by kefs

  I am currently using a date and time picker to retrieve a user-submitted date and time, and then I set a control's text to the date and time selected. I am using the following code: new DatePickerDialog(newlog3.this, d, calDT.get(Calendar.YEAR), calDT.get(Calendar.MONTH), calDT.get(Calendar.DAY_OF_MONTH)).show(); new TimePickerDialog(newlog3.this, t, calDT.get(Calendar.HOUR_OF_DAY), calDT.get(Calendar.MINUTE), true).show(); optCustom.setText(fmtDT.format(calDT.getTime())); Now, while the above code block does bring up the date and time widgets and sets the text, the code block is being executed in full before the user can select the date.. ie: It brings up the date box first, then the time box over that, and then updates the text, all without any user interaction. I would like the date widget to wait to execute the time selector until the date selection is done, and i would like the settext to execute only after the time widget is done. How is this possible? Or is there is a more elegant solution that is escaping me? Edit: This is the code for DatePickerDialog/TimePickerDialog which is located within the class: DatePickerDialog.OnDateSetListener d=new DatePickerDialog.OnDateSetListener() { public void onDateSet(DatePicker view, int year, int monthOfYear, int dayOfMonth) { calDT.set(Calendar.YEAR, year); calDT.set(Calendar.MONTH, monthOfYear); calDT.set(Calendar.DAY_OF_MONTH, dayOfMonth); //updateLabel(); } }; TimePickerDialog.OnTimeSetListener t=new TimePickerDialog.OnTimeSetListener() { public void onTimeSet(TimePicker view, int hourOfDay, int minute) { calDT.set(Calendar.HOUR_OF_DAY, hourOfDay); calDT.set(Calendar.MINUTE, minute); //updateLabel(); } }; Thanks in advance

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• How to use .htaccess to redirect to an url that includes a query parameter

  - by wbervoets

  Hi guys, I've been struggling with a redirect where the final URL includes a query parameter that is an URL. It seems htaccess is escaping some characters. Here is my htaccess: Code: RewriteRule ^mypath http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http://otherserver2.com/&param2=1 [L,R=302] First, if I put Code: http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http://otherserver2.com/&param2=1 in my browser address bar, www.otherserver.com will do its thing and then redirect to otherserver2 (including the &param2=1 which is a parameter of that URL and not of the URL otherserver.com) That's the behaviour I need :-) Now when I try to use the htaccess redirect from my site: http://mysite/mypath; the behaviour is not the same then putting the same URL in the browser address bar; it now tries to redirect to http ://otherserver2.com/ (no param2=1 anymore). (ps: otherserver1 and otherserver2 are not under my control.) I've tried escaping the redirectto parameter in my htaccess, like below, but it didn't work either: Code: http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http%3a%2f%otherserver2.com%2f%3fparam2%3d1 Because then my browser tries to go to httpotherserver.com (all special characters are gone) In the end I would like to see http ://mysite/mypath to show the contents of Code: http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http://otherserver2.com/&param2=1 (preferred solution) or do a redirect to that URL. I hope my message is not to confusing, I hope someone can help me out; as I've already spent hours on this :-)

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• Same Origin issue with web service call

  - by Wjdavis5

  My web server runs at http://mypc.com:80 ` Given the following snip: $(window).load(function () { var myURL = "http://mypc.com:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i"; $.getJSON(myURL) .done(function(data) {alert(data);}); }); I am running to this error: XMLHttpRequest cannot load http://mypc.com:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i. Origin http://mypc.com is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Origin. I understand why (I think) b/c my webservice runs at port 8000 which is different from what IIS is running on (port 80). I thought I could get around by using jsonp (according to the jQuery documentation here So I copied the example of making a call to the flickr api, but it isnt working. Any thoughts/sugggestions? UPDATE Ok so my request is being made now: var myURL = "http://192.168.1.104:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i?jsoncallback=?"; $.ajax({ url :myURL, dataType: "jsonp", success: function(data) {a(data)} , error: function(){alert("err");}, }); But I am continually hitting the error function, here is what's being returned: [1.4,54.43,49.39,93.23] Now I'm assuming this is b/c the response text doesnt contain any type of callback here is the part of the interface I'm calling: [WebInvoke(Method = "GET", RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, UriTemplate = "HighChart_ColumnChart/{id}?callback={cb}")] List<double> HighChart_ColumnChart(string id,string cb); Here is the actual function being called: public List<double> HighChart_ColumnChart(string id,string cb) { var z = new List<double>(); z.Add(1.4); z.Add(54.43); z.Add(49.39); z.Add(93.23); return z; } when I debug, the CB param is something like : "jQuery19108121746340766549_1372630643878". How do I modify the code to wrap it correctly? Thanks for the help thus far!

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