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• What would cause objectForKey: to return null with a valid string in place?

  - by theMikeSwan

  I am having an issue with NSDictionary returning null for an NSString even though the string in in the dictionary. Here is the code: - (void)sourceDidChange:(NSNotification *)aNote { NSDictionary *aDict = [aNote userInfo]; DLog(@"%@", aDict); NSString *newSourceString = [aDict objectForKey:@"newSource"]; DLog(@"%@", newSourceString); newSourceString = [newSourceString stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@" " withString:@""]; DLog(@"%@", newSourceString); NSString *inspectorString = [newSourceString stringByAppendingString:@"InspectorController"]; DLog(@"%@", inspectorString); newSourceString = [newSourceString stringByAppendingString:@"ViewController"]; DLog(@"%@", newSourceString); } And I get the following log statements: 2010-04-17 23:50:13.913 CoreDataUISandbox[13417:a0f] -[RightViewController sourceDidChange:] newSource = "Second View"; 2010-04-17 23:50:13.914 CoreDataUISandbox[13417:a0f] -[RightViewController sourceDidChange:] (null) 2010-04-17 23:50:13.916 CoreDataUISandbox[13417:a0f] -[RightViewController sourceDidChange:] (null) 2010-04-17 23:50:13.917 CoreDataUISandbox[13417:a0f] -[RightViewController sourceDidChange:] (null) 2010-04-17 23:50:13.917 CoreDataUISandbox[13417:a0f] -[RightViewController sourceDidChange:] (null) As you can see the string is in the dictionary under the key newSource, yet when I call objectForKey: I get null. I have even tried the fallback option of cleaning the project. Has anyone ever run into this, or have I just forgotten something really basic?

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• C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

  - by zinking

  there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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• Auto increment with a Unit Of Work

  - by Derick

  Context I'm building a persistence layer to abstract different types of databases that I'll be needing. On the relational part I have mySQL, Oracle and PostgreSQL. Let's take the following simplified MySQL tables: CREATE TABLE Contact ( ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(30) ); CREATE TABLE Address ( ID varchar(15), CONTACT_ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(50) ); I use code to generate system specific alpha numeric unique ID's fitting 15 chars in this case. Thus, if I insert a Contact record with it's Addresses I have my generated Contact.ID and Address.CONTACT_IDs before committing. I've created a Unit of Work (amongst others) as per Martin Fowler's patterns to add transaction support. I'm using a key based Identity Map in the UoW to track the changed records in memory. It works like a charm for the scenario above, all pretty standard stuff so far. The question scenario comes in when I have a database that is not under my control and the ID fields are auto-increment (or in Oracle sequences). In this case I do not have the db generated Contact.ID beforehand, so when I create my Address I do not have a value for Address.CONTACT_ID. The transaction has not been started on the DB session since all is kept in the Identity Map in memory. Question: What is a good approach to address this? (Avoiding unnecessary db round trips) Some ideas: Retrieve the last ID: I can do a call to the database to retrieve the last Id like: SELECT Auto_increment FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name='Contact'; But this is MySQL specific and probably something similar can be done for the other databases. If do this then would need to do the 1st insert, get the ID and then update the children (Address.CONTACT_IDs) – all in the current transaction context.

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• UTF-8 MySQL and Charset, pls help me understand this once and for all!

  - by FFish

  Can someone explain me when I set everything to UTF-8 I keep getting those damn ??? MySQL Server version: 5.1.44 MySQL charset: UTF-8 Unicode (utf8) I create a new database name: utf8test collation: utf8_general_ci MySQL connection collation: utf8_general_ci My SQL looks like this: SET SQL_MODE="NO_AUTO_VALUE_ON_ZERO"; CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `test_table` ( `test_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `test_text` text NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`test_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8; INSERT INTO `test_table` (`test_id`, `test_text`) VALUES (1, 'hééélo'), (2, 'wööörld'); My PHP / HTML: <?php $db_conn = mysql_connect("localhost", "root", "") or die("Can't connect to db"); mysql_select_db("utf8test", $db_conn) or die("Can't select db"); // $result = mysql_query("set names 'utf8'"); // this works... why?? $query = "SELECT * FROM test_table"; $result = mysql_query($query); $output = ""; while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $output .= "id: " . $row['test_id'] . " - text: " . $row['test_text'] . "<br />"; } ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html lang="it" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="it"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>UTF-8 test</title> </head> <body> <?php echo $output; ?> </body> </html>

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• Removing "Using temporary; Using filesort" from this MySQL select+join+group by query

  - by claytontstanley

  I have the following query: select t.Chunk as LeftChunk, t.ChunkHash as LeftChunkHash, q.Chunk as RightChunk, q.ChunkHash as RightChunkHash, count(t.ChunkHash) as ChunkCount from chunksubset as t join chunksubset as q on t.ID = q.ID group by LeftChunkHash, RightChunkHash And the following explain table: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 SIMPLE subsets ref PRIMARY,IDIndex,SubsetIndex SubsetIndex 767 const 522014 "Using where; Using temporary; Using filesort" 1 SIMPLE subsets eq_ref PRIMARY,IDIndex,SubsetIndex PRIMARY 771 sotero.subsets.Id,const 1 "Using where; Using index" 1 SIMPLE c ref IDIndex IDIndex 4 sotero.subsets.Id 12 "Using where" 1 SIMPLE c ref IDIndex IDIndex 4 sotero.subsets.Id 12 note the "using temporary; using filesort". When this query is run, I quickly run out of RAM (presumably b/c of the temp table), and then the HDD kicks in, and the query slows to a halt. I thought it might be an index issue, so I started adding a few that sort of made sense: Table Non_unique Key_name Seq_in_index Column_name Collation Cardinality Sub_part Packed Null Index_type Comment Index_comment chunks 0 PRIMARY 1 ChunkId A 17796190 NULL NULL BTREE chunks 1 ChunkHashIndex 1 ChunkHash A 243783 NULL NULL BTREE chunks 1 IDIndex 1 Id A 1483015 NULL NULL BTREE chunks 1 ChunkIndex 1 Chunk A 243783 NULL NULL BTREE chunks 1 ChunkTypeIndex 1 ChunkType A 2 NULL NULL BTREE chunks 1 chunkHashByChunkIDIndex 1 ChunkHash A 243783 NULL NULL BTREE chunks 1 chunkHashByChunkIDIndex 2 ChunkId A 17796190 NULL NULL BTREE chunks 1 chunkHashByChunkTypeIndex 1 ChunkHash A 243783 NULL NULL BTREE chunks 1 chunkHashByChunkTypeIndex 2 ChunkType A 261708 NULL NULL BTREE chunks 1 chunkHashByIDIndex 1 ChunkHash A 243783 NULL NULL BTREE chunks 1 chunkHashByIDIndex 2 Id A 17796190 NULL NULL BTREE But still using the temporary table. The db engine is MyISAM. How can I get rid of the using temporary; using filesort in this query? Just changing to InnoDB w/o explaining the underlying cause is not a particularly satisfying answer. Besides, if the solution is to just add the proper index, then that's much easier than migrating to another db engine.

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• How can my facebook application post message to a wall?

  - by Thomas Dekiere

  i already found out how to post something to a wall with the graph api on behalf of the facebook user. But now i want to post something in the name of my application. Here is how i'm trying to do this: protected void btn_submit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Dictionary<string, string> data = new Dictionary<string, string>(); data.Add("message", "Testing"); // i'll add more data later here (picture, link, ...) data.Add("access_token", FbGraphApi.getAppToken()); FbGraphApi.postOnWall(ConfigSettings.getFbPageId(), data); } FbGraphApi.getAppToken() // ... private static string graphUrl = "https://graph.facebook.com"; //... public static string getAppToken() { MyWebRequest req = new MyWebRequest(graphUrl + "/" + "oauth/access_token?type=client_cred&client_id=" + ConfigSettings.getAppID() + "&client_secret=" + ConfigSettings.getAppSecret(), "GET"); return req.GetResponse().Split('=')[1]; } FbGraphApi.postOnWall() public static void postOnWall(string id, Dictionary<string,string> args) { call(id, "feed", args); } FbGraphApi.call() private static void call(string id, string method, Dictionary<string,string> args ) { string data = ""; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, string> arg in args) { data += arg.Key + "=" + arg.Value + "&"; } MyWebRequest req = new MyWebRequest(graphUrl +"/" + id + "/" + method, "POST", data.Substring(0, data.Length - 1)); req.GetResponse(); // here i get: "The remote server returned an error: (403) Forbidden." } Does anyone see where this i going wrong? I'm really stuck on this. Thanks!

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• Create new or update existing entity at one go with JPA

  - by Alex R

  A have a JPA entity that has timestamp field and is distinguished by a complex identifier field. What I need is to update timestamp in an entity that has already been stored, otherwise create and store new entity with the current timestamp. As it turns out the task is not as simple as it seems from the first sight. The problem is that in concurrent environment I get nasty "Unique index or primary key violation" exception. Here's my code: // Load existing entity, if any. Entity e = entityManager.find(Entity.class, id); if (e == null) { // Could not find entity with the specified id in the database, so create new one. e = entityManager.merge(new Entity(id)); } // Set current time... e.setTimestamp(new Date()); // ...and finally save entity. entityManager.flush(); Please note that in this example entity identifier is not generated on insert, it is known in advance. When two or more of threads run this block of code in parallel, they may simultaneously get null from entityManager.find(Entity.class, id) method call, so they will attempt to save two or more entities at the same time, with the same identifier resulting in error. I think that there are few solutions to the problem. Sure I could synchronize this code block with a global lock to prevent concurrent access to the database, but would it be the most efficient way? Some databases support very handy MERGE statement that updates existing or creates new row if none exists. But I doubt that OpenJPA (JPA implementation of my choice) supports it. Event if JPA does not support SQL MERGE, I can always fall back to plain old JDBC and do whatever I want with the database. But I don't want to leave comfortable API and mess with hairy JDBC+SQL combination. There is a magic trick to fix it using standard JPA API only, but I don't know it yet. Please help.

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• c# Sending emails with authentication. standard approach not working

  - by Ready Cent

  I am trying to send an email using the following very standard code. However, I get the error that follow... MailMessage message = new MailMessage(); message.Sender = new MailAddress("[email protected]"); message.To.Add("[email protected]"); message.Subject = "test subject"; message.Body = "test body"; SmtpClient client = new SmtpClient(); client.Host = "mail.myhost.com"; //client.Port = 587; NetworkCredential cred = new NetworkCredential(); cred.UserName = "[email protected]"; cred.Password = "correct password"; cred.Domain = "mail.myhost.com"; client.Credentials = cred; client.UseDefaultCredentials = false; client.Send(message); Mailbox unavailable. The server response was: No such user here. This recipient email address definitely works. To make this account work I had to do some special steps in outlook. Specifically, I had to do change account settings - more settings - outgoing server - my outgoing server requires authentication & use same settings. I am wondering if there is some other strategy. I think the key here is that my host is Server Intellect and I know that some people on here use them so hopefully someone else has been able to get through this. I did talk to support but they said with coding issues I am on my own :o

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• LINQ thinks I need an extra INNER JOIN, but why?

  - by Saurabh Kumar

  I have a LINQ query, which for some reason is generating an extra/duplicatre INNER JOIN. This is causing the query to not return the expected output. If I manually comment that extra JOIN from the generated SQL, then I get seemingly correct output. Can you detect what I might have done i nthis LINQ to have cuased this extra JOIN? Thanks. Here is my approx LINQ var ids = context.Code.Where(predicate); var rs = from r in ids group r by new { r.phonenumbers.person.PersonID} into g let matchcount=g.Select(p => p.phonenumbers.PhoneNum).Distinct().Count() where matchcount ==2 select new { personid = g.Key }; and here is the generated SQL (the duplicate join is [t7]) Declare @p1 VarChar(10)='Home' Declare @p2 VarChar(10)='111' Declare @p3 VarChar(10)='Office' Declare @p4 VarChar(10)='222' Declare @p5 int=2 SELECT [t9].[PersonID] AS [pid] FROM ( SELECT [t3].[PersonID], ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM ( SELECT DISTINCT [t7].[PhoneValue] FROM [dbo].[Person] AS [t4] INNER JOIN [dbo].[PersonPhoneNumber] AS [t5] ON [t5].[PersonID] = [t4].[PersonID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[CodeMaster] AS [t6] ON [t6].[Code] = [t5].[PhoneType] INNER JOIN [dbo].[PersonPhoneNumber] AS [t7] ON [t7].[PersonID] = [t4].[PersonID] WHERE ([t3].[PersonID] = [t4].[PersonID]) AND ([t6].[Enumeration] = @p0) AND ((([t6].[CodeDescription] = @p1) AND ([t5].[PhoneValue] = @p2)) OR (([t6].[CodeDescription] = @p3) AND ([t5].[PhoneValue] = @p4))) ) AS [t8] ) AS [value] FROM ( SELECT [t0].[PersonID] FROM [dbo].[Person] AS [t0] INNER JOIN [dbo].[PersonPhoneNumber] AS [t1] ON [t1].[PersonID] = [t0].[PersonID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[CodeMaster] AS [t2] ON [t2].[Code] = [t1].[PhoneType] WHERE ([t2].[Enumeration] = @p0) AND ((([t2].[CodeDescription] = @p1) AND ([t1].[PhoneValue] = @p2)) OR (([t2].[CodeDescription] = @p3) AND ([t1].[PhoneValue] = @p4))) GROUP BY [t0].[PersonID] ) AS [t3] ) AS [t9] WHERE [t9].[value] = @p5

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• Using lambda expressions and linq

  - by Andy

  So I've just started working with linq as well as using lambda expressions. I've run into a small hiccup while trying to get some data that I want. This method should return a list of all projects that are open or in progress from Jira Here's the code public static List<string> getOpenIssuesListByProject(string _projectName) { JiraSoapServiceService jiraSoapService = new JiraSoapServiceService(); string token = jiraSoapService.login(DEFAULT_UN, DEFAULT_PW); string[] keys = { getProjectKey(_projectName) }; RemoteStatus[] statuses = jiraSoapService.getStatuses(token); var desiredStatuses = statuses.Where(x => x.name == "Open" || x.name == "In Progress") .Select(x=>x.id); RemoteIssue[] AllIssues = jiraSoapService.getIssuesFromTextSearchWithProject(token, keys, "", 99); IEnumerable<RemoteIssue> openIssues = AllIssues.Where(x=> { foreach (var v in desiredStatuses) { if (x.status == v) return true; else return false; } return false; }); return openIssues.Select(x => x.key).ToList(); } Right now this only select issues that are "Open", and seems to skip those that are "In Progress". My question: First, why am I only getting the "Open" Issues, and second is there a better way to do this? The reason I get all the statuses first is that the issue only stores that statuses ID, so I get all the statuses, get the ID's that match "Open" and "In Progress", and then match those ID numbers to the issues status field.

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• Getting the first of a GROUP BY clause in SQL

  - by Michael Bleigh

  I'm trying to implement single-column regionalization for a Rails application and I'm running into some major headaches with a complex SQL need. For this system, a region can be represented by a country code (e.g. us) a continent code that is uppercase (e.g. NA) or it can be NULL indicating the "default" information. I need to group these items by some relevant information such as a foreign key (we'll call it external_id). Given a country and its continent, I need to be able to select only the most specific region available. So if records exist with the country code, I select them. If, not I want a records with the continent code. If not that, I want records with a NULL code so I can receive the default values. So far I've figured that I may be able to use a generated CASE statement to get an arbitrary sort order. Something like this: SELECT *, CASE region WHEN 'us' THEN 1 WHEN 'NA' THEN 2 ELSE 3 END AS region_sort FROM my_table WHERE region IN ('us','NA') OR region IS NULL GROUP BY external_id ORDER BY region_sort The problem is that without an aggregate function the actual data returned by the GROUP BY for a given row seems to be untameable. How can I massage this query to make it return only the first record of the region_sort ordered groups?

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• Multi-Column Join in Hibernate/JPA Annotations

  - by bowsie

  I have two entities which I would like to join through multiple columns. These columns are shared by an @Embeddable object that is shared by both entities. In the example below, Foo can have only one Bar but Bar can have multiple Foos (where AnEmbeddableObject is a unique key for Bar). Here is an example: @Entity @Table(name = "foo") public class Foo { @Id @Column(name = "id") @GeneratedValue(generator = "seqGen") @SequenceGenerator(name = "seqGen", sequenceName = "FOO_ID_SEQ", allocationSize = 1) private Long id; @Embedded private AnEmbeddableObject anEmbeddableObject; @ManyToOne(targetEntity = Bar.class, fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumns( { @JoinColumn(name = "column_1", referencedColumnName = "column_1"), @JoinColumn(name = "column_2", referencedColumnName = "column_2"), @JoinColumn(name = "column_3", referencedColumnName = "column_3"), @JoinColumn(name = "column_4", referencedColumnName = "column_4") }) private Bar bar; // ... rest of class } And the Bar class: @Entity @Table(name = "bar") public class Bar { @Id @Column(name = "id") @GeneratedValue(generator = "seqGen") @SequenceGenerator(name = "seqGen", sequenceName = "BAR_ID_SEQ", allocationSize = 1) private Long id; @Embedded private AnEmbeddableObject anEmbeddableObject; // ... rest of class } Finally the AnEmbeddedObject class: @Embeddable public class AnEmbeddedObject { @Column(name = "column_1") private Long column1; @Column(name = "column_2") private Long column2; @Column(name = "column_3") private Long column3; @Column(name = "column_4") private Long column4; // ... rest of class } Obviously the schema is poorly normalised, it is a restriction that AnEmbeddedObject's fields are repeated in each table. The problem I have is that I receive this error when I try to start up Hibernate: org.hibernate.AnnotationException: referencedColumnNames(column_1, column_2, column_3, column_4) of Foo.bar referencing Bar not mapped to a single property I have tried marking the JoinColumns are not insertable and updatable, but with no luck. Is there a way to express this with Hibernate/JPA annotations? Thank you.

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• Installer for asp.net web application

  - by Thurein

  Hi I am trying to implement a installer which is going to perform following tasks.1. Check and install .net 3.52. check and install SQL server 2008 (standard edition)3. create the databases4. create a virtual directory and deploy published resources5. Deploy SSIS and package for the datawarehousing and to run the SSAS package.Right now I am using wix, to deal with some of the task, its working for me for now, but I just want to know other options and better way to do this (is there any) .Thanks and regardsThurein I am trying to implement an installer, which I m gonna hand it to the end user as a product. Check and install .net 3.5 check and install SQL server 2008 (standard edition) create the databases create a virtual directory and deploy published resources Deploy SSIS and package for the datawarehousing and to run the SSAS package. Right now I am using wix, to deal with some of the task, it works for me, but I am just curious about other options and better ways to do this (is there any) . My main intension is, I would like to distribute my product (asp.net web application) to the end user for a trial, and end user with the limited IT knowledge could install and use that web application with in a group of user. After the end of trial period the user could ask for the activation key for further usages. Thanks Thurein

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• [CODE GENERATION] How to generate DELETE statements in PL/SQL, based on the tables FK relations?

  - by The chicken in the kitchen

  Is it possible via script/tool to generate authomatically many delete statements based on the tables fk relations, using Oracle PL/SQL? In example: I have the table: CHICKEN (CHICKEN_CODE NUMBER) and there are 30 tables with fk references to its CHICKEN_CODE that I need to delete; there are also other 150 tables foreign-key-linked to that 30 tables that I need to delete first. Is there some tool/script PL/SQL that I can run in order to generate all the necessary delete statements based on the FK relations for me? (by the way, I know about cascade delete on the relations, but please pay attention: I CAN'T USE IT IN MY PRODUCTION DATABASE, because it's dangerous!) I'm using Oracle DataBase 10G R2. This is the result I've written, but it is not recursive: This is a view I have previously written, but of course it is not recursive! CREATE OR REPLACE FORCE VIEW RUN ( OWNER_1, CONSTRAINT_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME, VINCOLO ) AS SELECT OWNER_1, CONSTRAINT_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME, '(' || LTRIM ( EXTRACT (XMLAGG (XMLELEMENT ("x", ',' || COLUMN_NAME)), '/x/text()'), ',') || ')' VINCOLO FROM ( SELECT CON1.OWNER OWNER_1, CON1.TABLE_NAME TABLE_NAME_1, CON1.CONSTRAINT_NAME CONSTRAINT_NAME_1, CON1.DELETE_RULE, CON1.STATUS, CON.TABLE_NAME, CON.CONSTRAINT_NAME, COL.POSITION, COL.COLUMN_NAME FROM DBA_CONSTRAINTS CON, DBA_CONS_COLUMNS COL, DBA_CONSTRAINTS CON1 WHERE CON.OWNER = 'TABLE_OWNER' AND CON.TABLE_NAME = 'TABLE_OWNED' AND ( (CON.CONSTRAINT_TYPE = 'P') OR (CON.CONSTRAINT_TYPE = 'U')) AND COL.TABLE_NAME = CON1.TABLE_NAME AND COL.CONSTRAINT_NAME = CON1.CONSTRAINT_NAME --AND CON1.OWNER = CON.OWNER AND CON1.R_CONSTRAINT_NAME = CON.CONSTRAINT_NAME AND CON1.CONSTRAINT_TYPE = 'R' GROUP BY CON1.OWNER, CON1.TABLE_NAME, CON1.CONSTRAINT_NAME, CON1.DELETE_RULE, CON1.STATUS, CON.TABLE_NAME, CON.CONSTRAINT_NAME, COL.POSITION, COL.COLUMN_NAME) GROUP BY OWNER_1, CONSTRAINT_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME_1, TABLE_NAME; ... and it contains the error of using DBA_CONSTRAINTS instead of ALL_CONSTRAINTS...

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• NHibernate mapping with two special cases

  - by brainimus

  I am using NHibernate to map a class to a database table. The Part table has an ID column (primary key) and a ParentPart column (along with a few others). class Part { public virtual long ID{ get; set; } public virtual Part ParentPart { get; set; } } The ParentPart is normally another valid part in the part table but I have two special cases. I have a case where the ParentPart column can be 0 (zero) and another case where it can be -1. Neither of these cases currently represent another valid Part object. I was thinking I could make 2 subclasses of Part (ZeroPart and NegativeOnePart) that would never persist. I want the zero and -1 values to be entered in the column but not persist the entire ZeroPart or NegativeOnePart objects. I am unsure how to map this (I'm using hbm files) or if this even the correct approach. How can I map this so that normal valid parts are persisted but I can also handle the special cases? As an aside: My current hbm file has the Part.ID's unsaved value as zero but I think I can just change this in the mapping to something different and default it in the class.

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• What are the skills a Drupal Developer needs?

  - by hfidgen

  I'm trying to write out a list of key Drupal competencies, mainly so I can confirm what I know, don't know and don't know I don't know. (Thanks D. Rumsfeld for that quote!) I think some of these are really broad, for instance there's quite a difference between making a functional theme and creating a theme with good SEO, load times and so on, but I'm hoping you could assume that a half decent web developer would look after that anyway. Just interested to see what people here feel is also important. Able to install Drupal on a server (pretty obvious). Able to research and install modules to meet project requirements Able to configure all the basic modules and core settings to get a site running Able to create a custom Theme from scratch which validates with good HTML/CSS and also pays attention to usability and accessibility. (Whilst still looking kick-ass). Able to use Hooks in the theme template.php to alter forms, page layout and other core functionality Can make forms from scratch using the API - with validation and posting back to the DB/email Can use Views to create blocks or pages, use php snippets as arguments, etc. Can create custom modules from scratch utilising core hooks and other hooks.

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• Object equality in context of hibernate / webapp

  - by bert

  How do you handle object equality for java objects managed by hibernate? In the 'hibernate in action' book they say that one should favor business keys over surrogate keys. Most of the time, i do not have a business key. Think of addresses mapped to a person. The addresses are keeped in a Set and displayed in a Wicket RefreshingView (with a ReuseIfEquals strategy). I could either use the surrogate id or use all fields in the equals() and hashCode() functions. The problem is that those fields change during the lifetime ob the object. Either because the user entered some data or the id changes due to JPA merge() being called inside the OSIV (Open Session in View) filter. My understanding of the equals() and hashCode() contract is that those should not change during the lifetime of an object. What i have tried so far: equals() based on hashCode() which uses the database id (or super.hashCode() if id is null). Problem: new addresses start with an null id but get an id when attached to a person and this person gets merged() (re-attached) in the osiv-filter. lazy compute the hashcode when hashCode() is first called and make that hashcode @Transitional. Does not work, as merge() returns a new object and the hashcode does not get copied over. What i would need is an ID that gets assigned during object creation I think. What would be my options here? I don't want to introduce some additional persistent property. Is there a way to explicitly tell JPA to assign an ID to an object? Regards

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• Windows Phone 8 Panorama SelectionIndex not changing on swiping through items

  - by Balraj Singh

  I have created Panorama control and binded PanoramaItem from ItemSource. Now when i am changing the selected Panoramaitem by swiping over them the Selected index is always set to -1. I dont know what wrong i am doing while implementation. neither selectionchange event is getting fired. Code: <phone:Panorama Grid.Row="1" Visibility="Visible" x:Name="PnrVwMainNews" ItemsSource="{Binding ParnormaItemsData}" ItemContainerStyle="{StaticResource PanoramaContainerItemStyle}"> <phone:Panorama.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <!-- Panorma Items Template --> <Controls:DynamicContentControl Content="{Binding UsrCntrlDynamic}" /> </DataTemplate> </phone:Panorama.ItemTemplate> </phone:Panorama> PanoramaContainerItemStyle <Style x:Key="PanoramaContainerItemStyle" TargetType="phone:PanoramaItem"> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Stretch" /> <Setter Property="VerticalContentAlignment" Value="Stretch" /> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="phone:PanoramaItem"> <Grid Background="{TemplateBinding Background}" Margin="12,0,0,0"> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="*" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <ContentPresenter Content="{TemplateBinding Content}" HorizontalAlignment="{TemplateBinding HorizontalContentAlignment}" Margin="{TemplateBinding Padding}" Grid.Row="1" VerticalAlignment="{TemplateBinding VerticalContentAlignment}" /> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style>

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• Two part question about submitting bluetooth-enabled apps for the iPhone

  - by Kyle

  I have a couple questions about submitting blue-tooth enabled apps on the iPhone. I want to first say that bluetooth is merely an option in the application. The application does not completely rely on bluetooth as there are many modes the user can go in. First, do they require you to have the "peer-peer" key set in UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities even if bluetooth interface options can be disabled or hidden for non-bluetooth enabled devices? Basically, it's just an OPTION in the game and there are many other modes the player can play.. Does Apple not allow you to do that? I'm just curious, because it seems like something they would do. Adding to that, how do you check for it's functionality at runtime? In essence, how do you check UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities at runtime. I'm aware of checking iPhone device types, so would that be a proper way of going about it? I'm also sort of unaware which devices can run bluetooth gamekit, there doesn't seem to be a proper reference at the SDK site, or I'm unable to find it. Thanks for reading! [edit] I can confirm the existance of somebody rejected for submitting a bluetooth enabled app which didn't work on a iPhone 2G.. Of course, they didn't say if that was the MAIN function of the app, though.

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• VB.Net - Launch app on Windows startup

  - by Queops

  We all now the tricky folders where your application runs when you publish your VB.NET to other people, but I won't give up on the benefits of the system (auto-update, you know). Problem is: Program is supposed to startup, or not, with Windows if the user wishes so. I'm saving program preferences into My.Settings. All fine with that. If you debug it it will save the values between sessions. The problem is after deployment. I installed the program on a testing machine. Application works okay, the settings load, if it's the user launching it by themselfs (using shortcut on desktop for example). Now upon restarting the program does indeed start up as I want it to but the My.Settings don't show up! It's like the config file has been erased. If I close program and re-open by clicking shorcut it loads the settings just fine though. So I wonder what's the problem? This is the code I use to save the registry key: regKey = Registry.CurrentUser.OpenSubKey("SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run", True) regKey.SetValue("ScapeTracker", Chr(34) & Application.ExecutablePath & Chr(34) & " startup") Does what it's supposed to. The startup parameter is needed so the program knows if it's launched on startup on not (to show up on tray and idle there until user decides to use it). So the problem is that I can't use the settings upon restart of Windows, so I'm assuming the VB.Net applications have some extra parameters when launching? How can I solve this?

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• ASP.NET MVC 2 user input to SQL 2008 Database problems

  - by Rob

  After my publish in VS2010 the entire website loads and pulls data from the database perfectly. I can even create new users through the site with the correct key code, given out to who needs access. I have two connection strings in my web.config file The first: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="EveModelContainer" connectionString="metadata=res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.csdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.ssdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.msl;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The second: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****;MultipleActiveResultSets=True" /> The first one is the one that is needed to post data with the main application, EveModelContainer. Everything else is pulled using the standard ApplicationServices connection. Do you see anything wrong with my connectionstring? I'm at a complete loss here. The site works perfectly on my friends server and not on mine... Could it be a provider issue? And if I go to iis 7's manager console, and click .net users I get a pop up message saying the custom provider isn't a trusted provider do I want to allow it to run at a higher trust level. I'm at the point where I think its either my string or this trusted provider error... but I have no clue how to add to the trusted provider list... Thank you in advance!!!

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• PHP Sessions and Passing Session ID

  - by Jason McCreary

  I have an API where I am passing the session id back and forth between calls. I set up the session like so: // start API session session_name('apikey'); session_id($data['apikey']); // required to link session session_start(); Although I named my session and am passing the session id via GET and POST using the name, PHP does not automatically resume that session. It always creates a new one unless I set the explicitly set the session id. I found some old user comments on www.php.net that said unless the session id is the first parameter PHP won't set it automatically. This seems odd, but even when I call tried it still didn't work: rest_services.php?apikey=sdr6d3subaofcav53cpf71j4v3&q=testing I have used PHP for years, but am a little confused on why I needed to explicitly set the session with session_id() when I am naming the session and passing it's key accordingly. UPDATE It seems I wasn't clear. My question is why is setting the session ID with session_id() required when I am passing the id, using the session name apikey, via $_GET or $_POST. Theoretically this is no different than PHP's SID when cookies are disabled. But for me it doesn't work unless I explicitly set the session ID. Why?

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• What is the best way to handle the Connections to MySql from c#

  - by srk

  I am working on a c# application which connects to MySql server. There are about 20 functions which will connect to database. This application will be deployed in 200 over machines. I am using the below code to connect to my database which is identical for all the functions. The problem is, i can some connections were not closed and still alive when deployed in 200 over machines. Connection String : <add key="Con_Admin" value="server=test-dbserver; database=test_admindb; uid=admin; password=1Password; Use Procedure Bodies=false;" /> Declaration of the connection string Globally in application [Global.cs] : public static MySqlConnection myConn_Instructor = new MySqlConnection(ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["Con_Admin"]); Function to query database : public static DataSet CheckLogin_Instructor(string UserName, string Password) { DataSet dsValue = new DataSet(); //MySqlConnection myConn = new MySqlConnection(ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["Con_Admin"]); try { string Query = "SELECT accounts.str_nric AS Nric, accounts.str_password AS `Password`," + " FROM accounts " + " WHERE accounts.str_nric = '" + UserName + "' AND accounts.str_password = '" + Password + "\'"; MySqlCommand cmd = new MySqlCommand(Query, Global.myConn_Instructor); MySqlDataAdapter da = new MySqlDataAdapter(); if (Global.myConn_Instructor.State == ConnectionState.Closed) { Global.myConn_Instructor.Open(); } cmd.ExecuteScalar(); da.SelectCommand = cmd; da.Fill(dsValue); Global.myConn_Instructor.Close(); } catch (Exception ex) { Global.myConn_Instructor.Close(); ExceptionHandler.writeToLogFile(System.Environment.NewLine + "Target : " + ex.TargetSite.ToString() + System.Environment.NewLine + "Message : " + ex.Message.ToString() + System.Environment.NewLine + "Stack : " + ex.StackTrace.ToString()); } return dsValue; }

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• Calculating and saving space in Postgresql

  - by punkish

  I have a table in Pg like so CREATE TABLE t ( a BIGSERIAL NOT NULL, -- 8 b b SMALLINT, -- 2 b c SMALLINT, -- 2 b d REAL, -- 4 b e REAL, -- 4 b f REAL, -- 4 b g INTEGER, -- 4 b h REAL, -- 4 b i REAL, -- 4 b j SMALLINT, -- 2 b k INTEGER, -- 4 b l INTEGER, -- 4 b m REAL, -- 4 b CONSTRAINT a_pkey PRIMARY KEY (a) ) The above adds up to 50 bytes per row. My experience is that I need another 40% to 50% for system overhead, without even any user-created indexes to the above. So, about 75 bytes per row. I will have many, many rows in the table, potentially upward of 145 billion rows, so the table is going to be pushing 13-14 Terabytes. What tricks, if any, could I use to compact this table? My possible ideas below -- Convert the REAL values to INTEGERs. If they can stored as SMALLINT, that is a saving of 2 bytes per field. Convert the columns b .. m into an array. I don't need to search on those columns, but I do need to be able to return one column's value at a time. So, if I need column g, I could do something like SELECT a, arr[5] FROM t; Would I save space with the array option? Would there be a speed penalty? Any other ideas?

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• Session variables not getting set but only in Internet Explorer and not on all machines

  - by gaoshan88

  Logging into a site I'm working on functions as expected on my local machine but fails on the remote server but ONLY in Internet Explorer. The kicker is that it works in IE locally, just not on the remote machine. What in the world could cause this? I have stepped through the code on the remote machine and can see the entered login values being checked in the database, they are found and then a login function is called. This sets two $_SESSION variables and redirects to the main admin page. However, in IE only (and not when run on local machine... this is key) the $_SESSION variables are not present by the time you get to the main admin page. var_dump($_SESSION) gives me what I expect on every browser when I am running this in my local environment and in every browser except IE 6, 7 and 8 when run on the remote server (where I get a null value as if nothing has been set for $_SESSION). This really has me stumped so any advice is appreciated. For an example... in IE, run locally, var_dump gives me: array 'Username' => string 'theusername' length=11 'UserID' => string 'somevalue' length=9 Run on the remote server (IE only... works fine in other browsers) var_dump gives me: array(0){} Code: $User = GetUser($Username, $Password); if ($User->UserID <> "") { // this works so we call Login()... Login($User); // this also works and gives expected results. on to redirect... header("Location: index.php"); // a var_dump at index.php shows that there is no session data at all in IE, remotely. } else { header("Location: login.php"); } function Login($data) { $_SESSION['Username'] = $data->Username; $_SESSION['UserID'] = $data->UserID; // a var dump here gives the expected data in every browser }

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